3COM.ActualTests 3M0-701 v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.128q

The 3M0-701 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-701.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A QUESTION 1
The Dial Plan Entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose One)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Mailbox
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Extension

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Dial Plan operations. Match the Dial plan Operation with the appropriate description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)
A. Personal Operator
B. System Operator
C. User Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)
A. Voice profile for internet messaging
B. Vector profile for internet messaging
C. Voice protocol for internet messages
D. Vector protocol for internet messages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)
A. Supports up to 1500 total devices
B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
E. Supports up to 200 total devices
F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 9
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. NBX 100
C. V5000
D. V3000 BRI-ST
E. V3001R

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Call
Forward Options. Match the Options with the appropriate descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. IMAP4
C. LEC
D. TAPI
E. WAV

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 12
IMAP4 capability and SMTP capability are included with NBX at no charge and no license is required
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Other
C. After-Hours
D. Lunch
E. Closed
F. Emergency close
G. Holiday

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 14
A NBX System running in SIP Mode can interoperate with any other SIP endpoint, including gateways, devices and SIP enabled applications.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following are not subject to Class of Service settings? (Choose two.)
A. WAN class
B. Long Distance calls
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Emergency 911 Calls
E. System Wide Speed Dials
F. International

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Detail Reporting (CDR)? ) (Choose three.)
A. Tracks only complete calls
B. Telephone system usage tracked on a per telephone group/per call basis
C. Does not require a license
D. Tracks completed calls and all attempted and/or abandoned calls
E. Telephone System usage tracked on a per user/ per call basis
F. Requires a CDR license
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in this group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call
D. When you employ this call distribution, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? ( Choose three.)
A. Activated before or during a call
B. Configured via a Feature Code
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis
D. Configured via Button Mappings
E. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. TAPI
C. WAV
D. IMAP4
E. LEC

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are recommended tools for troubleshooting and repairing Analog Lines? ( Choose Four.)
A. 599 Punch-Down Tool/Blades
B. Tone Generator
C. Loop Current Tester
D. Cable Splicer’s Knife
E. Flux Capacitor
F. Butt-Set
Correct Answer: BCDF

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3Com.ActualTests 3M0-700 v.2006.08.17

The https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-700.html Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which four Call Forward user settings are available on the NBX Telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voice mail
B. Forward the call to an e-mail inbox
C. Forward calls to an Auto Attendant
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Disconnect the call after a set number of rings
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD and/or the Names Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 2
How does the NBX administrator assign a new user to a Hunt Group?
A. Select Dial Plan / Table and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
B. Select Dial Plan / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
C. Select Operations/ Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
D. Select User Configuration / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which four components are required to use the NBX CTI Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) solution? (Choose four.)
A. NBX CTI license
B. Any NBX system
C. H.323 protocol support
D. NBX TAPI service provider (NBXTSP) software
E. Computer supporting TAPI, for example, Microsoft Windows
F. Either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. Desktop TAPI application software, for example, Desktop Call Assistant or Outlook
Correct Answer: BDEG

QUESTION 4
Which four are features of the SuperStack 3 NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Has an two integrated, redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet port for LAN connectivity
B. Supports up to 200 devices, including up to 100 central office lines
C. Redundancy options include dual power supplies and disk mirroring
D. Supports up to 1500 devices, including up to 720 central office lines
E. System scales to 12 auto-attendant voice messaging ports and 80 hour of voice-mail storage
F. Uses the same Network Control Processor (NCP) card as the NBX 100 Communications System
G. Uses many of the same interface cards, for example, Analog Line and Analog Terminal Cards, as the NBX 100 Communications System
Correct Answer: ACDG
QUESTION 5
Which three are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.1 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
B. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.190 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
C. Supports 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
D. To have user privileges, sign on with a username of “user” and use your voicemail password
E. To have system configuration privileges, sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000”
F. With administrator privileges, you can easily change a user’s password but there is no easy way to retrieve the administrator password if it is lost

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With an NBX Telephony system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/ from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example., VPN, T1, E1, Frame and Relay

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 7
Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN tagging must be turned on
B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones
C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p
D. NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging
E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Telephony System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
B. NBX phones, using VLAN-tagged frames, automatically set the priority level to 6
C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
D. NBX phone place audio traffic in a priority queue, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
The NBX phones support IEEE 802.1p/q for voice prioritization across the WAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three are features/benefits of using Silent Suppression on your NBX Telephony System? (Choose three.)
A. On average, provides a 42% reduction in voice bandwidth utilization
B. Can be enabled/disabled for the entire system or for individual phones
C. Compresses all voice traffic, reducing packet size and network congestion
D. Eliminates additional voice packets between phones when there is a conversation
E. Enabled devices send small packets with a silence indication when it detects silence in the conversation
F. Eliminates the need for phones to send “keep alive” packets every 5 seconds, as the phones create a connection-oriented network session

