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QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. You are using the Transform palette to scale a selected object. You notice the warning icon shown in the exhibit, at the bottom of the palette. What does this icon indicate will happen when you attempt to scale the object?

A. Only the object will be transformed.
B. Only the pattern of the object will be transformed.
C. Only the object and its strokes and effects will be transformed.
D. Both the object and the pattern of the object will be transformed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You want to assign an identical set of stroke, fill, and effects attributes to objects as you create them.
Which method should you choose?
A. Fill and Stroke
B. Filter > Stylize
C. Graphic Styles
D. Effects > Stylize

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33
You create an extruded object by choosing 3D > Extrude & Bevel. Which should you choose to make modifications to the 3D effects?
A. Window > Attributes
B. Window > Appearance
C. Effect > 3D > Extrude & Bevel
D. Object > Transform > Transform Again

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Click the Exhibit button. Which shape mode in the Pathfinder palette was applied to all the objects in Exhibit A to create the image in Exhibit B?

A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Click the Exhibit button. Image A in the exhibit has no transparency applied. Which statement about Image B is true?

A. An opacity mask was applied.
B. Isolate blending was turned on.
C. The objects were grouped first, then transparency was applied.
D. The objects were selected individually and transparency was applied to each.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which tool allows you to select objects that have the same stroke weight?
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand
C. Selection tool
D. Direct selection tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
You create an object using the Symbol Sprayer tool and change the color of several of the symbols within the object. What should you use to change a symbol back to the original color value?
A. Symbol Styler tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
B. Symbol Shifter tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
C. Symbol Stainer tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. Symbol Screener tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
In which palette do you find the option to align the stroke of your closed path to the outside?
A. Align palette
B. Stroke palette
C. Attributes palette
D. Appearance palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
You are using the Paintbrush tool to create paths with an Art brush applied to them. Every time you drag the Paintbrush tool over an existing selected path, the path shape changes.
You want to be able to create a new path instead of changing an existing path. What should you do?
A. set Fidelity to zero
B. set Smoothness to zero
C. turn off Edit Selected Paths
D. turn on Fill New Brush Strokes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Click the Exhibit button. Which method allows you to create the graphic shown in the exhibit as a single object?

A. Merge
B. Add New Stroke
C. Compound Path
D. Add to Shape Area

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is required for you to preview the effect of a filter on an object in the Filter Gallery?
A. The object must be a bitmap object.
B. The object must be in a CMYK or LAB color mode document.
C. The object can be either an expanded vector object or a bitmap object.
D. The object can be either an expanded vector object or a linked bitmap object.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
You draw several overlapping paths. You now want to convert all of them to a Live Paint group. What should you do?
A. click on each individual object with the Live Paintbucket tool
B. click on each individual object with the Live Paint Selection tool
C. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paintbucket tool
D. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paint Selection tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
How should you create a clipping mask by using the Layers palette?
A. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
B. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the bottom, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
C. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select each separate object (not the layer) and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
D. arrange the objects to be clipped on one layer and the clipping path on a separate layer above, select both layers and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
What should you do within the Drop Shadow dialog box to display the available spot colors in a file?
A. select Color from the Mode field pop-up menu
B. select Overlay from the Mode field pop-up menu
C. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click in the Color spectrum
D. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click the Color Swatches button

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You apply an Outer Glow effect to an object. Which should you choose to set the resolution for the raster effect?
A. Print Presets
B. Pixel Preview
C. Transparency Flattener Presets
D. Document Raster Effects Settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which is a typical resolution for printing gradients and mesh?
A. 72 ppi
B. 150 ppi
C. 200 ppi
D. 300 ppi

Correct Answer: B

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ACE Illustrator, Adobe

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QUESTION 31
Which icon should you click repeatedly to cycle through the views of a palette? Exhibit:

A. OPTION A
B. OPTION B
C. OPTION C
D. OPTION D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You create an object using the Symbol Sprayer tool and change the color of several of the symbols within the object. What should you use to change a symbol back to the original color value?
A. Symbol Styler tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
B. Symbol Shifter tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
C. Symbol Stainer tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. Symbol Screener tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You want to export your Illustrator document to a raster file format that allows you to control image compression while retaining all of the color information. Which format should you choose?
A. GIF
B. EPS
C. PSD
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What does Adobe Bridge allow you to do?
A. browse files of all Adobe file formats
B. convert from one Adobe file format to another
C. edit metadata of any file format, Adobe or other
D. convert non-Adobe files to the most closely related Adobe file format

