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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You are designing a solution that will use Azure Table storage. The solution will log records in the following entity.
You are evaluating which partition key to use based on the following two scenarios: 1. Scenario1: Minimize hotspots under heavy write workloads. 2. Scenario2: Ensure that date lookups are as efficient as possible for read workloads. Which partition key should you use for each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 You need to design the SensorData collection. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: Eventual Traffic data insertion rate must be maximized. Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named treydata in a collection named SensorData With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix, and eventual consistency. Box 2: License plate This solution reports on all data related to a specific vehicle license plate. The report must use data from the SensorData collection. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels
QUESTION 3 You are designing an audit strategy for an Azure SQL Database environment. You need to recommend a solution to provide real-time notifications for potential security breaches. The solution must minimize development effort. Which destination should you include in the recommendation? A. Azure Blob storage B. Azure SQL Data Warehouse C. Azure Event Hubs D. Azure Log Analytics Correct Answer: D Auditing for Azure SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse tracks database events and writes them to an audit log in your Azure storage account, Log Analytics workspace or Event Hubs. Alerts in Azure Monitor can identify important information in your Log Analytics repository. They are created by alert rules that automatically run log searches at regular intervals, and if results of the log search match particular criteria, then an alert record is created and it can be configured to perform an automated response. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-auditinghttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/azure-monitor/learn/tutorial-response
QUESTION 4 A company stores sensitive information about customers and employees in Azure SQL Database. You need to ensure that the sensitive data remains encrypted in transit and at rest. What should you recommend? A. Transparent Data Encryption B. Always Encrypted with secure enclaves C. Azure Disk Encryption D. SQL Server AlwaysOn Correct Answer: B Incorrect Answers: A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels. References: https://cloudblogs.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2018/12/17/confidential-computing-using-always-encrypted-with-secure-enclaves-in-sql-server-2019-preview/
QUESTION 5 You are designing an Azure Data Factory pipeline for processing data. The pipeline will process data that is stored in general-purpose standard Azure storage. You need to ensure that the compute environment is created on-demand and removed when the process is completed. Which type of activity should you recommend? A. Databricks Python activity B. Data Lake Analytics U-SQL activity C. HDInsight Pig activity D. Databricks Jar activity Correct Answer: C The HDInsight Pig activity in a Data Factory pipeline executes Pig queries on your own or on-demand HDInsight cluster. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/transform-data-using-hadoop-pig
QUESTION 6 A company plans to use Apache Spark Analytics to analyze intrusion detection data You need to recommend a solution to monitor network and system activities for malicious activities and policy violations. Reports must be produced in an electronic format and sent to management. The solution must minimize administrative efforts. What should you recommend? A. Azure Data Factory B. Azure Data Lake C. Azure Databricks D. Azure HDInsight Correct Answer: D With Azure HDInsight you can set up Azure Monitor alerts that will trigger when the value of a metric or the results of a query meet certain conditions. You can condition on a query returning a record with a value that is greater than or less than a certain threshold, or even on the number of results returned by a query. For example, you could create an alert to send an email if a Spark job fails or if a Kafka disk usage becomes over 90 percent full. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/monitoring-on-azure-hdinsight-part-4-workload-metrics-and-logs/
QUESTION 7 You plan to use Azure SQL Database to support a line of business app. You need to identify sensitive data that is stored in the database and monitor access to the data. Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Enable Data Discovery and Classification. B. Implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE). C. Enable Auditing. D. Run Vulnerability Assessment. E. Use Advanced Threat Protection. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You plan to create a real-time monitoring app that alerts users when a device travels more than 200 meters away from a designated location. You need to design an Azure Stream Analytics job to process the data for the planned app. The solution must minimize the amount of code developed and the number of technologies used. What should you include in the Stream Analytics job? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You need to design the storage for the telemetry capture system. What storage solution should you use in the design? A. Azure SQL Data Warehouse B. Azure Databricks C. Azure Cosmos DB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You have an on-premises MySQL database that is 800 GB in size. You need to migrate a MySQL database to Azure Database for MySQL. You must minimize service interruption to live sites or applications that use the database. What should you recommend? A. Azure Database Migration Service B. Dump and restore C. Import and export D. MySQL Workbench Correct Answer: A You can perform MySQL migrations to Azure Database for MySQL with minimal downtime by using the newly introduced continuous sync capability for the Azure Database Migration Service (DMS). This functionality limits the amount of downtime that is incurred by the application. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/mysql/howto-migrate-online
QUESTION 11 You need to design the image processing solution to meet the optimization requirements for image tag data. What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Tagging data must be uploaded to the cloud from the New York office location. Tagging data must be replicated to regions that are geographically close to company office locations.
