350-401 Dumps (r 9.27) Brand-New 350-401 ECOR Exam Preparation Materials

Use our 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) to prepare for the Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam. Our new 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) contains 866 practice questions and answers to ensure you’re ready.

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350-401 ECOR Preparation Materials

To pass the 350-401 exam, understanding the basics of the exam is the first step. Therefore, it is necessary.

The 350-401 exam is also known as the 350-401 ENCOR. It requires you to answer 100 ± questions in two hours and get 750-850 out of 1000 points to pass. It costs $400 to take the exam.

Passing the 350-401 exam is closely linked to the following certifications:

  • CCNP Enterprise (CCNP Enterprise Core Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Qualifying Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Wireless (CCIE Enterprise Wireless Qualifying Exam)

How do I prepare for the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) exam?

Pass the 350-401 exam, how to prepare is important. You can use Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) to prepare for the exam. It has the latest 350-401 exam practice questions that will help you win exams easily.

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  • Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • ENCOR training videos
  • ENCOR study materials

……

There are more, welcome to add.

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This blog provides you with free Cisco 350-401 ECOR exam preparation materials.

You can download the free 350-401 exam question: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1tkPwTavFjjXlt4gzLWBvpvUf9auk-Xlu/view?usp=sharing at [google drive].

Or read the online 350-401 exam questions directly below.

Cisco 350-401 Free Dumps: New 350-401 ENCOR Questions Test:

NEW QUESTION 1

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A. a predetermined string that is passed from client to server
B. a one-time encrypted token
C. a username that is stored in the local router database
D. a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Correct Answer: A

In REST API Security – API keys are widely used in the industry and became some sort of standard, however, this
the method should not be considered a good security measure.

API Keys were created as somewhat of a fix to the early authentication issues of HTTP Basic Authentication and other
such systems. In this method, a unique generated value is assigned to each first-time user, signifying that the user is
known. When the user attempts to re-enter the system, their unique key (sometimes generated from their hardware
combination and IP data, and other times randomly generated by the server which knows them) is used to prove that
they’re the same user as before.

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/4-most-used-rest-api-authentication-methods/

NEW QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.



An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo\\’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30
seconds and continue until stopped?

A. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life forever
B. IP SLA schedule 30 start-time now life forever
C. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life 30
D. IP SLA schedule 100 life forever

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

A. VXLAN
B. IS-IS
C. 802 1Q
D. CTS

Correct Answer: C

SD-Access Extended Nodes provide the ability to extend the enterprise network by providing connectivity to non-carpeted spaces of an enterprise – commonly called the Extended Enterprise. This allows network connectivity and management of IoT devices and the deployment of traditional enterprise end devices in outdoor and non-carpeted environments such as distribution centers, warehouses, or Campus parking lots.

This feature extends consistent, policy-based automation to Cisco Industrial Ethernet, Catalyst 3560-CX Compact, and
Digital Building Series switches and enables segmentation for user endpoints and IoT devices connected to these
nodes.

Using Cisco DNA Center automation, switches in the extended node role are onboarded to their connected edge node
using an 802.1Q trunk over an EtherChannel with one or multiple physical link members. Extended nodes are
discovered using zero-touch Plug-and-Play.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-designguide.html#Network_Components

NEW QUESTION 4

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address 50
IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
B. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast route-map ACL-to-red
C. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.256 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
D. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.265 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address acl-to-red IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast ACL-to-red

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS authentication queries the router`s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:
Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm
Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C
B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.
C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.
D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A
E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “Tommy” under normal operation?

A. Cisco
B. local
C. 0 Cisco
D. Tommy

Correct Answer: A

In this question, there are two different passwords for user “Tommy”:
+
In the TACACS+ server, the password is “Tommy”
+
In the local database of the router, the password is “Cisco”.
From the line “login authentication local” we know that the router uses the local database for authentication so the
password should be “Cisco”.
Note: “… password 0 …” here means unencrypted password.

NEW QUESTION 10

In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database?

