[2018 New Updated] Download Up to Date Cisco 400-151 Dumps CCIE Data Center Exam Questions For Your Excellence with Youtube Preparation Materials (Question 6 – Question 32)

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-32)

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?
A. Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.
B. Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
C. Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
D. Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D

MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?
A. Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.
B. Only Captive Portal can be used.
C. Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.
D. You must run an ADquery for every domain.
Correct Answer: D

Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in Gaia?
A. In the CLI via sysconfig
B. In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes
C. In the CLI with the command “route add”

D. In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B

Which command will erase all CRL’s?
A. vpn crl_zap
B. vpn flush
C. cpstop/cpstart
D. vpn crladmin
Correct Answer: A

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: C

Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Correct Answer: A

If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

400-151 vce Correct Answer: B

David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Correct Answer: A

From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?

A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Correct Answer: C

In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast

400-151 dumps Correct Answer: D

You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C

When an 802.11 station operating in Power Save mode with a ReceiveDTIMs parameter of TRUE receives a beacon containing a DTIM indicating queued broadcast traffic, what task does the 802.11 standard require the client station to perform?
A. The client station must send an ATIM frame to the access point if the station is the first AID in the DTIM list.
B. The client station must arbitrate for the medium and immediately issue an RTS directed to the access point with the NAV set to a value of 32,768.
C. To remain awake to receive the broadcast frame(s) to follow the beacon that contains the DTIM.
D. The client station must broadcast a CTS-to-Self frame indicating the station need to control the medium long enough to receive all of the broadcast frames.
E. The client station must send a CF-Poll Response frame to the access point with the Reason Code set to 0x00.
F. The client station must send a PS-Poll frame to the access point for every broadcast frame it receives with the More Data bit set to one.
400-151 pdf Answer: C

Given the screenshot shown, choose the statement that accurately describes what is being seen by this protocol analyzer.
A. One wireless station sent an Echo Request (PING) to another wireless station through an access point.
B. The BSSID has been randomly generated.
C. The Duration field value’s 164 microseconds is sufficient to reserve the RF medium for only the following frames: SIFS, ACK.
D. Bits (0-14) of the Duration/ID field in this frame indicates the AID of the source station
Answer: B

Given the displayed wireless protocol analyzer trace, which of the following is true?
A. Both 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 and 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 are operating in Ad Hoc mode using WPA compliant 802.1X/EAP authentication.
B. 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 is a client station sending unicast data frames to a network node on the wired LAN.
C. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a client station performing a successful 802.1X/EAPreauthentication.
D. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a station sending encrypted broadcast data using an encryption key generated by the authenticator.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the access point, and data encrypted with static WEP is being sent from a wired station to the wireless station 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9.
400-151 vce Answer: D

In the 802.11b standard, the PLCP header Service field has a Modulation Selection bit. Which of the following are true regarding use of the Modulation Selection bit?
A. The Modulation Selection bit is used by the access point in CF-End frames to note which modulation will be used for Data frames in the contention period to follow.
B. Based on the setting of the Modulation Selection bit and the value in the Signal field, the modulation to be used can be uniquely determined.
C. Based on the Modulation Selection bit in received Data frames, the receiving station can determine which modulation to use when sending acknowledgements.
D. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine whether CCK or PBCC is in use for any speed where either could be used.
E. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine which modulation will be used to send the entire PPDU.

Answer: B,D

What is an advantage of being able to fragment MSDUs and MMPDUs on a wireless network?
A. Increased throughput due to interference from other 802.11 stations.
B. Decreased translation time between 802.3 and 802.11 networks at the access point.
C. Increased throughput in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment.
D. Decreased number of 802.11 control and management frames required for transmission.
E. Increased throughput in a clean RF environment
F. Decreased retransmission overhead in a noisy RF environment.
400-151 exam Answer: F

In compliance with the 802.11g standard, access points may provide which services to increase overall network performance in an OFDM-only environment?
A. Arbitrary Beacon Spacing
B. DownstreamQoS
C. Short Slot Time
D. Short PLCP Preamble support
E. Fast Sleep Recovery
Answer: C

Which features of a wireless LAN protocol analyzer allow troubleshooters to monitor network events that are happening while the troubleshooters are not watching the analyzer user interface?
A. Event Triggers
B. Node Statistics
C. Notifications
D. Peer Map
E. Trending Analysis
F. Alarms
400-151 dumps Answer: A,C,F