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communications System? (Choose three.)
A. Requires the Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
B. Supports hot-swap power supply, Network Call Processor and disk drive
C. Provides 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
D. Is a combination of two chassis – the Network Call Processor and the interface chassis
E. Has 6-useable card slots with the top slot designated for the Network Call Processor Card
F. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are installed on a LAN

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 12
How does the NBX administrator install a Disk Mirroring Kit on a SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System?
A. Backup system and dial plan configuration, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system
B. Backup NBX system configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system
C. Backup system and dial plan configuration, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, install license key for disk mirroring
D. Backup system and dial plan configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, initial disk and perform a disk copy using NetSet Operations / Manage Data

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which four are hardware redundancy features of the SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System? (Choose four.)
A. Disk mirroring on the NBX V5000 Call Processor
B. Dual NCP support in the NBX V5000 Call Processor
C. Dual-homing support for T1/E1 Digital Line Card ports
D. External Redundant Power Supply (RPS) for NBX V5000 Chassis
E. Redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet uplink ports for LAN connectivity
F. NBX V5000 Chassis internal backup power supply with load sharing
G. NBX V5000 Call Processor internal backup power supply with load sharing

Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 14
Which two NBX Phones support the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 1102 Business Phone
B. NBX 2102PE Business Phone
C. NBX 2102-IR Business Phone
D. NBX 3102 Business Phone
E. NBX 2102 Business Phone

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which NBX NetSet Administrator screen provides basic NBX information, such as: software version,IP address, Network Protocol, etc?
A. System Settings
B. System Main Menu
C. System Configuration
D. System Reports / System Data

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Which two types of devices are not supported by the NBX Analog Terminal Card or Analog Terminal Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 18
Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. Can use the Auto Discover function to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a power failure
E. In PBX System Mode, CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
F. When a port is mapped to multiple telephones, by default incoming calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 19
The company executive staff does not want to receive phone calls from employees.
How would you ensure the executive staff phone extensions do not show up in the NBX internal directory?
A. Configure the extensions as “No Call”
B. Exclude the extensions from the LCD Directory
C. Exclude the extensions from the Name Directory
D. Include all the staff extensions in the “No Call List”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS

Correct Answer: B

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3COM.ActualTests 3M0-600 v2008-04-14.by.Ramon.90q

The 3M0-600 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-600.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP Drag the 3Com product you would use for each location (A, B and C) to complete the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System solution.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
B. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. False B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which three are benefits of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System? (Choose three.)
A. Automates access point (AP) management, i.e., adjusts traffic loads, optimizes AP power, changes AP channel assignments
B. Provides centralized management for wireless controllers/switches and Managed Access Points
C. Enhances user and group security with security profiles
D. Improves throughput of critical data with multiple priority queues and queuing algorithms on each wireless controller/switch
E. Eliminates the need to install access points (APs) throughout the building

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP Match each 3Com wireless component with its description. Exhibit: 600-c-45.JPG

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
B. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
D. Unauthorized third-party access point
E. Authorized wireless NIC

Correct Answer: ACD

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3Com_CertifyMe 3M0-331_v2010-07-31_173q_By-Shehzebq

The 3M0-331 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-331.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?

A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 10
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?

A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 15
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 19
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD

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3COM 3M0-300 3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam v3.0 50 Q&A Version 2.73

The 3M0-300 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-300.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

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3COM 3M0-212 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist Finsl Exam v3.0 50 Q&A Version 2.73

The 3M0-212 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-212.html Exam Questions & Answers We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Click the Task button.
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
Click the Task button.
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 7
Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B. User definable MAC table aging period
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 8
The Switch 5500 allows VLANs to be automatically assigned based on user credentials or on the MAC address of the device.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 10
Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. RIP 2
B. OSPF
C. VRRP
D. PIM Dense Mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 12
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations
B. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
What is the security benefit obtained when the Switch 5500 is integrated with Tipping Point IPS?
A. Prevents unauthorized users from logging onto the network
B. Illegal activity or infected machine can be automatically isolated or blocked
C. Automatically works with IEEE 802.1X Network Login and switch ACLs to determine user authorization and access authority

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
The Switch 5500 RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) is designed to authenticate users based on MAC address without the requirement for IEEE 802.1X client on the attached devices.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which best describes the Switch 8800 dual-fabric architecture?
A. Two active, redundant fabrics – one master and one slave
B. One active master switch fabric and one standby slave switch fabric
C. Each I/O chassis module is assigned to one of the two master switch fabrics

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
B. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
C. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 19
Which three hardware reliability features are supported by all Switch 8800 chassis models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable switch elements
B. Redundant, load-sharing switch fabric
C. Redundant, load-sharing power supplies
D. Hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant switch fabric
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) redundant backbone support

