[2018 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Windows Server 2012 Exam Video Q&As Online (Question 1 – Question 8)

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Exam Code: 74-409
Exam Name: Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-8)

QUESTION 1
A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
74-409 dumps
You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you do?
A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.
C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.
D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).
74-409 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Requirements
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed. ?A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group.
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations. ?SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.

QUESTION 2
A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:
The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.
You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?
A. Enable the Guest services integration service.
B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.
C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.
D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V?
A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

QUESTION 3
A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time
highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time
highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
74-409 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server.You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs.
B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs.
C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs.
D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
What is SR-IOV
Requires support in network adapter
Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines
Increases network throughput
Reduces network latency
Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server
Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch
Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used

QUESTION 5
You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability.
You need to deploy the VMs. What should you do?
A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value.
B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network.
C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs).
D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set.
74-409 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2. Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates.
What should you do?
A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).
B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection.
Deploy updates to the collection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:
?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode
?Moves the clustered roles off the node
?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
?Performs a restart if necessary
?Brings the node out of maintenance mode
?Restores the clustered roles on the node
?Moves to update the next node
For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case
of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 7
An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper- V host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2. The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the Hyper-V host servers.
You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host servers in the cluster.
B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection.
C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft Update.
74-409 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
Performs a restart if necessary
Brings the node out of maintenance mode
Restores the clustered roles on the node
Moves to update the next nodeFor many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 8
Your environment contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. All domain controllers are virtualized domain controllers.
You design a disaster recovery strategy. You have the following requirements:
The domain controllers can be recovered in the event that a Hyper-V host server fails.
The AD DS domain must be restorable to a consistent state.
You must minimize the data loss. You need to ensure that the domain controllers can be recovered in the event of a failure. What should you do?
A. Clone the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role to a different Hyper-V host server. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to run the Checkpoint- VM cmdlet on each virtual domain controller.
B. Run Windows Azure Hyper-V Recovery Manager.
C. On each guest operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
D. On the host operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
E. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to back up each domain controller’s virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Yes, once there are some changes on 74-409 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Best Quality Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Microsoft Project Exam Qs&As With 100% Pass Rate Youtube (Question 1 – Question 12)

Which Microsoft 74-343 dumps website is your best choice? pass4itsure 74-343 dumps pdf (Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013) is the part of Microsoft certification. Passing Microsoft 74-343 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of Pass4itsure to become Microsoft certified. The Pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 74-343 Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013 course exam.

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Exam Code: 74-343
Exam Name: Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do?
A. Add a Material Resource named architect.
B. Add a Budget Resource named architect.
C. Add a Work Resource named architect,
D. Add a Cost Resource named architect.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to
display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
74-343 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner. What should you do?
A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013.
B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button.
C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013.
D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are a resource manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage all of your resources in a single plan, which acts as a Shared Resource Pool for other projects in your organization. Each resource needs to pass an annual exam in order to work on construction sites. You need to set up a method that allows you to pick the renewal month for each resource. What should you do?
A. Rename the Resource Text1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Enter the month when the exam expires. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
B. Use the Organizer to copy the Resource Finish1 Custom field from the Global.mpt. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
C. Rename the Resource Date1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with values containing the last date of each month. Select the correct expiration date for each exam.
D. Rename the Resource Month1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with monthly values. Select the correct expiration month for each exam.
E. Rename the Resource Flag1 Custom field to Exam Expired Date. Enter the expiration dates into a Lookup table. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
74-343 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013, and your task list includes a flag field that indicates, with Yes or No, if a non-summary task represents a physical deliverable. Your project involves several tasks marked as deliverables, and management requires you to track how many deliverables are completed. The deliverable is considered completed when the Percent complete field is 100%. You need to create a formula to calculate the total number of deliverables that are completed. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,1,0).
B. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Sum.
C. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,0,1).
D. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Count All.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do?
A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task.
B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time.
C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure.
D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You manage a project by using Project Standard 2013. You need to use the Baseline2 fields to calculate Variance at Completion (VAC). You have already set Baseline2. What should you do?
A. Enter physical percent complete for the tasks that have actual values. Set the Baseline to the Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
B. Change the Earned Value method to Baseline2 in the Task Information Form.
Enter tracking data, and view the VAC on the Earned Value table.
C. Change the Baseline for Earned Value calculation option to Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
D. Go to the Earned Value table and insert the Baseline2 column. Recalculate the project.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. When viewing the critical path, you notice that there are some inconsistencies. To investigate the status of the critical path, you insert the Total Slack column into a task table. You discover that many of the tasks have negative Total Slack values. You need to resolve the negative Total Slack values. What should you do?
A. Remove lag time from task relationships.
B. Remove as many constraints as possible.
C. Re-assign resources that have more availability at the time of the negative slack.
D. Remove lead time from the task relationships.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. The work variance for a task is 48 hours. The remaining work is 25 hours. The work for this task has been completed. You need the work variance to be adjusted to reflect what has occurred during the performance of the task. What should you do?
A. Adjust the value in the Baseline Work column.
B. Enter a 0 in the remaining Duration column.
C. Adjust the value in the Work Variance column.
D. Mark the task inactive.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 74-343 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 74-343 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 74-343 dumps test questions.
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-488 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 6
You need to implement term set navigation. Which code segment should you insert at line TN24?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to complete the code at line LV19 to implement the validation of the app license. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You need to configure navigation for the site. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You need add to code at line IL22 to implement the task list design. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-488 dumps