The 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation due to an unreliable medium. Which two fields in the 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Ordered Service field
B. Sequence Control field
C. Frame Control field
D. ERP Information field
E. Capability Information field
F. DS Parameter field
Answer: B,C

What 802.11 MAC layer function is illustrated by the following diagram?
A. Sequential Fragmentation
B. PCF mode polling
C. Fragment Bursting
D. Sequential Acknowledgements
E. CP Regulated Spacing
400-151 pdf Answer: C

When operating in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment in which both 802.11b and 802.11g client stations are present and transmitting data on the network, which of the statements below are accurate concerning the 802.11g access point responsibilities in the Basic Service Set?
A. The access point will alternate transmitting beacons using long and short preambles so that client stations using either preamble length can associate.

B. The access point may transmit beacons using a short preamble only if all of the client stations in the BSS have indicated support for short preambles.
C. If beacons are transmitted using short preambles, all associated client stations are required to transmit all data frames using short preambles.
D. The access must transmit beacons using a short preamble in a mixed mode environment. Client stations not supporting short preambles will not be able to associate.
Answer: B

The More Fragments subfield is found in which 802.11 frame field?
A. Protocol Order field
B. Frame Control field
C. MAC Service Data Unit field
D. Sequence Control field
E. Fragmentation Control field
400-151 vce Answer: B

You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D

How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D

Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.
A. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
B. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
Correct Answer: D

Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw printver
D. cpstat -gw
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: A

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[2017 New Updated] Helpful Cisco 400-101 Dumps Vce CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam V5.1 Video Training Online

What is Cisco 400-101 dumps? The CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam (400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching) exam is a 120 Minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Routing and Switching certification.”CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-101 exam. Helpful Cisco 400-101 dumps vce CCIE Routing and Switching exam V5.1 video training online. It is famous for the most comprehensive and updated by the highest rate https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps. It also can save time and effort.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:
7.Which technology does OSPFv3 use to authenticate packets
A. SHA256
D. IPsec
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
8.Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)
A. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor
E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: BC
9.Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
10.Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use
D. IP-in-IP
Correct Answer: C
11.Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. Revision number
C. Region name
D. Domain name
E. Password
F. VLAN-to-instance assignment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: BCF
12.Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow.
B. It provides better security than dynamic routing.
C. It reduces configuration errors.
D. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.
E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: BD

13. To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
400-101 vce Answer: D
14. To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B
15. Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on

B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
400-101 exam Answer: A
16. Choose the best way to minimize backup time.
A. Tape backup over the WAN connection
B. Utilizing a larger tape capacity
C. Organizing data in volumes and qtrees
D. Using multiple local tape drives
Answer: D
17. What two conditions should be verified prior to performing remote backups? (Choose 2)
A. The trust relationships between the source and the destination
B. That clustered failover is disabled
C. That rsh is enabled for remote access
D. That remote backup is enabled
400-101 dumps Answer: AC
18. Which line describes a 50M tree quota for a qtree named “mydata” on volume “vol1”? Target Type Disk Files Thold Sdisk Sfiles A.  /vol/vol1/mydata tree 50M –

B. /vol/vol1 [email protected] 50M –
C. steve [email protected]/vol/vol1 50M –
D. /vol/vol1 qtree/steve 50M –
Answer: A
19. If there are problems with user quotas being misapplied, the following two files should be checked:
A. /etc/quotas and /etc/rc
B. /etc/quotas and /etc/usermap.cfg

C. /etc/rc and /etc/usermap.cfg
D. /etc/quotas and /etc/quotarules
400-101 vce Answer: B
20. Which three actions can be performed with the restore command? (Choose 3)
A. View a list of files on tape.
B. Restore individual files and directories.
C. Restart a failed restore process.
D. Enter a number to specify how many filemarks should be skipped.
Answer: ABC

Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
400-101 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number
10. Or
11. mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem.
12. mkdir /mnt/neo
13. vi /etc/fstab
14. Write:
15. /dev/hda? /mnt/neo ext3 defaults 1 2
16. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
17. mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo

Your System is going use as a router for and Enable the IP Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
400-101 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop the iptables service.
neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota toneo user. You should apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn’t occupied space more than 70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 ¨¤ To enable th quota on filesystem you should mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ¨¤Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home ¨¤ Remounting the /home with updated mount options. ou can verify that/home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ¨¤ Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home ¨¤ Quota Policy editor See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard

/dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without losing any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
400-101 pdf Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the size of Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical Volume without unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using ext2online command.
Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobyte-sized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas or users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2

2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition. Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.