A. fabric border node
B. fabric edge node
C. fabric wireless controller
D. control plane node

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

NEW QUESTION 13

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node.

Correct Answer: A

SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node Closer Look Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map
Server / Resolver Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+
A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)
+
Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID (EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128*, or MAC/48
+
Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+
Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+
Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility, and RLOC information

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/latam/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf

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300-720 Dumps [Updated] Perfect Cisco 300-720 SESA Preparation Material

When you prepare for the Cisco 300-720 exam, you must be equipped with an updated 300-720 dumps. Because the 300-720 dumps are your perfect 300-720 SESA preparation material.

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Cisco 300-720 exam details: 300-720 (SESA) wondering?

Introduction 300-720 (SESA):

Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 300-720 SESA
Exam Title: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
language: English
Cost: $300
This exam tests:
Learning Resources:
1 Cisco Learning Platform
2 Instructor-led training
3 Practice Tests – Pass4itSure 300-720 dumps
4 books

CCNP Security Certification 

To earn the CCNP Security credential, you need to pass two exams: a core exam 350-701 SCOR and an optional security concentration exam. 300-720 is a self-selected security concentration exam, and the necessity of passing it can be imagined.

How to effectively prepare for the Cisco 300-720 (SESA) exam?

Make sure you have all the necessary useful Cisco 300-720 preparation materials that will help you with your 300-720 (SESA) exam questions. Select update 300-720 dumps – Pass4itSure offers. It is the right choice for you. You must prepare well to pass the exam.

Where can I find the 300-720 exam questions? Share your 300-720 free dumps some exam questions below:

QUESTION # 1

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query
B. Update Frequency
C. Server Priority
D. Entity ID

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Ad
min_Guide_11_5/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION # 2

A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be
scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be
assigned to a mail policy named ‘Sales’ that has yet to be created. Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy
B. Preliminary Mail Policy
C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy
D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html#task_1409483

QUESTION # 3

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject
B. workqueue
C. action
D. delivery
E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_12_1_chapter_011.pdf
(p.1)

QUESTION # 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?

A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all
B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all
C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all
D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 5

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the
email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.
C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 6

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering
B. message exceptions
C. message detachment
D. message aggregation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 7

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the
Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering
B. Connection Reputation Filtering
C. Talos Reputation Filtering
D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan
B. attachment scanning timeout
C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type
D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-onav/td-p/3923243

QUESTION # 9

Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most
flexible way?

A. Set up the interface group with the flag.
B. Issue the altsrchost command.
C. Map the envelope sender address to the host.
D. Apply a filter on the message.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html#con_1133810

QUESTION # 10

What is a benefit of enabling external SPAM quarantine on Cisco SMA?

A. It provides access to the SPAM quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete.
B. It provides the ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate.
C. It provides the ability to consolidate SPAM quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.
D. It provides the ability to back up SPAM quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 11

When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.)

A. redirect
B. return
C. drop
D. delay
E. abandon

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION # 12

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter
B. antivirus scanning
C. outbreak filter
D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handlemessages-that-skipped-d.html

QUESTION # 13

What is the default behavior of any listener for TLS communication?

A. preferred-verify
B. off
C. preferred
D. required

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118954-config-esa-00.html

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300-420 Dumps [Update]Most Useful Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks Online Resource

The only unavoidable online resource for successfully passing the Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam is the 300-420 dumps. Exactly, the updated 300-420 dumps are the most efficient online resource for you to learn Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks.

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Choosing the right Cisco CCNP 300-420 dumps of online resources is the first shot to successfully launch the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam.

What do you need to know most about the 300-420 exam?

Pick out the key points and talk about the next 300-420 exam

CCNP Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is one of the CCNP Enterprise certification intensive exams (300-410 ENARSI, 300-415 ENSDWI, 300-420 ENSLD, 300-425 ENWLSD, 300-430 ENWLSI, 300-435 ENAUTO). Passing the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is also required to pass the core exam – 350-401 ENCOR in order for you to receive the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Speaking of CCNP Enterprise Certification, let me just say what are the points to note?