QUESTION 11
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites. You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Start-SPAssignment Global initiates a new assignment store.
* Stop-SPAssignment .Disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. The Stop SPAssignmentcmdlet disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. Use the Global parameter to dispose of all objects in the global assignment collector and to stop the global store from collecting additional objects. Provide a SemiGlobal assignment collector to dispose of all contained objects.
From scenario:
* Performance Optimization and Memory Usage SPSite objects must be removed from memory immediately after the objects go out of scope.
QUESTION 12
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available. You need to deploy the hotfix. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
70-488 vce 
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded: / Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version. / Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.
QUESTION 13
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages. What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You need to set the appropriate permission levels. A variable named customRole references Wholesale. Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Lila has created a display campaign to help support her consulting business. The ad has been running for six months. Her goal of the campaign is to get people to sign up for her newsletter. If Lila has a desire to get more conversions at a lower cost, which Google AdWords tool should she use?
A. My Change History tool
B. Conversion optimizer
C. Display ad builder
D. Keyword tools
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Hal is considering a YouTube masthead for an ad campaign. There are several requirements on size and sound limits for YouTube masthead advertisements, such as the 50KB load size and the 1MB load for animation and autoplay. What is the maximum size for videos (.flv) file size for when a user clicks the masthead to see the video ad?
A. 10MB
B. 1MB
C. 100MB

D. 50MB
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Tom is reviewing his YouTube ad performance through the Google AdWords reporting feature. He would like to review the number of users who clicked his ad and converted to a sale on his Website. What requirement must Tom have satisfied to see the conversion reporting feature for YouTube ads?
A. He must have added the Google AdWords Conversion Tracking code to his Website page.
B. His YouTube ads must be placed through a YouTube reservations agent.
C. His ads must be prepaid.
D. He must have uploaded a promoted video on YouTube.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Bonnie has created a video that she would like to include in the Google Content Network as part of her online marketing. She has chosen the click-to-play with the cost-per-click pricing model. Which one of the following statements best describes when Bonnie will be charged for someone clicking on her advertisement?
A. Every time Bonnie’s video is played, paused, or stopped with the in-ad player she won’t becharged for each click, just one click per user on the advertisement video.
B. Every time Bonnie’s video appears (the opening image) she will be charged.
C. Every time Bonnie’s video is played she’ll be charged for the click.
D. Every click that leads a user to Bonnie’s Website results in a charge to Bonnie’s account.
70-488 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Henry has created a video that he’d like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Video placement ad
B. Click-to-play video ad
C. In-stream video ad
D. Overlay video ad
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is the recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
70-488 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship between the quality score and the cost-per-click of an ad in Google AdWords?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad 
position.
B. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the higher the ranking of your ad over your competition.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Jen has created a YouTube advertisement for her company and she is now interested in reviewing her ad’s performance over the past three weeks. She wants to examine a YouTube metric that will tell her how many times her promoted video ad has been played since it went live on YouTube. What metric will Jen want to create a report for?
A. Clickthrough rate
B. Clicks
C. Play rate
D. Conversions
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Yolanda is designing an image ad for the Google Content Network. She wants the ad to look crisp and professional and a consultant has recommended that she use transparent PNG format images. Why is this a good idea for image advertisers in the Google Content Network?
A. Transparent background images load faster in browsers.
B. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to fade through the image.
C. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to be more pleasing to view.
D. Transparent background images appear to float on the ad’s background.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Some advertisers would like to target YouTube through Google AdWords. There are two tools available for these types of advertisers: the placement tool and what other tool?
A. Google Content Network analysis tool
B. Video targeting tool
C. Traffic estimator tool
D. Keyword tool
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Andrew wants to create a reservation for his ad in YouTube. His manager wants to know, however, what is the minimum amount the reservation will cost. Which one of the following represents the minimum media spend on a YouTube reservation will cost?
A. $25,000
B. $35,000
C. $50,000
D. $10,000
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Your client is interested in the Google Content Network’s ability to use an in-stream ad. Which of the following is an example of an in-stream ad in the Google Content Network?
A. It’s an ad that is displayed as part of the DoubleClick partnerships.
B. It’s an ad that is displayed in the middle of a website in a rich-media content placeholder.
C. It’s an ad that shows at the end of a video.
D. It’s an ad that is fed into the Google Content Network of sites partners.
70-488 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

