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Exam Code: 810-403
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-37)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 6
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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.
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QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
648-244 dumps

QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilization
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
810-403 vce Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which characteristic of the Cisco Internet of Everything has the most impact on business?
A. connecting people for measuring the usage trends of services
B. delivering the services to the right person at the right time
C. leveraging data into more useful information for decision making
D. having physical devices and objects connected to the internet
810-403 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How does a performance measurement help the customer business?
A. Provides feedback on progress towards settled goals.
B. Compliance of certain industries regulations.
C. Help companies monitor its past state.
D. To reward and to discipline employees.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account?
(Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
Which framework is used to plan influential communication when seeking customer support for action?
A. business model canvas
B. principled negotiation
C. seven elements
D. stakeholder analysis matrix
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect benefits of a business outcome? (Choose two.)
A. Lower maintenance contract cost
B. Improved customer satisfaction
C. Lower purchase price of IT assets
D. Faster time to market for new solutions
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 30
Which two options are financial considerations related to determining business outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. Capital Expenditures, Operating Expenses.
B. Internal Return Rate, Discount Rate.
C. Payback, Chargeback.
D. Capital Expenditures, Working Capital.
E. Chargeback, Showback.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 31
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
810-403 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which two dimensions are used in the stakeholder power grid? (Choose two.)
A. Influence/Authority
B. Power/Influence
C. Interest/Empathy
D. Interest/Support
E. Consensus/Support
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
Which option is a difference in the set of questions that Cisco’s approach to outcomes- based sales users
A. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approach answers what capabilities are needed to achieve the solutions.
B. The product approach answers the question of how progress is displayed and correctly communicated, while the outcomes approach answers what the business objectives services must be included in each solution.
C. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approachanswers what the business objectives anddesired outcomes are.
D. The product approach answers the question of what capabilities are needed to deliver product & services, while the outcomes approach gives ananswer towhat the business rules and capabilities are.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Why are customer stakeholders important to the business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Because understandingthe concerns, interests, power, and influence of stakeholders enables successful stakeholder engagement.
B. Because stakeholders consists of partners who are either part of the organization or are external to the organization.
C. Because stakeholder strategy influence business needs and their involvement in a project to change them.
D. Because relevant and potential stakeholders exist across customers’ and sales professionals’ organizational and functional roles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of effective communication with stakeholders? (Choose two.)
A. It allows other strengths to create maximum impact.
B. It lessen the impact of business weakness.
C. It helps mitigate the intrinsic risks with negotiation.
D. It allows effective interaction between stakeholders.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 37
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: DE

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Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 810-403 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Latest Updated Cisco 648-244 Dumps PDF Practice Exam Video Study Q1-Q30

Where can we download the newest 648-244 dumps, 648-244 exam and 648-244 pdf? pass4itsure 648-244 dumps pdf (Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems) is the part of Cisco CCNA R&S certification. Passing Cisco 648-244 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 648-244 dumps Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems course exam.

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Exam Code: 648-244
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems
Q&As: 60

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-244 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this
storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
648-244 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
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QUESTION 23
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QUESTION 24
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QUESTION 26
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QUESTION 30
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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 648-244 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 648-244 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 648-244 dumps test questions.
648-244 dumps

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  • Quality and Value for the 648-244 Dumps
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  • 100% Guarantee to Pass Your 648-244 Dumps
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  • Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual 648-244 Dumps Exams
  • Our Practice Test Questions are backed by our 100% MONEY BACK GUARANTEE.

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[2018 New Updated] Latest Release Cisco 648-232 Dumps PDF APE Practice Exam Video Training Q1-Q39

Where can we download the newest 648-232 dumps, 648-232 exam and 648-232 pdf? pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam (Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation) is the part of Cisco certification. Passing Cisco 648-232 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 648-232 dumps Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation course exam.