QUESTION 12 You need to design the authentication and authorization methods for sensors. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named treydata in a collection named SensorData Sensors must have permission only to add items to the SensorData collection Box 1: Resource Token Resource tokens provide access to the application resources within a Cosmos DB database. Enable clients to read, write, and delete resources in the Cosmos DB account according to the permissions they\\’ve been granted. Box 2: Cosmos DB user You can use a resource token (by creating Cosmos DB users and permissions) when you want to provide access to resources in your Cosmos DB account to a client that cannot be trusted with the master key. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/secure-access-to-data
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You are designing an application that will store petabytes of medical imaging data When the data is first created, the data will be accessed frequently during the first week. After one month, the data must be accessible within 30 seconds, but files will be accessed infrequently. After one year, the data will be accessed infrequently but must be accessible within five minutes. You need to select a storage strategy for the data. The solution must minimize costs. Which storage tier should you use for each time frame? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
First week: Hot Hot – Optimized for storing data that is accessed frequently. After one month: Cool Cool – Optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days. After one year: Cool Incorrect Answers: Archive: Optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency requirements (on the order of hours). References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers
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QUESTION 1 Exhibit.
The host in the exhibit is connected to a 4-node ONTAP SAN using dual-fabric implementation. LUNs have been mapped LUN through all available UFs on nil (our nodes. Switch 2 is powered off for high- availability testing. How many paths per LUN would you expect the host to see in this scenario? A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of zoning should be used? A. a WWPN with a single initiator and multiple targets B. a WWPN with a single initiator and a single target C. a WWNN with a single initiator and multiple targets D. a WWNN with a single Initiator and a single target Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You are provisioning storage to an ESX host that uses iSCSI. According to NetApp best practice, which three actions accomplish this task? (Choose three.) A. Enable the iSCSI service. B. Bind the iSCSI ports to the software iSCSI adapter. C. Install Virtual Storage Console (VSC) for VMware. D. Enable BGP on the switch. E. Configure MTU 1500 on the switch. Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 You currently have a FAS8200 with ONTAP 9.5. You want to expand the front end FC I/O capabilities. However, you are unsure which target adapters are supported. What would you use to confirm which adapters are supported with your current configuration? A. Hardware Universe (HWU) B. Upgrade Advisor C. OneCollect D. Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT) Correct Answer: A Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2495115
QUESTION 5 Click the Exhibit button.
You are implementing an ONTAP 9.5 AFF A300 SAN cluster with the NVMe, FC, and FCoE protocols. Referring to the exhibit, which three protocols and physical port pairs are supported? (Choose three.) A. NVMe on ports 2a/2b B. FC on ports 2a/2b C. NVMe on ports 0e/0f D. FCoE on ports 0e/0f E. FC on ports 0e/0f Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6 A user cannot add more than one NVMe data LIF in ONTAP 9.4 on an SVM with a data protocol parameter set to nvme. In this scenario, what is the problem? A. The SVM data protocol should be set to FC. B. The NVMe namespace is not created. C. A demo license is used. D. Only one NVMe data LIF can be configured per SVM. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An administrator is adding new hosts to a vSphere cluster. The cluster uses the FC protocol to connect to a NetApp cluster. The administrator wants to configure the multipathing for the ESXi host. Which NetApp tool should be used to accomplish this task? A. OnCommand System Manager (OCSM) B. Host Utilities C. SnapCenter plug-in D. NetApp Virtual Storage Console (VSC) Correct Answer: D Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1547465
QUESTION 8 Click the Exhibit button.
