300-420 ENSLD exam solutions and how to succeed with 300-420 dumps

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Practice the new Cisco 300-420 dumps exam questions online:

FromNumber of exam questionsPriceAssociated certifications
Pass4itsure15/260FreeCCNP Enterprise

Question 1:


Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the configuration protocols they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

new Cisco 300-420 dumps exam questions 1

Correct Answer:

new Cisco 300-420 dumps exam questions 1-1

Question 2:

Which design element should an engineer consider when multicast is included in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. PIM SSM must run in the underlay.

B. Multicast clients reside in the underlay, and the multicast source is outside the fabric or in the overlay.

C. Rendezvous points must be used in a PIM SSM deployment.

D. Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay and the EID space for wired and wireless clients.

Correct Answer: D

Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay, in the EID space, for both wired and wireless clients https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/deploy-guide/cisco-dna-center-sd-access-wl-dg.pdf

Question 3:

An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?

A. AFT for public web presence

B. host-initiated tunnels

C. dual stack

D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

An organization plans to deploy multicast across two different autonomous systems. Their solution must allow RPs to:


discover active sources outside their domain


use the underlying routing information for connectivity with other RPs


announce sources joining the group

Which solution supports these requirements?





Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/16-10/configuration_guide/ip_mcast_rtng/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg_chapter_010001.pdf

Question 5:

An existing network solution is using BFD in echo mode. Several of the network devices are experiencing high CPU utilization which an engineer has determined is related to the BFD feature. Which solution should the engineer leverage to reduce the CPU load?

A. Implement slow timers between peers with low CPU resources.

B. Implement BED asynchronous mode between peers with low CPU resources.

C. Enable BFD multi-hop on the devices with low CPU resources.

D. Utilize carrier delay on all routers in the network.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees. Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?





Correct Answer: D


Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.

Question 7:

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning

B. primary authentication point

C. NAT traversal facilitation

D. Zero Touch Provisioning

E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

Question 8:

An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be grouped in two SIP instances.

Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?



C. Rapid PVST


Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

A company uses cloud-based applications for voice and video calls, file sharing, content sharing, and messaging. During business hours, these applications randomly become slow and unresponsive. However, other applications work smoothly with the current applied QoS polices. Which solution must the company choose to resolve the issue?

A. Identify the applications with NBAR2 and allocate the required bandwidth accordingly.

B. Identify the port used by each application and apply a minimum bandwidth guarantee.

C. Identify the applications and reserve the required bandwidth on the perimeter routers.

D. Identify the application ports, create groupings, and rate-limit the required bandwidth.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: using NBAR to identify application and bandwidth usage, then adjust existing QoS polices would be a more simple option. Of course, B is still ok if the network admin know all traffic and bandwidth consumption by other tools, say netflow. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_nbar/configuration/15-mt/qos-nbar- 15-mt-book/nbar-protocl-discvry.html#GUID-ED1AEDA1-AE69-45C3-A77E- 2AF881CA9C36 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ios-nx-os-software/network-based-application- recognition-nbar/index.html

Question 10:

How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.

B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.

C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.

D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

In a cisco SD-Access brownfield deployment scenario, which configuration deployment must be taken with Cisco DNA center?

A. Subnet stretching

B. LAN automation

C. Automated UNDERLAY

D. Manual underlay

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

What is the role of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. fabric device that connects wired endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

B. map system that manages endpoint to device relationships

C. fabric device that connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

D. map system that manages External Layer 3 networks

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://netaavi.com/my-blog-1/f/overview-of-sda-fabric-solution

Question 13:

Which two steps can be taken to improve convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)

A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

B. Merge all the areas into one backbone area

C. Tune OSPF parameters

D. Make all non-backbone areas stub areas

E. Span the same IP network across multiple areas.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 14:

Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and support dynamic RP discovery?

A. Auto-RP

B. Anycast-RP

C. bootstrap router

D. static RP

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

What is the purpose of a control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access network fabric?

A. to maintain the endpoint database and mapping between endpoints and edge nodes

B. to detect endpoints in the fabric and inform the host tracking database of EID-to-fabric-edge node bindings

C. to identify and authenticate endpoints within the network fabric

D. to act as the network gateway between the network fabric and outside networks

Correct Answer: A


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CompTIA A+ Best Exam solution: Latest 220-1101 dumps

CompTIA A+ Best Exam solution: Latest 220-1101 dumps

The latest 220-1101 dumps contain 393 latest exam questions and answers, and provide PDF and VCE learning methods, light and simple! The best CompTIA A+ exam solution worth using.

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Share some CompTIA 220-1101 dumps exam questions for free

FromNumber of exam questionsTypeOnline downloadAssociated certifications
Pass4itsure13Exam questions and answers220-1101 PDFCompTIA A+ , CompTIA Network+

Which of the following is a valid use for PaaS?