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Exam Code: 648-232
Exam Name: Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation
Q&As: 50

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-232 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-39)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
648-232 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 dumps Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 pdf Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 31
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are
offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose
three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 34
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the
contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 38
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support
team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
What are two benefits of downloading WebEx Productivity Tools using the company WebEx site? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies deployment
B. drives usage and adoption
C. promotes virtualization
D. reduces corporate bandwidth usage
648-232 vce Correct Answer: AB

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Real Cisco 300-360 Dumps PDF Real CCNP Wireless Exam Questions Answers With New Discount Youtube Q1-Q19

Where can we download the newest 300-360 dumps, 300-360 exam and 300-360 pdf? pass4itsure 300-360 dumps (Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks) is the part of Cisco CCNP Wireless certification. Passing Cisco 300-360 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 300-360 dumps Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks course exam.

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Exam Code: 300-360
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Q&As: 140

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A downstream packet that contains a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped and the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
C. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants the DSCP marking to align with the 802.11e access category video. What will this marking be?
A. 34
B. AF31
C. 40
D. 56
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside dimension and enter that value.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
While performing a Layer 1 passive wireless site survey of a location an engineer detects several instances of low power frequency hopping interference, but cannot physically locate the interfering device or devices. Why is the engineer unable to locate the offending device or devices?
A. The sources are nearby narrow-beam radar and are sweeping through the facility.
B. The sources are PAN and are mobile.
C. The sources are above the ceiling file and transmit intermittently.
D. The sources are actually high-powered devices and transmit from off the site.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which two types of information must be included in the installation inventory portion of the post-installation report? (Choose two.)
A. all AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. the names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
C. a layout of the rack that the equipment is installed
D. results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
E. the number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
An engineer is configuring an autonomous AP for RADIUS authentication. What two pieces of information must be known to configure the AP? (Choose two.)
A. BVI IP address
B. group name
C. RADIUS IP address
D. PAC encryption key
E. username and password
F. shared secret
300-360 vce Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A cabling contractor is working at a customer facility. The contractor is asking what rating of cable should be installed in return-air areas. Which information can be referenced to provide the contractor the requested information?
A. OSHA Codes
B. BICSI TDDM
C. NEC Ratings
D. IEEE Standards
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
An engineer plugs in a Cisco Aironet 2700 Series Access Point and it is running in low power. Which three power requirements should be verified? (Choose three.)
A. 802.3ac compliant
B. 802.3at compliant
C. AP requires 43 VDC to function in full power.
D. AIR-PWRINJ3 power injector should be used.
E. AP requires 57 VDC to function in full power.
F. AIR-PWRINJ4 power injector should be used.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which three recommendations must be taken into consideration when an engineer is installing a new Voice WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Use the Cisco wireless phone site survey client utility.
B. Use a separate Cisco Wireless Lan Controller.
C. Enable load balance on voice WLANs.
D. Maintain -67dBM as a minimal RSSI.
E. Set data for 2.4 GHz and voice for 5 GHz using separate SSIDs.
F. Enable lower data rates for 2.4-GHz data WLAN.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
A customer wants to implement a wireless network in a historic location, but is concerned about the structural and aesthetic impact to the facility. Which benefit of using wireless mesh addresses these concerns?
A. Power is required only at the installation location.
B. The APs do not have LED lights.
C. More wireless channels can be supported.
D. APs do not need network connections.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing a wireless site survey? (Choose three.)
A. The time required to acquire any additional infrastructure components.
B. The time required to survey each potential AP location.
C. The time required to assess application server locations at the customer facility.
D. The type of wireless survey tools required to perform the site survey.
E. The time required to assess customer WLAN density and throughput requirements.
F. The time required to utilize the design mode in Cisco WCS to prepare a preliminary WLAN design to reduce on-site survey time.
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
300-360 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. optimized power-save mode periods
B. increased call capacity
C. bandwidth reservation
D. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
E. efficient roaming
F. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Unscheduled automatic power-save delivery (U-APSD) is a feature that has two key benefits:
The primary benefit of U-APSD is that it allows the voice client to synchronize the transmission and reception of voice frames with the AP, thereby allowing the client to go into power-save mode between the transmission/reception of each voice frame tuple. The WLAN client frame transmission in the access categories supporting U-APSD triggers the AP to send any data frames queued for that WLAN client in that AC. A U-APSD client remains listening to the AP until it receives a
frame from the AP with an end-of-service period (EOSP) bit set. This tells the client that it can now go back into its power-save mode. This triggering mechanism is considered a more efficient use of client power than the regular listening for beacons method, at a period controlled by the delivery traffic indication map (DTIM) interval, because the latency and jitter requirements of voice are such that a WVoIP client would either not be in power-save mode during a call, resulting in
reduced talk times, or would use a short DTIM interval, resulting in reduced standby times. The use of U-APSD allows the use of long DTIM intervals to maximize standby time without sacrificing call quality. The U-APSD feature can be applied individually across access categories, allowing U-APSD can be applied to the voice ACs in the AP, but the other ACs still use the standard power save feature. The secondary benefit of this feature is increased call capacity. The coupling of
transmission buffered data frames from the AP with the triggering data frame from the WLAN client allows the frames from the AP to be sent without the accompanying interframe spacing and random backoff, thereby reducing the contention experience by call.