A 4-node cluster was expanded with two news nodes (Nodes 5 and 6). You are now attempting to set up four FC LUNs on the two new nodes that use the ps2 igroup name, although FC ping works. LUNs on the previous four nodes are discoverable, but the four new LUNs on the new controllers are not discoverable. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem? A. The zones between the hosts and LIFs are from node-05 and node-06. B. Selective LUN Mapping (SLM) is not configured for this HA pair. C. The portset must be configured to reflect Nodes 5 and 6. D. Igroup ps2 has the portset configured with the LIFs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer needs to change ports 0e and 0f on AFF_1 to support FC. Referring to the exhibit, which three steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.) A. Issue the ucadmin modify -node AFF_1 -adapter 0e -mode FC -type target command. B. Issue the ucadmin modify -node AFF_1 -adapter 0e -mode FC -type initiator command. C. Restart the FC service. D. Take ports 0e and 0f offline. E. Reboot the node. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 10 Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit. What are two viable scenarios to test LUN multipathing on Host 1? (Choose two.) A. Reboot one of the switches. B. Disable one of the FC LIFs on Controller 1. C. Disconnect one of the host cables. D. Reboot Host 1. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 You have a 4-node cluster with an AFF A300 HA pair and a FAS8200 HA pair. You plan on using the default storage efficiency settings. With inline data compaction, you estimate that you can save 6% of storage space. AFF A300 LUNs that use under 5000 IOPS are moved to a FAS8200 using the lun move command. In this scenario, what happens to the data after the LUN is moved? (Choose two.) A. The new written data is not compacted. B. The new written data is compacted. C. The existing data is compacted. D. The existing data is not compacted. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmvsmg%2FGUID-9C88C1A6-990A-4826-83F8-0C8EAD6C3613.html
QUESTION 12 Which two are supported in ONTAP 9.5? (Choose two.) A. an NVMe LIF and an FC LIF in the same SVM B. an NVMe LIF associated with an FC Direct Connect port C. an NVMe LIF and an FC LIF associated with the same port D. multiple NVMe LIFs in the same SVM Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13 Exhibit.
You are moving volumes between aggregate aft_01_aggr1 and the aggregate Aggr_Data shown in the exhibit. How much space will be moved? A. 11.17 TB B. 935.75 GB C. 296 KB D. 1. 91 TB Correct Answer: C
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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Apr 04, 2017
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The CEC is revised every four years.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Correct Answer: A
352-001 pdf QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone. Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
Correct Answer: A
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one minute.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address coded in the network interface card?
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
Correct Answer: A
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Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that the next time. VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G Explanation
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains the servers shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that you can use Server Manager on DC1 to manage DC2.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on DC1.
B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on DC2.
C. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on DC2.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC1.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC2.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
In Windows Server 2012, you can use Server Manager to perform management tasks on remote servers.
Remote management is enabled by default on servers that are running Windows Server 2012. To manage
a server remotely by using Server Manager, you add the server to the Server Manager server pool.
You can use Server Manager to manage remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Server 2008 R2, but the following updates are required to fully manage these older operating
Windows Management Framework 3.0 To use this release of Server Manager to access and manage
remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2, you must first install
.NET Framework 4.0, and then install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on those servers.
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You log on to Server1.
You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. netstat> server2
B. winrm get server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
Correct Answer: C Explanation
This command line tool enables administrators to remotely execute most Cmd.exe commands using the
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Corel to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1. What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Install Windows Management Framework. Correct Answer: A
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you
click View script.
You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller. Which file extension should you use to save the script?
D. .cmd Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A PowerShell script is the equivalent of a Windows CMD or MS-DOS batch file, the file should be saved with a .ps1 extension, e.g. MyScript.ps1
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed.
You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller.
Which cmdlet should you run?
D. Install-WindowsFeature Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Install-ADDSDomainController Installs a domain controller in Active Directory. Install- ADDSDomain Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration. Install-ADDSForest Installs a new Active Directory forest configuration. Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or features on either thelocal or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This cmdlet is equivalent to andreplaces Add- WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role services, and features.
C:\PS>Install-ADDSForest -DomainName corp.contoso.com -CreateDNSDelegation DomainMode Win2008 -ForestMode Win2008R2 -DatabasePath “d:\NTDS” -SysvolPath “d:\SYSVOL” LogPath “e:\Logs”Installs a new forest named corp.contoso.com, creates a DNS delegation in the contoso.com domain, setsdomain functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2 and sets forest functional level to Windows Server 2008,installs the Active Directory database and SYSVOL on the D:\ drive, installs the log files on the E:\ drive andhas the server automatically restart after AD DS installation is complete and prompts the user to provide andconfirm the Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM) password.