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[2017 New Updated] The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps Verison 2.0 Exam Questions Preparation Materials Youtube Try

Has anybody attempted the Cisco 300-115 dumps exam? “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks“, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 dumps verison 2.0 exam questions preparation materials Youtube try. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dumps exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As:

A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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Question No : 116  Click the Exhibit button.
What type of power problem does the exhibit illustrate?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Impulsive transient
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 117 What is a measure of heat intensity?
A. Volume
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
Question No : 118  According to the Ideal Gas Law, as the pressure inside a balloon increases to a point that it
exceeds the pressure on the outside of the balloon, which property of the balloon also
A. Color Intensity
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Temperature
210-250 dump  Answer: C
Question No : 119  What is a property of heat transfer?
A. Heat is destroyed.
B. Heat is transferred in the direction from hot to cold.
C. Heat is transferred in the direction from cold to hot.
D. Heat is transferred in both directions (hot to cold and cold to hot).
Answer: B
Question No : 120  Which method transfers heat through a solid material?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
210-250 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 121 Which method of heat transfer occurs when stepping barefoot onto hot pavement?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: C
Question No : 122 Which substance transfers heat most efficiently?
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Vapor
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 123 Which method transfers heat through the movement of a liquid or gas?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Question No : 124 Which method transfers heat by electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 125 Which method of heat transfer causes electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 126 What percentage of electricity used to power IT equipment is typically converted into heat?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 127  What is the most common direction of airflow through a rack mount blade server assembly?
A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to front
D. Bottom to top
Answer: B
Question No : 128 The Ideal Gas Law governs the relationship of which three state variables? (Choose three.)
A. Volume
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure
D. Conductivity
E. Temperature
210-250 dump Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 129 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the pressure when the temperature is
increased and the volume is held constant?
A. The pressure does not change.
B. The pressure initially increases and then decreases.
C. The pressure increases.
D. The pressure decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 130 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the temperature and pressure inside an aerosol can that is being sprayed?
A. Temperature and pressure both increase.
B. Temperature and pressure are decreased.
C. Temperature and pressure are unchanged.
D. Temperature is unchanged and pressure is decreased.
210-250 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 131 Which temperature range is optimal for the proper function of a data center?
A. 62-65F (17-18C)
B. 72-75F (22-24C)
C. 82-85F (28-29C)
D. 92-95F (33-35C)
Answer: B
Question No : 132 What is the correct order of the refrigeration cycle datacenter precision cooling?
A. Condensation > evaporation > expansion > compression
B. Compression > condensation > evaporation > expansion
C. Evaporation > expansion > condensation > compression
D. Evaporation > compression > condensation > expansion
210-250  vce Answer: D
Question No : 133  What is the historical / traditional architecture of data center cooling?
A. Rack
B. Row
C. Room
D. Building
Answer: C
Question No : 134 Which is an example of a row-oriented cooling architecture?
A. Each cooling unit works to cool the load through a raised floor plenum.
B. Each cooling unit is ceiling mounted and targets cool air to the cold aisles.
C. Each cooling unit works directly to cool the heat load of a specific equipment rack.
D. Each cooling unit is placed along the data center wall and cools the general air space.
210-250  exam Answer: B
Question No : 135 What are three benefits of row-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Predictable cooling
B. Ease of deployment
C. No raised floor required
D. Reduced sensible heat ratio
E. Increased mixing of air streams
Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 136 What are three benefits of rack-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It reduces CRAC fan power required.
B. It utilizes the entire rated CRAC capacity.
C. It eliminates the need for humidity control.
D. It is easy to deploy for high density applications.
E. It reduces the number of air conditioning devices.
210-250 dump Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 137 What characteristic is common to all cooling architectures?
A. Deployable with on a raised floor
B. Top or bottom airflow configuration
C. Cooling equipment occupies white space
D. Easily adaptable with changes in infrastructure
Answer: A
Question No : 138 Which two cooling architectures are flexible enough to adapt to ever-changing data center requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B
Question No : 139  Which is an example of a rack-oriented cooling architecture?
A. A cooling unit is located in the ceiling plenum to cool the data center racks.
B. A cooling unit is located within the rack itself to cool the contents of that rack.
C. A cooling unit utilizes perforated raised floor tiles to deliver cool air to the rack.
D. A cooling unit is located along the perimeter wall of the data center to cool a specific
zone of racks.
Answer: B
Question No : 140 Which cooling architecture has the shortest air flow paths between the cooling unit and the IT equipment?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 141 Which cooling architecture attempts to eliminate hot spots within the data center by utilizing large volumes of air mixing throughout the space?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Ceiling
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Q&As: 615

