[2018 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Windows Server 2012 Exam Video Q&As Online (Question 1 – Question 8)

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Exam Code: 74-409
Exam Name: Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-8)

QUESTION 1
A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
74-409 dumps
You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you do?
A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.
C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.
D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).
74-409 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Requirements
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed. ?A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group.
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations. ?SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.

QUESTION 2
A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:
The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.
You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?
A. Enable the Guest services integration service.
B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.
C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.
D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V?
A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

QUESTION 3
A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time
highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time
highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
74-409 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server.You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs.
B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs.
C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs.
D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
What is SR-IOV
Requires support in network adapter
Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines
Increases network throughput
Reduces network latency
Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server
Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch
Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used

QUESTION 5
You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability.
You need to deploy the VMs. What should you do?
A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value.
B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network.
C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs).
D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set.
74-409 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2. Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates.
What should you do?
A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).
B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection.
Deploy updates to the collection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:
?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode
?Moves the clustered roles off the node
?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
?Performs a restart if necessary
?Brings the node out of maintenance mode
?Restores the clustered roles on the node
?Moves to update the next node
For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case
of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 7
An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper- V host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2. The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the Hyper-V host servers.
You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host servers in the cluster.
B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection.
C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft Update.
74-409 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
Performs a restart if necessary
Brings the node out of maintenance mode
Restores the clustered roles on the node
Moves to update the next nodeFor many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 8
Your environment contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. All domain controllers are virtualized domain controllers.
You design a disaster recovery strategy. You have the following requirements:
The domain controllers can be recovered in the event that a Hyper-V host server fails.
The AD DS domain must be restorable to a consistent state.
You must minimize the data loss. You need to ensure that the domain controllers can be recovered in the event of a failure. What should you do?
A. Clone the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role to a different Hyper-V host server. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to run the Checkpoint- VM cmdlet on each virtual domain controller.
B. Run Windows Azure Hyper-V Recovery Manager.
C. On each guest operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
D. On the host operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
E. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to back up each domain controller’s virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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[2018 New Updated] Best Quality Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Microsoft Project Exam Qs&As With 100% Pass Rate Youtube (Question 1 – Question 12)

Which Microsoft 74-343 dumps website is your best choice? pass4itsure 74-343 dumps pdf (Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013) is the part of Microsoft certification. Passing Microsoft 74-343 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of Pass4itsure to become Microsoft certified. The Pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 74-343 Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013 course exam.

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Exam Code: 74-343
Exam Name: Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do?
A. Add a Material Resource named architect.
B. Add a Budget Resource named architect.
C. Add a Work Resource named architect,
D. Add a Cost Resource named architect.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to
display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
74-343 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner. What should you do?
A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013.
B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button.
C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013.
D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are a resource manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage all of your resources in a single plan, which acts as a Shared Resource Pool for other projects in your organization. Each resource needs to pass an annual exam in order to work on construction sites. You need to set up a method that allows you to pick the renewal month for each resource. What should you do?
A. Rename the Resource Text1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Enter the month when the exam expires. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
B. Use the Organizer to copy the Resource Finish1 Custom field from the Global.mpt. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
C. Rename the Resource Date1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with values containing the last date of each month. Select the correct expiration date for each exam.
D. Rename the Resource Month1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with monthly values. Select the correct expiration month for each exam.
E. Rename the Resource Flag1 Custom field to Exam Expired Date. Enter the expiration dates into a Lookup table. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
74-343 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013, and your task list includes a flag field that indicates, with Yes or No, if a non-summary task represents a physical deliverable. Your project involves several tasks marked as deliverables, and management requires you to track how many deliverables are completed. The deliverable is considered completed when the Percent complete field is 100%. You need to create a formula to calculate the total number of deliverables that are completed. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,1,0).
B. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Sum.
C. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,0,1).
D. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Count All.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do?
A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task.
B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time.
C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure.
D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You manage a project by using Project Standard 2013. You need to use the Baseline2 fields to calculate Variance at Completion (VAC). You have already set Baseline2. What should you do?
A. Enter physical percent complete for the tasks that have actual values. Set the Baseline to the Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
B. Change the Earned Value method to Baseline2 in the Task Information Form.
Enter tracking data, and view the VAC on the Earned Value table.
C. Change the Baseline for Earned Value calculation option to Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
D. Go to the Earned Value table and insert the Baseline2 column. Recalculate the project.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. When viewing the critical path, you notice that there are some inconsistencies. To investigate the status of the critical path, you insert the Total Slack column into a task table. You discover that many of the tasks have negative Total Slack values. You need to resolve the negative Total Slack values. What should you do?
A. Remove lag time from task relationships.
B. Remove as many constraints as possible.
C. Re-assign resources that have more availability at the time of the negative slack.
D. Remove lead time from the task relationships.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. The work variance for a task is 48 hours. The remaining work is 25 hours. The work for this task has been completed. You need the work variance to be adjusted to reflect what has occurred during the performance of the task. What should you do?
A. Adjust the value in the Baseline Work column.
B. Enter a 0 in the remaining Duration column.
C. Adjust the value in the Work Variance column.
D. Mark the task inactive.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 74-343 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 74-343 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