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20
Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.11a/g Wireless Access Point
B. 2,048 Virtual LANs (VLANs) per chassis
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) and Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which three routing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Routing policies
D. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 22
The Switch 8800 supports IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet Jumbo Ethernet Frames (9KB).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
B. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 25
Click the Task button.
Match each Switch 8800 internal component with its function.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 26
What is a security feature on the Switch 8800?
A. User names and passwords can be configured on the switch
B. Switch only acts as authenticator but not authentication server
C. Requires RADIUS for IEEE 802.1x Network Login authentication

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which two are security features on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Supports a single supplicant on each physical port
B. Switch can act as both authenticator and authentication server
C. Switch requires an external RADIUS server for user authentication
D. IEEE 802.1X Network Login can be enabled globally or on individual ports

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 28
Which two Access Control Lists (ACLs) features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 ACLs only
B. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ACLs
C. Default switch flow template includes all IP fields
D. Each interface has an associated flow template that defines the subset of all possible protocol fields used by the interface

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 29
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Eight output queues per port
B. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
C. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
D. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted Random Early Discard)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30
Click the Task button.
Match each Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) component with its function.
A. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-212.html
B.
C.
D.

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3COM.ActualTests.3M0-211.v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.80q

3COM.ActualTests  https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-211.html  v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.80q.The 3M0-211 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)

3M0-211 Exam Questions & Answers : https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-211.html dumps

A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

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Adobe 9A0-035 Adobe Illustrator CS ACE Exam 134 Q&A Version 2.73

Welcome to download the newest Flydumps 9A0-035 VCE dumps: http://www.flydumps.com/9A0-035.html

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What should you do if you are creating graphics that will be used only on the Web?
A. work in RGB color mode
B. work in CMYK color mode
C. compress continuous-tone images with a broad range of subtle variations in brightness and hue with the GIF file format
D. use the JPEG file format to maintain high quality, vector images that will be used for creating animation frames on the Web

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
You have created artwork for the Web using your two company colors.
Which format and settings from the Save for Web dialog box should you choose for optimization?

A. JPEG
B. PNG – 8
C. GIF; Web
D. GIF; selective
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
You have created a document that contains your company logo using spot colors and an imported photograph of your business location. This document will be used on your website home page so flexibility in choosing image compression is a prerequisite. Which file format should you choose?
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
You are creating an SWF animation and want to reduce the size of your file. What should you do?
A. use Symbols
B. use Variables
C. choose Object > Blend > Expand
D. choose Object > Blend > Release

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You want to place a high quality resolution independent graphic on your Web page. Which format would you choose?
A. SVG
B. EPS
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
You are exporting artwork as an Illustrator Legacy file that is compatible with Illustrator 10. You have selected Embed All Fonts. Which statement is true when using the file on a system that does not have the original fonts?
A. The original fonts will display when the file is opened in Illustrator.
B. The original fonts will be rasterized when the file is opened in Illustrator.
C. The fonts will substitute when the file is placed in a page layout application.
D. The fonts will display and print properly when the file is placed in a page layout application.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
You need to produce a document which will be compatible with an older application that only supports the Adobe Illustrator 8 file format. What should you do?
A. choose File > Save a Copy
B. choose File > Save As, then select Illustrator EPS
C. choose File > Export then select Illustrator Legacy EPS (eps)
D. choose File > Save As, then select Adobe Illustrator Document

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which is a benefit of exporting a file to Photoshop format (PSD)?
A. Layers may be preserved.
B. You can set the frame rate.
C. HTML code can be generated.
D. You can set image compression.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Which file format supports partial opacity when exporting an Adobe Illustrator document?
A. GIF
B. PSD
C. PICT
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which file format allows you to create resolution-independent Web graphics that support JavaScript?
A. GIF
B. SVG
C. BMP
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
You need to export an Adobe Illustrator file to a format that supports lossless compression, the display of images on the World Wide Web, 24-bit images, and transparent backgrounds. Which format provides these options?
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. WMF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
You have applied a Scatter brush to a path. The path is selected. What should you do to change the color of the brush objects?
A. double click the brush, set the Colorization Method to Tints and then select a fill color
B. double click the brush, set the Colorization Method to None and then select a fill color
C. double click the brush, set the Colorization Method to Tints and then select a stroke color
D. double click the brush, set the Colorization Method to None and then select a stroke color

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which transparency blend mode multiplies the inverse of the blend and base colors, always resulting in a lighter color?
A. Multiply
B. Screen
C. Lighten
D. Color Dodge

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which action can be used to update a symbol in the Symbols palette?
A. drag the modified symbol on top of the old symbol in the Symbols palette
B. click the Break Link button on the Symbols palette and edit the symbol in the artwork
C. Alt-drag (Windows) or Option-drag (Mac OS) the modified symbol on top of the old symbol in the Symbols palette
D. Ctrl-drag (Windows) or Command-drag (Mac OS) the modified symbol on top of the old symbol in the Symbols palette

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to rotate the object by exactly 17 degrees around a specific reference point (marked by X in the exhibit.)
What should you do?

