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QUESTION 1 Which two endpoints allow for whiteboarding and annotating on the screen? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Meeting Server 2000 B. Cisco IP Phone C. DX 80 D. Cisco IP Conference Phone E. Webex Board Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2 Which two services are delivered in Webex Edge? (Choose two.) A. Webex Edge Management B. Cisco dCloud C. Webex Edge Audio D. Webex Edge Touch Ten E. Webex Edge Connect Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3 Which Webex Try and Buy Program benefit is included in the purchase? A. one (1) year of Webex conferencing at no cost B. Webex conferencing only C. Webex conferencing, Webex Teams and Devices D. Unlimited Webex licenses Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which statement for Webex Teams End to End Encryption is valid? A. End to End Encryption uses TLS 1.1 and 1.2 only. B. Files are not encrypted. C. Messages and files are encrypted by the Webex Teams application before they are sent to the Webex Cloud and other Webex Teams clients. D. End to End Encryption can only be used if Hybrid Data Security nodes have been deployed. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid? A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data classified as “confidential” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which key benefit of Webex Teams collaboration is valid? A. Only the moderator of a space is able to use important meeting features B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages? A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations. B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications. C. Yes, only if everyone agrees. D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which two primary types of Smart Accounts are valid? A. Holding Smart Accounts and Customer Smart Accounts B. Holding Smart Accounts and Try and Buy licenses C. Webex Teams and Webex Licenses D. Device licenses and resale agreements Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Does compliance guarantee security? A. No, compliance has no effect on security B. Yes, compliance guarantees security C. No, but compliance is a key factor to consider D. No, compliance is only important for IT administrators Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which platform is Cisco Webex Calling based upon? A. Broadcloud platform from the recent Cisco acquisition of Broadsoft B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM) C. Spark Calling platform D. Business Edition 4000 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which two features are available in the Cisco Webex Web App? (Choose two.) A. Webex App only works on desktop devices B. Has to be redownloaded every time you attend a meeting C. Available to Chrome Browsers Only D. Ability to share screens or specific applications E. Centralized meeting controls like chat and QandA Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12 What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers? A. Salesforce and Sales Connect B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which two features are included in Cisco video room systems? (Choose two.) A. Surround sound audio B. only register to on premises call controller C. 3D astral projection D. Intelligent View E. Speaker Tracking Correct Answer: DE
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QUESTION 1 Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.) A. Synchronize access points with the MSE. B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials. C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials configured during set up. D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System. E. Apply a valid license for location tracking. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 A FlexConnect remote office deployment is using five 2702i APs indoors and two 1532i APs outdoors. When a code upgrade is performed and FlexConnect Smart AP Image Upgrade is leveraged, but no FlexConnect Master AP has been configured, how many image transfers between the WLC and APs will occur? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 7 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 What is the default IEEE 802.1x AP authentication configuration on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller? A. EAP-PEAP with 802.1x port authentication B. EAP-TLS with 802.1x port authentication C. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS + port authentication D. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS Correct Answer: C
An engineer must use Cisco AVC on a Cisco WLC to prioritize Cisco IP cameras that use the wireless network. Which element do you configure in a rule? A. permit-ACL B. WMM required C. mark D. rate-limit Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 An engineer is implementing Cisco Identity-Based Networking on a Cisco AireOS controller. The engineer has two ACLs on the controller. The first ACL, named BASE_ACL, is applied to the corporate_clients interface on the WLC, which is used for all corporate clients. The second ACL, named HR_ACL, is referenced by ISE in the Human Resources group policy. What is the resulting ACL when a Human Resources user connects? A. HR_ACL appended with BASE_ACL B. HR_ACL only C. BASE_ACL appended with HR_ACL D. BASE_ACL only Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after multicast is enabled on a controller with 500 APs. Which feature connects the issue? A. controller IGMP snooping B. multicast AP multicast mode C. broadcast forwarding D. unicast AP multicast mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An IT team is growing quickly and needs a solution for management device access. The solution must authenticate users from an external repository instead of the current local on the WLC, and it must also identify the user and determine what level of access users should have. Which protocol do you recommend to achieve these goals? A. network policy server B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. LDAP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which AP model of the Cisco Aironet Active Sensor is used with Cisco DNA Center? A. 1800s B. 3600e C. 3800s D. 4800i Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum time range that can be viewed on the Cisco DNA Center issues and alarms page? A. 3 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 7 days Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 An engineer is implementing a FlexConnect group for access points at a remote location using local switching but central DHCP. Which client feature becomes available only if this configuration is changed? A. multicast B. static IP C. fast roaming D. mDNS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?