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
You are converting several vector objects to raster. Which should you select in the Rasterize dialog box so that you can control the resolution globally?
A. Screen (72 ppi)
B. High (300 ppi)
C. Anti-aliasing: None
D. Use Document Raster Effects Resolution

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What should you do within the Drop Shadow dialog box to display the available spot colors in a file?
A. select Color from the Mode field pop-up menu
B. select Overlay from the Mode field pop-up menu
C. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click in the Color spectrum
D. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click the Color Swatches button

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which should you choose to turn off typographer’s quotes for your document?
A. Type > Glyphs
B. Type > Smart Punctuation
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You create a new Transparency Flattener Preset. Where do you select that preset so that it is used when you print your document?
A. Transparency palette
B. Flattener Preview palette
C. General Settings in the Print dialog box
D. Advanced Settings in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Which two actions can you perform by using the Control palette? (Choose two.)
A. rotate an object
B. change the fill color of a path
C. proportionally scale an object
D. change the shear angle of a path
E. select objects with similar attributes

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 41
Which should you use to have only quotation marks outside the margin of your area text object?
A. Optical Kerning
B. Optical Margin Alignment
C. Roman Hanging Punctuation
D. Adobe Every-Line Composer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which Illustrator Legacy Option Version setting allows you to turn off compression?
A. Illustrator 3
B. Illustrator 8
C. Illustrator 9
D. Illustrator 10

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Which must be displayed to create a guide in Illustrator?
A. grids
B. rulers
C. toolbox
D. Control palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
You apply an Outer Glow effect to an object. Which should you choose to set the resolution for the raster effect?
A. Print Presets
B. Pixel Preview
C. Transparency Flattener Presets
D. Document Raster Effects Settings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
Which method allows you to create the graphic shown in the exhibit as a single object?
Exhibit: 1-40.gif

A. Merge
B. Add New Stroke
C. Compound Path
D. Add to Shape Area

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You draw several overlapping paths. You now want to convert all of them to a Live Paint group. What should you do?
A. click on each individual object with the Live Paintbucket tool
B. click on each individual object with the Live Paint Selection tool
C. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paintbucket tool
D. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paint Selection tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which type of font can offer additional, alternate glyphs?
A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. TrueType
D. OpenType
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Which tool allows you to select objects that have the same stroke weight?
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand
C. Selection tool
D. Direct selection tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
You want to make your image interactive when it is viewed in a Web browser. You want to add a JavaScript that will be triggered when the user moves the mouse into a certain area of the image. Which should you choose from the SVG Interactivity palette?
A. onmouseup
B. onmouseout
C. onmouseover
D. onmousedown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
You are creating a graphic that will be used on the Web. You want to ensure maximum compatibility with
the largest number of users, the smallest possible file size, and the highest fidelity to the original graphic.
The graphic uses few colors.
Which file format should you use?

A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A

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Adobe, Photoshop

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QUESTION 21
You have an RGB image. The presence of ______ in parts of the channel indicates the presence of red in the image that location.
A. blue
B. blak
C. white
D. green

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have an existing selection. You click on the option bar. How will a new selection interact with the existing selection?
A. The new selection will be added to the existing selection.
B. The new selection will be intersected with the existing selection.
C. The new selection will be subtracted form the existing selection.
D. A new selection will be made the existing selection will be lost.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
You have created an RGB image with three spot color channels. Which statement is true?
A. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will overprint the composited image.
B. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will overprint the composited image
C. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will be overprinted by the composited image.
D. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will be overprinted by the composited image.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
In the levels dialog box, what does Option-dragging (Mac OS)or Alt-dragging (Windows) the Input Sliders accomplish?
A. IT sets the amount of clipping.
B. It resets the values in the dialog box.
C. It sets the black and white points in the image.
D. It display the lightest and darkest areas in the image.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
You making a selection with the polygonal lasso tool. You want to edit your selection before completing it. What should you?
A. press the Escape key
B. use the Deselect command
C. press Delete until the unwanted segment is removed.
D. Use the Undo command until the unwanted segment is removed

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
You are creating an image that will be printed in black and one spot color. How do you add the spot color to the document?
A. create spot color channel and paint
B. add the spot color to the Swatches palette and paint
C. select the spot color as the foreground color and paint
D. create a new layer with the name of the spot color and paint

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
What is the resolution when you output a vector graphic to a PostScript printer?
A. 150 lpi
B. 300 dpi
C. the resolution of the printer
D. the original resolution of the vector graphic

