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Vendor: Cisco Certification: CCNP Security Exam Code: 300-720 SESA Exam Title: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance Exam Duration: 90 minutes language: English Cost: $300 This exam tests: Learning Resources: 1 Cisco Learning Platform 2 Instructor-led training 3 Practice Tests – Pass4itSure 300-720 dumps 4 books
CCNP Security Certification
To earn the CCNP Security credential, you need to pass two exams: a core exam 350-701 SCOR and an optional security concentration exam. 300-720 is a self-selected security concentration exam, and the necessity of passing it can be imagined.
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QUESTION # 1
Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?
A. Designate as the active query B. Update Frequency C. Server Priority D. Entity ID
A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be assigned to a mail policy named ‘Sales’ that has yet to be created. Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?
A. Outgoing Mail Policy B. Preliminary Mail Policy C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy
Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?
A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 5
A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this?
A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion. C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion. D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 6
What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?
A. message splintering B. message exceptions C. message detachment D. message aggregation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 7
Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?
A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering B. Connection Reputation Filtering C. Talos Reputation Filtering D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 8
Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?
A. minimum attachment size to scan B. attachment scanning timeout C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan
Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most flexible way?
A. Set up the interface group with the flag. B. Issue the altsrchost command. C. Map the envelope sender address to the host. D. Apply a filter on the message.
What is a benefit of enabling external SPAM quarantine on Cisco SMA?
A. It provides access to the SPAM quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete. B. It provides the ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate. C. It provides the ability to consolidate SPAM quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console. D. It provides the ability to back up SPAM quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 11
When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.)
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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-420 Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) Certification: CCNP Duration: 90 minutes Languages: English and Japanese Price: $300 USD
The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is one of the CCNP Enterprise certification intensive exams (300-410 ENARSI, 300-415 ENSDWI, 300-420 ENSLD, 300-425 ENWLSD, 300-430 ENWLSI, 300-435 ENAUTO). Passing the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is also required to pass the core exam – 350-401 ENCOR in order for you to receive the CCNP Enterprise certification.
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Candidates need to have three to five years of experience implementing enterprise networking solutions.
Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?
A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table. B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces. C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence. D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP B. IS-IS C. BGP D. OSPF E. RIPng
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
An ISP provides Layer 3 VPN service over MPLS to a customer with four branches and multiple CE routers at each branch. To exchange the routes that are learned from the CE routers, which BGP address family should the ISP activate among the PE routers?
A. address-family multicast B. L2VPN EVPN C. VPNv4 unicast D. IPv4 unicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider\’s switch to the customer\’s router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic?
A. Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router. B. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy. C. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy. D. Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)
A. centralized provisioning B. primary authentication point C. NAT traversal facilitation D. Zero Touch Provisioning E. troubleshooting and monitoring
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7
The customer solution requires QoS to support streaming multimedia over a WAN. An architect chooses to use Per-Hop Behavior. Which solution should the engineer use to classify and mark traffic traveling between branch sites?
A. CBWFQ with DSCP AF2 B. LLQ with DSCP EF C. CBWFQ with DSCP AF3 D. LLQ with DSCP AF4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
In the SD-WAN underlay network, which WAN Edge VPN ID is defined as the transport VPN and is used to carry control traffic?
A. VPN 0 B. VPN 512 C. VPN 128 D. VPN 256
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?
A. AFT for public web presence B. host-initiated tunnels C. dual stack D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?
A. Embedded RP B. BSR C. Auto-RP D. Static RP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
An architect must address sustained congestion on the access and distribution uplink of network. QoS has already been implemented and optimized, but it is no longer effective in ensuring optimal network performance. Which two solutions should the architect use to improver network performance. (Choose two)
A. Reconfigure QoS based on the IntServ model B. Utilize random early detection to manage queues C. Implement higher-speed uplink interfaces D. Bundle additional uplinks into logical EtherChannels E. Configure selective packet discard to drop noncritical network traffic.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
A customer is running HSRP on the core routers. Over time the company has grown and requires more network capacity. In the current environment, some of the downstream interfaces are almost fully utilized, but others are not. Which solution improves the situation?
A. Make router R2 active for half of the VLANs. B. Add more interfaces to R1 and R2. C. Configure port channel toward downstream switches. D. Enable RSTP on the downstream switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site? (Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider. B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits. C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning. D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits. E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE
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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.
A storage engineer requires a solution that achieves multiple paths between a server and storage array. The design must support complete traffic isolation and support a 50% growth in the next year. Which FCoE solution meets these requirements?