A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed. B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC. C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to DHCP and the two ISE servers. D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the two ISE servers. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 A user is trying to connect to a wireless network that is configured for WPA2-Enterprise security using a corporate laptop. The CA certificate for the authentication server has been installed on the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store on the laptop. The user has been prompted to enter the credentials multiple times, but the authentication has not succeeded. What is causing the issue? A. There is an IEEE invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authentication server. B. The user Active Directory account is locked out after several failed attempts. C. There is an invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authenticator. D. The laptop has not received a valid IP address from the wireless controller. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 A malware infection spread to numerous workstations within the marketing department. The workstations were quarantined and replaced with machines. Which of the following represents a FINAL step in the prediction of the malware? A. The workstations should be isolated from the network. B. The workstations should be donated for refuse. C. The workstations should be reimaged D. The workstations should be patched and scanned. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Joe, a penetration tester, is assessing the security of an application binary provided to him by his client. Which of the following methods would be the MOST effective in reaching this objective? A. Employ a fuzzing utility B. Use a static code analyzer C. Run the binary in an application sandbox D. Manually review the binary in a text editor Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A systems security engineer is assisting an organization\\’s market survey team in reviewing requirements for an upcoming acquisition of mobile devices. The engineer expresses concerns to the survey team about a particular class of devices that uses a separate SoC for baseband radio I/O. For which of the following reasons is the engineer concerned? A. These devices can communicate over networks older than HSPA+ and LTE standards, exposing device communications to poor encryptions routines B. The organization will be unable to restrict the use of NFC, electromagnetic induction, and Bluetooth technologies C. The associated firmware is more likely to remain out of date and potentially vulnerable D. The manufacturers of the baseband radios are unable to enforce mandatory access controls within their driver set Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 After a security incident, an administrator would like to implement policies that would help reduce fraud and the potential for collusion between employees. Which of the following would help meet these goals by having co-workers occasionally audit another worker\\’s position? A. Least privilege B. Job rotation C. Mandatory vacation D. Separation of duties Correct Answer: B Job rotation can reduce fraud or misuse by preventing an individual from having too much control over an area.
QUESTION 5 A security firm is writing a response to an RFP from a customer that is building a new network based software product. The firm\\’s expertise is in penetration testing corporate networks. The RFP explicitly calls for all possible behaviors of the product to be tested, however, it does not specify any particular method to achieve this goal. Which of the following should be used to ensure the security and functionality of the product? (Select TWO). A. Code review B. Penetration testing C. Grey box testing D. Code signing E. White box testing Correct Answer: AE A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. White box testing assumes that the penetration test team has full knowledge of the network and the infrastructure per se thus rendering the testing to follow a more structured approach.
QUESTION 6 A security consultant is considering authentication options for a financial institution. The following authentication options are available security mechanisms to the appropriate use case. Options may be used once. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond? A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options. B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high\\’ or `critical\\’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation. C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software. D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch. Correct Answer: A The first thing you should do is verify the reliability of the claims. From there you can assess the likelihood of the vulnerability affecting your systems. If it is determined that your systems are likely to be affected by the exploit, you need to determine what impact an attack will have on your hosted data. Now that you know what the impact will be, you can test the exploit by using the proof-of-concept code. That should help you determine your options for dealing with the threat (remediation).