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[2018 New Updated] 100% Success Rate EC-COUNCIL 712-50 Dumps Exam Qs&As Video With Accurate Answers (Question 1 – Question 26)

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Exam Code: 712-50
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO)
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate EC-COUNCIL 712-50 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-26)

QUESTION 1
When dealing with risk, the information security practitioner may choose to:
A. assign
B. transfer
C. acknowledge
D. defer
712-50 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?
A. Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost
B. Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs
C. Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair
D. Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST
answer):
A. low risk-tolerance
B. high risk-tolerance
C. moderate risk-tolerance
D. medium-high risk-tolerance
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?
A. Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated
B. Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level
C. Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology
D. Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?
A. Upper management support
B. More frequent project milestone meetings
C. Stakeholder support
D. Extend work hours
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design
and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called
A. Security certification
B. Security system analysis
C. Security accreditation
D. Alignment with business practices and goals.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When managing the security architecture for your company you must consider:
A. Security and IT Staff size
B. Company Values
C. Budget
D. All of the above
712-50 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a term related to risk management that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is
expected to transpire?
A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
B. Exposure Factor (EF)
C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. Temporal Probability (TP)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?
A. Chief Information Security Officer
B. Chief Executive Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Chief Legal Counsel
712-50 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN. What type of control is being implemented by supervisors and data owners?
A. Management
B. Operational
C. Technical
D. Administrative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don\’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
A. Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert
B. Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better
C. Request additional resources to handle the workload
D. Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Within an organization\’s vulnerability management program, who has the responsibility to implement remediation actions?
A. Security officer
B. Data owner
C. Vulnerability engineer
D. System administrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates. When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:
A. Easiest regulation or standard to implement
B. Stricter regulation or standard
C. Most complex standard to implement
D. Recommendations of your Legal Staff
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When dealing with Security Incident Response procedures, which of the following steps come FIRST when reacting to an incident?
A. Escalation
B. Recovery
C. Eradication
D. Containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?
A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Attack vector
D. Exploitation
712-50 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?
A. To estimate risk and negate liability to the company
B. To understand the attack vectors and attack sources
C. To communicate risk and forecast resource needs
D. To forecast usage and cost per software licensing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
An organization is required to implement background checks on all employees with access to databases containing credit card information. This is considered a security
A. Procedural control
B. Management control
C. Technical control
D. Administrative control
712-50 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.
An effective way to evaluate the effectiveness of an information security awareness program for end users, especially senior executives, is to conduct periodic:
A. Controlled spear phishing campaigns
B. Password changes
C. Baselining of computer systems
D. Scanning for viruses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:
A. ` o 1=1 –
B. /../../../../
C. andquot;DROPTABLE USERNAMEandquot;
D. NOPS
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When measuring the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System which one of the following would be MOST LIKELY used as a metric framework?
A. ISO 27001
B. PRINCE2
C. ISO 27004
D. ITILv3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?
A. Determine the risk tolerance
B. Perform an asset classification
C. Create an architecture gap analysis
D. Analyze existing controls on systems
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The risk found after a control has been fully implemented is called:
A. Residual Risk
B. Total Risk
C. Post implementation risk
D. Transferred risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified. The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?
A. Validate the effectiveness of applied controls
B. Validate security program resource requirements
C. Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders
D. Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings
712-50 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN. Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage
their bank information?
A. Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country
B. Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity
C. Force a change of all passwords
D. Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following BEST describes an international standard framework that is based on the security model Information Technology–Code of Practice for Information Security Management?
A. International Organization for Standardization 27001
B. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-12
C. Request For Comment 2196
D. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-26
712-50 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?
A. Lack of asset management processes
B. Lack of change management processes
C. Lack of hardening standards
D. Lack of proper access controls
Correct Answer: B

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Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Yes, once there are some changes on 712-50 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-29)

QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11. What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 12. Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13. Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 14. Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
Answer: D