QUESTION 17
An engineer is determining the signal levels for the wireless cells. Which signal-to-noise ratio is an optimal configuration to achieve?
A. minimum SNR of -33 dBm
B. minimum SNR of -25 dBm
C. minimum SNR of 25 dB
D. minimum SNR of 33 dB
300-360 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
A hospital environment was designed to guarantee RF coverage at or better than -67 dBm in the 5 GHz spectrum. The customer mandates that RRM be used for DCA and TPC in both bands. After deployment, why do many of the legacy 802.11b/g devices have difficulty maintaining connectivity?
A. Excessive co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
B. Excessive overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
C. TPC drastically reduces Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
D. TCP drastically increases Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
An engineer installed a 3702 AP and is getting power from the switch. What is the reason for getting 3×3 MIMO instead of 4×4?
A. 802.1p
B. 802.3af
C. 802.11e
D. 802.3at
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 300-360 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 300-360 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 300-360 dumps test questions.
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[2018 New Updated] Most Popular Cisco 300-209 Dumps PDF CCNP Security Real Exam Video Questions Answers With Low Price Q26-Q48

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Q&As: 271

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Q&As(26-48)

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose two )
A. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Acid NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP redirects on the spoke.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
When an IPsec SVTI is configured, which technology processes traffic forwarding for encryption?
A. ACL
B. IP routing
C. RRI
D. front door VPN routing and forwarding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
300-209 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 35
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session.
Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
An administrator is adding IPv6 addressing to an already functioning tunnel. The administrator is unable to ping 2001:DB8:100::2 but can ping 209.165.200.226. Which configuration needs to be added or changed?
A. No configuration change is necessary. Everything is working correctly.
B. OSPFv3 needs to be configured on the interface.
C. NHRP needs to be configured to provide NBMA mapping.
D. Tunnel mode needs to be changed to GRE IPv4.
E. Tunnel mode needs to be changed to GRE IPv6.
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 37
Which technology supports tunnel interfaces while remaining compatible with legacy VPN implementations?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
You are troubleshooting a site-to-site VPN issue where the tunnel is not establishing. After issuing the debug crypto ipsec command on the headend router, you
see the following output.
What does this output suggest?
1d00h: IPSec (validate_proposal): transform proposal
(port 3, trans 2, hmac_alg 2) not supported
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) : atts not acceptable. Next payload is 0
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) SA not acceptable
A. Phase 1 policy does not match on both sides.
B. The Phase 2 transform set does not match on both sides.
C. ISAKMP is not enabled on the remote peer.
D. The crypto map is not applied on the remote peer.
E. The Phase 1 transform set does not match on both sides.
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; Logging andgt; E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; E-Mail Setup andgt; Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. SHA-256
D. SHA-384
300-209 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the
ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelall split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel
network-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of
device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE
configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network?
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-512
B. SHA-256
C. SHA-192
D. SHA-380
E. SHA-192
F. SHA-196
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 48
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B

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Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Where can we download the newest 300-208 dumps, 300-208 exam and 300-208 pdf? pass4itsure 300-208 dumps pdf (Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions) is the part of Cisco CCNP Security certification. Passing Cisco 300-208 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 300-208 dumps Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions course exam.