  • There are no formal prerequisites, but you should have a good understanding of the exam topics before taking the exam.
  • Candidates need to have three to five years of experience implementing enterprise networking solutions.

Some resource links to share:

CCNP Enterprise At-a-glance

Frequently asked questions

Legacy CCNP migration tools

Practice Cisco (ENSLD) 300-420 Free Dumps First:

QUESTION 1

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?

A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RIPng

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

An ISP provides Layer 3 VPN service over MPLS to a customer with four branches and multiple CE routers at each
branch. To exchange the routes that are learned from the CE routers, which BGP address family should the ISP activate
among the PE routers?

A. address-family multicast
B. L2VPN EVPN
C. VPNv4 unicast
D. IPv4 unicast

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider\’s switch to the customer\’s router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic?

A. Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router.
B. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy.
C. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy.
D. Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning
B. primary authentication point
C. NAT traversal facilitation
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7

The customer solution requires QoS to support streaming multimedia over a WAN. An architect chooses to use Per-Hop
Behavior. Which solution should the engineer use to classify and mark traffic traveling between branch sites?

A. CBWFQ with DSCP AF2
B. LLQ with DSCP EF
C. CBWFQ with DSCP AF3
D. LLQ with DSCP AF4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

In the SD-WAN underlay network, which WAN Edge VPN ID is defined as the transport VPN and is used to carry control
traffic?

A. VPN 0
B. VPN 512
C. VPN 128
D. VPN 256

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application
between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?

A. AFT for public web presence
B. host-initiated tunnels
C. dual stack
D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11

An architect must address sustained congestion on the access and distribution uplink of network. QoS has already been
implemented and optimized, but it is no longer effective in ensuring optimal network performance. Which two solutions
should the architect use to improver network performance. (Choose two)

A. Reconfigure QoS based on the IntServ model
B. Utilize random early detection to manage queues
C. Implement higher-speed uplink interfaces
D. Bundle additional uplinks into logical EtherChannels
E. Configure selective packet discard to drop noncritical network traffic.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is running HSRP on the core routers. Over time the company has grown and requires more network
capacity. In the current environment, some of the downstream interfaces are almost fully utilized, but others are not.
Which solution improves the situation?

A. Make router R2 active for half of the VLANs.
B. Add more interfaces to R1 and R2.
C. Configure port channel toward downstream switches.
D. Enable RSTP on the downstream switches.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)

A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.

Correct Answer: AE

Want to continue? Click here for more exam questions.

Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks 300-420 Free Dumps PDF Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Gkhs1fAjdAInIbvtgyNGznqIzNuAVKZZ/view?usp=sharing

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300-610 Dumps [Update] Most Useful 300-610 DCID Online Resource

Most of us are ordinary people, as ordinary people preparing for the Cisco CCNP certification 300-610 (DCID) exam, there is an urgent need to choose excellent 300-610 online resources as suitable preparation materials. The latest Cisco 300-610 dumps meet your needs and are available from Pass4itSure.

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Prepare for a well-rounded 300-610 dumps to be prepared to brave the challenges of the Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID) exam.

What should you focus on for the 300-610 exam

Exam Information

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Abbreviation: 300-610 DCID
Exam duration: 90 minutes
Language: English
Exam fee: $300, plus tax or use Cisco Learning Credits

Associated certifications:

Two points of attention

  1. Be aware that certification exams are overdue.
    It is generally valid for three years from the date of adoption.
  2. Once certified, you will have the right to use the Cisco Certification logo that identifies you. Before using the logo, you must read and confirm the Cisco Certified Logo Protocol.
Cisco CCNP Data Center

Next, focus on this certification(CCNP Data Center):

To qualify for the Cisco CCNP Data Center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and the optional data center concentration exam.

See the picture below, you will understand:

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What else do I need to do besides finding the updated 300-610 dumps?

Practice is also needed. Practice the latest Cisco 300-610 DCID exam Q&A daily. Next you may ask where to get the practice questions. Don’t worry, I’m sharing below with your free dumps practice Q&A 1-13.