A. Off-site backups

B. An application development environment

C. A virtual server installation and configuration model

D. A web application for asset management

Correct Answer: B


A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning
correctly yesterday.

Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been

A. Inquire about possible changes.

B. File a damage report.

C. Requisition of a new scanner.

D. Attempt to clean the scanner.

Correct Answer: A


Identify the problem.
Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and, if applicable, perform backups before making changes.
Inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes.

Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious).
If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.

Test the theory to determine the cause.
Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
Refer to the vendor\’s instructions for guidance.

Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.


An administrator has configured a server to host virtualized instances. The requirements of each VM must be able to
scale automatically depending on peak and off-peak usage.

Which of the following terms BEST describes this type of cloud concept?

A. Overprovisioning

B. Measured pooling

C. Resources pooling

D. Rapid elasticity

Correct Answer: A


A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard
without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?

A. Thunderbolt


C. M.2


Correct Answer: C


The IT department recently upgrade the client computer for the graphics department. A user reports the new computer has
not worked since. It makes an unusual sound when pressing the power button.

A technician verifies the power cable works and the computer is connected properly to both data and power. The monitor powers on but display the message NO source. Which of the following BEST explains the cause of this

A. There is insufficient power in the computer

B. There is a back screen on the system boot.

C. The computer is overheating.

D. The error beep codes on POST.

Correct Answer: A


A user reports that printed receipts have black smudges over the entire image. The text is still present but is very dark
and sometimes illegible.

Which of the following are the MOST likely cause and solutions for the printer issue?

A. The ribbon is jammed and rubbed on the paper. Clear the bad ribbon and feed it through properly.

B. The printhead is too hot. Adjust the temperature down and retry printing.

C. The printer is loaded with the wrong type of paper. Replace the receipt paper with carbon paper.

D. The blue ink cartridge was loaded with black ink. Put in the correct ink and clean the printhead.

Correct Answer: B

Receipts are printed via a thermal printer. Thermal printers work by heating paper in specified areas in order to create
an image. The specific component that does this is a thermal printhead. Since the image appears to have black
smudges and is too dark, we know the thermal printhead is too hot since the capability of precise heating has


A tier one technician has spent the past thirty minutes troubleshooting an Issue With an end user\’s network connection
After a solution was implemented, the end user rebooted the system, tested the Issue, and confirmed the Issue was

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Document the findings, actions, and solutions in the company knowledge base

B. Advise the user to try the solution before contacting the help desk if the Issue happens again

C. Establish a theory of probable cause

D. Escalate the Issue to the tier two support team for resolution.

Correct Answer: A

According to the Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide (220-1101) 1, the correct answer is A. Document the
findings, actions, and solutions in the company knowledge base.

The explanation is that after resolving an issue, a technician should always document what was done and how it was fixed. This helps to create a record of the problem and its solution for future reference and also to share knowledge with other technicians.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/acore-1-220-1101-study-guide By documenting the findings, actions, and
solution in the company knowledge base, it will help to ensure that if the Issue happens again, the technician or a
different technician will be able to quickly and easily find the solution and resolve the Issue. Additionally, it is important
to document the solution so that the same issue does not need to be troubleshot multiple times in the future.


A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it.

B. Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution.

C. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

D. Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed.

Correct Answer: D

Identify the problem.


A server administrator set up a VM to be used in a lab setting. A technician is setting up thin-client computers to access
this VM. Which of the following tasks are required to complete the project? (Choose three.)

A. Connect the device to a printer.

B. Install the operating system.

C. Install a USB keyboard and mouse.

D. Connect the device to the network.

E. Install the latest system updates.

F. Install the latest device drivers.

G. Connect the device to a monitor.

H. Install the necessary applications.

Correct Answer: DEH


A technical lead wants to migrate all common business applications, including email and file shares, to the cloud. Which
of the following cloud concepts should be used?

A. MaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. laaS

Correct Answer: C


A technician needs to call a user\’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user\’s mobile
device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?

A. Long-term evolution

B. Near-field communication

C. Radio frequency ID

D. Z-wave

Correct Answer: A


A projector\’s image begins to flicker during a presentation. The laptop display does not produce this issue.
When a technician changes the resolution on the laptop, the issue persists.

Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?

A. Check the connectivity of the VGA cable.

B. Check the connectivity of the power cable.

C. Change the aspect ratio on the laptop.

D. Change the settings of the projector.

Correct Answer: A


A technician is setting up a laptop with an encrypted hard drive. The laptop will securely store a PIN that the user will
input at log-on. Which of the following must be installed to set up this configuration?