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q&As: 310

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which RADIUS attribute can be used to dynamically assign the Inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE
node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. session-timeout attribute
D. termination-action attribute
300-208 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web
authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which command defines administrator CLI access in ACS5.x?
A. Application reset-passwd acs username
B. username username password password role admin
C. username username password plain password role admin
D. password-policy
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two possible reasons why a scheduled nightly backup of ISE to a FTP repository would fail? (Choose two.)
A. ISE attempted to write the backup to an invalid path on the FTP server.
B. The ISE and FTP server clocks are out of sync.
C. The username and password for the FTP server are invalid.
D. The server key is invalid or misconfigured.
E. TCP port 69 is disabled on the FTP server.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which model does Cisco support in a RADIUS change of authorization implementation?
A. push
B. pull
C. policy
D. security
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
300-208 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user is on a wired connection and the posture status is noncompliant. Which state will their EPS session be placed in?
A. disconnected
B. limited
C. no access
D. quarantined
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are the initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B.
1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security andgt; Administration andgt; New.
3.Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D.
1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. Windows Server Update Services Remediation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have configured a Cisco ISE 1.2 deployment for self-registration of guest users. What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins? (Choose two.)
A. CreateTime
B. FirstLogin
C. BeginLogin
D. StartTime
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which type of access list is the most scalable that Cisco ISE can use to implement network authorization enforcement for a large number of users?
A. downloadable access lists
B. named access lists
C. VLAN access lists
D. MAC address access lists
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An organization has recently deployed ISE with Trustsec capable Cisco switches and would like to allow differentiated network access based on user groups. Which solution is most suitable for achieving these goals?
A. Cyber Threat Defense for user group control by leveraging Netflow exported from the Cisco switches and identity information from ISE
B. MACsec in Multiple-Host Mode in order to encrypt traffic at each hop of the network infrastructure
C. Identity-based ACLs preconfigured on the Cisco switches with user identities provided by ISE
D. Cisco Security Group Access Policies to control access based on SGTs assigned to different user groups
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown
B. Compliant
C. FailOpen
D. FailClose
E. Noncompliant
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 15
Which command would be used in order to maintain a single open connection between a network access device and a tacacs server?
A. tacacs-server host timeout
B. tacacs-server host single-connection
C. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt;
D. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt; single-connection
300-208 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which statement about system time and NTP server configuration with Cisco ISE is true?
A. The system time and NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE.
B. The system time can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
C. NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but the system time must be configured individually on each ISE node.
D. The system time and NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which valid external identity source can be used with Cisco ISE?
A. IPsec vpn authentication
B. smart card
C. local user name and password
D. TACACS+ token
300-208 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which functionality does the Cisco ISE self-provisioning flow provide?
A. It provides support for native supplicants, allowing users to connect devices directly to the network.
B. It provides the My Devices portal, allowing users to add devices to the network.
C. It provides support for users to install the Cisco NAC agent on enterprise devices.
D. It provides self-registration functionality to allow guest users to access the network.
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
In a basic ACS deployment consisting of two servers, for which three tasks is the primary server responsible? (Choose three.)
A. configuration
B. authentication
C. sensing
D. policy requirements
E. monitoring
F. repudiation
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
During client provisioning on a Mac OS X system, the client system fails to renew its IP address. Which change can you make to the agent profile to correct the problem?
A. Enable the Agent IP Refresh feature.
B. Enable the Enable VLAN Detect Without UI feature.
C. Enable CRL checking.
D. Edit the Discovery Host parameter to use an IP address instead of an FQDN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network administrator has just added a front desk receptionist account to the Cisco ISE Guest Service sponsor group. Using the Cisco ISE Guest Sponsor Portal, which guest services can the receptionist provide?
A. Authenticate guest users to Cisco ISE.
B. Keep track of guest user activities.
C. Create and manage guest user accounts.
D. Configure authorization setting for guest users.
300-208 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which two profile attributes can be collected by a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller that supports Device Sensor? (Choose two.)
A. LLDP agent information
B. user agent
C. DHCP options
D. open ports
E. CDP agent information
F. FQDN
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. monitor mode
B. high-security mode
C. closed mode
D. low-impact mode
300-208 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Where is dynamic SGT classification configured?
A. Cisco ISE
B. NAD
C. supplicant
D. RADIUS proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
By default, how many days does Cisco ISE wait before it purges the expired guest accounts?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command on the switch ensures that the Service-Type attribute is sent with all RADIUS authentication request?
A. radius-server attribute 8 include-in-access-req
B. radius-server attribute 25 access-request include
C. radius-server attribute 6 on-for-login-auth
D. radius-server attribute 31 send nas-port-detail
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
A network administrator is seeing a posture status andquot;unknownandquot; for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as andquot;compliantandquot;. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as andquot;unknownandquot;?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
300-208 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
Which two things must be verified if authentication is failing with this error message? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ISE EAP identity certificate is valid.
B. CA cert chain of Cisco ISE EAP certificate is installed on the trusted certs store of the client machine.
C. CA cert chain of the client certificate is installed on Cisco ISE.
D. Cisco ISE HTTPS/admin certificate is valid.
E. Cisco ISE server certificate is installed on the client.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
Which two Active Directory authentication methods are supported by Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. PEAP
C. PPTP
D. EAP-PEAP
E. PPP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. EAP-MD5
D. LEAP
E. EAP-FAST
F. MSCHAPv2
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: AB