QUESTION 1

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 2

A storage engineer requires a solution that achieves multiple paths between a server and storage array. The design
must support complete traffic isolation and support a 50% growth in the next year. Which FCoE solution meets these
requirements?

A. single switch with multiple links
B. at least two VSANs across the fabric
C. at least two FC zone sets with multiple zones
D. single VSAN across the fabric

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/dmm/dm
mcfg/toplgy.html

QUESTION 3

A company has several data centers around the world that must be interconnected over Layer2. The service provider
supports MPLS services to all the locations. The proposed solution must be vendor agnostic and scalable enough to
support the rapid growth of the company. Which data center technology is recommended to achieve this goal?

A. OTV
B. VXLAN EVPN
C. FabricPath
D. EoMPLS

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A network engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution based on these requirements:
two clusters in the main data center consisting of five HyperFlex nodes one edge node for the remote branch cluster
nodes that use one rack unit of space. Which two devices should be used in the remote branch cluster for this design? (Choose two.)

A. UCS B200
B. Gigabit Ethernet Switch
C. Fabric Interconnect 6300
D. HX240c
E. HX220c

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en_in/products/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx240c-m4-nodes-ucsb200-blade-servers/index.html

QUESTION 5

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer needs an orchestration and monitoring tool that should be used for managing the storage networks and
VXLAN fabrics. The tool should also allow support built-in dashboard and real-time health summary for managed
devices. Which tool meets these requirements?

A. Cisco Intersight
B. Ansible
C. Puppet
D. Cisco DCNM

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

An engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution to support a virtualized environment in a single data center
location. The design must consider these customer requirements:

1. a large-scale cluster with eight or more nodes
2. distributed high-performance file system for virtualized servers
3. high fault tolerance to multiple node failures Which action meets these objectives?
A. Configure data destaging and deduplication.
B. Implement a replication factor of four.
C. Enable logical availability zones.
D. Create multiple datastores for storage of VM.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data
centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment
was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided
to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Config
uration_Guide_2_2/configuring_network_related_policies.html#task_7F03A03C719A4A44B8ACFAD73AADC73C

QUESTION 10

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between
the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway
on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the
outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point. Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data
center network appears to be one large switch?

A. vPC+
B. UDLD
C. EVPN
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Server 1 fails to connect to the storage array over the Storage Area Network (SAN) of the Cisco NDS 9000 Series
Switch. The requirements are to redesign the storage network and keep these considerations in mind:
The traffic from each of the server must be redundant and isolated.
The design must tolerate hardware and software failures and upgrades of SAN fabric devices.

Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Enable NPV and F-Port-channel on ports that face Server 1 on the Fibre Channel switch to create redundant paths.
B. Create a SAN port channel that faces the storage device to sustain a link failure.
C. Add an additional supervisor to the Fibre Channel switch to support nondisruptive upgrades.
D. Place an additional Fibre Channel switch to create two physically independent storage fabrics.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

An engineer is operating data center environment that hosts data-intensive financial applications. The applications are
mostly processing HTTP/HTTPS data with large data segments, which results in a CPU contention due to the significant
network processing. Which set of the Ethernet adapter policies must be selected to resolve the issue?

A. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 32 Ring Size field: 256
B. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 64 Ring Size field: 128
C. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 128 Ring Size field: 64
D. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 256 Ring Size field: 128

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_01010.html

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With the updated 350-701 dumps, you can successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) exam.

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1. Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol

Correct Answer: BC

2. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

A. SDN controller and the network elements
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the cloud

Correct Answer: A

The Southbound API is used to communicate between Controllers and network devices

3. Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A. transparent mode
B. routed mode
C. inline mode
D. active mode
E. passive monitor-only mode

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/asdm72/firewall/asa-firewall-asdm/modulessfr.html

4. Refer to the exhibit.
How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled, and allowed.
B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.
C. Traffic is proxied through the intelligent proxy.
D. Traffic is allowed but logged.