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Refer to the Exhibit.
400-051 dumps

An agent initiated a video call but was establish as audio only. The support engineer collected and analyzed the Cisco Unified CM traces. Which two options caused this problem? (Choose two)
A. A hardware MTP was assigned to the call.
B. SIP Notify DTMF was requested and negotiated.
C. MTP Required was checked on the SIP Trunks.
D. Use Trusted Relay Point is set on one of the phones.
E. MRGL assigned to phones with Trusted Relay Point.
400-051 exam 
Correct Answer: DE
An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-051 dumps

Correct Answer:
400-051 dumps

Multiple users report that when they try to login to Cisco Unified Communications Extension Mobility Manager this error is retrieved? “Error:-[26] Busy, please try again” Which description of the cause is true?
A. The intracluster Multiple Login Behaviour is set to Multiple Logins Not Allowed.
B. The Validate IP Address parameter is set to false, so the IP is not found in the trust list.
C. The number of concurrent log in and logout requests is higher than the Maximum Concurrent Requests service parameter.
D. The Extension Mobility Cache size has been lowered to 1000 and no more logins are allowed beyond this number.
400-051 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Which option describes how NVF, OpenStack and KVM relate to each other?
A. OpenStack and KVM can be used to provide NVF.
B. OpenStack and KVM are not related to NVF.
C. NVF and KVM are based on OpenStack.
D. OpenStack and NVF enable KVM.
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps

Site A and site B have a 3-hour time difference. An administrator has time-of-day routing configured at site A and site B for all incoming calls to the main phone number, DN 8000. Two hunt pilots with the same DN are configured with the time periods of site A and B. Which Statement about the incoming calls is true?
A. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Wednesday after 1500 PST are answered by the site B IP phone.
B. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday are answered by the site A IP phone.
C. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday after 17:00 PST are answered by the site A and site B IP phones.
D. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Sunday are answered by the site B IP phone.
400-051 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
A client wants to play and compose voice messages from Microsoft Outlook. What is required for this functionality?
A. single inbox synchronisation with send and draft messages
B. single inbox with ViewMail
C. single inbox with mailboxes larger than 2 GB
D. single inbox user message delivery with folder deletion
Correct Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?
B. 180 Ringing
C. 200 OK
E. RTP Media
400-051 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation: 200 OK Indicates the request was successful.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?
A. The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D. The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
E. The MGCP gateway is responding to a CRCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
Answer: D
See MGCP packet debugging examples and their meanings at the Reference link below. Reference: Sample of Debug MGCP Packets
Question No : 24 – (Topic 2)  Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?
A. Terminal Capability Set
B. Open Logical Channel
C. Master-Slave Determination
D. Call Setup
E. Call Progress
400-051 exam 
Answer: B
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round-trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address, and RouterB, IP address Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-135 pdf Answer: B
Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-135 vce Answer: C, E
Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-135 exam Correct Answer: BC
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: BCE
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 966

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1. What are three roles in HFM security? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Run Allocation
B. Delete Journals
C. Create Unbalanced Journals
D. Save System Report on Server
200-125 exam Answer: ACD
2. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are Export Data Criteria options?
A. Scenario, Year, View, Entity, Accounts
B. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Value, ICP
C. Scenario, Year, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: A
3. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are valid Import Data Method options?
A. Replace, Merge, Aggregate
B. Merge, Accumulate, Remove
C. Accumulate, Replace, Clear
D. Merge, Replace, Accumulate
200-125 dumps Answer: D
4. You are extracting information using Extended Analytics. Which list shows all the dimensions that allow
for multiple members?
A. Scenario, Year, Period, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
B. Scenario, Year, Period, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
C. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Value, Account, ICP, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: D

5. You are performing a data extract using the Extract Data module. From which three dimensions can
you make multiple selections? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: BCD
6. Extended Analytics uses which format for the extracted information?
B. Star Schema
C. Snow Flake Diagram
D. Comma Delimited File
Answer: B
7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB
8. What are three available methods for the HFM HAL adapter? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Import Data
B. Import Journals C.
Export Journals D.
Open Application