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Q&As: 95

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Describe how Azure 70-695  dumps uses Global Foundation Services (GFS) datacenters
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QUESTION 51
Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 52
Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Business All-In-One

C. SAP CRM
D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 54
Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 56
Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 57
You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
70-695 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 58
Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 60
How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 64
Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
Dispatcher?
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction
principle? Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
70-742 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also
composed by other service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be
composed.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service
compositions to become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.

A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and
its underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering “loose state” in
support of runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an
agnostic abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship
between the service contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details,
whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in
relation to the service implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of
the other depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation
and SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms
and practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical
(short- term) requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service
orientation is required.
70-742 pdf Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 6
The decoupling of a service contract from the service’s underlying implementation results in
a(n) in the service’s level of abstraction because service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly
couple to the underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding

D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle:
“Services are supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively
and .” Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
70-742 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract
principle is not followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the
purchase of legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the
Service Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.

70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the
initial delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a
constant emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather
than strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure
that may introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of
applying the Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or
contract of a service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract

Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract
receives a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract
content to only what is deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service’s Service
Level Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be
easily located by those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles
directly supports these design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
70-742 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD). What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Your company uses 70-243 dumps System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
In an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. The AS ABAP message server
B. The AS Java central service instance
C. The AS Java message server
D. Both the AS ABAP and the AS Java message server
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Who participates in SAP Ramp-Up programs?
A. Customers who applied and were accepted for participation
B. All SAP partners and internal SAP departments
C. Only internal SAP departments
D. All customers with SAP Enterprise Support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
For which purposes can property variants in CCMS monitoring be used? (Choose three)
A. To enable cross-system monitoring
B. To transport sets of threshold values from one SAP system to another SAP system
C. To allow users to use different sets of threshold values at the same time
D. To switch between different sets of threshold values triggered by a switch of the operation mode
E. As containers for threshold values
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12
SAP provides a vast range of software for companies of all sizes. Which of the following are SAP offerings?
(Choose three)
A. SAP Business ByDesign
B. SAP Business ByEvolution
C. SAP Business Suite
D. SAP Business All-in-One
E. SAP Business End-to-End
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a background job
in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
70-243 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
An SAP system’s Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs.
Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next online
redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What does SAP recommend when importing transport requests? (Choose three)
A. Transport requests should only be imported if the software component vector of the transport requests
fit to the software components and their Support Package level of the target system.
B. Transport requests should be imported into the productive system one by one in the order of their
sequence in the import queue.
C. Transport requests should always be imported into the productive system in the sequence of their export
from the development system.
D. In general importing transport requests into the productive systems requires a maintenance window
(downtime window).
E. Transport requests should be imported project wise into the productive system.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 16
You want to reduce the fragmentation of a tablespace by using BR*TOOLS. Which methods can you use to
achieve this? (Choose two)
A. Online shrinking of tables
B. Update statistics
C. Online backup
D. Online redefinition of tables
E. Coalesce tables
Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) Topic 1, Volume A
You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:
An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example,
[email protected]) A nine-digit number that allows 70-480 exam optional hyphens after the second and fifth
character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55- 5555)
You need to use the correct expression to validate the input. Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

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70-480 dumps

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a
company’s website. The page collects 70-480  dumps information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The
query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the
correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
70-480 dumps

QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
70-480  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
70-480  vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
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70-480  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
70-480  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 113

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the new data source.
Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. LINQ to XML
B. ADO.NET Entity Framework
C. ADO.NET DataSets
D. WCF Data Services
70-487 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Errors occasionally occur when saving data using the FlightInfoContext ADO.NET Entity Framework context. Updates to the data are being lost when an error occurs. You need to ensure that data is still saved when an error occurs by retrying the operation. No more than five retries should be performed.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the SaveChanges() method in the FlightInfoContext.es file?
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70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller. It returns flights from the consolidated data sources only for flights that are late. You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required 70-487 dumps  data. Which code segment should you use? 70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D is right because you send result as REST so if you use “AsQueryable” the result is deferred to the next enumeration of your result.
D is not optimized but will works.
A will break at runtime.
Credits to Rem
QUESTION 4
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 5
An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide to move
schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses their concerns about
having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still decide to implement your off-schedule
shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
70-487 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Who is ultimately responsible for an employee’s success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee’s mentor
C. the employee’s manager
D. the employee’s team leader
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
70-487 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System produces
performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the phone, performing wrap
up work, and not available. Reports also show the number of calls taken and the average talk-time
per agent. Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization’s performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has theleast :not available” time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the
morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
70-487 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What should be addressed in a support center’s marketing plan?
A. the support center’s budget requirements
B. the support center’s staffing requirements
C. the support center’s implementation timelines
D. the support center’s role in the corporate vision
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods? (Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
70-487 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals? (Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by their
company.
70-487 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
70-764 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
70-764 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
70-764 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
70-764 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
70-764 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
70-764 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 10
To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the configure
method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of the
mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of
the mapper.
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Consider the following two relations, A and B.
Which Pig statement combines A by its first field and B by its second field?
A. C = DOIN B BY a1, A by b2;
B. C = JOIN A by al, B by b2;
C. C = JOIN A a1, B b2;
D. C = JOIN A SO, B $1;
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
What is the disadvantage of using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner and distributing your
workload across you cluster?
A. You will not be able to compress the intermediate data.
B. You will longer be able to take advantage of a Combiner.
C. By using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner, output files may not be in globally sorted
order.
D. There are no concerns with this approach. It is always advisable to use multiple reduces.
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Multiple reducers and total ordering
If your sort job runs with multiple reducers (either because mapreduce.job.reduces in mapred-site.xml has
been set to a number larger than 1, or because you’ve used the -r option to specify the number of reducers
on the command-line), then by default Hadoop will use the HashPartitioner to distribute records across the
reducers. Use of the HashPartitioner means that you can’t concatenate your output files to create a single
sorted output file. To do this you’ll need total ordering,
Reference: Sorting text files with MapReduce
QUESTION 13
Identify the MapReduce v2 (MRv2 / YARN) daemon responsible for launching application containers and
monitoring application resource usage?
A. ResourceManager
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationMaster
D. ApplicationMasterService
E. TaskTracker
F. JobTracker

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Apache Hadoop YARN ?Concepts&; Applications
QUESTION 14
You have the following key-value pairs as output from your Map task:
(the, 1)
(fox, 1)
(faster, 1)
(than, 1)
(the, 1)
(dog, 1)
How many keys will be passed to the Reducer’s reduce method?
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Two
E. One
F. Three
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Only one key value pair will be passed from the two (the, 1) key value pairs.
QUESTION 15
What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reducing lets you aggregate values together. A reducer function receives an iterator of input
values from an input list. It then combines these values together, returning a single output value.
All values with the same key are presented to a single reduce task.
Reference: Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce
QUESTION 16
The activity diagram below shows a simplified order processing procedure. Which of the following
statements is correct for this flow?
(2 Points)
A. The flow is not modelled correctly, since no condition (branch)should be present within a fork.
B. The flow is modelled correctly: the goods branch as well as the export and domestic order branch are
processed in parallel to one another.
C. The flow is not modelled correctly, since the branches for the domestic and export orders must be
consolidated via a diamond symbol.
D. The flow is modelled correctly and the “issue invoice” activity is conducted after the “compile goods”
activity.
70-533 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You decide to talk
through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback which must now be
documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to document the details of a
single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
What does the Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
70-533 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
What does the Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and
MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression

E. All of the above
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following
features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in
path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
70-533 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the
Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
70-533 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater

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