Correct Answer: B

5. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A. hypervisor
B. virtual machine
C. network
D. application

Correct Answer: D

6. What is the difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub
B. GETVPN provides key management and security association management
C. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1
D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Correct Answer: A

7. How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

A. per policy
B. in the Reporting settings
C. in the Security Settings section
D. per network in the Deployments section

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/log-management

8. What is the capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

A. It filters NSEL events based on traffic
B. It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured
C. It logs all event types only to the same collector
D. It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active-standby failover pair

Correct Answer: A

9.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the Python script accomplish?

A. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username or said.
B. It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE.
C. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.
D. It allows authentication with the TLSv1 SSL protocol.

Correct Answer: A

10. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A. to register new laptops and mobile devices
B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device
C. to provision userless and agentless systems
D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-4/mydevices/b_mydevices_2x.html

11. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

A. File Analysis
B. SafeSearch
C. SSL Decryption
D. Destination Lists

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.umbrella.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004564126-SSL-Decryption-in-the-IntelligentProxy

12. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server
devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to
authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however, it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to
accept the server\’s authentication key?

A. ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1
B. ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1
C. ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1
D. ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Correct Answer: B

To configure an NTP enabled router to require authentication when other devices connect to it, use the following
commands:
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Server(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
Then you must configure the same authentication key on the client router:
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Client(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
NTP_Client(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1 key 2
Note: To configure a Cisco device as an NTP client, use the command NTP server.
For example:
Router(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1.
This command will instruct the router to query 10.10.10.1 for the time.

13. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent
the session during the initial TCP communication?

A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails
B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails
C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication
D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Correct Answer: A

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Get free Cisco 300-435 practice test questions

QUESTION 1 #

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to construct a Python script to
automate the process of updating the site-to-site VPN settings of the network. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/meraki/api-v1/#!get-network-appliance-vpn-site-to-site-vpn

QUESTION 2 #

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct client method to use to collect the running configuration of a Cisco IOS XE device that uses NETCONF?

A. config=m.copy_config(source=\’running\’)
B. config=m.get(source=\’running\’)
C. config=m.collect_config(source=\’running\’)
D. config=m.get_config(source=\’running\’)
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://ncclient.readthedocs.io/en/latest/

QUESTION 3 #

What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted
B. non-cacheable
C. stateless
D. implemented over HTTP
E. parameters passed in the headers
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8-0/MSE_REST_API/Guide/Cisco_MSE_REST_API_G
uide/REST_Introduction.pdf

QUESTION 4 #

Which two API calls must be issued to attach a device template in Cisco SD-WAN? (Choose two.)

A. “monitor device action status” GET API request with the device ID to display the status of the attached action
B. “monitor device action status” GET API request with the process ID to display the status of the attached action
C. PUT call to initiate the attached action
D. POST call to initiate the attached action
E. GET call to initiate the attached action
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Device_Configuration_APIs/Device_Templates

QUESTION 5 #

Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)

A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled
B. build upon a robust software stack
C. requires device by device-level configurations
D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller
E. requires significant physical hardware resources
Correct Answer: BD

In traditional networks, the control plane and data plane are coupled tightly. It also requires device-by-device configurations and of course, it uses physical hardware resources to function. Whereas, SDN is based on a software stack. In Cisco, SDNs are automated through expressed intent to a software controller.

QUESTION 6 #

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health
API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python
dictionary named “d”, how is the “status” property referenced?

A. d[‘data’][‘statusList’][‘status’]
B. nbvnbvvnbhg
C. d{‘data’}[0]{‘statusList’}[0]{‘status’}
D. d[data][0][statusList][0][status]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7 #

What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only on network devices.
B. They use only UDP for communications.
C. Parameters can be passed to the calls.
D. They must use SSL/TLS.
E. They call a single function or service.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/9629399/chap6.htm

QUESTION 8 #

Refer to the exhibit. Which two parameters are mandatory when the Cisco Meraki API is used to create a network?
(Choose two.)