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
You want to create a selection by using the elliptical marquee tool. Which key should you press to reposition the marquee while drawing it?
A. V
B. Shift
C. Spacbar
D. Cmd (Mac OS) or Ctrl (Windows)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
You want to create a pattern fill layer that only applies to a selected area of your image. What should you do?
A. choose the Fill command; choose the Pattern option from the Use Pull-down menu, the choose a pattern
B. with the selection active, click the Create New Fill or Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and drag to Pattern
C. with the selection active, click the Add a Layer Style button on the Layers palette to create a masked pattern overly
D. create a new layer and set it to Overlay mode; choose the Fill command, then choose the Pattern option from the Use menu and select pattern.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which statement about vector graphics is true?
A. They are made up of pixels.
B. They are resolution dependent.
C. They are resolution independent.
D. They are also know as raster images.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
You select an are with the crop tool. You select the Gropped Area: Hide option, and commit the crop operation. What happens?
A. A layer mask is created to cover the area that was outside the crop area
B. A new layer is created with the cropped image, and the original layer is hidden.
C. The image is cropped, but the area outside the crop area is NOT deleted form the document.
D. The area inside the crop marquee is hidden, and the area outside the marquee remains visible.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
You create a mask and save it as an alpha channel. The mask contains clack, white and gray pixels. You load the mask as a selection so you can run a filter on the image. Which areas of the mask allow the image to be affected?
A. only black areas
B. only white areas
C. both black and gray areas
D. both white and gray areas

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
You want to adjust the tonal values of an image WITHOUT changing the hue of the pixels in the image. Which color mode should you use?
A. Lab
B. RGB
C. CMYK
D. Indexed Color

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which filter are you most likely to need after resampling an image?
A. Add Noise
B. De-Interlace
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Gaussian Blur

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You mask a selection by using the lasso tool. You want to modify the selection by using painting tools. What should you do?
A. create a layer mask and paint
B. switch to Quick Mask mode and paint
C. select a painting tool; change the blending mode to Multiply, and paint on the active layer
D. select a painting tool; select Add to Existing Selection in the options bar, and paint on the active layer.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Which color space does Adobe Photoshop use as an intermediate color space when converting color modes?
A. Lab
B. HSL
C. HSB
D. RGB

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
Exhibit.

You use the Image Size command to resize a document. You have Resample Image selected. What happen when you reduce the resolution?
A. Pixel dimensions are reduced.
B. Pixel dimensions are increased.
C. Document size dimensions are reduced.
D. Document size dimensions are increased.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You have created an elliptical marquee. You want to manipulate the selection edge with image editing tools. What should you do?
A. make a work path from the selection; use image tools to modify the path, then make a selection form the path
B. choose Select>Transform Selection; use image editing tools to modify the selection, then press Return (Mac OS) or Enter (Windows)
C. click the Edit in Quick Mask Mode button on the toolbox; use image editing the selection in the image, then Standard Mode button to exit Quick Mask mode.
D. Save the sel4ection as a mask in an Indexed Color mode image; use image editing tools to modify the selection in the image in the image, then load the selection into the original image file

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
You are scanning a photograph at 100%. It will be output to an imagesetter at 2450 dpi with a line screen of 150 tpi. You want to preserve the image quality and minimize the file size. With which resolution should you scan your photograph?
A. 150 lpi
B. 2450 dpi
C. 1.5 to 2 times the line screen
D. 3.5 to 5 times the line screen
Correct Answer: C

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3COM, 3Com Certification

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 41
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 35
Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. OSPF
B. PIM Dense Mode
C. RIP 2
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is a key Link Aggregation (LA) Switch 7700/8800 configuration consideration?
A. Member links can be mixed media, speed and duplex mode
B. The Switch 7700/Switch 8800 supports non-sequential LA port assignment on a single module
C. A member link port can only belong to one aggregated link
D. You must remove the specific LA group before disabling its member link ports
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
C. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 39
What is a security feature on the Switch 8800?
A. Requires RADIUS for IEEE 802.1x Network Login authentication
B. User names and passwords can be configured on the switch
C. Switch only acts as authenticator but not authentication server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
DRAG DROP
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 41
Which two Access Control Lists (ACLs) features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Default switch flow template includes all IP fields
B. Layer 3 ACLs only
C. Each interface has an associated flow template that defines the subset of all possible protocol fields used by the interface
D. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ACLs

