Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Exam questions and answers: 642-998 DCUCD

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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.
B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.
D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.
E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3548
B. Cisco UCS 6248UP
C. Cisco UCS 2208XP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco UCS 6296UP
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 14
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 15
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 16
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?
A. MPLS
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vCenter
E. RPVST
F. MST
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?
A. BPDU
B. weight
C. interface priority
D. object tracking
E. local preference
F. cost
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 18
Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5548
C. Cisco Nexus 5596
D. Cisco Nexus 5020
E. Cisco Nexus 3016
F. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: DF

 

QUESTION 19
What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 20
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 21
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions.
Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Clustered
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 23
Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 24
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 25
Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 26
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1010
B. VSM
C. VEM
D. host vPC
E. MPIO
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 27
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.)
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 28
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC?
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX
D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 29
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH

 

QUESTION 30
Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client’s data center with context-aware identity validation and Layer 2 port authentication?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco NAC Profiler
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Anti-X
E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 31
Which two views from the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager provide a graphical view of Cisco devices? (Choose two.)
A. Device
B. Configuration
C. Log
D. Ports
E. Summary
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 32
Which two platforms are supported by Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Catalyst switches
B. Cisco Nexus switches
C. Cisco ACE
D. Cisco Aironet
E. Cisco MDS switches
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 33pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -33 Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. What four protocols are valid to mount vMedia? (Choose four.)
A. NFS
B. Fibre Channel
C. SFTP
D. CIFS
E. HTTP
F. SCP
G. HTTPS
Correct Answer: ADEG

 

QUESTION 34pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -34 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -34-1 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -34-2 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -34-3For a Cisco UCS 2208XP with the number of links illustrated in Exhibit 3, which four options are valid in the Chassis/FEX Discovery global policy? (Choose four.)
A. 1 Link
B. 2 Link
C. 3 Link
D. 4 Link
E. 8 Link
F. Platform Min
G. Platform Max
Correct Answer: ABDG

 

QUESTION 35pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -35 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -35-1 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -35-2 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -35-3 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -35-4Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension update?
A. Adds support for new management access protocols
B. Adds support for new SAN protocols
C. Adds support for new LAN protocols
D. Adds support for new hardware
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 36pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -36 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -36-1 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -36-2 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -36-3Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. There are two interfaces in Port Channel. Assuming you are creating this Port Channel on a Cisco UCS 6248, how many additional interfaces can be added to the Port Channel?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 18
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 37pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -37

Which item is a valid IPv6 Link Local address?
A. 2001:4070:1:1408::2
B. fe80::41dc:79e1:5c7b:b270
C. d772:4f0b:aaec:e8f0:fde9::8dcd:a2ec
D. 0718:564a:dc94::9a34:9fc6:5b3b
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 38pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -38

Which IPv6 destination address is scoped as globally routable?
A. ff01::101
B. ff02:101
C. ff05::101
D. ff08::101
E. ff0e::101
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 39pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -39

What prefix in the IPv6 address does the Interface ID begin?
A. /32
B. /48
C. /64
D. /96
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 40pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -40

How many bits are available for group IDs in an IPv6 Multicast IP address?
A. 65
B. 96
C. 112
D. 128
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 41
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -41 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -41-1

 

QUESTION 42
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -42

 

QUESTION 43
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -43

 

QUESTION 44
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -44

 

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -45 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -45-1 pass4itsure 642-998 exam dump -45-2

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Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 Exam questions and answers: 642-997 DCUFI

Welcome to Pass4cert! Share 40 of the latest valid Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 exam dumps and 642-997 pdf online download for free!
Guaranteed Upgrade Skills! Easily pass the 642-997 exam to get 642-997 Certificate: https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-997.html (q&as:123)