QUESTION 15. If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 16. When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%).
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

QUESTION 17. In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
210-060 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 18. During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

QUESTION 19. The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 20. If Committed Access is being used, which statements are true?
A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits.
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction.
C. It retains Write locks on all affected blocks until the transaction commits.
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 21. Within Database | Statistics, what does block density indicate?
A. the actual number of blocks existing within the database
B. the average percentage of data cells within each block that contain data
C. the maximum possible number of blocks that could exist for this database
D. the percentage of blocks that exist compared to the total potential number of blocks
210-060 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 22. What would defragment defrag a fragmented database?
A. adding a dense member to the outline
B. adding a sparse member to the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc and Store
Answer: A

QUESTION 23. What would cause fragmentation in a database?
A. deleting a dense member from the outline
B. deleting a sparse member from the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc (Non-Store)
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24. The stored members in the dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded. Which statement is true about Database B?
A. The index would be half as large as Database A.
B. Half the number of blocks exist as in Database A.
C. Block density is reduced by 50% from Database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks would fit in the Data Cache as in Database A.
Answer: C

QUESTION 25. If you have a production database named Sales, which files should be backed up to perform a complete system backup?
A. sales.db
B. sales.otn
C. essbase.sec
D. ess00001.ind
210-060 exam Answer: ACD

QUESTION 26. An application on a test server is ready to be put into production. The production server already has three applications. What should you do to move the application from development to production?
A. Use the Application | Copy command.
B. Export data from the development application.
C. Copy the Essbase.sec file from development to production.
D. Copy the application directories from development to production.
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. What does the setting NETDELAY 500 represent?
A. the number of times the network will retry a connection before failing and reporting an error
B. the amount of time in seconds allowed to a Named Pipes network to establish a connection to your server
C. the amount of time in milliseconds an unsuccessful operation waits before Essbase retries the operation
D. the number of seconds an Agent thread waits for a resource to become available so it can perform a specific action
210-060 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 28. Which file descriptions are correct?
A. basic.otl contains the outline
B. ess00001.ind stores data blocks
C. basic.esm is a storage manager file
D. basic.mdb is a partition definition file
E. ess00001.pag stores the database index
Answer: AC

QUESTION 29. What occurs upon execution of DISABLELOGIN in ESSCMD?
A. All server logins are disabled.
B. Logins to a specific database are disabled.
C.Logins to a specific application are disabled.
D. It logs out any users currently on a specific database.
210-060 pdf Answer: C

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Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Are you going to prepare Cisco 400-151 dumps exam? The CCIE Data Center Written Exam (400-151 CCIE Data Center) exam is a 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Data Center certification. Download up to date Cisco 400-151 dumps CCIE Data Center exam questions for your excellence with Youtube preparation materials. “CCIE Data Center Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-151 exam. With assessment based on principles, best details and frameworks Pass4itsure offers highest worth Cisco Certified Intenet Expert Data Center review and services to steps forward the careers of specialized persons within https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-151.html dumps Cisco Certified Intenet Expert Data Center exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 dumps is also one the element of the Pass4itsure & is measured as the 400-151 CCIE Data Center Written Exam certificate.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-32)

QUESTION 6
Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?
A. Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.
B. Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
C. Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.
D. Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?
A. Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.
B. Only Captive Portal can be used.
C. Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.
D. You must run an ADquery for every domain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in Gaia?
A. In the CLI via sysconfig
B. In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes
C. In the CLI with the command “route add”

D. In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which command will erase all CRL’s?
A. vpn crl_zap
B. vpn flush
C. cpstop/cpstart
D. vpn crladmin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

400-151 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
Exhibit:

Exhibit:
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast

400-151 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 18
When an 802.11 station operating in Power Save mode with a ReceiveDTIMs parameter of TRUE receives a beacon containing a DTIM indicating queued broadcast traffic, what task does the 802.11 standard require the client station to perform?
A. The client station must send an ATIM frame to the access point if the station is the first AID in the DTIM list.
B. The client station must arbitrate for the medium and immediately issue an RTS directed to the access point with the NAV set to a value of 32,768.
C. To remain awake to receive the broadcast frame(s) to follow the beacon that contains the DTIM.
D. The client station must broadcast a CTS-to-Self frame indicating the station need to control the medium long enough to receive all of the broadcast frames.
E. The client station must send a CF-Poll Response frame to the access point with the Reason Code set to 0x00.
F. The client station must send a PS-Poll frame to the access point for every broadcast frame it receives with the More Data bit set to one.
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Given the screenshot shown, choose the statement that accurately describes what is being seen by this protocol analyzer.
A. One wireless station sent an Echo Request (PING) to another wireless station through an access point.
B. The BSSID has been randomly generated.
C. The Duration field value’s 164 microseconds is sufficient to reserve the RF medium for only the following frames: SIFS, ACK.
D. Bits (0-14) of the Duration/ID field in this frame indicates the AID of the source station
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the displayed wireless protocol analyzer trace, which of the following is true?
A. Both 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 and 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 are operating in Ad Hoc mode using WPA compliant 802.1X/EAP authentication.
B. 00:0D:ED:A5:4F:70 is a client station sending unicast data frames to a network node on the wired LAN.
C. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a client station performing a successful 802.1X/EAPreauthentication.
D. 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9 is a station sending encrypted broadcast data using an encryption key generated by the authenticator.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the access point, and data encrypted with static WEP is being sent from a wired station to the wireless station 00:40:96:A1:9A:F9.
400-151 vce Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
In the 802.11b standard, the PLCP header Service field has a Modulation Selection bit. Which of the following are true regarding use of the Modulation Selection bit?
A. The Modulation Selection bit is used by the access point in CF-End frames to note which modulation will be used for Data frames in the contention period to follow.
B. Based on the setting of the Modulation Selection bit and the value in the Signal field, the modulation to be used can be uniquely determined.
C. Based on the Modulation Selection bit in received Data frames, the receiving station can determine which modulation to use when sending acknowledgements.
D. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine whether CCK or PBCC is in use for any speed where either could be used.
E. The Modulation Selection bit is used to determine which modulation will be used to send the entire PPDU.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 22
What is an advantage of being able to fragment MSDUs and MMPDUs on a wireless network?
A. Increased throughput due to interference from other 802.11 stations.
B. Decreased translation time between 802.3 and 802.11 networks at the access point.
C. Increased throughput in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment.
D. Decreased number of 802.11 control and management frames required for transmission.
E. Increased throughput in a clean RF environment
F. Decreased retransmission overhead in a noisy RF environment.
400-151 exam Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 23
In compliance with the 802.11g standard, access points may provide which services to increase overall network performance in an OFDM-only environment?
A. Arbitrary Beacon Spacing
B. DownstreamQoS
C. Short Slot Time
D. Short PLCP Preamble support
E. Fast Sleep Recovery
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24
Which features of a wireless LAN protocol analyzer allow troubleshooters to monitor network events that are happening while the troubleshooters are not watching the analyzer user interface?
A. Event Triggers
B. Node Statistics
C. Notifications
D. Peer Map
E. Trending Analysis
F. Alarms
400-151 dumps Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION NO: 25
The 802.11 standard allows for frame fragmentation due to an unreliable medium. Which two fields in the 802.11 frame are involved in numbering data frame fragments and notifying the receiving station when all of the fragments of a data frame have been received?
A. Ordered Service field
B. Sequence Control field
C. Frame Control field
D. ERP Information field
E. Capability Information field
F. DS Parameter field
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 26
What 802.11 MAC layer function is illustrated by the following diagram?
A. Sequential Fragmentation
B. PCF mode polling
C. Fragment Bursting
D. Sequential Acknowledgements
E. CP Regulated Spacing
400-151 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27
When operating in an 802.11b/g mixed mode environment in which both 802.11b and 802.11g client stations are present and transmitting data on the network, which of the statements below are accurate concerning the 802.11g access point responsibilities in the Basic Service Set?
A. The access point will alternate transmitting beacons using long and short preambles so that client stations using either preamble length can associate.

B. The access point may transmit beacons using a short preamble only if all of the client stations in the BSS have indicated support for short preambles.
C. If beacons are transmitted using short preambles, all associated client stations are required to transmit all data frames using short preambles.
D. The access must transmit beacons using a short preamble in a mixed mode environment. Client stations not supporting short preambles will not be able to associate.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28
The More Fragments subfield is found in which 802.11 frame field?
A. Protocol Order field
B. Frame Control field
C. MAC Service Data Unit field
D. Sequence Control field
E. Fragmentation Control field
400-151 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 29
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.
A. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
B. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw printver
D. cpstat -gw
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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[2018 New Updated] Helpful Microsoft SharePoint Applications 70-488 Dumps Exam Practice Questions Youtube Try Online Download

How hard is it to clear exam Microsoft 70-488 dumps?  The Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions (70-488 SharePoint) exam is a 131 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSD certification. Helpful Microsoft SharePoint Applications 70-488 dumps exam practice questions Youtube try online download. “Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-488 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-488 exam. Our resources are constantly being revised and updated, with a close correlation. If you prepare Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-488.html dumps exam certification, you will want to begin your training, so as to guarantee to pass your exam.