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 42
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com switch to the set of multicast protocols it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 43
Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) and Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
B. IEEE 802.11a/g Wireless Access Point
C. 2,048 Virtual LANs (VLANs) per chassis
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 44
Which two security standards are supported on 3Com’s Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 switch families? (Choose two.)
A. Port-based Access Control Lists (ACLs)
B. Disconnect Unauthorized Device (DUD) port security
C. RADIUS switch login
D. IEEE 802.1x Network Login

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 45
What is the security benefit obtained when the Switch 5500 is integrated with Tipping Point IPS?
A. Prevents unauthorized users from logging onto the network
B. Illegal activity or infected machine can be automatically isolated or blocked
C. Automatically works with IEEE 802.1X Network Login and switch ACLs to determine user authorization and access authority

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 35
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
D. Distributed Device Management (DDM)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Cut-through switching
B. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
C. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
F. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 37
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM-SM/DM
C. IGMP Snooping

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com switch to the set of multicast protocols it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 39
Which two are features of IEEE 802.1X Network Login? (Choose two.)
A. All authorization can be administered centrally
B. Authenticates users before they gain access to the network
C. Devices such as telephones are automatically authenticated based on IP address
D. Security administrators must use the history log file to determine who is accessing the network

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 40
Which two security standards are supported on 3Com’s Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 switch families? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS switch login
B. IEEE 802.1x Network Login
C. Port-based Access Control Lists (ACLs)
D. Disconnect Unauthorized Device (DUD) port security

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 41
Which three are security-design features that can be used in enterprise networks to improve network security? (Choose three.)
A. Enable IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design

Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 42
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 43
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. Large enterprise distribution layer
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which two are Switch 8800 routing configuration considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Supports OSPF
B. Supports EIGRP
C. By default, RIP is disabled on the switch
D. By default, RIP v2 runs when RIP is enabled

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 45
What is a key Link Aggregation (LA) Switch 7700/8800 configuration consideration?
A. A member link port can only belong to one aggregated link
B. Member links can be mixed media, speed and duplex mode
C. You must remove the specific LA group before disabling its member link ports
D. The Switch 7700/Switch 8800 supports non-sequential LA port assignment on a single module

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which two are features of the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. Describes network edge access between a supplicant and a network access device
B. Defines tunnel encapsulation to transmit data across a Virtual Private Network
C. Identifies RADIUS as a generic means of performing supplicant access validity inspection
D. Identifies proxy servers as means of intercepting and filtering requests to the main server
E. Defines packet filtering as a means to control network access by analyzing each incoming and outgoing packet and rejecting or accepting it based on user-defined rules

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which two cabling options should you choose for a customer who wants to upgrade the building and the campus backbones to Giabit Ethernet?Note: The campus backbone requires a 1,000-meter run, and the building backbone runs are from 300-500 meters in length. All new cabling is required. (Choose two)
A. 1000BASE -TX copper for the building backbones
B. 1000BASE -SX 50 micron multimode fiber for the campus backbones
C. 1000BASE – LX 9 micron single-mode fiber for the campus backbones
D. 1000BASE -LX 62.5 micron multimode fiber for the building backbones

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 33
How does a 3Com switch 7700, with RSTP disabled, handle the flooding process for a frame with the following attributes: A VLAN exists for the frame’s protocol, but the frame’s source port is not a member of the VLAN definition?
A. The frame is forwarded to all switch ports in the system
B. The frame is flooded to the default VLAN for the receive port
C. The frame is flooded according to the default VLAN assigned to that port
D. The frame is flooded according to the group of ports assigned to that VLAN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Which two are attributes of the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
A. Layer 4 protocol
B. Routing load balancing
C. Authentication passwords must be encrypted
D. Multiple virtual routers may exist on the same LAN segment
E. The Virtual Router ID (VRID) value determines the Master/Backup status
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 35
What is MINIMUM REQUIREMENT TO SUPPORT THE Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStake 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is supported by every switch
B. At least two switches must be staked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three traffic-prioritization classification are supported by the Super Stack 3 Switch 4400?
A. IP address
B. Physical port number
C. Resource Reservation Protocol
D. Common Open Policy Service Protocol
E. IETF Differentiated Services Code Point

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 37
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Choose two)
A. The Link Aggregation group can start on any port
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to single Link Aggregation group

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which three are functions of the Access Control List capabilities of the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Filter routing updates
B. Support Embadded Firewall
C. Control management logins
D. Filter data from information in Layer 2-4 IP header
E. Integrate with RAIDUS for maximum security protection
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 40
Which two operations does the Switch 7700 use to prevent network loops on an Ethernet network? (Choose two)
A. The switch uses Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to eliminate loops on the network
B. The network administrator must configure switch-to-switch ports to eliminate loops on the network
C. The switch uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to eliminate loops on the network
D. The switch uses Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to determine the network topology and eliminate loops
E. The switch uses Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to eliminate loops on the network
F. The switch automatically learns address of other devices by listening to the network to determine the network topology