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QUESTION 1 What is the recommended QoS marking for desktop video endpoints? A. AF31 B. AF41 C. DSCP 26 D. DSCP 46 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which protocol can Cisco Unified Communications Manager not use to monitor the status of the gateway? A. H.323 B. SIP C. MGCP D. SCCP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the output displayed on the IP phone when the incoming calling number is 00492288224002 and has a TON =unknown? A. +49122288224002 B. +492288224002 C. 00492288224002 D. +49128822400 E. 491288224002 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping? A. switch B. router C. firewall D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. bridge Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking? A. codec configuration B. dial peers C. SIP trunks D. CTI integration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses? A. H.323 B. E.164 C. DNS D. URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What is the process of digit matching? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.) A. direct mode B. H.225-routed mode C. H.265-routed mode D. H.245-routed mode E. full proxy mode F. partial proxy mode Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 9 Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.) A. Device type B. Class of service C. Geographic proximity D. Extension mobility CSS E. User hold MOH source F. auto-registration CSS Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 10 Which two options can belong to specific partitions? (Choose two.) A. voice-mail servers B. directory numbers C. gateways D. IP phones E. route patterns Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco products allow the use of a dial plan with E.164, H.323, SIP, and DNS? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Expressway B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. Cisco Unified Border Element D. Cisco IM and Presence E. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12 If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124? A. 5XXX B. 51XX C. 513X D. 5134 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What happens when you try to configure the fourth member of a Cisco Unified CallManager group? A. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error and replace the last entered member of the Cisco Unified CallManager group with the new entry. B. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error message when you attempt to add the fourth member. C. The fourth member will be added to the sequential list. D. The new member will replace the first member on the list. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which three infrastructure security elements are important when designing a secure mufti tenant environment? (Choose three.) A. internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels B. NGPS C. high availability and redundancy D. storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) E. physical firewalls F. VSG Correct Answer: ACD Internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels (vPCs) Storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) High availability (HA) and redundancy Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/Cloud_Security/1-0/DG/ICSecurity/ICSecurity2.pdf
QUESTION 3 In which situation should a cloud engineer deploy application stack as a service for developers in a self-service model? A. A security officer wants to deploy a virtual firewall in front of all dynamically created applications B. A development manager wants to spin up new code in the public cloud and migrate it in-house before moving it into production C. Developers are bypassing the recently IaaS self-service portal in favor of public cloud PaaS offerings D. A helpdesk manager requests self-service, in order to offload helpdesk calls about LoB application installation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A cloud administrator is considering deep packet inspection to secure the cloud infrastructure. Which three statements about DPI are true? (Choose three.) A. The use of DPI makes it possible to find, identify, classify, reroute, or block packets with specific data or code payloads. B. DPI does not require updates and revisions to remain optimally effective. C. DPI is an advanced method of packet filtering that functions at the application layer of the OSI. D. DPI examines only packet headers. E. DPI is essential in protecting the cloud against malicious threats such as web exploits, zeroday attacks, data exfiltration, and malware-based botnets. F. DPI can increase computer speed because it decreases the burden on the processor. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to interconnect two geographically separated private clouds. A V-Block design is running in both locations. The customer wants to provide IP connectivity between remote data center sites via the MPLS core of their ISP. The connection must meet these requirements: Maintain loop prevention Ensure that storage and data center traffic are load-balanced between both locations Ensure that disaster recovery is easily managed and implemented at Layer 2 and Layer 3 throughput. Which DCI technology satisfies these requirements? A. PVC B. IPsec VPN C. SSL VPN D. L2VPN E. OTV Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A cloud administrator is designing role-based access control security policies for a private Cloud. Which two statements are the goals of these policies? (Choose two.) A. to ensure that no known security vulnerabilities are present B. to protect data center integrity in case of a link failure in any layer C. to provide content security services D. to reduce security risks when accessing the data center E. to control access so that administrators have access only to systems for which they have administrative responsibilities Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Which large-scale Layer 2 connectivity protocol is best for VLAN address space that is limited in large networks? A. VXLAN B. OTV C. LISP D. VPN E. NvGRE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A cloud administrator is considering the appropriate solution to automate a hybrid cloud deployment. The solution requires a single pane of glass infrastructure management, monitoring, health dashboard, orchestration and a selfservice portal. Which solution is most appropriate for this environment? A. PSC B. Cisco UCS Director C. Cisco IAC D. Cisco Enablement Platform Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which three statements about thick provisioning are true? (Choose three.) A. Unused space is available for use by other virtual machines. B. Disk has all space allocated at creation time. C. Before writing to a new block, a zero must be written. D. The entire disk space is reserved and is unavailable for use by other virtual machines. E. The size of the VMDK, at any point in time, is as much as the amount of data written out from the VM. F. Operates by allocating disk storage space in a flexible manner among multiple users, based on the minimum space required by each user at any given time. Correct Answer: BCD Explanation: A thick disk has all space allocated at creation time. This space may contain stale data on the physical media. Before writing to a new block a zero has to be written, increasing the IOPS on new blocks compare to Eager disks. The entire disk space is reserved and unavailable for use by other virtual machines. Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2014/05/thick-vs-thin-disks-flash-arrays.html
QUESTION 10 Which three statements about block-level storage are correct? (Choose three.) A. It is less expensive and simple to implement. B. Block-level storage systems are very popular with SAN. C. It can be treated as an independent disk drive and is controlled by external Server OS. D. Each block can be controlled like an individual hard drive. E. Network attached storage systems usually depend on this file level storage. F. This level storage is inexpensive to be maintained, when it is compared to its counterpart. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11 An engineer is designing a new public cloud infrastructure. Which two compliance standards are met if the engineer deploys according to the Cisco VMDC architecture? (Choose two.) A. GLBA B. PCI C. ISO 27001 D. HIPAA E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which two Cisco products can help an organization move toward an automation-driven policy model? (Choose two.) A. UCS Director B. VM-FEX C. UCS Performance Manager D. Nexus 1000V E. ACI Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 Which statement about VACS is true? A. It provides centralized provisioning and orchestration for physical and virtual networking. B. It is designed around open standards and open APIs. C. It provides scalable and multi protocol controller infrastructure for supporting multiple service providers and services. D. Delivers a comprehensive cloud management solution spanning service offerings from underlying infrastructure to anything-as-a-service platforms. Correct Answer: D