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 300-208 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 300-208 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 300-208 dumps test questions.
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  • Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual 300-208 Dumps Exams
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-29)

QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11. What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 12. Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13. Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 14. Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
Answer: D

QUESTION 15. If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 16. When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%).
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

QUESTION 17. In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
210-060 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 18. During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

QUESTION 19. The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 20. If Committed Access is being used, which statements are true?
A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits.
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction.
C. It retains Write locks on all affected blocks until the transaction commits.
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 21. Within Database | Statistics, what does block density indicate?
A. the actual number of blocks existing within the database
B. the average percentage of data cells within each block that contain data
C. the maximum possible number of blocks that could exist for this database
D. the percentage of blocks that exist compared to the total potential number of blocks
210-060 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 22. What would defragment defrag a fragmented database?
A. adding a dense member to the outline
B. adding a sparse member to the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc and Store
Answer: A

QUESTION 23. What would cause fragmentation in a database?
A. deleting a dense member from the outline
B. deleting a sparse member from the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc (Non-Store)
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24. The stored members in the dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded. Which statement is true about Database B?
A. The index would be half as large as Database A.
B. Half the number of blocks exist as in Database A.
C. Block density is reduced by 50% from Database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks would fit in the Data Cache as in Database A.
Answer: C

QUESTION 25. If you have a production database named Sales, which files should be backed up to perform a complete system backup?
A. sales.db
B. sales.otn
C. essbase.sec
D. ess00001.ind
210-060 exam Answer: ACD

QUESTION 26. An application on a test server is ready to be put into production. The production server already has three applications. What should you do to move the application from development to production?
A. Use the Application | Copy command.
B. Export data from the development application.
C. Copy the Essbase.sec file from development to production.
D. Copy the application directories from development to production.
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. What does the setting NETDELAY 500 represent?
A. the number of times the network will retry a connection before failing and reporting an error
B. the amount of time in seconds allowed to a Named Pipes network to establish a connection to your server
C. the amount of time in milliseconds an unsuccessful operation waits before Essbase retries the operation
D. the number of seconds an Agent thread waits for a resource to become available so it can perform a specific action
210-060 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 28. Which file descriptions are correct?
A. basic.otl contains the outline
B. ess00001.ind stores data blocks
C. basic.esm is a storage manager file
D. basic.mdb is a partition definition file
E. ess00001.pag stores the database index
Answer: AC

QUESTION 29. What occurs upon execution of DISABLELOGIN in ESSCMD?
A. All server logins are disabled.
B. Logins to a specific database are disabled.
C.Logins to a specific application are disabled.
D. It logs out any users currently on a specific database.
210-060 pdf Answer: C

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[2018 New Updated] Download Up to Date Cisco 400-151 Dumps CCIE Data Center Exam Questions For Your Excellence with Youtube Preparation Materials (Question 6 – Question 32)

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-32)

QUESTION 6
Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?
A. Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.
B. Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
C. Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
D. Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?
A. Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.
B. Only Captive Portal can be used.
C. Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.
D. You must run an ADquery for every domain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in Gaia?
A. In the CLI via sysconfig
B. In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes
C. In the CLI with the command “route add”

D. In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which command will erase all CRL’s?
A. vpn crl_zap
B. vpn flush
C. cpstop/cpstart
D. vpn crladmin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

400-151 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
Exhibit:

Exhibit:
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast

400-151 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 18
When an 802.11 station operating in Power Save mode with a ReceiveDTIMs parameter of TRUE receives a beacon containing a DTIM indicating queued broadcast traffic, what task does the 802.11 standard require the client station to perform?
A. The client station must send an ATIM frame to the access point if the station is the first AID in the DTIM list.
B. The client station must arbitrate for the medium and immediately issue an RTS directed to the access point with the NAV set to a value of 32,768.
C. To remain awake to receive the broadcast frame(s) to follow the beacon that contains the DTIM.
D. The client station must broadcast a CTS-to-Self frame indicating the station need to control the medium long enough to receive all of the broadcast frames.
E. The client station must send a CF-Poll Response frame to the access point with the Reason Code set to 0x00.
F. The client station must send a PS-Poll frame to the access point for every broadcast frame it receives with the More Data bit set to one.
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Given the screenshot shown, choose the statement that accurately describes what is being seen by this protocol analyzer.
A. One wireless station sent an Echo Request (PING) to another wireless station through an access point.
B. The BSSID has been randomly generated.
C. The Duration field value’s 164 microseconds is sufficient to reserve the RF medium for only the following frames: SIFS, ACK.
D. Bits (0-14) of the Duration/ID field in this frame indicates the AID of the source station
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the displayed wireless protocol analyzer trace, which of the following is true?
A. Both 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 and 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 are operating in Ad Hoc mode using WPA compliant 802.1X/EAP authentication.
B. 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 is a client station sending unicast data frames to a network node on the wired LAN.
C. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a client station performing a successful 802.1X/EAPreauthentication.
D. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a station sending encrypted broadcast data using an encryption key generated by the authenticator.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the access point, and data encrypted with static WEP is being sent from a wired station to the wireless station 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9.
400-151 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
In the 802.11b standard, the PLCP header Service field has a Modulation Selection bit. Which of the following are true regarding use of the Modulation Selection bit?
A. The Modulation Selection bit is used by the access point in CF-End frames to note which modulation will be used for Data frames in the contention period to follow.
B. Based on the setting of the Modulation Selection bit and the value in the Signal field, the modulation to be used can be uniquely determined.
C. Based on the Modulation Selection bit in received Data frames, the receiving station can determine which modulation to use when sending acknowledgements.
D. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine whether CCK or PBCC is in use for any speed where either could be used.
E. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine which modulation will be used to send the entire PPDU.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 22
What is an advantage of being able to fragment MSDUs and MMPDUs on a wireless network?
A. Increased throughput due to interference from other 802.11 stations.
B. Decreased translation time between 802.3 and 802.11 networks at the access point.
C. Increased throughput in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment.
D. Decreased number of 802.11 control and management frames required for transmission.
E. Increased throughput in a clean RF environment
F. Decreased retransmission overhead in a noisy RF environment.
400-151 exam Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 23
In compliance with the 802.11g standard, access points may provide which services to increase overall network performance in an OFDM-only environment?
A. Arbitrary Beacon Spacing
B. DownstreamQoS
C. Short Slot Time
D. Short PLCP Preamble support
E. Fast Sleep Recovery
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24
Which features of a wireless LAN protocol analyzer allow troubleshooters to monitor network events that are happening while the troubleshooters are not watching the analyzer user interface?
A. Event Triggers
B. Node Statistics
C. Notifications
D. Peer Map
E. Trending Analysis
F. Alarms
400-151 dumps Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION NO: 25
The 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation due to an unreliable medium. Which two fields in the 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Ordered Service field
B. Sequence Control field
C. Frame Control field
D. ERP Information field
E. Capability Information field
F. DS Parameter field
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 26
What 802.11 MAC layer function is illustrated by the following diagram?
A. Sequential Fragmentation
B. PCF mode polling
C. Fragment Bursting
D. Sequential Acknowledgements
E. CP Regulated Spacing
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27
When operating in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment in which both 802.11b and 802.11g client stations are present and transmitting data on the network, which of the statements below are accurate concerning the 802.11g access point responsibilities in the Basic Service Set?
A. The access point will alternate transmitting beacons using long and short preambles so that client stations using either preamble length can associate.