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70-488 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-488 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 6
You need to implement term set navigation. Which code segment should you insert at line TN24?
70-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to complete the code at line LV19 to implement the validation of the app license. Which code segment should you use?
70-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You need to configure navigation for the site. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You need add to code at line IL22 to implement the task list design. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps

70-488 dumps

QUESTION 11
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites. You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Start-SPAssignment Global initiates a new assignment store.
* Stop-SPAssignment .Disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. The Stop SPAssignmentcmdlet disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. Use the Global parameter to dispose of all objects in the global assignment collector and to stop the global store from collecting additional objects. Provide a SemiGlobal assignment collector to dispose of all contained objects.
From scenario:
* Performance Optimization and Memory Usage SPSite objects must be removed from memory immediately after the objects go out of scope.
QUESTION 12
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available. You need to deploy the hotfix. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
70-488 vce 
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded: / Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version. / Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.
QUESTION 13
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages. What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You need to set the appropriate permission levels. A variable named customRole references Wholesale. Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Lila has created a display campaign to help support her consulting business. The ad has been running for six months. Her goal of the campaign is to get people to sign up for her newsletter. If Lila has a desire to get more conversions at a lower cost, which Google AdWords tool should she use?
A. My Change History tool
B. Conversion optimizer
C. Display ad builder
D. Keyword tools
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Hal is considering a YouTube masthead for an ad campaign. There are several requirements on size and sound limits for YouTube masthead advertisements, such as the 50KB load size and the 1MB load for animation and autoplay. What is the maximum size for videos (.flv) file size for when a user clicks the masthead to see the video ad?
A. 10MB
B. 1MB
C. 100MB

D. 50MB
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Tom is reviewing his YouTube ad performance through the Google AdWords reporting feature. He would like to review the number of users who clicked his ad and converted to a sale on his Website. What requirement must Tom have satisfied to see the conversion reporting feature for YouTube ads?
A. He must have added the Google AdWords Conversion Tracking code to his Website page.
B. His YouTube ads must be placed through a YouTube reservations agent.
C. His ads must be prepaid.
D. He must have uploaded a promoted video on YouTube.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Bonnie has created a video that she would like to include in the Google Content Network as part of her online marketing. She has chosen the click-to-play with the cost-per-click pricing model. Which one of the following statements best describes when Bonnie will be charged for someone clicking on her advertisement?
A. Every time Bonnie’s video is played, paused, or stopped with the in-ad player she won’t becharged for each click, just one click per user on the advertisement video.
B. Every time Bonnie’s video appears (the opening image) she will be charged.
C. Every time Bonnie’s video is played she’ll be charged for the click.
D. Every click that leads a user to Bonnie’s Website results in a charge to Bonnie’s account.
70-488 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Henry has created a video that he’d like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Video placement ad
B. Click-to-play video ad
C. In-stream video ad
D. Overlay video ad
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is the recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
70-488 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship between the quality score and the cost-per-click of an ad in Google AdWords?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad 
position.
B. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the higher the ranking of your ad over your competition.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Jen has created a YouTube advertisement for her company and she is now interested in reviewing her ad’s performance over the past three weeks. She wants to examine a YouTube metric that will tell her how many times her promoted video ad has been played since it went live on YouTube. What metric will Jen want to create a report for?
A. Clickthrough rate
B. Clicks
C. Play rate
D. Conversions
70-488 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Yolanda is designing an image ad for the Google Content Network. She wants the ad to look crisp and professional and a consultant has recommended that she use transparent PNG format images. Why is this a good idea for image advertisers in the Google Content Network?
A. Transparent background images load faster in browsers.
B. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to fade through the image.
C. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to be more pleasing to view.
D. Transparent background images appear to float on the ad’s background.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Some advertisers would like to target YouTube through Google AdWords. There are two tools available for these types of advertisers: the placement tool and what other tool?
A. Google Content Network analysis tool
B. Video targeting tool
C. Traffic estimator tool
D. Keyword tool
70-488 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Andrew wants to create a reservation for his ad in YouTube. His manager wants to know, however, what is the minimum amount the reservation will cost. Which one of the following represents the minimum media spend on a YouTube reservation will cost?
A. $25,000
B. $35,000
C. $50,000
D. $10,000
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Your client is interested in the Google Content Network’s ability to use an in-stream ad. Which of the following is an example of an in-stream ad in the Google Content Network?
A. It’s an ad that is displayed as part of the DoubleClick partnerships.
B. It’s an ad that is displayed in the middle of a website in a rich-media content placeholder.
C. It’s an ad that shows at the end of a video.
D. It’s an ad that is fed into the Google Content Network of sites partners.
70-488 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated] Helpful Cisco 400-101 Dumps Vce CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam V5.1 Video Training Online