QUESTION 8 A cybersecurity analyst is hired to review the security the posture of a company. The cybersecurity analyst notice a very high network bandwidth consumption due to SYN floods from a small number of IP addresses. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take to support incident response? A. Increase the company\\’s bandwidth. B. Apply ingress filters at the routers. C. Install a packet capturing tool. D. Block all SYN packets. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 While conducting a BIA for a proposed acquisition, the IT integration team found that both companies outsource CRM services to competing and incompatible third-party cloud services. The decision has been made to bring the CRM service in-house, and the IT team has chosen a future solution. With which of the following should the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) be MOST concerned? (Choose two.) A. Data remnants B. Sovereignty C. Compatible services D. Storage encryption E. Data migration F. Chain of custody Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 10 A security assessor is working with an organization to review the policies and procedures associated with managing the organization\\’s virtual infrastructure. During a review of the virtual environment, the assessor determines the organization is using servers to provide more than one primary function, which violates a regulatory requirement. The assessor reviews hardening guides and determine policy allows for this configuration. It would be MOST appropriate for the assessor to advise the organization to: A. segment dual-purpose systems on a hardened network segment with no external access B. assess the risks associated with accepting non-compliance with regulatory requirements C. update system implementation procedures to comply with regulations D. review regulatory requirements and implement new policies on any newly provisioned servers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A security analyst works for a defense contractor that produces classified research on drones. The contractor’s faces nearly constant attacks from sophisticated nation-state actors and other APIs. Which of the following would help protect the confidentiality of the research data? A. Use diverse components in layers throughout the architecture B. Implement non-heterogeneous components at the network perimeter C. Purge all data remnants from client devices\\’ volatile memory at regularly scheduled intervals D. Use only in-house developed applications that adhere to strict SDLC security requirements Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 The finance department for an online shopping website has discovered that a number of customers were able to purchase goods and services without any payments. Further analysis conducted by the security investigations team indicated that the website allowed customers to update a payment amount for shipping. A specially crafted value could be entered and cause a rollover, resulting in the shipping cost being subtracted from the balance and in some instances resulted in a negative balance. As a result, the system processed the negative balance as zero dollars. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue? A. Race condition B. Click-jacking C. Integer overflow D. Use after free E. SQL injection Correct Answer: C Integer overflow errors can occur when a program fails to account for the fact that an arithmetic operation can result in a quantity either greater than a data type\\’s maximum value or less than its minimum value.
QUESTION 13 An information security officer is responsible for one secure network and one office network. Recent intelligence suggests there is an opportunity for attackers to gain access to the secure network due to similar login credentials across networks. To determine the users who should change their information, the information security officer uses a tool to scan a file with hashed values on both networks and receives the following data:
Which of the following tools was used to gather this information from the hashed values in the file? A. Vulnerability scanner B. Fuzzer C. MD5 generator D. Password cracker E. Protocol analyzer Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You are designing a solution that will use Azure Table storage. The solution will log records in the following entity.
You are evaluating which partition key to use based on the following two scenarios: 1. Scenario1: Minimize hotspots under heavy write workloads. 2. Scenario2: Ensure that date lookups are as efficient as possible for read workloads. Which partition key should you use for each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 You need to design the SensorData collection. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: Eventual Traffic data insertion rate must be maximized. Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named treydata in a collection named SensorData With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix, and eventual consistency. Box 2: License plate This solution reports on all data related to a specific vehicle license plate. The report must use data from the SensorData collection. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels
QUESTION 3 You are designing an audit strategy for an Azure SQL Database environment. You need to recommend a solution to provide real-time notifications for potential security breaches. The solution must minimize development effort. Which destination should you include in the recommendation? A. Azure Blob storage B. Azure SQL Data Warehouse C. Azure Event Hubs D. Azure Log Analytics Correct Answer: D Auditing for Azure SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse tracks database events and writes them to an audit log in your Azure storage account, Log Analytics workspace or Event Hubs. Alerts in Azure Monitor can identify important information in your Log Analytics repository. They are created by alert rules that automatically run log searches at regular intervals, and if results of the log search match particular criteria, then an alert record is created and it can be configured to perform an automated response. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-auditinghttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/azure-monitor/learn/tutorial-response
QUESTION 4 A company stores sensitive information about customers and employees in Azure SQL Database. You need to ensure that the sensitive data remains encrypted in transit and at rest. What should you recommend? A. Transparent Data Encryption B. Always Encrypted with secure enclaves C. Azure Disk Encryption D. SQL Server AlwaysOn Correct Answer: B Incorrect Answers: A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels. References: https://cloudblogs.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2018/12/17/confidential-computing-using-always-encrypted-with-secure-enclaves-in-sql-server-2019-preview/