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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate MB-240 Exam pdf
Exam MB-200: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: perform discovery, planning, and analysis; manage user experience design; manage entities and data; implement security; implement integration; and perform solutions deployment and testing.
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement functional consultants with Field Service expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that manage resources that complete the field service lifecycle.
Candidates implement the field service processes designed in collaboration with internal and external teams. This collaboration includes configuring the default administration areas of the Field Service application, deploying the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution and the mobile application, and implementing any additionally needed customizations. Candidates are responsible for the configuration and deployment of the Field Service application in conjunction with the core customer service application.
Configure field service applications (20-25%)
Manage work orders (15-20%)
Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate MB-240 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable materials and a separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport. These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance and repairs. You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for each of the sub-components. A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent component level. C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-up-customer-assets
QUESTION 2 The field service team manager needs you to give a new technician user access to the system. The technician will use the mobile application to fill out work orders when they are onsite doing filed work to repair factory motors at customer sites. When the dispatcher takes vacation, the new technician user will manage dispatcher functions. Which two field service security roles will the new technician user need? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Field Service-Dispatcher B. Field Service-App Access and Field Service -Resource C. Field Service-Mobile User D. Field Service-User Correct Answer: AB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/view-user-accounts-security-roles#field-service-roles
QUESTION 3 You are Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing company. The company provides customers with large power systems for sophisticated data centers. The power systems are serviced by a field engineering team. The field engineering team documents work done on repairs and maintenance by completing Work Orders within Dynamics 365. You need to easily schedule work orders for the field engineering team via the schedule and enable geocoding. Which two steps must you take to schedule resources via the schedule board and enable geocoding? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Connect to Maps in Resource Scheduling. B. Configure the map on the Schedule Board. C. Set Auto Geo Code Addresses to Yes in Resource Scheduling. D. Set Auto Geo Code Addresses to Yes in Field Service Settings. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor. You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an inventory transfer record. What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse. B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer. C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer. D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location. Correct Answer: AB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventory-transfer
QUESTION 5 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service scheduler using the Schedule Assistant. You notice the Schedule Assistant always sets the Default Radius to 25 KM. Which two options should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Field Service Settings, Work Order/Booking section. B. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Scheduling Parameters. C. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Field Service Settings, Work Order/ Booking section. D. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Scheduling Parameters. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator. You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be entered in the attribute. What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions. B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data. C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute. D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data. E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer. Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses. You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate information. Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync. B. Update entity Sync Filter. C. Update View filters. D. Update the Max Sync Records setting. E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 8 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Billing Administrator. Your customer wants to purchase a series of quarterly preventative maintenance visits as well as bi-weekly site visits. The customer wants to be billed for the preventative maintenance quarterly but billed for the site visits monthly. What are two ways that this can be completed against a single Agreement? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Create Invoice Setup for preventative maintenance, with Invoice Products tied to Quarterly Price List. B. Create Invoice Setup for preventative maintenance with Invoice Recurrence of every three months. C. Create Invoice Setup for site visits, with Invoice Recurrence of each month. D. Create Invoice Setup for site visits, with Invoice Products tied to Monthly Price List. Correct Answer: BC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/set-up-customer-agreements#add-invoice-setup
QUESTION 9 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer. Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app. You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings. What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource. B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View. C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode. D. Check that FSM app is synching to server. E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode. Correct Answer: ACE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-not-showing
QUESTION 10 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company. You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or months. How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)? A. Use Facility Scheduling B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resource-scheduling-requirement-groups
QUESTION 11 Contoso, Ltd has just acquired a new company in order to increase the services it offers to its customers. Contoso, Ltd. wants to ensure that it is able to track all of the stages in its service management workflow, including the services offered by the new service company. You need to configure Dynamics 365 CE for Field Services to ensure that all of the necessary status values are configured correctly to track your company\\’s unique business process. Which action must you perform? A. Edit the existing system status field values. B. Create the necessary sub-status values. C. Create the necessary system status values. D. Create the necessary service task values. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the best customer service experience. Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service management processes. You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box capabilities. Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work order? A. Resources B. Work Order Types C. Booking Rules D. Incident Type Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types
QUESTION 13 Your company is expanding nationally. You need to configure tax codes for a new territory, so the company can start to operate in the new territory. Which three Field Service record types are taxable within the new tax code? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Agreements B. Services C. Purchase Orders D. Products E. Work Orders Correct Answer: ABD
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Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translates those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.
Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
Perform data migration (15-20%)
Validate and support the solution (15-20%)
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: In the Data management framework parameter screen, refresh the Entity list. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator. You have 50 identified purchase order numbers that are not used in the system and are not being recycled. Why they are missing is unknown. Purchasing operations is currently operating around the clock and no downtime can occur. You need to use the missing numbers in the system. What should you do? A. Run the Number sequence wizard for the purchase order number sequence B. Change the number sequence to continuous and create the new purchase orders C. Run Automatic cleanup of number sequence and create the new purchase orders D. Change the number sequence to non-continuous and create the new purchase orders E. Change the number sequence to manual, then manually assign the number sequences to the new purchase orders Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. The expense department relies heavily on properly operating workflows. If there is a failure in the workflow, the issue needs to get resolved quickly. You need to make sure that the system actively tracks the status, so the support team can monitor and take actions against any failures. What should you do? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Set the monitoring category of the Workflow message processing batch job to Workflow. B. Set the critical job flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to True. C. Set the Ignore task failure flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to False. D. Set the batch job named Workflow message processing to send an email when the status of the batch job is Error. E. Set the priority field of the Workflow message processing batch job to 1. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator. An issue has been reported that appears to be a base Dynamics 365 bug. The system was last updated three weeks ago. Searching for the issue by description in Lifecycle Services is not working. You need to determine other ways to search for similar issues to help narrow down the search before opening a Microsoft ticket. What are two ways to search for a released hotfix? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. By industry B. By Microsoft support ticket number C. By AOT object name D. Date range for release Correct Answer: BC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/issue-search-lcs
QUESTION 5 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for two weeks. You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000. What should you do? A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator. Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system. You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of action for granting access. What should you do? A. Security duty assignments report B. Security role access report C. Security development tool D. Security diagnostics E. Maintenance mode Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have production and testing environments. You move the workflow from the testing environment to the production environment. The workflow in the production environment is stuck in a wait state. You need to resolve the issue with the workflow in the production environment. What should you do? A. Set the workflow batch job to critical B. Set the workflow messaging batch job group C. Grant the user workflow permissions D. Set the workflow execution account in the workflow parameters Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. Data is being migrated from a customized version of a legacy application to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Some of the fields in the entity are the same, and some are different. As a starting point, you need to automatically map as many fields as possible within Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which feature or tool should you use? A. Use the Mapping visualization tool B. Generate source mapping C. Use Data templates D. Use the Data task automation tool E. Copy configuration data Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/data-entities/data-entities-data-packages?toc=/fin-and-ops/toc.json#mapping
QUESTION 10 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You have a requirement that the component data for address structure in the system be available in Portuguese (Brazil). You need to provide address and contact information purpose with translation. What should you do? A. Under Organization administration, on the Global addresses tab, enter the appropriate translation value in the translations form B. In User options, set the language preference to Portuguese pt-BR and enter addresses for customers and vendors C. Upload files to Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) for conversion D. Apply return from Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) to the system by submitting a support ticket Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 You implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT). You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with Microsoft Azure DevOps. You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps Correct Answer: ACD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
QUESTION 12 You are a systems administrator at a company that has implemented Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. New employees are starting at the company. You need to extend the electronic signatures functionality to them. Which two actions should you perform? Each answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. On the Email parameters page, specify that SSL is required B. Specify the user\\’s email address C. In License configuration, enable Maintenance mode D. Select the Electronic signature check box Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organization-administration/tasks/set-up-electronic-signatures
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: Reopen the client browser. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
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Exam 70-412: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to perform the advanced configuring tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services, and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.