What is Cisco 400-101 dumps? The CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam (400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching) exam is a 120 Minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Routing and Switching certification.”CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-101 exam. Helpful Cisco 400-101 dumps vce CCIE Routing and Switching exam V5.1 video training online. It is famous for the most comprehensive and updated by the highest rate https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps. It also can save time and effort.

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400-101 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:
7.Which technology does OSPFv3 use to authenticate packets
A. SHA256
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. IPsec
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
8.Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)
A. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor
E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
9.Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
10.Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use
A. GRE
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. IP-in-IP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
11.Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. Revision number
C. Region name
D. Domain name
E. Password
F. VLAN-to-instance assignment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
12.Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow.
B. It provides better security than dynamic routing.
C. It reduces configuration errors.
D. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.
E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

13. To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
400-101 vce Answer: D
14. To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B
15. Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on

B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
400-101 exam Answer: A
16. Choose the best way to minimize backup time.
A. Tape backup over the WAN connection
B. Utilizing a larger tape capacity
C. Organizing data in volumes and qtrees
D. Using multiple local tape drives
Answer: D
17. What two conditions should be verified prior to performing remote backups? (Choose 2)
A. The trust relationships between the source and the destination
B. That clustered failover is disabled
C. That rsh is enabled for remote access
D. That remote backup is enabled
400-101 dumps Answer: AC
18. Which line describes a 50M tree quota for a qtree named “mydata” on volume “vol1”? Target Type Disk Files Thold Sdisk Sfiles A.  /vol/vol1/mydata tree 50M –

B. /vol/vol1 [email protected] 50M –
C. steve [email protected]/vol/vol1 50M –
D. /vol/vol1 qtree/steve 50M –
Answer: A
19. If there are problems with user quotas being misapplied, the following two files should be checked:
A. /etc/quotas and /etc/rc
B. /etc/quotas and /etc/usermap.cfg

C. /etc/rc and /etc/usermap.cfg
D. /etc/quotas and /etc/quotarules
400-101 vce Answer: B
20. Which three actions can be performed with the restore command? (Choose 3)
A. View a list of files on tape.
B. Restore individual files and directories.
C. Restart a failed restore process.
D. Enter a number to specify how many filemarks should be skipped.
Answer: ABC

21.CORRECT TEXT
Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
400-101 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number
10. Or
11. mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem.
12. mkdir /mnt/neo
13. vi /etc/fstab
14. Write:
15. /dev/hda? /mnt/neo ext3 defaults 1 2
16. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
17. mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo

22. CORRECT TEXT
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the IP Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
23.CORRECT TEXT
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
400-101 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop the iptables service.
24.CORRECT TEXT
neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota toneo user. You should apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn’t occupied space more than 70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 ¨¤ To enable th quota on filesystem you should mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ¨¤Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home ¨¤ Remounting the /home with updated mount options. ou can verify that/home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ¨¤ Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home ¨¤ Quota Policy editor See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard

/dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
25.CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without losing any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
400-101 pdf Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the size of Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical Volume without unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using ext2online command.
26.CORRECT TEXT
Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobyte-sized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas or users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2

2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition. Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.

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VMware Improves Current Data Center and Cloud Security

Vmware,inc is a global leader in cloud infrastructure and business mobility, and carbon black, the leading company for next-generation endpoint security, announced today that expanding partnerships will help transform the current cloud and data center security approach. VMware as a global leader in cloud infrastructure and business mobility, VMware helps customers realize the possibilities by speeding up the digital transformation. With VMware Solutions, businesses are improving business agility through modern applications that drive innovation through the modernization of data centers and the integration of public clouds, creating a great experience for digital workspaces and protecting customer trust by changing security. Add its management software to its mixed cloud bundle Cloud Foundation. Carbon Black and VMware will provide a new security model for secure complementary components that can be combined to take advantage of the unique attributes of virtualization and cloud to help protect previously impossible organizations.