Correct Answer: A

TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, and it is a special chip installed on a computer\’s motherboard that stores
encryption keys, passwords, and digital certificates. It can also securely store a user\’s PIN, allowing them to access
the laptop without having to enter the PIN every time they log on.

TPM is a secure way to store and protect sensitive data, making it ideal for use in laptops that need to securely store a PIN.

CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Certification: An important certification covering Mobile Devices, Networking Technologies, Hardware, Virtualization, Cloud Computing, and Networking Troubleshooting!

Take this practice session to learn about the latest 220-1101 exam questions and answers to help you improve your professional skills! Help you learn more about the latest CompTIA A+ certification exam!

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312-50V12 Dumps Update Good To Win The Exam

by 312-50v12 dumps 2023

No bad intentions, just to help you win the (CEHv12) exam. How to do it, you must be curious. Don’t worry, Pass4itSure has released a new 312-50V12 dumps (a new study quiz that includes all the exam content), and if you practice hard, you can win the 312-50V12 exam very well.

What you need to do: Download the Pass4itSure 312-50v12 dumps PDF or VCE https://www.pass4itsure.com/312-50v12.html and do the 528+ practice questions.

The EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker (CEHv12) 312-50V12 exam is a certification exam that measures candidates’ knowledge and skills in cybersecurity.

Where the 312-50V12 exam is difficult?

In order to help you with the 312-50V12 exam, I have sorted out the difficulties of the exam:

Complex technical jargon:

This can be confusing for some test takers.

Familiar with various tools:

Such as vulnerability scanners, network sniffers, port scanners, password cracking tools, etc., there are many and easy to confuse.

Master network attack techniques:

Including denial of service attacks, SQL injection attacks, phishing, etc., candidates need to master the principles and countermeasures of these attack techniques.

The exam requires candidates to understand various network attack techniques including denial of service attacks, SQL injection attacks, phishing, etc., and candidates need to master the principles and countermeasures of these attack techniques.

Familiarity with various cybersecurity standards and regulations:

such as ISO 27001, HIPAA, GDPR, etc., requires in-depth knowledge.

A large amount of exam content:

The exam content is very extensive and requires candidates to put in a lot of time and effort to study and prepare for the exam.

What are the specific ways to deal with the difficulties of the 312-50V12 exam?

As a candidate, you should be well prepared, familiar with the content of the exam and technical terms, master various security tools and attack techniques, and understand cybersecurity standards and regulations.

At the same time, you should use the latest 312-50v12 dumps (which can be updated by Pass4itSure) to practice the exam questions to ensure excellent results.

Next, Old Rules, share the latest 312-50v12 exam questions (free)

Come and take the 312-50V12 practice test and improve your ability.

Question 1:

In an attempt to damage the reputation of a competitor organization, Hailey, a professional hacker, gathers a list of employee and client email addresses and other related information by using various search engines, social networking sites, and web-spidering tools. In this process, she also uses an automated tool to gather a list of words from the target website to further perform a brute-force attack on the previously gathered email addresses.

What is the tool used by Hailey for gathering a list of words from the target website?

A. Shadowsocks


C. Psiphon

D. Orbot

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which of the following allows attackers to draw a map or outline the target organization\’s network infrastructure to know about the actual environment that they are going to hack?

A. Enumeration

B. Vulnerability analysis

C. Malware analysis

D. Scanning networks

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

Null sessions are unauthenticated connections (not using a username or password.) to an NT or 2000 system. Which TCP and UDP ports must you filter to check null sessions on your network?

A. 137 and 139

B. 137 and 443

C. 139 and 443

D. 139 and 445

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: C

Network-based scanner

A network-based vulnerability scanner, in simplistic terms, is the process of identifying loopholes in a computer\’s network or IT assets, which hackers and threat actors can exploit. By implementing this process, one can successfully identify their organization\’s current risk(s).

This is not where the buck stops; one can also verify the effectiveness of your system\’s security measures while improving internal and external defenses. Through this review, an organization is well

equipped to take an extensive inventory of all systems, including operating systems, installed software, security patches, hardware, firewalls, anti-virus software, and much more.

Agent-based scanner

Agent-based scanners make use of software scanners on each and every device; the results of the scans are reported back to the central server. Such scanners are well-equipped to find and report on a range of vulnerabilities.


This option is not suitable for us, since for it to work, you need to install a special agent on each computer before you start collecting data from them.

Question 5:

You are programming a buffer overflow exploit and you want to create a NOP sled of 200 bytes in the program exploit.c

312-50v12 Q&A q5

What is the hexadecimal value of NOP instruction?

A. 0x60

B. 0x80

C. 0x70

D. 0x90

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which of the following tools is used to analyze the files produced by several packet-capture programs such as tcpdump, WinDump, Wireshark, and EtherPeek?