Configure and Manage High Availability
Configure File and Storage Solutions
Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
Configure Network Services
Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions
Latest Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-412 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All servers have the Hyper-V server role and the Failover Clustering feature installed.
You need to replicate virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.) A. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2, create three virtual machines. B. From Cluster2, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role. C. From Failover Cluster Manager on Cluster1, configure each virtual machine for replication. D. From Cluster1, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role. E. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2 modify the Hyper-V settings. Correct Answer: CDE D. You must configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker for cluster1. E. We must configure configure the Replica server to receive replication from primary servers: In Hyper-V Manager, click Hyper-V Settings in the Actions pane. In the Hyper-V Settings dialog, click Replication Configuration. In the Details pane, select Enable this computer as a Replica server. C. Enable virtual machine replication. Once the hosting server is configured for Replica, you can enable replication for each virtual machine that you want to be replicated. Reference: Deploy Hyper-V Replica https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134207.aspx
QUESTION 2 Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.1. The domain contains 10 domain controllers and a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC01. All domain controllers and RODCs are hosted on a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to identify which domain controllers are authorized to be cloned by using virtual domain controller cloning. Which cmdlet should you use? A. Get-ADGroupMember B. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicy C. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicyUsage D. Get-ADDomain E. Get-ADOptionalFeature Correct Answer: A If you want to be able to clone a Domain Controller, then authorize the original source Domain Controller to be used as the source for cloning by adding its computer object into the new “Cloneable Domain Controllers” Active Directory group. The Get-ADGroupMember cmdlet gets the members of an Active Directory group. Members can be users, groups, and computers. We use the Get-ADGroupMember cmdlet to retrieve the members of the “Cloneable Domain Controllers” Active Directory group. References: http://blogs.technet.com/b/keithmayer/archive/2012/08/06/safely-cloning-an-active-directory-domain-controller-with-windows-server-2012-step-by-step-ws2012-hyperv-itpro-vmware.aspx
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site. Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site. Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses. The solution must meet the following requirements: -The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. -Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline. – Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline. Which configuration should you use? A. load sharing mode failover partners B. a failover cluster C. hot standby mode failover partners D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB)cluster Correct Answer: C Needs to be a DHCP Failover option
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. The forest functional level is Windows 2000. The contoso.com domain contains domain controllers that run either Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2008. The fabrikam.com domain contains domain controllers that run either Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003. The domain functional level is Windows 2000 native. The contoso.com domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to add Server1 as a new domain controller in the contoso.com domain. What should you do first? A. Raise the functional level of the contoso.com domainto Windows Server 2008 R2. B. Upgrade the domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 to Windows Server 2008 R2. C. Raise the functional level of the fabrikam.com domain to Windows Server 2003. D. Decommission the domain controllers that run Windows 2000. E. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2003. Correct Answer: D Server 2003 is the minimum Domain Functional level for any domain in the forest Windows Server 2012 R2 requires a Windows Server 2003 forest functional level. That is, before you can add a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 to an existing Active Directory forest, the forest functional level must be Windows Server 2003 or higher.
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You are creating a central access rule named TestFinance that will be used to grant members of the Authenticated users group access to a folder stored on a Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 server. You need to ensure that the permissions are granted when the rule is published. What should you do? A. Set the Permissions to Use the following permissions as proposed permissions. B. Set the Permissions to Use following permissions as current permissions. C. Add a Resource condition to the current permissions entry for the Authenticated Users principal. D. Add a User condition to the current permissions entry for the Authenticated Users principal. Correct Answer: B To create a central access rule (see step 5 below): 1. In the left pane of the Active Directory Administrative Center, click Tree View, select Dynamic Access Control, and then click Central Access Rules. 2. Right-click Central Access Rules, click New, and then click Central Access Rule. 3. In the Name field, type Finance Documents Rule. 4. In the Target Resources section, click Edit, and in the Central Access Rule dialog box, click Add a condition. Add the following condition: [Resource] [Department] [Equals] [Value] [Finance], and then click OK. 5. In the Permissions section, select Use following permissions as current permissions, click Edit, and in the Advanced Security Settings for Permissions dialog box click Add. Note (not A): Use the following permissions as proposed permissions option lets you create the policy in staging. 6 .In the Permission entry for Permissions dialog box, click Select a principal, type Authenticated Users, and then click OK. Incorrect Answers: A: Proposed permissions enable an administrator to more accurately model the impact of potential changes to access control settings without actually changing them.