QUESTION 5 You are designing an Azure Data Factory pipeline for processing data. The pipeline will process data that is stored in general-purpose standard Azure storage. You need to ensure that the compute environment is created on-demand and removed when the process is completed. Which type of activity should you recommend? A. Databricks Python activity B. Data Lake Analytics U-SQL activity C. HDInsight Pig activity D. Databricks Jar activity Correct Answer: C The HDInsight Pig activity in a Data Factory pipeline executes Pig queries on your own or on-demand HDInsight cluster. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/transform-data-using-hadoop-pig
QUESTION 6 A company plans to use Apache Spark Analytics to analyze intrusion detection data You need to recommend a solution to monitor network and system activities for malicious activities and policy violations. Reports must be produced in an electronic format and sent to management. The solution must minimize administrative efforts. What should you recommend? A. Azure Data Factory B. Azure Data Lake C. Azure Databricks D. Azure HDInsight Correct Answer: D With Azure HDInsight you can set up Azure Monitor alerts that will trigger when the value of a metric or the results of a query meet certain conditions. You can condition on a query returning a record with a value that is greater than or less than a certain threshold, or even on the number of results returned by a query. For example, you could create an alert to send an email if a Spark job fails or if a Kafka disk usage becomes over 90 percent full. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/monitoring-on-azure-hdinsight-part-4-workload-metrics-and-logs/
QUESTION 7 You plan to use Azure SQL Database to support a line of business app. You need to identify sensitive data that is stored in the database and monitor access to the data. Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Enable Data Discovery and Classification. B. Implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE). C. Enable Auditing. D. Run Vulnerability Assessment. E. Use Advanced Threat Protection. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You plan to create a real-time monitoring app that alerts users when a device travels more than 200 meters away from a designated location. You need to design an Azure Stream Analytics job to process the data for the planned app. The solution must minimize the amount of code developed and the number of technologies used. What should you include in the Stream Analytics job? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You need to design the storage for the telemetry capture system. What storage solution should you use in the design? A. Azure SQL Data Warehouse B. Azure Databricks C. Azure Cosmos DB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You have an on-premises MySQL database that is 800 GB in size. You need to migrate a MySQL database to Azure Database for MySQL. You must minimize service interruption to live sites or applications that use the database. What should you recommend? A. Azure Database Migration Service B. Dump and restore C. Import and export D. MySQL Workbench Correct Answer: A You can perform MySQL migrations to Azure Database for MySQL with minimal downtime by using the newly introduced continuous sync capability for the Azure Database Migration Service (DMS). This functionality limits the amount of downtime that is incurred by the application. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/mysql/howto-migrate-online
QUESTION 11 You need to design the image processing solution to meet the optimization requirements for image tag data. What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Tagging data must be uploaded to the cloud from the New York office location. Tagging data must be replicated to regions that are geographically close to company office locations.
QUESTION 12 You need to design the authentication and authorization methods for sensors. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named treydata in a collection named SensorData Sensors must have permission only to add items to the SensorData collection Box 1: Resource Token Resource tokens provide access to the application resources within a Cosmos DB database. Enable clients to read, write, and delete resources in the Cosmos DB account according to the permissions they\\’ve been granted. Box 2: Cosmos DB user You can use a resource token (by creating Cosmos DB users and permissions) when you want to provide access to resources in your Cosmos DB account to a client that cannot be trusted with the master key. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/secure-access-to-data
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You are designing an application that will store petabytes of medical imaging data When the data is first created, the data will be accessed frequently during the first week. After one month, the data must be accessible within 30 seconds, but files will be accessed infrequently. After one year, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be accessible within five minutes. You need to select a storage strategy for the data. The solution must minimize costs. Which storage tier should you use for each time frame? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
First week: Hot Hot – Optimized for storing data that is accessed frequently. After one month: Cool Cool – Optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days. After one year: Cool Incorrect Answers: Archive: Optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency requirements (on the order of hours). References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers
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QUESTION 1 Exhibit.
The host in the exhibit is connected to a 4-node ONTAP SAN using dual-fabric implementation. LUNs have been mapped LUN through all available UFs on nil (our nodes. Switch 2 is powered off for high- availability testing. How many paths per LUN would you expect the host to see in this scenario? A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of zoning should be used? A. a WWPN with a single initiator and multiple targets B. a WWPN with a single initiator and a single target C. a WWNN with a single initiator and multiple targets D. a WWNN with a single Initiator and a single target Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You are provisioning storage to an ESX host that uses iSCSI. According to NetApp best practice, which three actions accomplish this task? (Choose three.) A. Enable the iSCSI service. B. Bind the iSCSI ports to the software iSCSI adapter. C. Install Virtual Storage Console (VSC) for VMware. D. Enable BGP on the switch. E. Configure MTU 1500 on the switch. Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 You currently have a FAS8200 with ONTAP 9.5. You want to expand the front end FC I/O capabilities. However, you are unsure which target adapters are supported. What would you use to confirm which adapters are supported with your current configuration? A. Hardware Universe (HWU) B. Upgrade Advisor C. OneCollect D. Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT) Correct Answer: A Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2495115
QUESTION 5 Click the Exhibit button.