VMware

These companies have developed a new joint solution that can significantly reduce the attack surface of the organization while enabling the security team to automatically detect and repair threats that allow OVH and IBM to use Cloud Foundation to stand on the public VMware Cloud, and realize VMware’s vision of the same software packages that run locally and in the cloud to easily move data and applications to respond to attacks faster and more efficiently. Today’s announcement expands the collaboration announced earlier this year to enable VMware Appdefense™ customers to leverage the carbon Black’s Predictive Security Cloud ™ (PSC) reputation service.

VMware now adds VMware vrealize automation,vrealize operations and Vrealize Log insight to Cloud Foundation. Because as applications become more fragmented and dynamic, they become increasingly difficult to protect. Traditional security solutions are not flexible enough to keep up with changes in the application, resulting in security issues. Most of today’s attacks are not simple malware and are easily disturbed by the “known bad” signatures. They depend on the executable file, process, and operating system of the attacker manipulating the endpoint itself. Identifying these threats requires an in-depth understanding of application behavior and threat behavior, which is not available in traditional endpoint security products.

VMware

The new joint development solution will combine VMware appdefense and CB Defense Advanced Threat Protection features to provide unique, killing and killing effects for applications within the datacenter. VMware Appdefense leverages the power of the virtual infrastructure to create the least privileged environment around the application. It enforces system integrity using a management program, provides visibility of the expected state and behavior of the application, and monitors the status and behavior of protected locations. The CB defense running on the predictive security cloud provides a next-generation endpoint protection solution that uses behavioral methods to detect threats. It uses streaming protection to monitor malicious behavior on your computer to prevent malicious software and non-malware attacks.

VMware also updated NSX to support pivotal Cloud Foundry. This means that the nsx-t,vmware, in addition to the vsphere management process, can now be used with the three cloud native frameworks of Kubernetes,openshift and cloud foundry. Pivotal announced yesterday that it would support NSX to join Cloud Foundry 2.0, in return for their favor. The new version of Cloud Foundry will also include the upcoming server-free Computing tool “Pivotal Function Service”, which can trigger activities based on data sent by users or mail systems such as RABBITMQ or Apache Kafka.

VMware

Three key elements to enhance the security of the cloud and data center:

Reinforce known good application behavior: By leveraging the virtual infrastructure, the solution will have an authoritative understanding of how the data center endpoint behaves and the first one to know when to make changes. This contextual intelligence eliminates the determination of the processes in a given datacenter endpoint, which changes to the executable file and operating system are legitimate, and which represent real threats.

Detect unknown threats: The solution will take advantage of the application context to perform advanced behavioral threat detection to provide additional protection beyond the minimum privilege. Carbon Black’s streaming prevention is a next-generation threat detection technology that uses event flow processing to correlate multiple events over time to indicate a threat, preventing application behavior from being compromised. The user can see the threat activity in real time, the visual attack chain to see what the attacker is trying to do and immediately respond to close the attack in progress.

Automated and coordinated response: Once a threat is identified, the solution will allow for a full understanding of the application context during the survey process and again use the virtual infrastructure to provide a range of responses from pausing or snapshot virtual machines to isolating damaged machines and conducting forensics analysis.

VMware

Reducing the attack surface is synonymous with reducing risk, but many organizations do not have the resources to evaluate, plan, deploy, and run application control. Appdefense uses machine learning algorithms to mitigate this operational burden while reducing risk and minimizing privileges. With this new joint solution from carbon black and VMware, the company will be able to provide customers with CB defense to detect and respond to application threats that may evade minimal privileges.

Cloud computing and virtualization provide new security opportunities beyond traditional approaches. Carbon Black and VMware’s unique capabilities beyond the point of security solutions provide organizations with a stronger, more comprehensive approach to protecting mission-critical applications that run in data centers. We look forward to the opportunity to help businesses around the world run more 60 million of virtual machines to the highest level of security.

With this new joint solution, VMware’s products can enhance system integrity and minimal permissions on data center endpoints, critical applications and data are safe for both malware and malware attacks, and security operations will be authorized to react faster and more efficiently than ever before.