A. single switch with multiple links B. at least two VSANs across the fabric C. at least two FC zone sets with multiple zones D. single VSAN across the fabric
A company has several data centers around the world that must be interconnected over Layer2. The service provider supports MPLS services to all the locations. The proposed solution must be vendor agnostic and scalable enough to support the rapid growth of the company. Which data center technology is recommended to achieve this goal?
A. OTV B. VXLAN EVPN C. FabricPath D. EoMPLS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A network engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution based on these requirements: two clusters in the main data center consisting of five HyperFlex nodes one edge node for the remote branch cluster nodes that use one rack unit of space. Which two devices should be used in the remote branch cluster for this design? (Choose two.)
A. UCS B200 B. Gigabit Ethernet Switch C. Fabric Interconnect 6300 D. HX240c E. HX220c
Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?
A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode B. on the host, by using multipathing software C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter
An engineer needs an orchestration and monitoring tool that should be used for managing the storage networks and VXLAN fabrics. The tool should also allow support built-in dashboard and real-time health summary for managed devices. Which tool meets these requirements?
A. Cisco Intersight B. Ansible C. Puppet D. Cisco DCNM
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution to support a virtualized environment in a single data center location. The design must consider these customer requirements:
1. a large-scale cluster with eight or more nodes 2. distributed high-performance file system for virtualized servers 3. high fault tolerance to multiple node failures Which action meets these objectives? A. Configure data destaging and deduplication. B. Implement a replication factor of four. C. Enable logical availability zones. D. Create multiple datastores for storage of VM.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?
A. Resource Reservation Protocol B. weighted round robin C. differentiated services D. strict priority queuing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.
An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point. Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?
A. data group B. FHRP filter C. ARP filter D. control group
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data center network appears to be one large switch?
A. vPC+ B. UDLD C. EVPN D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Server 1 fails to connect to the storage array over the Storage Area Network (SAN) of the Cisco NDS 9000 Series Switch. The requirements are to redesign the storage network and keep these considerations in mind: The traffic from each of the server must be redundant and isolated. The design must tolerate hardware and software failures and upgrades of SAN fabric devices.
Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?
A. Enable NPV and F-Port-channel on ports that face Server 1 on the Fibre Channel switch to create redundant paths. B. Create a SAN port channel that faces the storage device to sustain a link failure. C. Add an additional supervisor to the Fibre Channel switch to support nondisruptive upgrades. D. Place an additional Fibre Channel switch to create two physically independent storage fabrics.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
An engineer is operating data center environment that hosts data-intensive financial applications. The applications are mostly processing HTTP/HTTPS data with large data segments, which results in a CPU contention due to the significant network processing. Which set of the Ethernet adapter policies must be selected to resolve the issue?
A. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues field: 32 Ring Size field: 256 B. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues field: 64 Ring Size field: 128 C. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues field: 128 Ring Size field: 64 D. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues field: 256 Ring Size field: 128
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1. Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)
A. Port B. Rule C. Source D. Application E. Protocol
Correct Answer: BC
2. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?
A. SDN controller and the network elements B. management console and the SDN controller C. management console and the cloud D. SDN controller and the cloud
Correct Answer: A
The Southbound API is used to communicate between Controllers and network devices
3. Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)
A. transparent mode B. routed mode C. inline mode D. active mode E. passive monitor-only mode
How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?
A. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled, and allowed. B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked. C. Traffic is proxied through the intelligent proxy. D. Traffic is allowed but logged.
Correct Answer: B
5. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?
A. hypervisor B. virtual machine C. network D. application
Correct Answer: D
6. What is the difference between GETVPN and IPsec?
A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub B. GETVPN provides key management and security association management C. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1 D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices
Correct Answer: A
7. How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?
A. per policy B. in the Reporting settings C. in the Security Settings section D. per network in the Deployments section
A. It filters NSEL events based on traffic B. It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured C. It logs all event types only to the same collector D. It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active-standby failover pair
Correct Answer: A
9.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the Python script accomplish?
A. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username or said. B. It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE. C. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection. D. It allows authentication with the TLSv1 SSL protocol.
Correct Answer: A
10. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?
A. to register new laptops and mobile devices B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device C. to provision userless and agentless systems D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user
12. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however, it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server\’s authentication key?
A. ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1 B. ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1 C. ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1 D. ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1
Correct Answer: B
To configure an NTP enabled router to require authentication when other devices connect to it, use the following commands: NTP_Server(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus NTP_Server(config)#ntp authenticate NTP_Server(config)#ntp trusted-key 2 Then you must configure the same authentication key on the client router: NTP_Client(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus NTP_Client(config)#ntp authenticate NTP_Client(config)#ntp trusted-key 2 NTP_Client(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1 key 2 Note: To configure a Cisco device as an NTP client, use the command NTP server. For example: Router(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1. This command will instruct the router to query 10.10.10.1 for the time.
13. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?
A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection
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DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to construct a Python script to automate the process of updating the site-to-site VPN settings of the network. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct client method to use to collect the running configuration of a Cisco IOS XE device that uses NETCONF?
A. config=m.copy_config(source=\’running\’) B. config=m.get(source=\’running\’) C. config=m.collect_config(source=\’running\’) D. config=m.get_config(source=\’running\’) Correct Answer: A Reference: https://ncclient.readthedocs.io/en/latest/
QUESTION 3 #
What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)
Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)
A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled B. build upon a robust software stack C. requires device by device-level configurations D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller E. requires significant physical hardware resources Correct Answer: BD
In traditional networks, the control plane and data plane are coupled tightly. It also requires device-by-device configurations and of course, it uses physical hardware resources to function. Whereas, SDN is based on a software stack. In Cisco, SDNs are automated through expressed intent to a software controller.
QUESTION 6 #
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python dictionary named “d”, how is the “status” property referenced?
A. d[‘data’][‘statusList’][‘status’] B. nbvnbvvnbhg C. d{‘data’}[0]{‘statusList’}[0]{‘status’} D. d[data][0][statusList][0][status] Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 #
What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)
A. They can be used only on network devices. B. They use only UDP for communications. C. Parameters can be passed to the calls. D. They must use SSL/TLS. E. They call a single function or service. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/9629399/chap6.htm
QUESTION 8 #
Refer to the exhibit. Which two parameters are mandatory when the Cisco Meraki API is used to create a network? (Choose two.)
A. tags B. timeZone C. type D. disableMyMerakiCom E. name Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9 #
DRAG-DROP
Refer to the exhibit. A GET request is issued to the Cisco DNA Center REST API. Drag and drop the GET request URL subpaths from the left onto the objectives on the right. Not all options are used.
FILL BLANK Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script?
A. ethernet 1 B. ethernet 100 C. ethernet 1/1 D. ethernet 0 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 #
Which two statements are benefits of YANG-push telemetry data over traditional data collection methods? (Choose two.)
A. The subscription requests use less bandwidth than SNMP polls. B. It uses UDP rather than TCP. C. You can precisely define data subscriptions. D. It scales better than SNMP. E. It is supported on more devices than SNMP. Correct Answer: BC Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/id/draft-song-ntf-01.html
QUESTION 13 #
Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?
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Cisco 300-410 ENARSI exam practice questions and answers (Free sharing 1-13)
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer receives this error message when trying to access another router m-band from the serial interface connected to the console of R1. Which configuration is needed on R1 to resolve this issue?
Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two) A. TFTP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. HTTPS E. FTP Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Refer to the following output: Router#show ip nhrp detail 1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used NBMA address: 10.12.1.2 What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information? A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server. B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry. C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router. D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request. E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?
A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas. B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table. C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated. D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area. Correct Answer: C
The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary. It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is: The ASBR compares the summary route\\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
QUESTION 5
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses? A. static NAT B. dynamic NAT C. NAT-PT D. PAT Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.) A. They support the exchange of MPLS labels B. Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs C. They support a maximum of 512.000 routes D. Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources E. Each customer has its private routing table. F. They support IS-IS Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.
HTTP and HTTPS run on TCP port 80 and 443, respectively and we have to remember them. Syslog runs on UDP port 514 while NTP runs on UDP port 123 so if we remember them we can find out the matching answers easily. But maybe there are some typos in this question as 2001:d88:800:200c::c/126 only ranges from 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:c to 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:f (4 hosts in total). It does not cover host 2001:0D88:0800:200c::1f. Same for 2001:D88:800:200c::e/126, which also ranges from 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:c to 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:f and does not cover host 2001:0D88:0800:200c::1c.