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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the command below. When configuring an SVS connection on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which device is being referenced as the remote IP address?
nexus5500-2(config-svs-conn)# remote ip address 10.10.1.15 port 80 vrf management
A. ESX or ESXi host
B. vCenter
C. vPC peer switch
D. Cisco IMC management
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This command specifies the hostname or IP address for the vCenter Server. Optionally, specifies the port number and VRF.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/layer2/6x/b_5500 _Layer2_Config_6x/b_5500_Layer2_Config_602N12_chapter_010000.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.)
A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.
B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity.
C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity.
D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set.
E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco is introducing a new line card called as F3 Module which has rich feature set and offers high performance 40G/100G port density to the Nexus 7000 product family. Cisco also introduced a new feature in NX-OS 6.2(2) where the F2e
line card can be in the same VDC as M1 or M2 Line Card. The objective of this session is to cover detailed steps and methodology of migrating Nexus 7000 with VDC types prior to NX-OS 6.2 to the newer F3 or M/F2e VDC types. The
session also covers the effect of VDC migration with commonly used Network features, firewall and load balancer services. M-Series XL modules support larger forwarding tables. M-Series modules are frequently required at network core,
peering, and aggregation points. When used with the F1-Series, the M-Series modules provide inter-VLAN services and form a pool of Layer 3 resources for the system.
Reference: https://www.ciscolive2014.com/connect/sessionDetail.ww?SESSION_ID=2244
And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/2- 6/vmdctechwp.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which protocol is the foundation for unified fabric as implemented in Cisco NX-OS?
A. Fibre Channel
B. Data Center Bridging
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
D. N proxy virtualization
E. N Port identifier virtualization
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is one of the major components of a Unified Fabric. FCoE is a new technology developed by Cisco that is standardized in the Fibre Channel Backbone 5 (FC-BB-5) working group of Technical Committee
T11 of the International Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS). Most large data centers have huge installed bases of Fibre Channel and want a technology that maintains the Fibre Channel model. FCoE assumes a
lossless Ethernet, in which frames are never dropped (as in Fibre Channel) and that therefore does not use IP and TCP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series- switches/white_paper_c11-
495142.html

 

QUESTION 4
By default it will take 10 seconds for authentication to fail due to an unresponsive RADIUS server before a Cisco Nexus series switch reverts to another RADIUS server or local authentication. What is one efficient way to improve the reaction
time to a RADIUS server failure?
A. Decrease the global RADIUS retransmission count to 1.
B. Decrease the global RADIUS timeout interval to 5 seconds.
C. Configure the RADIUS retransmission count and timeout interval per server, versus globally.
D. Configure per server a test idle timer, along with a username and password.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can monitor the availability of RADIUS servers. These parameters include the username and password to use for the server and an idle timer. The idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests
before the Nexus 5000 Series switch sends out a test packet. You can configure this option to test servers periodically. The test idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests before the Nexus 5000
Series switch sends out a test packet. The default idle timer value is 0 minutes. When the idle time interval is 0 minutes, the Nexus 5000 Series switch does not perform periodic RADIUS server monitoring.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_radius.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?
A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device can manage and support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device
is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2 and
Layer 3.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true?
A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys.
B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed.
C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence.
D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CFS does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. The keys are unique to the Cisco NX-OS device and are not shared with other Cisco NX- OS devices.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x_chapter_0101.html

 