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 41
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
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A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?
A. DTP
B. RPR
C. SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are elements of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture? (Choose three)
A. cell phones
B. remote access
C. mobility services
D. network management
E. network unification
F. network decentralization

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)

A. use a redundant link to the core
B. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C. never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. queuing
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. digitized sampling
E. signal-to-noise ratio ratio

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another
E. has a promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. core layer
B. Internet boundary
C. aggregation layer
D. aggregation and core layers
E. access and aggregation layers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. bridging VLANs on two switches
B. bridging two VLANs on one switch
C. between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
D. between two Layer 2 devices without trunking
E. between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is a virtual firewall?
A. another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
B. another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
C. a separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
D. a firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
E. a firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
In a VoWLAN deployment, what is the recommended separation between cells with the same channel?
A. 19 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 10 dBm
D. 6 dBm
E. 5 dbm to 10 dBm

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. in order to support business applications
D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which site-to-site VPN solution allows Cisco routers, PIX Firewalls, and Cisco hardware clients to act as remote VPN clients in order to receive predefined security policies and configuration parameters from the VPN headend at the central site?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)
A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be no higher than what value?
A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 2.5%
D. 25%

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP addresses.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NetFlow uses five key fields for the flow.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
E. NetFlow examines data in Layers 2 through 4.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. multiple layers of firewalling
B. a method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateways

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled?
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)
A. Flex Links
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
How would you define a fault tolerant device?
A. A backup path exists for every link between the client and the server.
B. Key components can be hot-swapped.
C. A backup device exists for every device between the client and the server.
D. Devices in the network can be hot-swapped without interrupting the network operation.
E. The device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Device fault tolerance and redundancy: This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-tolerant devices provide a high level of reliability. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-13.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following characteristics do you need to take into account when analyzing an application? (Choose three.)
A. Bandwidth, loss tolerance, and delay characteristics
B. Server speed
C. Number of servers and users
D. Application type
E. User’s operating system
F. Server operating system
G. All of the above.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Official Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-12
QUESTION 3
Which of the following metrics are used to measure performance in the Enterprise Edge module of the Enterprise Composite Network model? (Select three.)
A. Grade of service
B. Response time
C. Throughput
D. Transmit jitter
E. Utilization
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Performance might be the least understood term in networking. Typically, performance is defined as
throughput and packets per second (pps). These are easy numbers to gauge and report, but these values
relate to a single switch or router and make no sense when measuring an entire network.

The point is that there is no one metric for determining performance. Instead, gauge network performance
by these three metrics:
1) Responsiveness.
2) Throughput.
3) Utilization.

Reference: Arch student guide p. 1-10.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered part of a Fault Tolerant Device? (Choose three)
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Redundant links
C. Redundant cooling fans
D. Service contracts
E. High MTBF
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-tolerant devices provide a high level of reliability. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-13
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the last step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Determining the correct amount of users.
C. Select the different routing protocols to be used.
D. Design the edge distribution module.
E. Characterize applications.
F. Determine the data and application requirements.
G. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Cisco Systems Inc. course material, pages 2-10 and 2-11
QUESTION 6
Which location would be the best locale for the device for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building.
B. In the Information-processing building.
C. In the Accounting Department in the Administration building
D. In the Engineering building.
E. In all buildings.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the first step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Design Methodology?
A. Select a service provider.
B. Determine the data and application requirements.
C. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
D. Characterize applications.
E. Select a Layer 1 technology.
F. Select a Layer 2 technology.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
When working in the Enterprise Composite Network Model environment, which components form part of the Enterprise Edge functional area? (Choose four.)
A. WAN module
B. Server farm
C. E-Commerce module
D. Access server
E. Internet connectivity
F. Management module
G. VPN/Remote access
H. All of the above.
Correct Answer: ACEG Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which step in new network design, follows after the application and data requirements have been determined?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Design the logical network.
C. Select the IP addressing strategy and numbering.
D. Setting priorities with regard to IP addressing
E. Select the routing protocols.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
1) Determine application and data requirements for each campus location on the enterprise network 2) Design the logical network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10.
QUESTION 10
When you design the campus network which of the following modules of the Enterprise Network will you include? (Choose Three.)
A. The Campus Core module
B. The Server Farm module
C. The Building Distribution module
D. The Edge Distribution module
E. The Management Module
F. The Divide and conquer module
G. All of the above
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the seven step enterprise campus design methodology precedes “design the logical network.”
What will your reply be?
A. Design the physical topology
B. Select appropriate system devices and assign IP addresses
C. Assign IP addresses
D. Select routing protocols
E. Create security policy
F. Determine enterprise data requirements
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Your Certkiller trainee is busy with an Enterprise Composite Network design.
Which factors would he consider when analyzing network traffic for this design? (Select three.)
A. User types
B. Traffic types
C. File server types
D. Sampling method
E. Media types
F. Traffic load measurement
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-13
QUESTION 13
You are the network administrator at Certkiller.Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which
components are part of the Internet connectivity module for a network.
What will your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. DNS servers
B. Security servers
C. SMTP servers
D. Management servers
E. Corporate servers