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP. Which tool should you use? A. Services B. Authorization Manager C. Active Directory Sites and Services D. TMP Management E. Active Directory Users and Computers F. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Correct Answer: C References: https://kb.watchfulsoftware.com/pages/viewpage.action?pageId=1999181
QUESTION 7 You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes. You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime. Which tool should you use? A. Shadow B. Vssadmin C. Wbadmin D. Diskpart Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754968(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 8 Which of the following CA types must be deployed on domain-joined computers? A. Enterprise root B. Enterprise subordinate C. Standalone root D. Standalone subordinate Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
DC1 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for contoso.com. You add the DNS Server server role to DC2. You discover that the contoso.com DNS zone fails to replicate to DC2. You verify that the domain, schema, and configuration naming contexts replicate from DC1 to DC2. You need to ensure that DC2 replicates the contoso.com zone by using Active Directory replication. Which tool should you use? A. Ntdsutil B. Repadmin C. Dnslint D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Correct Answer: B If you see questions about AD Replication, First preference is AD sites and services, then Repadmin and then DNSLINT.
QUESTION 10 You work as an administrator at contoso.com. Contoso.com network consists of a single domain named contoso.com. All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. Contoso.com has a server, named SERVER1, which has the AD DS, DHCP and DNS server roles installed. Contoso.com also has a server named SERVER2, which has the DHCP and Remote Access Server Role installed. You have configured a server,which has the File and Storage Services Server role installed.to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named Server3. You then create a filter on SERVER1. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration? A. To make sure that SERVER1 issues Server3 an IP address. B. To make sure that SERVER1 does not issue SERVER3 an IP address C. To make sure that SERVER3 acquires a constant IP address from SERVER2 only. D. To make sure that SERVER3 is configured with a static IP address Correct Answer: B Deny Filter would not allow SERVER1 to issue SERVER3 an IP
QUESTION 11 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. A two-way forest trusts exists between the forest. Selective authentication is enabled on the trust. The contoso.com forest contains a server named Server1. You need to ensure that users in litwareinc.com can access resources on Server1. What should you do? A. Install Active Directory Rights Management Services on a domain controller in contoso.com. B. Modify the permission on the Server1 computer account. C. Install Active Directory Rights Management Services on a domain controller in litwareinc.com. D. Configure SID filtering on the trust. Correct Answer: B Selective authentication between forests If you decide to set selective authentication on an incoming forest trust, you need to manually assign permissions on each computer in the domain as well as the resources to which you want users in the second forest to have access. To do this, set a control access right Allowed to authenticate on the computer object that hosts the resource in Active Directory Users and Computers in the second forest. Then, allow user or group access to the particular resources you want to share. Reference: Accessing resources across forests
QUESTION 12 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 fails. You identify that the master boot record (MBR) is corrupt. You need to repair the MBR. Which tool should you use? A. Bcdedit B. Bcdboot C. Bootrec D. Fixmbr Correct Answer: C Repairing an unbootable Windows installation with bootrec.exe If the boot/recovery partition is corrupted or lost, you can modify your Windows OS partition to boot. Boot from your Windows Vista/7/Server2008/R2/2012 media and choose the “Repair Windows” option. Open the command prompt. Using diskpart, mark your Windows partition as bootable. If your windows partition does not have it, copy the “boot” folder from the installation media. Run the following commands: >c: >cd boot >attrib bcd -s -h -r >ren c:\boot\bcd bcd.old >bootrec /RebuildBcd Reboot and Windows should boot normally. If not, return to the command prompt and run: >bootrec /FixMBR >bootrec /FixBoot Incorrect Answers: A: BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu options, and so on. BCDEdit serves essentially the same purpose as Bootcfg.exe on earlier versions of Windows B: The BCDboot tool is a command-line tool that enables you to manage system partition files D: Fixmbr is not a tool. Fixmbr is an option when using the bootrec tool. References: Windows BCD Store http://www.itsgotme.com/wiki/Windows_BCD
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need ensure that all Active Directory changes are replicated to all of the domain controllers in the forest within 30 minutes. What should you use? A. Set-ADSite B. Set-ADReplicationSite C. Set-ADDomain D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink E. Set-ADGroup F. Set-ADForest G. Netdom Correct Answer: D This command gets all the site links in the directory with replication frequency greater than or equal to 60minutes, and then sets the Cost property on these sitelink objects to 200. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/%5Clibrary/Hh852257(v=WPS.630).aspx
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