QUESTION 7
Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
Correct Answer: BCD
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
After associating an ESX host to a DVS, you can migrate existing VMs from the vSwitch to the DVS, and you can create VMs to use the DVS instead of the vSwitch. With the hardware-based VN-Link implementation, when a VM uses the
DVS, all VM traffic passes through the DVS and ASIC-based switching is performed by the fabric interconnect. In Cisco UCS Manager, DVSes are organized in the following hierarchy:
vCenter
Folder (optional)
Datacenter
Folder (required)
DVS
At the top of the hierarchy is the vCenter, which represents a VMware vCenter instance. Each vCenter contains one or more datacenters, and optionally vCenter folders with which you can organize the datacenters. Each datacenter contains
one or more required datacenter folders. Datacenter folders contain the DVSes.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3- 1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter28.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context (VDC). By default, Cisco NX-OS places you in the default VDC. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities. SNMP is
also VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP notification host receiver. You can also configure SNMP to filter notifications to an SNMP host receiver based on the VRF where the notification occurred.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_9snmp.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network?
A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks.
B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated.
C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device.
D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In Cisco Unified Computing System environments, two Ethernet switching modes determine the way that the fabric interconnects behave as switching devices between the servers and the network. In end-host mode, the fabric interconnects
appear to the upstream devices as end hosts with multiple links. In end-host mode, the switch does not run Spanning Tree Protocol and avoids loops by following a set of rules for traffic forwarding. In switch mode, the switch runs Spanning
Tree Protocol to avoid loops, and broadcast and multicast packets are handled in the traditional way.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address?
A. vmac-weighted
B. dedicated-vmac-mode
C. shortest-path and weighting
D. host-dependent
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Host dependent–GLBP uses the MAC address of the host to determine which virtual MAC address to direct the host to use. This algorithm guarantees that a host gets the same virtual MAC address if the number of virtual forwarders does not
change.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_glbp.html

 

QUESTION 11
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true?
A. When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported.
B. HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers.
C. HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times.
D. The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
VRRP allows for transparent failover at the first-hop IP router by configuring a group of routers to share a virtual IP address. VRRP selects a master router in that group to handle all packets for the virtual IP address. The remaining routers are
in standby and take over if the master router fails.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_vrrp.html

 

QUESTION 12
After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords?
A. switch# key config-key ascii
B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes
C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated
D. switch# encryption decrypt type6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This command converts existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter_010101.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 5546 or 5548 switches are true?
A. Cisco TrustSec support varies depending on Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch model.
B. The hardware is not able to support MACsec switch-port-level encryption based on IEEE 802.1AE.
C. The maximum number of RBACL TCAM user configurable entries is 128k.
D. The SGT Exchange Protocol must use the management (mgmt 0) interface.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://scadahacker.com/library/Documents/Manuals/Cisco%20- %20TrustSec%20Solution%20Overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 14
How is a dynamic vNIC allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The dynamic vNIC connection policy determines how the connectivity between VMs and dynamic vNICs is configured. This policy is required for Cisco UCS domains that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs andconfigured dynamic vNICs. Each dynamic vNIC connection policy includes an Ethernet adapter policy and designates the number of vNICs that can be configured for any server associated with a service profile that includes the policy.
For VM-FEX that has all ports on a blade in standard mode, you need to use the VMware adapter policy.
For VM-FEX that has at least one port on a blade in high-performance mode, use the VMwarePassThrough adapter policy or create a custom policy. If you need to create a custom policy, the resources provisioned need to equal the resource
requirements of the guest OS that needs the most resources and for which you will be using high-performance mode.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM- FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html

 

QUESTION 15
In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important?
A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool.
B. They enable hardware-based failover.
C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs.
D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Number of Dynamic vNICs ?This is the number of vNICs that will be available for dynamic assignment to VMs. Remember that the VIC has a limit to the number of vNICs that it can support and this is based on the number of uplinks between
the IOM and the FI. At least this is the case with the 2104 IOM and the M81KR VIC, which supports ((# IOM Links * 15) ?2)). Also remember that your ESXi server will already have a number of vNICs used for other traffic such as Mgmt,
vMotion, storage, etc, and that these count against the limit.
Adapter Policy ?This determines the vNIC adapter config (HW queue config, TCP offload, etc) and you must select VMWarePassThru to support VM-FEX in High Performance mode.
Protection ?This determines the initial placement of the vNICs, either all of them are placed on fabric A or Fabric B or they are alternated between the two fabrics if you just select the “Protected” option. Failover is always enabled on these
vNICs and there is no way to disable the protection.
Reference: http://infrastructureadventures.com/2011/10/09/deploying-cisco-ucs-vm-fex-for- vsphere-%E2%80%93-part-2-ucsm-config-and-vmware-integration/

 