E. Set Logon Information
200-125 exam Answer: ADE
9. What types of documents can be selected as related content in Financial Reporting? (SELECT
A. An Interactive Reporting Report
B. Any web page
C. A Web Analysis Report D. An HFM Web Form
E. A Planning form
Answer: ABC
10. Which two must be selected to enable the Data Audit feature for selected accounts? (SELECT TWO)
A. DataAuditTrail in the ApplicationSettings
B. Data Auditing in the Data Audit Window
C. EnableDataAudit on the selected Accounts
D. Y for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
E. O for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
Answer: CE
11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
200-125 dumps Answer: B
12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.

D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C
13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
Answer: ABD
14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: CD
15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD
16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only

C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
200-125 exam Answer: D
17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE
18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C
19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: ACD
20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?

A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C

21.Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause
of the problem?

200-125 dumps

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
22.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Correct Answer: B
23.Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port
security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

200-125 dumps

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[2017 New Cisco Updated] The Most Effective Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Update 2017 with CCNA Security Video Series Is What You Need To Take (From Google Drive)

Are there any good Cisco 210-260 dumps exams available? “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The most effective Cisco 210-260 dumps IINS exam update 2017 with CCNA Security video series is what you need to take. Pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (80 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-260 dumps is CCNA Security.  Pass4itsure provide CCNA Security https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html IINS exam questions and answers, which only needs 20 hours to complete and can help you well consolidate the related IT professional knowledge to let you have a good preparation for your first time to participate in Cisco certification 210-260 dumps.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Question: 14
Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A – Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B – Both come into being by operation of law.
C – Both are monitored by the courts.
D – Both are required to file income tax returns.
210-260 exam Answer: D
Question: 15
A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year:
Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A – $23,000
B – $45,000
C – $52,000
D – $95,000
Answer: A
Question: 16
A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint
of providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best
choice of trustee?
A – The grantor of the trust
B – The grantor’s 70-year-old father
C – The grantor’s 22-year-old son
D – A bank or trust company
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Question: 17
A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter 10,000

What amount must be brought back to the man’s estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the
calculation of his federal estate taxes?
A – 0
B – $ 90,000
C – $280,000
D – $320,000
Answer: A
Question: 18
A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his
descendants are as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower’s will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his
children, per stripes, which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will
A – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C – $ 75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D – $ 60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate
A – Contracts
B – Compatibility
C – Consistency
D – Compensation
Answer: D
Question: 20
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when
the gift was made in 1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift
tax because of the applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s
death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for
$200,000. She had a gain of
A – 0
B – $130,000
C – $160,000
D – $200,000

210-260 vce Answer: A
Question: 21
The Decedent, T, died this year. The facts concerning T estate are:
Gross estate $2,700,000
Marital deduction 900,000
Charitable deduction 110,000
Gifts made after 1976 130,000
State death taxes payable 165,000
What is T taxable estate?
A – $1,285,000
B – $1,395,000
C – $1,525,000
D – $1,655,000
Answer: C
Question: 22
When the owner of a closely held business dies, the payment of a portion of the federal estate tax
may be deferred for a period of several years if the estate otherwise qualifies under the provisions
of IPC Section 6166. Which of the following statements concerning this deferral of federal estate
tax is correct?
A – The interest rate on the deferred tax is determined by the prime rate in effect on the date of
B – The interest on the unpaid estate tax is payable over the first 10 years, after which the tax
plus interest on the balance is payable in equal installments for the last 5 years.
C – To qualify for the tax deferral, the closely held business must represent more than 50 percent
of the value of the decedent’s adjusted gross estate.
D – Under certain circumstances, the estate will forfeit its right to tax deferral, and all the
remaining unpaid estate tax will become due and payable immediately.
210-260 exam Answer: D