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[2017 New Updated] The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps Verison 2.0 Exam Questions Preparation Materials Youtube Try

Has anybody attempted the Cisco 300-115 dumps exam? “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks“, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 dumps verison 2.0 exam questions preparation materials Youtube try. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dumps exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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QUESTION 30
A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
Reference:
QUESTION 32
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
QUESTION 33
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
Reference:
QUESTION 34
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
acquisition?
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
corporation?
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B
Explanation:

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[2017 New Updated] Download Latest Updated 210-250 Dump SECFND Practice Exam Are Based On The Real Pass4itsure Exam Video Study

Any suggestions on passing the Cisco 210-250 dump?”Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco 210-250 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Download latest updated 210-250  dump SECFND practice exam are based on the teal Pass4itsure exam video study. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-250 dump exam questions answers are updated (80 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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Question No : 116  Click the Exhibit button.
What type of power problem does the exhibit illustrate?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Impulsive transient
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 117 What is a measure of heat intensity?
A. Volume
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
Question No : 118  According to the Ideal Gas Law, as the pressure inside a balloon increases to a point that it
exceeds the pressure on the outside of the balloon, which property of the balloon also
increases?
A. Color Intensity
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Temperature
210-250 dump  Answer: C
Question No : 119  What is a property of heat transfer?
A. Heat is destroyed.
B. Heat is transferred in the direction from hot to cold.
C. Heat is transferred in the direction from cold to hot.
D. Heat is transferred in both directions (hot to cold and cold to hot).
Answer: B
Question No : 120  Which method transfers heat through a solid material?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
210-250 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 121 Which method of heat transfer occurs when stepping barefoot onto hot pavement?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: C
Question No : 122 Which substance transfers heat most efficiently?
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Vapor
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 123 Which method transfers heat through the movement of a liquid or gas?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Question No : 124 Which method transfers heat by electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 125 Which method of heat transfer causes electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 126 What percentage of electricity used to power IT equipment is typically converted into heat?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 127  What is the most common direction of airflow through a rack mount blade server assembly?
A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to front
D. Bottom to top
Answer: B
Question No : 128 The Ideal Gas Law governs the relationship of which three state variables? (Choose three.)
A. Volume
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure
D. Conductivity
E. Temperature
210-250 dump Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 129 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the pressure when the temperature is
increased and the volume is held constant?
A. The pressure does not change.
B. The pressure initially increases and then decreases.
C. The pressure increases.
D. The pressure decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 130 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the temperature and pressure inside an aerosol can that is being sprayed?
A. Temperature and pressure both increase.
B. Temperature and pressure are decreased.
C. Temperature and pressure are unchanged.
D. Temperature is unchanged and pressure is decreased.
210-250 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 131 Which temperature range is optimal for the proper function of a data center?
A. 62-65F (17-18C)
B. 72-75F (22-24C)
C. 82-85F (28-29C)
D. 92-95F (33-35C)
Answer: B
Question No : 132 What is the correct order of the refrigeration cycle datacenter precision cooling?
A. Condensation > evaporation > expansion > compression
B. Compression > condensation > evaporation > expansion
C. Evaporation > expansion > condensation > compression
D. Evaporation > compression > condensation > expansion
210-250  vce Answer: D
Question No : 133  What is the historical / traditional architecture of data center cooling?
A. Rack
B. Row
C. Room
D. Building
Answer: C
Question No : 134 Which is an example of a row-oriented cooling architecture?
A. Each cooling unit works to cool the load through a raised floor plenum.
B. Each cooling unit is ceiling mounted and targets cool air to the cold aisles.
C. Each cooling unit works directly to cool the heat load of a specific equipment rack.
D. Each cooling unit is placed along the data center wall and cools the general air space.
210-250  exam Answer: B
Question No : 135 What are three benefits of row-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Predictable cooling
B. Ease of deployment
C. No raised floor required
D. Reduced sensible heat ratio
E. Increased mixing of air streams
Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 136 What are three benefits of rack-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It reduces CRAC fan power required.
B. It utilizes the entire rated CRAC capacity.
C. It eliminates the need for humidity control.
D. It is easy to deploy for high density applications.
E. It reduces the number of air conditioning devices.
210-250 dump Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 137 What characteristic is common to all cooling architectures?
A. Deployable with on a raised floor
B. Top or bottom airflow configuration
C. Cooling equipment occupies white space
D. Easily adaptable with changes in infrastructure
Answer: A
Question No : 138 Which two cooling architectures are flexible enough to adapt to ever-changing data center requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B
Question No : 139  Which is an example of a rack-oriented cooling architecture?
A. A cooling unit is located in the ceiling plenum to cool the data center racks.
B. A cooling unit is located within the rack itself to cool the contents of that rack.
C. A cooling unit utilizes perforated raised floor tiles to deliver cool air to the rack.
D. A cooling unit is located along the perimeter wall of the data center to cool a specific
zone of racks.
Answer: B
Question No : 140 Which cooling architecture has the shortest air flow paths between the cooling unit and the IT equipment?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 141 Which cooling architecture attempts to eliminate hot spots within the data center by utilizing large volumes of air mixing throughout the space?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Ceiling
Answer: C

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