You are implementing an ONTAP 9.5 AFF A300 SAN cluster with the NVMe, FC, and FCoE protocols. Referring to the exhibit, which three protocols and physical port pairs are supported? (Choose three.) A. NVMe on ports 2a/2b B. FC on ports 2a/2b C. NVMe on ports 0e/0f D. FCoE on ports 0e/0f E. FC on ports 0e/0f Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6 A user cannot add more than one NVMe data LIF in ONTAP 9.4 on an SVM with a data protocol parameter set to nvme. In this scenario, what is the problem? A. The SVM data protocol should be set to FC. B. The NVMe namespace is not created. C. A demo license is used. D. Only one NVMe data LIF can be configured per SVM. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An administrator is adding new hosts to a vSphere cluster. The cluster uses the FC protocol to connect to a NetApp cluster. The administrator wants to configure the multipathing for the ESXi host. Which NetApp tool should be used to accomplish this task? A. OnCommand System Manager (OCSM) B. Host Utilities C. SnapCenter plug-in D. NetApp Virtual Storage Console (VSC) Correct Answer: D Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1547465
QUESTION 8 Click the Exhibit button.
A 4-node cluster was expanded with two news nodes (Nodes 5 and 6). You are now attempting to set up four FC LUNs on the two new nodes that use the ps2 igroup name, although FC ping works. LUNs on the previous four nodes are discoverable, but the four new LUNs on the new controllers are not discoverable. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem? A. The zones between the hosts and LIFs are from node-05 and node-06. B. Selective LUN Mapping (SLM) is not configured for this HA pair. C. The portset must be configured to reflect Nodes 5 and 6. D. Igroup ps2 has the portset configured with the LIFs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer needs to change ports 0e and 0f on AFF_1 to support FC. Referring to the exhibit, which three steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.) A. Issue the ucadmin modify -node AFF_1 -adapter 0e -mode FC -type target command. B. Issue the ucadmin modify -node AFF_1 -adapter 0e -mode FC -type initiator command. C. Restart the FC service. D. Take ports 0e and 0f offline. E. Reboot the node. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 10 Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit. What are two viable scenarios to test LUN multipathing on Host 1? (Choose two.) A. Reboot one of the switches. B. Disable one of the FC LIFs on Controller 1. C. Disconnect one of the host cables. D. Reboot Host 1. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 You have a 4-node cluster with an AFF A300 HA pair and a FAS8200 HA pair. You plan on using the default storage efficiency settings. With inline data compaction, you estimate that you can save 6% of storage space. AFF A300 LUNs that use under 5000 IOPS are moved to a FAS8200 using the lun move command. In this scenario, what happens to the data after the LUN is moved? (Choose two.) A. The new written data is not compacted. B. The new written data is compacted. C. The existing data is compacted. D. The existing data is not compacted. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmvsmg%2FGUID-9C88C1A6-990A-4826-83F8-0C8EAD6C3613.html
QUESTION 12 Which two are supported in ONTAP 9.5? (Choose two.) A. an NVMe LIF and an FC LIF in the same SVM B. an NVMe LIF associated with an FC Direct Connect port C. an NVMe LIF and an FC LIF associated with the same port D. multiple NVMe LIFs in the same SVM Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13 Exhibit.
You are moving volumes between aggregate aft_01_aggr1 and the aggregate Aggr_Data shown in the exhibit. How much space will be moved? A. 11.17 TB B. 935.75 GB C. 296 KB D. 1. 91 TB Correct Answer: C
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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Apr 04, 2017
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The CEC is revised every four years.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Correct Answer: A
352-001 pdf QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone. Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
Correct Answer: A
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one minute.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address coded in the network interface card?
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
Correct Answer: A
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Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that the next time. VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G Explanation
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains the servers shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that you can use Server Manager on DC1 to manage DC2.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on DC1.