QUESTION 8
An engineer is trying to copy an IOS file from one router to another router by using TFTP. Which two actions are needed to allow the file to copy? (Choose two.) A. Copy the file to the destination router with the copy TFTP: flash: command B. Enable the TFTP server on the source router with the TFTP-server flash: command C. TFTP is not supported in recent IOS versions, so an alternative method must be used D. Configure a user on the source router with the username TFTP password TFTP command E. Configure the TFTP authentication on the source router with the TFTP-server authentication local command Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this configuration?
A. The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device. B. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device. C. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”. D. The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A network engineer is investigating a flapping (up/down) interface issue on a core switch that is synchronized to an NTP server. Log output currently does not show the time of the flap. Which command allows the logging on the switch to show the time of the flap according to the clock on the device? A. service timestamps log uptime B. clock summer-time most recurring 2 Sunday mar 2:00 1 Sunday nov 2:00 C. service timestamps log DateTime local time show-timezone D. clock calendar-valid Correct Answer: C By default, Catalyst switches add a simple uptime timestamp to logging messages. This is a cumulative counter that shows the hours, minutes, and seconds since the switch has been booted up
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP? A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access-list TO-OSPF B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix-list TO-OSPF C. only E2 subnets matching access-list TO-OSPF D. only E1 subnets matching prefix-list-OS1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.) A. DMVPN B. MPLS VPN C. Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) D. SSL VPN E. PPPoE Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Network operations cannot read or write any configuration on the device with this configuration from the operations subnet. Which two configurations fix the issue? (Choose two.) A. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community cisco test. B. Modify access-list 1 and allow operations subnet in the access list. C. Modify access-list 1 and allow SNMP in the access list. D. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to version 1. E. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community cisco test 1. Correct Answer: AB
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthernet 0/1. Which configuration command set will allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a Cisco 3504 WLC is located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the Eola tunnel remains in a UP state in the event of failover on the SSO cluster? A. Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured B. Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs C. Enable default gateway reachability check D. Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is the structure of a JSON web token? A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature B. header and payload C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature D. payload and signature Correct Answer: A
JSON Web Token (JWT) is an open standard (RFC 7519) that defines a compact and self-contained way for securely transmitting information between parties as a JSON object. This information can be verified and trusted because it is digitally signed. JWTs can be signed using a secret (with the HMAC algorithm) or a public/private key pair using RSA or ECDSA. JSON Web Tokens are composed of three parts, separated by a dot (.): Header, Payload, Signature. Therefore, a JWT typically looks like the following: xxxxx.yyyyy.zzzzz
The header typically consists of two parts: the type of the token, which is JWT, and the signing algorithm being used, such as HMAC SHA256 or RSA. The second part of the token is the payload, which contains the claims. Claims are statements about an entity (typically, the user) and additional data. To create the signature part you have to take the encoded header, the encoded payload, a secret, the algorithm specified in the header, and sign that. Reference: https://jwt.io/introduction/ https://auth0.com/docs/tokens/references/jwt-structure
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? A. V VPN_B B. Default VRF C. Management VRF D. VRF VPN_A Correct Answer: B There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A. The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS
QUESTION 5
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true? A. LISP learns the next hop B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane Correct Answer: C
The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic across the underlying WAN architecture.
EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \’ OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\’ is not correct. In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \’ LISP learns the next hop\’ is not correct).
Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\’s take an example: If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the advertising next hop 192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.
On both routers, this information would be used to populate the LISP mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at R1, it would use its LISP mapping tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP encapsulated and tunneled toward 198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not change; however, the native LISP mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition
QUESTION 6
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.) A. core switch B. vBond controller C. edge node D. access switch E. border node Correct Answer: CE
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay: + Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric. + Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric. + Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric. + Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?
A. DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+ B. Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode C. Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network D. Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?
A. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !
B. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group … out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny TCP any eq 22 !
C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 ! D. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! Correct Answer: C
CoPP protects the route processor on network devices by treating route processor resources as a separate entity with its own ingress interface (and in some implementations, egress also). CoPP is used to police traffic that is destined to the route processor of the router such as: + routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP. + Gateway redundancy protocols like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP. + Network management protocols like telnet, SSH, SNMP, or RADIUS.
Therefore we must apply the CoPP to deal with SSH because it is in the management plane. CoPP must be put under the “control-plane” command.
QUESTION 10
What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two) A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF C. in enforces configuration semantics D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list E. it enforces configuration constraints Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end? A. ICMP echo B. UDP jitter C. CMP jitter D. TCP connect Correct Answer: B
Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder.
Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time-stamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.
Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Which code results in the working python script displaying a list of network devices from the Cisco DNA Center? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
Summarize
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