A. tags
B. timeZone
C. type
D. disableMyMerakiCom
E. name
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9 #

DRAG-DROP

Refer to the exhibit. A GET request is issued to the Cisco DNA Center REST API. Drag and drop the GET request URL
subpaths from the left onto the objectives on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_captive_portal.pdf

QUESTION 10 #

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional
Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.

A. bfd/synced/sessions?

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Real-Time_Monitoring_APIs/BFD

QUESTION 11 #

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script?

A. ethernet 1
B. ethernet 100
C. ethernet 1/1
D. ethernet 0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

Which two statements are benefits of YANG-push telemetry data over traditional data collection methods? (Choose
two
.)

A. The subscription requests use less bandwidth than SNMP polls.
B. It uses UDP rather than TCP.
C. You can precisely define data subscriptions.
D. It scales better than SNMP.
E. It is supported on more devices than SNMP.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/id/draft-song-ntf-01.html

QUESTION 13 #

Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?

A. configuration changes are automatically activated
B. uses the YANG data models to communicate
C. supports JSON and data encoding
D. validates the content of a candidate datastore
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/169/b_169_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.html

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Is it possible to crack Cisco CCNP 300-410 exam by self-study?

300-410 exam

Nothing is Impossible! It is feasible to clear the Cisco CCNP 300-410 exam through self-study. There are plenty of resources available on the Internet. In addition, you can also find helpful books in the bookstore. But if you don’t have experience in this field, it will be very difficult. But don’t worry, the 300-410 exam dumps will help you. Pass4itSure has updated the latest valid Cisco 300-410 exam questions and answers. All exam questions are verified to ensure successful passing of the exam. Pass4itSure 300-410 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-410.html (300-410 Q&A). Years of exam experience, 98% exam pass rate.

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Cisco 300-410 ENARSI exam practice questions and answers (Free sharing 1-13)

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.

q1

An engineer receives this error message when trying to access another router m-band from the serial interface
connected to the console of R1. Which configuration is needed on R1 to resolve this issue?

q1-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
https://community.cisco.com/t5/other-network-architecture/out-of-band-router-access/td-p/333295

QUESTION 2

Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. HTTPS
E. FTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3

Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address: 10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the
summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

q4

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.
B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.
C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.
D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.
Correct Answer: C

The summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.
It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed
routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:
The ASBR compares the summary route\\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to
find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet
exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.

QUESTION 5

Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They support the exchange of MPLS labels
B. Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs
C. They support a maximum of 512.000 routes
D. Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources
E. Each customer has its private routing table.
F. They support IS-IS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.

q7

HTTP and HTTPS run on TCP port 80 and 443, respectively and we have to remember them.
Syslog runs on UDP port 514 while NTP runs on UDP port 123 so if we remember them we can find out the matching
answers easily. But maybe there are some typos in this question as 2001:d88:800:200c::c/126 only ranges from
2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:c to 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:f (4 hosts in total).
It does not cover host 2001:0D88:0800:200c::1f. Same for 2001:D88:800:200c::e/126, which also ranges from
2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:c to 2001:d88:800:200c:0:0:0:f and does not cover host 2001:0D88:0800:200c::1c.

QUESTION 8

An engineer is trying to copy an IOS file from one router to another router by using TFTP. Which two actions are needed to allow the file to copy? (Choose two.)
A. Copy the file to the destination router with the copy TFTP: flash: command
B. Enable the TFTP server on the source router with the TFTP-server flash: command
C. TFTP is not supported in recent IOS versions, so an alternative method must be used
D. Configure a user on the source router with the username TFTP password TFTP command
E. Configure the TFTP authentication on the source router with the TFTP-server authentication local command
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this configuration?