B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on DC2.
C. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on DC2.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC1.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC2.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
In Windows Server 2012, you can use Server Manager to perform management tasks on remote servers.
Remote management is enabled by default on servers that are running Windows Server 2012. To manage
a server remotely by using Server Manager, you add the server to the Server Manager server pool.
You can use Server Manager to manage remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Server 2008 R2, but the following updates are required to fully manage these older operating
Windows Management Framework 3.0 To use this release of Server Manager to access and manage
remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2, you must first install
.NET Framework 4.0, and then install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on those servers.
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You log on to Server1.
You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. netstat> server2
B. winrm get server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
Correct Answer: C Explanation
This command line tool enables administrators to remotely execute most Cmd.exe commands using the
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Corel to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1. What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Install Windows Management Framework. Correct Answer: A
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you
click View script.
You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller. Which file extension should you use to save the script?
D. .cmd Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A PowerShell script is the equivalent of a Windows CMD or MS-DOS batch file, the file should be saved with a .ps1 extension, e.g. MyScript.ps1
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed.
You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller.
Which cmdlet should you run?
D. Install-WindowsFeature Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Install-ADDSDomainController Installs a domain controller in Active Directory. Install- ADDSDomain Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration. Install-ADDSForest Installs a new Active Directory forest configuration. Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or features on either thelocal or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This cmdlet is equivalent to andreplaces Add- WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role services, and features.
C:\PS>Install-ADDSForest -DomainName corp.contoso.com -CreateDNSDelegation DomainMode Win2008 -ForestMode Win2008R2 -DatabasePath “d:\NTDS” -SysvolPath “d:\SYSVOL” LogPath “e:\Logs”Installs a new forest named corp.contoso.com, creates a DNS delegation in the contoso.com domain, setsdomain functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2 and sets forest functional level to Windows Server 2008,installs the Active Directory database and SYSVOL on the D:\ drive, installs the log files on the E:\ drive andhas the server automatically restart after AD DS installation is complete and prompts the user to provide andconfirm the Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM) password.
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QUESTION 1 What is the recommended QoS marking for desktop video endpoints? A. AF31 B. AF41 C. DSCP 26 D. DSCP 46 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which protocol can Cisco Unified Communications Manager not use to monitor the status of the gateway? A. H.323 B. SIP C. MGCP D. SCCP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the output displayed on the IP phone when the incoming calling number is 00492288224002 and has a TON =unknown? A. +49122288224002 B. +492288224002 C. 00492288224002 D. +49128822400 E. 491288224002 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping? A. switch B. router C. firewall D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. bridge Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking? A. codec configuration B. dial peers C. SIP trunks D. CTI integration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses? A. H.323 B. E.164 C. DNS D. URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What is the process of digit matching? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.) A. direct mode B. H.225-routed mode C. H.265-routed mode D. H.245-routed mode E. full proxy mode F. partial proxy mode Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 9 Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.) A. Device type B. Class of service C. Geographic proximity D. Extension mobility CSS E. User hold MOH source F. auto-registration CSS Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 10 Which two options can belong to specific partitions? (Choose two.) A. voice-mail servers B. directory numbers C. gateways D. IP phones E. route patterns Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco products allow the use of a dial plan with E.164, H.323, SIP, and DNS? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Expressway B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. Cisco Unified Border Element D. Cisco IM and Presence E. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12 If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124? A. 5XXX B. 51XX C. 513X D. 5134 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What happens when you try to configure the fourth member of a Cisco Unified CallManager group? A. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error and replace the last entered member of the Cisco Unified CallManager group with the new entry. B. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error message when you attempt to add the fourth member. C. The fourth member will be added to the sequential list. D. The new member will replace the first member on the list. Correct Answer: B
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Free Cisco 300- 465 exam practice questions( updates 2019/11)