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Internet Connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly-available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network(VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module. The major components of the Internet Connectivity module are:
4) E-mail servers.
5) DNS servers.
6) Public web servers.
7) Security servers.
8) Edge routers.

Reference: Arch student guide p.1-40

QUESTION 14
What is the first step in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. The design of the logical network.
B. The design of the physical network.
C. The selection of the routing protocols.
D. The determination of data and application requirements.
E. The selection of an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10
QUESTION 15
Your Certkiller.com trainee Doug asks you to characterize Layer 3 switching.
What should you tell him? (Select three).
A. Support flat networks
B. Supports complex routing in hierarchical networks
C. Supports simple implementation
D. Supports equal cost routing
E. Supports load balancing

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
B – Cisco considers router configuration as a complex task.
D – Routing protocols support equal cost routing for IP and IPX.
E – Load Balancing is traffic based.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps5304/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007

Switching, and Forwarding
Layer 3 Switching

*
CPU Redundancy for the Catalyst 8540 CSR and Catalyst 8540 MSR

*
IP, IPX, and IP multicast routing and forwarding between Ethernet ports

*
AppleTalk 1 and 2 routing

*
Constrained Multicast Flooding (CMF)

*
Up to 128 IP multicast groups

*
QoS-based forwarding based on IP-precedence-based forwarding

*
Load balancing among equal cost paths based on source and destination IP and IPX addresses
QUESTION 16
Dr Bill your supervisor at Certkiller.com asks you to tell him about the enterprise composite network model. What should you tell him?
A. The enterprise composite network model is made up of three functional areas including the enterprise campus, campus backbone, and enterprise edge.
B. The enterprise composite network model allows easy network topology changes.
C. The enterprise composite network model is composed of a singular access, distribution, and core layer.
D. The enterprise composite network model defines a deterministic network with defined boundaries between modules.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprise Composite Network Model defines a deterministic network with clearly defined boundaries between modules. The model has clear demarcation points to aid the designer in knowing exactly where traffic is.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-31
QUESTION 17
Which architectural design consideration of the Network Composite Model involved administration of network equipment on addition to client server component administration?
A. QoS
B. Connectivity
C. Accessibility
D. Network and system management
E. Topology definition and management
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Network Management Module can support both in-band and out-of-band (OOB) networks for administration and or management of network equipment and client server components. In-band Network management uses bandwidth on the production network.
Out-of-Band (OOB) management uses a separate logical network or in some cases a different logical and additional physical network.
QUESTION 18
A modular design using the Enterprise Composite Model consists of which three functional areas? (Choose three)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Campus Backbone
D. Service Provider Edge
E. Network Management
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Enterprise Composite Network Model introduces additional modularity into the network structure. The
entire network is divided into functional areas that contain the hierarchical model access, distribution, and
core layers.
The Enterprise Composite Network Model contains three major functional areas:
1) Enterprise Campus.
2) Enterprise Edge.
3) Service Provider Edge.

Reference: Arch student guide p.1-30

QUESTION 19
What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. Includes all modules needed to meet any network design.
B. Defined flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements.
C. Clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is.
D. Requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 1-31
QUESTION 20
Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to support the server farm module? (Choose three)
A. Implement highly redundant switching and links with no single points or paths of failure.
B. Implement server load balancing.
C. Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection.
D. Dual home all servers.
E. Implement intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.
F. Deploy caching systems.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
According to Cisco Design standards, the Campus Back Bone must have High Availability. Cisco design best practices guidelines require redundancy for mission critical devices. Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-69

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