QUESTION 16
Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true?
A. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both roles (logical AND).
B. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command.
C. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrator (superuser).
D. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces.
E. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDCs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute a combination of all the commands permitted by these roles. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command. For example, suppose a user has RoleA, which
denied access to the configuration commands. However, the users also have RoleB, which has access to the configuration commands. In this case, the users have access to the configuration commands.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_rbac.html

 

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true?
A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec) support is available only on the M module.
B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco TrustSec.
C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server.
D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The M-Series modules on the Nexus 7000 support 802.1AE MACSEC on all ports, including the new M2-series modules. The F2e modules will have this feature enabled in the future.
It is important to note that because 802.1AE MACSEC is a link-level encryption, the two MACSEC-enabled endpoints, Nexus 7000 devices in our case, must be directly L2 adjacent. This means we direct fiber connection or one facilitated with
optical gear is required. MACSEC has integrity checks for the frames and intermediate devices, like another switch, even at L2, will cause the integrity checks to fail. In most cases, this means metro-Ethernet services or carrier-provided label
switched services will not work for a MACSEC connection.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2065720

 

QUESTION 18
Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. IP source guard
B. traffic storm control
C. CoPP
D. DHCP snooping
E. Dynamic ARP Inspection
F. NAC
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A traffic storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. You can use the traffic storm control feature to prevent disruptions on Layer 2 ports by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic
storm on physical interfaces. Traffic storm control (also called traffic suppression) allows you to monitor the levels of the incoming broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic over a 10-millisecond interval. During this interval, the traffic level,
which is a percentage of the total available bandwidth of the port, is compared with the traffic storm control level that you configured. When the ingress traffic reaches the traffic storm control level that is configured on the port, traffic storm
control drops the traffic until the interval ends.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-
x_chapter17.html
And
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter1.html

 

QUESTION 19
When a local RBAC user account has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, what happens when a user with that name logs into a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. The user roles from the remote AAA user account are applied, not the configured local user roles.
B. All the roles are merged (logical OR).
C. The user roles from the local user account are applied, not the remote AAA user roles.
D. Only the roles that are defined on both accounts are merged (logical AND).
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If you have a user account configured on the local Cisco NX-OS device that has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, the Cisco NX-OS software applies the user roles for the local user account to the remote user, not
the user roles configured on the AAA server.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_rbac.html

 

QUESTION 20
Which statement is true if password-strength checking is enabled?
A. Short, easy-to-decipher passwords will be rejected.
B. The strength of existing passwords will be checked.
C. Special characters, such as the dollar sign ($) or the percent sign (%), will not be allowed.
D. Passwords become case-sensitive.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a password is trivial (such as a short, easy-to-decipher password), the cisco NX_OS software will reject your password configuration if password-strength checking is enabled. Be sure to configure a strong password. Passwords are case
sensitive.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7- x/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-
OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_01000.pdf

 

QUESTION 21
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 22
Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. AES-GMAC
B. key
C. salt
D. AAA
E. group
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

 

QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 24
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 25
Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. cleartext
B. DES-SHA1
C. DES-CBC3-SHA
D. Cisco Type 7
E. RC4-SHA
F. 3DES
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 26

pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -26 pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -26-1

What is the status of FCoE license on Cisco Nexus 5548 switch?
A. FCoE license is not installed
B. FCoE license is installed, but it is expired
C. FCoE license is installed and status is enabled
D. FCoE license does not need to be installed because it is part of ENTERPRISE_PKG
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 27
In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch.
B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports.
C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time.
D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature.
E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance.
F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

 

QUESTION 28
Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.)
A. CiscoTAC-1
B. full-text-destination
C. pager-xml-destination
D. short-text-destination
E. xml-text-destination
F. pager-json-destination
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

 

QUESTION 29
What configuration is required when implementing FCoE?
A. disable LAN traffic on the interface
B. configure PortFast on the access port
C. permit all VLANs on the interface
D. permit all VSANs on the interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that
are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX-
OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html

 

QUESTION 30
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field.
B. Devices can only belong to one zone.
C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time.
D. A zone can only be a member one zone set.
E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric.
F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any
device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric
receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/
guide/qcg_zones.html

