[2018 New Updated] Download Up to Date Cisco 400-151 Dumps CCIE Data Center Exam Questions For Your Excellence with Youtube Preparation Materials (Question 6 – Question 32)

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-32)

QUESTION 6
Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?
A. Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.
B. Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
C. Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
D. Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?
A. Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.
B. Only Captive Portal can be used.
C. Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.
D. You must run an ADquery for every domain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in Gaia?
A. In the CLI via sysconfig
B. In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes
C. In the CLI with the command “route add”

D. In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which command will erase all CRL’s?
A. vpn crl_zap
B. vpn flush
C. cpstop/cpstart
D. vpn crladmin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

400-151 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
Exhibit:

Exhibit:
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast

400-151 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 18
When an 802.11 station operating in Power Save mode with a ReceiveDTIMs parameter of TRUE receives a beacon containing a DTIM indicating queued broadcast traffic, what task does the 802.11 standard require the client station to perform?
A. The client station must send an ATIM frame to the access point if the station is the first AID in the DTIM list.
B. The client station must arbitrate for the medium and immediately issue an RTS directed to the access point with the NAV set to a value of 32,768.
C. To remain awake to receive the broadcast frame(s) to follow the beacon that contains the DTIM.
D. The client station must broadcast a CTS-to-Self frame indicating the station need to control the medium long enough to receive all of the broadcast frames.
E. The client station must send a CF-Poll Response frame to the access point with the Reason Code set to 0x00.
F. The client station must send a PS-Poll frame to the access point for every broadcast frame it receives with the More Data bit set to one.
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Given the screenshot shown, choose the statement that accurately describes what is being seen by this protocol analyzer.
A. One wireless station sent an Echo Request (PING) to another wireless station through an access point.
B. The BSSID has been randomly generated.
C. The Duration field value’s 164 microseconds is sufficient to reserve the RF medium for only the following frames: SIFS, ACK.
D. Bits (0-14) of the Duration/ID field in this frame indicates the AID of the source station
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the displayed wireless protocol analyzer trace, which of the following is true?
A. Both 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 and 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 are operating in Ad Hoc mode using WPA compliant 802.1X/EAP authentication.
B. 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 is a client station sending unicast data frames to a network node on the wired LAN.
C. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a client station performing a successful 802.1X/EAPreauthentication.
D. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a station sending encrypted broadcast data using an encryption key generated by the authenticator.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the access point, and data encrypted with static WEP is being sent from a wired station to the wireless station 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9.
400-151 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
In the 802.11b standard, the PLCP header Service field has a Modulation Selection bit. Which of the following are true regarding use of the Modulation Selection bit?
A. The Modulation Selection bit is used by the access point in CF-End frames to note which modulation will be used for Data frames in the contention period to follow.
B. Based on the setting of the Modulation Selection bit and the value in the Signal field, the modulation to be used can be uniquely determined.
C. Based on the Modulation Selection bit in received Data frames, the receiving station can determine which modulation to use when sending acknowledgements.
D. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine whether CCK or PBCC is in use for any speed where either could be used.
E. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine which modulation will be used to send the entire PPDU.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 22
What is an advantage of being able to fragment MSDUs and MMPDUs on a wireless network?
A. Increased throughput due to interference from other 802.11 stations.
B. Decreased translation time between 802.3 and 802.11 networks at the access point.
C. Increased throughput in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment.
D. Decreased number of 802.11 control and management frames required for transmission.
E. Increased throughput in a clean RF environment
F. Decreased retransmission overhead in a noisy RF environment.
400-151 exam Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 23
In compliance with the 802.11g standard, access points may provide which services to increase overall network performance in an OFDM-only environment?
A. Arbitrary Beacon Spacing
B. DownstreamQoS
C. Short Slot Time
D. Short PLCP Preamble support
E. Fast Sleep Recovery
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24
Which features of a wireless LAN protocol analyzer allow troubleshooters to monitor network events that are happening while the troubleshooters are not watching the analyzer user interface?
A. Event Triggers
B. Node Statistics
C. Notifications
D. Peer Map
E. Trending Analysis
F. Alarms
400-151 dumps Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION NO: 25
The 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation due to an unreliable medium. Which two fields in the 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Ordered Service field
B. Sequence Control field
C. Frame Control field
D. ERP Information field
E. Capability Information field
F. DS Parameter field
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 26
What 802.11 MAC layer function is illustrated by the following diagram?
A. Sequential Fragmentation
B. PCF mode polling
C. Fragment Bursting
D. Sequential Acknowledgements
E. CP Regulated Spacing
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27
When operating in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment in which both 802.11b and 802.11g client stations are present and transmitting data on the network, which of the statements below are accurate concerning the 802.11g access point responsibilities in the Basic Service Set?
A. The access point will alternate transmitting beacons using long and short preambles so that client stations using either preamble length can associate.