A. double-click the rotate tool and enter an angle of 17
B. select the rotate tool, click where you want the reference point to be and use the Transform palette to rotate 17 degrees
C. select the rotate tool, double-click where you want the reference point to be, then enter an angle of 17 in the Rotate dialog box
D. select the rotate tool, hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and click where you want the reference point to be, then enter an angle of 17 in the Rotate dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You use the selection tool to select an object, then switch to the zoom tool to increase the magnification of the selected object. Which command will temporarily switch you back to the selection tool?
A. Shift
B. Space bar
C. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS)
D. Control (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Click the Exhibit button.
Which would you choose to change Object A to Object B?
A. Effect > Stylize > Scribble
B. Filter > Distort > Pucker & Bloat
C. Filter > Stylize > Round Corners
D. Effect > Distort & Transform > Pucker & Bloat

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
What should you do to add a spot color to the Swatches palette?
A. Shift-drag a color to the Swatches palette
B. Option-drag a color to the Swatches palette
C. Ctrl-drag (Windows) or Command-drag (Mac OS) a color to the Swatches palette
D. Ctrl+Shift-drag (Windows) or Command+Shift-drag (Mac OS) a color to the Swatches palette

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
You have placed a red object with 30% opacity on top of a blue object with 80% opacity. You use the Add to Shape Area shape mode in the Pathfinder palette to combine the two objects. What is the resulting object’s color and opacity?
A. red with 30% opacity
B. red with 80% opacity
C. blue with 30% opacity
D. blue with 80% opacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
You have drawn a star using the star tool. The corners of the star are squared. You want pointed corners, so you click the Miter Join icon in the Stroke palette, but the corners remain squared. With the object selected, what should you do to make the star corners pointed?
A. choose Effect > Sharpen
B. choose Effect > Path > Outline Object
C. increase the Miter Limit in the Stroke palette
D. click the Projecting Cap icon in the Stroke palette

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You want to create an object that will stretch artwork evenly along the length of a path. Which tool should you use?
A. Pen
B. Art Brush
C. Scatter Brush
D. Pattern Brush

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Click the Exhibit button.
Which of the 3D Extrude & Bevel options will change object A to object B?
A. Bevel Extent In
B. Bevel Extent Out
C. Extrude Cap On
D. Extrude Cap Off

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
You have imported a photograph, but you need to create an oval image, rather than rectangular. You have created a path using the ellipse tool for your clipping mask. Which object order should you use to create the clipping mask?
A. The bottom object must be the photograph on a locked layer.
B. The top selected object must be the photograph on a visible layer.
C. The top selected object must be the ellipse tool path on a visible layer.
D. The top selected object must be the ellipse tool path on a hidden layer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which command should you use to change the color of the Artboard?
A. File > File Info > Advanced
B. File > Document Color Mode
C. File > Document Setup > Artboard
D. File > Document Setup > Transparency

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
You have made several modifications to a large Illustrator file and want to find out how many undos are available with your current system memory and application settings.
Which component of the work area displays this information?
A. Status bar pop-up menu
B. Actions palette pop-up menu
C. Transform palette pop-up menu
D. Document info palette pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
You have been asked to print an existing document on paper that is larger than the size specified for the original document. You scale the artwork, but when you print, it is cropped to the original paper size. Which two tasks should you do? (Choose two.)
A. resize the Artboard by using the Page tool
B. resize the Artboard by using the Selection tool
C. change the media size to match the size of the paper
D. select Artboard from the Document Setup dialog box and change the units
E. select Artboard from the Document Setup dialog box and change the setting for Size to match the size of the paper

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 28
What does the Page tool allow you to do?
A. change the size of the page
B. change the size of the artboard
C. define the placement of crop marks
D. adjust the position of the page on the artboard

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have received text and graphic files that will be imported into an Adobe Illustrator document. The files were created on Windows and Macintosh platforms. You need to determine if you have the appropriate fonts on your computer. What should you do?
A. import your text documents, select the text with missing fonts and underline the text
B. choose Window > Type > Open Type and click on the contextual alternatives button
C. import your text documents, select all of the text and change the fill color to an unused color
D. choose File > Document Setup, select Type from the pop-up menu and choose Substituted Fonts under Highlight.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Click the Exhibit button. Which statement about this Glyphs palette is true?
A. It shows a Type 1 font.
B. It shows a TrueType font.
C. The * character has more than one form.
D. The $ character has more than one form.

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