 

QUESTION 31
Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)
A. group-size
B. deadtime
C. timeout
D. keep-alive
E. retransmit
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 32
Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover?
A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
B. Cisco Stateful Switchover
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 33
Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.)
A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed.
B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96.
C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default.
D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range.
E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128.
F. A reload is needed for changes to take place.
G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place.
Correct Answer: CEFG
Explanation

 

QUESTION 34
Which two items are services that are provided by Cisco Fabric Services? (Choose two.)
A. device alias distribution
B. VLAN database distribution
C. Kerberos proxy distribution
D. RSA key pair distribution
E. DPVM configuration distribution
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The device alias application uses the Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) infrastructure to enable efficient database management and distribution. Device aliases use the coordinated distribution mode and the fabric-wide distribution scope. DPVM
can use CFS to distribute the database to all switches in the fabric. This allows devices to move anywhere and keep the same VSAN membership. You should enable CFS distribution on all switches in the fabric. Using the CFS infrastructure,
each DPVM server learns the DPVM database from each of its neighboring switches during the ISL bring-up process. If you change the database locally, the DPVM server notifies its neighboring switches, and that database is updated by all
switches in the fabric.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/ddas.html and
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter4.html#concept_2B83E16506C845B39 BDF96F9CAFFAEC3

 

QUESTION 35
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front.
B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear.
C. single power supply only
D. multiple power supply option for redundancy
E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches
F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 36
Drag the network characteristics on the left to the most appropriate design layer on the right.pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -36-1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 37
Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate Nexus product on the right.pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -37Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 38
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -38 pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -38-1Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 39
Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -39Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 40
VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -40 pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -40-1 pass4itsure 642-997 exam dump -40-2Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 2
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998  dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 5
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
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Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
two.)
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool

642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
gateways?
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION: 20
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. LISP
C. HSRP
D. VDC
E. VRF

Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 22 The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. Cisco ISO ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 23 The classical access layer has its limitations due to a high value in which of the following items?
A. oversubscription
B. jitter
C. cost
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet links

Answer: A
QUESTION: 24 Your customer is designing a new data center and would like the aggregation layer to be able to route and have Layer 3 capability. What Cisco platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5596 without Layer 3 daughter card
C. Cisco MDS 9506 chassis with supervisor engine
D. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with Enterprise Services Package

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 Which technology provides additional scalability and simplification of an Ethernet network, providing more efficient forwarding and eliminating the need for the Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. OTV
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. FabricPath

Answer: D
QUESTION: 26 Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active- active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 27 Classical aggregation layer designs do not provide isolation of the control and data planes. What provides a solution to this limitation?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 29
What are the benefits of an Adapter FEX?

A. requires fewer adapters, cables, network ports, and network devices
B. provides the ability to VMware VMotion across data centers
C. reduces complexity in the data center
D. works with the IEEE 802.1RB standard

Answer: A
QUESTION: 30
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?

A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?

A. Cisco Adapter FEX extends the Cisco FEX technology into a traditional rack servers MoR design.
B. An EoR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX extends VDCs across multiple Cisco Nexus switches.
D. A ToR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 33
What is one required component to run FCoE?

A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
C. HBA
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34 Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR

Answer: A
QUESTION: 35 Which two technologies can overcome the link blocking feature that STP implements to ensure a loop-free topology? (Choose two.)
A. vPC
B. ISSU
C. MEC
D. NX-OS HA
E. GLBP

Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 36 Your customer would like to run FCoE in the access layer. Which fabric extender should the customer utilize in its design?
A. Cisco Nexus 2148T
B. Cisco Nexus 2224TP
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-F
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
Which Cisco Nexus switch offers possibilities for implementation of the virtual switching layer in VMware?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 2248 FEX

Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which item represents a method of increasing storage utilization efficiency?

A. thin provisioning
B. thick provisioning
C. transparent provisioning
D. hold-back provisioning
E. weighted provisioning

Answer: A
QUESTION: 39
Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
F. iSCSI

Answer: F
QUESTION: 40
What is required to allow for FCoE multihop prior to the ratification of FC-BB-6?