B. The access point may transmit beacons using a short preamble only if all of the client stations in the BSS have indicated support for short preambles.
C. If beacons are transmitted using short preambles, all associated client stations are required to transmit all data frames using short preambles.
D. The access must transmit beacons using a short preamble in a mixed mode environment. Client stations not supporting short preambles will not be able to associate.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28
The More Fragments subfield is found in which 802.11 frame field?
A. Protocol Order field
B. Frame Control field
C. MAC Service Data Unit field
D. Sequence Control field
E. Fragmentation Control field
400-151 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 29
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.
A. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
B. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw printver
D. cpstat -gw
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:
7.Which technology does OSPFv3 use to authenticate packets
A. SHA256
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. IPsec
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
8.Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)
A. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor
E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
9.Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
10.Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use
A. GRE
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. IP-in-IP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
11.Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. Revision number
C. Region name
D. Domain name
E. Password
F. VLAN-to-instance assignment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
12.Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow.
B. It provides better security than dynamic routing.
C. It reduces configuration errors.
D. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.
E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

13. To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
400-101 vce Answer: D
14. To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B
15. Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on

B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
400-101 exam Answer: A
16. Choose the best way to minimize backup time.
A. Tape backup over the WAN connection
B. Utilizing a larger tape capacity
C. Organizing data in volumes and qtrees
D. Using multiple local tape drives
Answer: D
17. What two conditions should be verified prior to performing remote backups? (Choose 2)
A. The trust relationships between the source and the destination
B. That clustered failover is disabled
C. That rsh is enabled for remote access
D. That remote backup is enabled
400-101 dumps Answer: AC
18. Which line describes a 50M tree quota for a qtree named “mydata” on volume “vol1”? Target Type Disk Files Thold Sdisk Sfiles A.  /vol/vol1/mydata tree 50M –

B. /vol/vol1 [email protected] 50M –
C. steve [email protected]/vol/vol1 50M –
D. /vol/vol1 qtree/steve 50M –
Answer: A
19. If there are problems with user quotas being misapplied, the following two files should be checked:
A. /etc/quotas and /etc/rc
B. /etc/quotas and /etc/usermap.cfg

C. /etc/rc and /etc/usermap.cfg
D. /etc/quotas and /etc/quotarules
400-101 vce Answer: B
20. Which three actions can be performed with the restore command? (Choose 3)
A. View a list of files on tape.
B. Restore individual files and directories.
C. Restart a failed restore process.
D. Enter a number to specify how many filemarks should be skipped.
Answer: ABC

21.CORRECT TEXT
Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
400-101 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number
10. Or
11. mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem.
12. mkdir /mnt/neo
13. vi /etc/fstab
14. Write:
15. /dev/hda? /mnt/neo ext3 defaults 1 2
16. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
17. mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo

22. CORRECT TEXT
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the IP Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
23.CORRECT TEXT
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
400-101 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop the iptables service.
24.CORRECT TEXT
neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota toneo user. You should apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn’t occupied space more than 70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 ¨¤ To enable th quota on filesystem you should mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ¨¤Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home ¨¤ Remounting the /home with updated mount options. ou can verify that/home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ¨¤ Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home ¨¤ Quota Policy editor See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard

/dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
25.CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without losing any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
400-101 pdf Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the size of Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical Volume without unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using ext2online command.
26.CORRECT TEXT
Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobyte-sized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas or users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2

2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition. Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Q&As: 615

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QUESTION 16
Refer to the Exhibit.
400-051 dumps

An agent initiated a video call but was establish as audio only. The support engineer collected and analyzed the Cisco Unified CM traces. Which two options caused this problem? (Choose two)
A. A hardware MTP was assigned to the call.
B. SIP Notify DTMF was requested and negotiated.
C. MTP Required was checked on the SIP Trunks.
D. Use Trusted Relay Point is set on one of the phones.
E. MRGL assigned to phones with Trusted Relay Point.
400-051 exam 
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 17
An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-051 dumps

Correct Answer:
400-051 dumps

QUESTION 18
Multiple users report that when they try to login to Cisco Unified Communications Extension Mobility Manager this error is retrieved? “Error:-[26] Busy, please try again” Which description of the cause is true?
A. The intracluster Multiple Login Behaviour is set to Multiple Logins Not Allowed.
B. The Validate IP Address parameter is set to false, so the IP is not found in the trust list.
C. The number of concurrent log in and logout requests is higher than the Maximum Concurrent Requests service parameter.
D. The Extension Mobility Cache size has been lowered to 1000 and no more logins are allowed beyond this number.
400-051 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which option describes how NVF, OpenStack and KVM relate to each other?
A. OpenStack and KVM can be used to provide NVF.
B. OpenStack and KVM are not related to NVF.
C. NVF and KVM are based on OpenStack.
D. OpenStack and NVF enable KVM.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps

Site A and site B have a 3-hour time difference. An administrator has time-of-day routing configured at site A and site B for all incoming calls to the main phone number, DN 8000. Two hunt pilots with the same DN are configured with the time periods of site A and B. Which Statement about the incoming calls is true?
A. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Wednesday after 1500 PST are answered by the site B IP phone.
B. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday are answered by the site A IP phone.
C. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday after 17:00 PST are answered by the site A and site B IP phones.
D. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Sunday are answered by the site B IP phone.
400-051 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
A client wants to play and compose voice messages from Microsoft Outlook. What is required for this functionality?
A. single inbox synchronisation with send and draft messages
B. single inbox with ViewMail
C. single inbox with mailboxes larger than 2 GB
D. single inbox user message delivery with folder deletion
Correct Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?
A. INVITE
B. 180 Ringing
C. 200 OK
D. ACK
E. RTP Media
400-051 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation: 200 OK Indicates the request was successful.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?
A. The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D. The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
E. The MGCP gateway is responding to a CRCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
Answer: D
Explanation:
See MGCP packet debugging examples and their meanings at the Reference link below. Reference: Sample of Debug MGCP Packets
Question No : 24 – (Topic 2)  Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?
A. Terminal Capability Set
B. Open Logical Channel
C. Master-Slave Determination
D. Call Setup
E. Call Progress
400-051 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round-trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

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QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?
A. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
B. time slots 1 to 32
C. time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
D. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32
E. timeslots to 31
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?
A. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 960
B. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 768000 7680 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 fragment frfl2 960 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960

E. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 compress header ip rtp service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 640

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?
A. !
B. +
C. *
D. .
E. ?
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 82
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?
A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled.
D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?
A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?
A. Station Media Port List message
B. Station Set Ringer message
C. Station Stop Tone message
D. Station Start Media Transmission message
E. Station Open Receive Channel message
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C. VAD is disabled.
D. VAD is enabled.
E. NLP is disabled. F NLP is enabled.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86 PS:由于原CCIE语音群已满请大家转到新 CCIE-QQ(500人)群:53357075 —王Sir

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?
A. RSVP-based
B. gatekeeper-based
C. CUBE-based
D. locations-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?
A. show call active voice brief
B. show voip rtp connections
C. show voice dsp detailed
D. show voice call summary
E. show policy-map interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?
A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover
D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)
A. FXS
B. E&MTypel
C. E&MTypell
D. E&MTypelV
E. FXO

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 91
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?
A. The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0
B. The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C. The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D. The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?
A. server name
B. server IP address
C. DNS domain D. SIP proxy domain
E. enable presence

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours
E. 48 hours

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What will occur if a video bridge is not available during a video call setup on Cisco Unified Communications Manager using the Intelligent Bridge Selection feature?
A. The video call will fail, and the caller will receive a busy tone.
B. The video call will succeed, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use the default video image.
C. The video call will fail and will be forwarded to voice mail.
D. The video call will fall back to an audio-only call.
E. The video call will fail, and the caller will hear a message.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end-to- end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco RTP
B. H.245 signal
C. H.245 alphanumeric
D. RTP-NTE
E. H.225 Notify
F. in-band voice

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 96
What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages for a Cisco Unity Connection user?
A. 2 MB
B. 4MB
C. 10 MB
D. 14 MB
E. 20 MB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio streams?
A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.
C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
When a call is being established on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to inform the gateway where to send RTP traffic?
A. MDCX
B. RTPX
C. CRCX
D. NTFY
E. RQNT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99

Refer to the exhibit. When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of 2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, from highest to lowest priority?
A. II,III, IV
B. II,IV, III,I
C. III,IV,II,I
D. III, II, IV,I
E. II, III, IV, I

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission?
A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway with a voice ISDN PRI connection to the PSTN, which two PSTN signals are processed locally by the gateway? (Choose two.)
A. MGCP endpoint configuration
B. T1 framing and line code
C. ISDNQ.921
D. ISDNQ.931
E. ISDN call setup

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 102
A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 700
D. 1000
E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect? (Choose three)
A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both.
B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups.
C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL.
D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group.
E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines which MOH server is used to play music to the held device.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service
D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine
E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent
F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 105
Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct?
A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech
B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay.
C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay.
D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed.
E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS WAN.
B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.
C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resides must be enabled as a CE device.
D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.
E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement-based CAC.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 107
An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?
A. No Route To Destination
B. Normal Call Clearing
C. Subscriber Absent
D. User Busy
E. Network Busy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108
Which three statements are correct with regard to the Certificate Trust List file? (Choose three.)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. It is signed using the administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key, and role information.
D. It is created by the CTL client on the administrator workstation.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 109

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