Question: 23 Which of the following could be used by Duane to attempt hiding files within the file
D.Alternate Data Stream
Answer: D
Question: 24.Which of the following 210-260 dumps penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
Answer: C
Question: 25.Software Restriction Policies,if implemented correctly,can help protect against what kinds of threats?
Choose two.
D.Smurf Attacks
Answer: A,B
Question: 26.If the DS Client software has been installed on Windows 95,Windows 98,and NT 4 comptuers,what
setting of the LanMan Authentication level should be applied to counteract LanMan hash sniffing and
offline cracking? Choose the best Answer.
A.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM & NTML
B.Send NTLM only
C.Send LM & NTLM responses
D.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM
210-260 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
Question: 27. Ping utilities can be used for basic network connectivity test; the ping command sends out an ICMP
Echo Request packets and the destination host will reply with an ICMP Echo Reply packets if the host is
alive.However,in some cases the host might be alive and responses are not received.What is the most
likely cause of such behavior?
A.The packet suffers from time exceeded in transit
B.The packet did not reach the destination gateway
C.A filtering device is dropping the packets
D.The remote device OS does not support the ping command.
Answer: C
Question: 28. When doing a Half-Open Scan what packet type would be expected as a response if the port being
probed is closed?
210-260 vce Answer: D
Question: 29. Mae i a keen system administration; she constantly monitors the mailing list for best practices that are
being used out in the field.On the servers that she maintains,Mae has renamed the administrator account
to another name to avoid abuse from crackers.However,she found out that it was possible using the
sid2user tool to find the new name she used for the administrator account.Mae does not understand; she
has NOT shared this name with anyone.How can this be?What is the most likely reason?
A.Her system have been compromised
B.Renaming the administrator account does not change the SID
C.She has not applied all of the patches
D.Someone social engineered her
Answer: B
Question: 30.What built-in Windows command can be used to help find remote access trojans?Choose the best
Answer. A.Netstat a
C.Nbtstat c
210-260 exam Answer: A
Question: 31.Under the Windows platform,there is something refered to as Null Session.
Which of the following statements would best describe what a null session consists of?
A.It is a session where zero bytes of traffic have been transferred
B.It is a session where erroneous commands are being used showing the a lack of knowledge of the user
C.It is a remote session that is established anonymously to a window machine
D.It is a anonymous FTP session under the Windows platform
Answer: C
Question: 32.Why is tunneling-based trojan software so useful for hackers if it is installed inside a
corporate network?Choose the best 210-260 dumps Answer.
A.Tunneling software uses ports that are not well knwon,eg.12345
B.Stateful inspection firewalls can only filter Server ports of 1-1023
C.It makes network penetration trivial the tunneling occurs using Whatever port(s) the firewall is
configured to allow
D.Anti-trojan software do not have signatures for tunneling trojans,therefore it is easy to have end-users
install tunneling trojans.

Answer: C
Question: 33.On a Linux system,which of the following files would contain the list of user
accounts,their shell,and their home directories?
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated From Google Drive] Latest Updated CCDP ARCH v3 300–320 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Download for Cisco Network Service Architectures

Pass4itsure has more than 10 years experience in IT certification Cisco 300-320 dumps exam training, including questions and answers. Pass4itsure latest updated CCDP ARCH v3.0 300–320 dumps pdf questions and answers free download for Cisco Network Service Architectures.

Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 389

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Q&As:

When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A
The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A
In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is the
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
Correct Answer: D
EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning Tree Protocol but one of
the big advantages of EAPS is
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring defaultgateway redundancy.
300-320  pdf Correct Answer: B
On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin authentication. Extreme
provides a vendor specific attribute ExtremeExtreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
300-320  vce Correct Answer: ABCD
An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D
It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path tree. This switch over
will be initiated by
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
300-320  exam Correct Answer: C
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host A ( and
Host C ( to successfully communicate.
Correct Answer: A
The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
300-320  dumps Correct Answer: A
In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration that allows you to connect
active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet from host A to any of the
switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B
Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the Radius and Tacacs
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all attachments are made with
a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port Translation Mode the
physical Port where the node connects to must be configured as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their protected VLANs.
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
An IP-only IS-IS router (or “IP-only” router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS

B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A
What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by the BSR towards
all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are activeIt is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by RP towards all
PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Correct Answer: A
The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band management port and VLAN.
The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the
switch. If you want the switch to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to
enable ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Correct Answer: ABCD
How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A

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Correct Answer:

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[2017 New Updated] How to Get Best DCUCD v5.0 642-998 Dumps-PDF in Short Time to Guaranteed 642-998 Study Guide Pass Results Success

How to get best Pass4itsure DCUCD v5.0 642-998 dumps  pdf in short time to guaranteed 642-998 study guide pass results success. Passing the https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html dumps (Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCD) v5.0) certification exam is not an easy task because of the extensive course material.

Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
B. FabricPath
D. vPC
642-998  dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
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Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool

642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering

Correct Answer: A
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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