A. The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.
B. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.
C. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.
D. The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A network engineer is investigating a flapping (up/down) interface issue on a core switch that is synchronized to an NTP server. Log output currently does not show the time of the flap. Which command allows the logging on the switch to show the time of the flap according to the clock on the device?
A. service timestamps log uptime
B. clock summer-time most recurring 2 Sunday mar 2:00 1 Sunday nov 2:00
C. service timestamps log DateTime local time show-timezone
D. clock calendar-valid
Correct Answer: C
By default, Catalyst switches add a simple uptime timestamp to logging messages. This is a cumulative counter that
shows the hours, minutes, and seconds since the switch has been booted up

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?
A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access-list TO-OSPF
B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix-list TO-OSPF
C. only E2 subnets matching access-list TO-OSPF
D. only E1 subnets matching prefix-list-OS1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN
B. MPLS VPN
C. Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI)
D. SSL VPN
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Network operations cannot read or write any configuration on the device with this configuration from
the operations subnet. Which two configurations fix the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community cisco test.
B. Modify access-list 1 and allow operations subnet in the access list.
C. Modify access-list 1 and allow SNMP in the access list.
D. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to version 1.
E. Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community cisco test 1.
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24.
The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthernet 0/1. Which configuration command set will allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a
Cisco 3504 WLC is located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the Eola tunnel remains in a UP state in the
event of failover on the SSO cluster?
A. Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured
B. Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs
C. Enable default gateway reachability check
D. Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What is the structure of a JSON web token?
A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature
B. header and payload
C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature
D. payload and signature
Correct Answer: A

JSON Web Token (JWT) is an open standard (RFC 7519) that defines a compact and self-contained way for securely
transmitting information between parties as a JSON object. This information can be verified and trusted because it is
digitally signed. JWTs can be signed using a secret (with the HMAC algorithm) or a public/private key pair using RSA or
ECDSA. JSON Web Tokens are composed of three parts, separated by a dot (.): Header, Payload, Signature.
Therefore, a JWT typically looks like the following:
xxxxx.yyyyy.zzzzz

The header typically consists of two parts: the type of the token, which is JWT, and the signing algorithm being used,
such as HMAC SHA256 or RSA.
The second part of the token is the payload, which contains the claims. Claims are statements about an entity (typically,
the user) and additional data. To create the signature part you have to take the encoded header, the encoded payload,
a secret, the algorithm specified in the header, and sign that.
Reference:
https://jwt.io/introduction/
https://auth0.com/docs/tokens/references/jwt-structure

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. V VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
Correct Answer: B
There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A.
The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS

QUESTION 5

Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane
Correct Answer: C

The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses
EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic
across the underlying WAN architecture.

EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within
the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP
for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \’ OTP uses
LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\’ is not correct. In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP
control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \’ LISP learns the next hop\’ is not
correct).

Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running
OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as
RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\’s take an example: If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn
about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the
advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the
network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the advertising next hop
192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.

On both routers, this information would be used to populate the LISP
mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at R1, it would use its LISP mapping
tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP encapsulated and tunneled toward
198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not change; however, the native LISP
mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert
Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition

QUESTION 6

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+
Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location
(EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer
device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the
SDA fabric.
+
Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access
fabric role other than underlay services.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

A. DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+
B. Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode
C. Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network
D. Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2,
and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip
access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list
extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !

B. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip
access-group … out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
deny TCP any eq 22
!

C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended
CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 !
D. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended
CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !
Correct Answer: C

CoPP protects the route processor on network devices by treating route processor resources as a separate entity with
its own ingress interface (and in some implementations, egress also). CoPP is used to police traffic that is destined to
the route processor of the router such as:
+
routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP.
+
Gateway redundancy protocols like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP. + Network management protocols like telnet, SSH, SNMP,
or RADIUS.

Therefore we must apply the CoPP to deal with SSH because it is in the management plane. CoPP must be put under
the “control-plane” command.

QUESTION 10

What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two)
A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information
B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF
C. in enforces configuration semantics
D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list
E. it enforces configuration constraints
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?
A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect
Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA
request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the
responder.

Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a
time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time-stamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.

The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate
and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for
dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP
traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

QUESTION 12

Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which code results in the working python script displaying a list of network devices from the Cisco DNA Center?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

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