B. The access point may transmit beacons using a short preamble only if all of the client stations in the BSS have indicated support for short preambles.
C. If beacons are transmitted using short preambles, all associated client stations are required to transmit all data frames using short preambles.
D. The access must transmit beacons using a short preamble in a mixed mode environment. Client stations not supporting short preambles will not be able to associate.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28
The More Fragments subfield is found in which 802.11 frame field?
A. Protocol Order field
B. Frame Control field
C. MAC Service Data Unit field
D. Sequence Control field
E. Fragmentation Control field
400-151 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 29
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.
A. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
B. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw printver
D. cpstat -gw
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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[2017 New Updated] Helpful Cisco 400-101 Dumps Vce CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam V5.1 Video Training Online

What is Cisco 400-101 dumps? The CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam (400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching) exam is a 120 Minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Routing and Switching certification.”CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-101 exam. Helpful Cisco 400-101 dumps vce CCIE Routing and Switching exam V5.1 video training online. It is famous for the most comprehensive and updated by the highest rate https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps. It also can save time and effort.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:
7.Which technology does OSPFv3 use to authenticate packets
A. SHA256
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. IPsec
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
8.Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)
A. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor
E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
9.Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
10.Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use
A. GRE
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. IP-in-IP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
11.Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. Revision number
C. Region name
D. Domain name
E. Password
F. VLAN-to-instance assignment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
12.Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow.
B. It provides better security than dynamic routing.
C. It reduces configuration errors.
D. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.
E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

13. To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
400-101 vce Answer: D
14. To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B
15. Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on

B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
400-101 exam Answer: A
16. Choose the best way to minimize backup time.
A. Tape backup over the WAN connection
B. Utilizing a larger tape capacity
C. Organizing data in volumes and qtrees
D. Using multiple local tape drives
Answer: D
17. What two conditions should be verified prior to performing remote backups? (Choose 2)
A. The trust relationships between the source and the destination
B. That clustered failover is disabled
C. That rsh is enabled for remote access
D. That remote backup is enabled
400-101 dumps Answer: AC
18. Which line describes a 50M tree quota for a qtree named “mydata” on volume “vol1”? Target Type Disk Files Thold Sdisk Sfiles A.  /vol/vol1/mydata tree 50M –

B. /vol/vol1 [email protected] 50M –
C. steve [email protected]/vol/vol1 50M –
D. /vol/vol1 qtree/steve 50M –
Answer: A
19. If there are problems with user quotas being misapplied, the following two files should be checked:
A. /etc/quotas and /etc/rc
B. /etc/quotas and /etc/usermap.cfg

C. /etc/rc and /etc/usermap.cfg
D. /etc/quotas and /etc/quotarules
400-101 vce Answer: B
20. Which three actions can be performed with the restore command? (Choose 3)
A. View a list of files on tape.
B. Restore individual files and directories.
C. Restart a failed restore process.
D. Enter a number to specify how many filemarks should be skipped.
Answer: ABC

21.CORRECT TEXT
Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
400-101 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number
10. Or
11. mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem.
12. mkdir /mnt/neo
13. vi /etc/fstab
14. Write:
15. /dev/hda? /mnt/neo ext3 defaults 1 2
16. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
17. mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo

22. CORRECT TEXT
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the IP Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
23.CORRECT TEXT
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
400-101 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop the iptables service.
24.CORRECT TEXT
neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota toneo user. You should apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn’t occupied space more than 70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 ¨¤ To enable th quota on filesystem you should mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ¨¤Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home ¨¤ Remounting the /home with updated mount options. ou can verify that/home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ¨¤ Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home ¨¤ Quota Policy editor See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard

/dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
25.CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without losing any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
400-101 pdf Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the size of Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical Volume without unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using ext2online command.
26.CORRECT TEXT
Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobyte-sized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas or users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2

2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition. Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.

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[2017 New Updated] The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps Verison 2.0 Exam Questions Preparation Materials Youtube Try

Has anybody attempted the Cisco 300-115 dumps exam? “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks“, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 dumps verison 2.0 exam questions preparation materials Youtube try. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dumps exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 30
A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
Reference:
QUESTION 32
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
QUESTION 33
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
Reference:
QUESTION 34
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
acquisition?
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
corporation?
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B
Explanation:

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