A. VN to VF encapsulation
B. FIP snooping
C. FCoE proxy
D. Fibre Channel bridging at FC-2
E. VE to VE tunneling

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41 What is required to be configured in VMware vCenter to allow a VM direct access to a Fibre Channel LUN?
A. DirectPath I/O
B. VM-FEX
C. Adapter FEX
D. Raw Device Mapping
E. Solid State Drive

Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one.
Which SAN topology is Cisco recommended?

A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge

Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which two Cisco MDS 9500 line cards support SME? (Choose two.)

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QUESTION 1
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding LACP configuration?
A. With LACP, you can bundle up to 16 interfaces in a channel group.
B. LACP configuration is global and can be only configured by admin.
C. After removing LACP configuration, you need to reboot the device.
D. You can disable LACP while any LACP configurations are present.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding vPC configuration? (Choose two.)
A. With vPC, there are no blocked ports.
B. vPC uses hash-based EtherChannel load balancing.
C. There are STP-blocked redundant links.
D. There is VLAN-based load balancing.
E. There is higher oversubscription.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Refer to exhibit.

Customer has a pair of Cisco Nexus7010s switches and connected to a single Cisco Nexus5548 switch via vPC. Customer has a combination of M1 and F1 I/O Modules in Cisco Nexus7010s.
Why is the design described not supported?
A. Mixing I/O Modules on the Same Side of a Peer Link is not supported
B. vPC does not support split control plane
C. You can not configure a vPC peer link to configure two devices as vPCs
D. Need to add another Cisco Nexus5548 switch to the topology to make this work. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Your customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concerns are focused on using up the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP addresses, and IP address management. Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP addresses
D. use PVLANs, which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
C. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
On the secondary vPC switch, under which circumstance does the vPC autorecovery feature not bring up the vPC member ports?
A. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the peer-keepalive link fails.
B. Peer link is up, and the peer-keepalive link fails.
C. Both vPC peers are reloaded, and the primary does not come back up.
D. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the primary switch fails.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying FCoE in its networ and has found that the connected host does not support FIP. Which command will be useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. show platform fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
B. show platform fcoe_mgr info software interface vfc id
C. show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
D. show platform software interface fcoe_mgr info vfc id

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When configuring LLDP on Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, what is the purpose of LLDP hold time global configuration command?
A. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in milliseconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
B. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in seconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
C. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in milliseconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface
D. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in seconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network and sees pause counters increasing when it runs the command show interface eth1/5. What is the cause of this?
A. The CNA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
B. The HBA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
C. Pause counters increase regularly; there is nothing to be concerned about.
D. A firmware upgrade on the Fibre Channel adapter that is connected to the switch will fix this issue.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
On a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch, the VFC is stuck in the initializing state. Which QoS statements must be configured for FCoE to operate?
A. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
B. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
C. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
D. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
One of your Cisco Nexus Series interfaces has become errdisabled with the error message “DCX-No ACK in 100 PDUs”. How often are these acknowledgements exchanged?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

What command should you execute next in resolving a lock failure?
A. ntp execute
B. ntp commit
C. ntp lock
D. ntp help
E. ntp detail
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having difficulty getting NPV working. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core NPV device is not enabled.
B. The core NPV device is not a switch.
C. The core NPV device is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV device is not configured on the upstream port.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem getting NPV to work. What is causing the problem?
A. The core NPV switch port is not an F port.
B. The core NPV switch port is in a shutdown state.
C. The core NPV switch port is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV switch port is not configured on the other end.
E. The core NPV switch ports are in the wrong domain.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having problems with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
D. VSANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.
E. VLANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

During a VSAN outage, you come across this configuration. Please select two possible causes? (Choose two)
A. no common VSANs on both switches
B. no common trunks
C. no common VSAN members in the same trunk
D. VSANs in trunk are the same, but the trunk is not up

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.

Correct Answer: A

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