QUESTION 1 Which three infrastructure security elements are important when designing a secure mufti tenant environment? (Choose three.) A. internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels B. NGPS C. high availability and redundancy D. storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) E. physical firewalls F. VSG Correct Answer: ACD Internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels (vPCs) Storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) High availability (HA) and redundancy Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/Cloud_Security/1-0/DG/ICSecurity/ICSecurity2.pdf
QUESTION 3 In which situation should a cloud engineer deploy application stack as a service for developers in a self-service model? A. A security officer wants to deploy a virtual firewall in front of all dynamically created applications B. A development manager wants to spin up new code in the public cloud and migrate it in-house before moving it into production C. Developers are bypassing the recently IaaS self-service portal in favor of public cloud PaaS offerings D. A helpdesk manager requests self-service, in order to offload helpdesk calls about LoB application installation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A cloud administrator is considering deep packet inspection to secure the cloud infrastructure. Which three statements about DPI are true? (Choose three.) A. The use of DPI makes it possible to find, identify, classify, reroute, or block packets with specific data or code payloads. B. DPI does not require updates and revisions to remain optimally effective. C. DPI is an advanced method of packet filtering that functions at the application layer of the OSI. D. DPI examines only packet headers. E. DPI is essential in protecting the cloud against malicious threats such as web exploits, zeroday attacks, data exfiltration, and malware-based botnets. F. DPI can increase computer speed because it decreases the burden on the processor. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to interconnect two geographically separated private clouds. A V-Block design is running in both locations. The customer wants to provide IP connectivity between remote data center sites via the MPLS core of their ISP. The connection must meet these requirements: Maintain loop prevention Ensure that storage and data center traffic are load-balanced between both locations Ensure that disaster recovery is easily managed and implemented at Layer 2 and Layer 3 throughput. Which DCI technology satisfies these requirements? A. PVC B. IPsec VPN C. SSL VPN D. L2VPN E. OTV Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A cloud administrator is designing role-based access control security policies for a private Cloud. Which two statements are the goals of these policies? (Choose two.) A. to ensure that no known security vulnerabilities are present B. to protect data center integrity in case of a link failure in any layer C. to provide content security services D. to reduce security risks when accessing the data center E. to control access so that administrators have access only to systems for which they have administrative responsibilities Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Which large-scale Layer 2 connectivity protocol is best for VLAN address space that is limited in large networks? A. VXLAN B. OTV C. LISP D. VPN E. NvGRE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A cloud administrator is considering the appropriate solution to automate a hybrid cloud deployment. The solution requires a single pane of glass infrastructure management, monitoring, health dashboard, orchestration and a selfservice portal. Which solution is most appropriate for this environment? A. PSC B. Cisco UCS Director C. Cisco IAC D. Cisco Enablement Platform Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which three statements about thick provisioning are true? (Choose three.) A. Unused space is available for use by other virtual machines. B. Disk has all space allocated at creation time. C. Before writing to a new block, a zero must be written. D. The entire disk space is reserved and is unavailable for use by other virtual machines. E. The size of the VMDK, at any point in time, is as much as the amount of data written out from the VM. F. Operates by allocating disk storage space in a flexible manner among multiple users, based on the minimum space required by each user at any given time. Correct Answer: BCD Explanation: A thick disk has all space allocated at creation time. This space may contain stale data on the physical media. Before writing to a new block a zero has to be written, increasing the IOPS on new blocks compare to Eager disks. The entire disk space is reserved and unavailable for use by other virtual machines. Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2014/05/thick-vs-thin-disks-flash-arrays.html
QUESTION 10 Which three statements about block-level storage are correct? (Choose three.) A. It is less expensive and simple to implement. B. Block-level storage systems are very popular with SAN. C. It can be treated as an independent disk drive and is controlled by external Server OS. D. Each block can be controlled like an individual hard drive. E. Network attached storage systems usually depend on this file level storage. F. This level storage is inexpensive to be maintained, when it is compared to its counterpart. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11 An engineer is designing a new public cloud infrastructure. Which two compliance standards are met if the engineer deploys according to the Cisco VMDC architecture? (Choose two.) A. GLBA B. PCI C. ISO 27001 D. HIPAA E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which two Cisco products can help an organization move toward an automation-driven policy model? (Choose two.) A. UCS Director B. VM-FEX C. UCS Performance Manager D. Nexus 1000V E. ACI Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 Which statement about VACS is true? A. It provides centralized provisioning and orchestration for physical and virtual networking. B. It is designed around open standards and open APIs. C. It provides scalable and multi protocol controller infrastructure for supporting multiple service providers and services. D. Delivers a comprehensive cloud management solution spanning service offerings from underlying infrastructure to anything-as-a-service platforms. Correct Answer: D
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