A. tcptrace

B. Nessus

C. OpenVAS

D. tcptraceroute

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

During a Xmas scan, what indicates a port is closed?

A. No return response




Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls?

A. -n/-R

B. -0N/-0X/-0G

C. -T

D. -D

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

An attacker redirects the victim to malicious websites by sending them a malicious link by email. The link appears authentic but redirects the victim to a malicious web page, which allows the attacker to steal the victim\’s data. What type of attack is this?

A. Phishing

B. Vlishing

C. Spoofing


Correct Answer: A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing Phishing is a type of social engineering attack often used to steal user data, including login credentials and credit card numbers. It occurs when an attacker, masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message. The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link, which can lead to the installation of malware, the freezing of the system as part of a ransomware attack, or the revealing of sensitive information. An attack can have devastating results.

For individuals, this includes unauthorized purchases, the stealing of funds, or identity theft. Moreover, phishing is often used to gain a foothold in corporate or governmental networks as a part of a larger attack, such as an advanced persistent threat (APT) event. In this latter scenario, employees are compromised in order to bypass security perimeters, distribute malware inside a closed environment, or gain privileged access to secured data.

An organization succumbing to such an attack typically sustains severe financial losses in addition to declining market share, reputation, and consumer trust. Depending on the scope, a phishing attempt might escalate into a security incident from which a business will have a difficult time recovering.

Question 10:

Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone\’s internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone\’s loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate\’s phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker\’s output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario?

A. Man-in-the-disk attack

B. aLTEr attack

C. SIM card attack

D. Spearphone attack

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

What is a NULL scan?

A. A scan in which all flags are turned off

B. A scan in which certain flags are off

C. A scan in which all flags are on

D. A scan in which the packet size is set to zero

E. A scan with an illegal packet size

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

You are a penetration tester and are about to perform a scan on a specific server. The agreement that you signed with the client contains the following specific condition for the scan: “The attacker must scan every port on the server several times using a set of spoofed sources IP addresses. ” Suppose that you are using Nmap to perform this scan. What flag will you use to satisfy this requirement?

A. The -A flag

B. The -g flag

C. The -f flag

D. The -D flag

Correct Answer: D

flags -source-port and -g are equivalent and instruct Nmap to send packets through a selected port. this option is used to try to cheat firewalls whitelisting traffic from specific ports. the following example can scan the target from port twenty to ports eighty, 22, 21,23 and 25 sending fragmented packets to LinuxHint.

Question 13:

which of the following protocols can be used to secure an LDAP service against anonymous queries?





Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

What would be the purpose of running “wget -q -S” against a web server?

A. Performing content enumeration on the webserver to discover hidden folders

B. Using wget to perform banner grabbing on the webserver

C. Flooding the web server with requests to perform a DoS attack

D. Downloading all the contents of the web page locally for further examination

Correct Answer: B

-q, –quiet quiet (no output) -S, –server-response print server response

Question 15:

Gilbert, a web developer, uses a centralized web API to reduce complexity and increase the Integrity of updating and changing data. For this purpose, he uses a web service that uses HTTP methods such as PUT. POST. GET. and DELETE can improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application. What is the type of web-service API mentioned in the above scenario?





Correct Answer: C

*REST is not a specification, tool, or framework, but instead is an architectural style for web services that serve as a communication medium between various systems on the web. *RESTful APIs, which are also known as RESTful services, are designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE RESTful API: RESTful API is a RESTful service that is designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols.

RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE. RESTful API is also designed to make applications independent to improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application.

APIs with the following features can be referred to as RESTful APIs: o Stateless: The client end stores the state of the session; the server is restricted to save data during the request processing o Cacheable: The client should save responses (representations) in the cache. This feature can enhance API performance pg. 1920 CEHv11 manual.



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Practice, in practice, good luck with the exam!

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350-401 Dumps 2023 Update | Overcome All The Difficulties Of The Exam

Pass4itSure 350-401 Dumps 2023

The Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam is a highly specialized exam with a large number of candidates competing. Competition is fierce and the 350-401 (ENCOR) exam requires adequate practice and preparation. Having said all this, the exam is not impossible to crack. With the right guidance, it can pass smoothly. For example, our latest update 350-401 dumps 2023 are here to help you overcome all the difficulties of the exam.

In this type of exam, the preparation must be strategic and well-planned. Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html is a good choice for your pass exam. Improve your knowledge and skills and better prepare for the exam by providing the latest study materials with 1044 exam questions.

What is the hardest thing about the 350-401 exam?

The possible factors that make the exam the hardest vary for different people. Some common factors include:

Time pressure: The Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam has a time limit and requires all questions to be completed within the allotted 120 minutes. For some people, time constraints can cause them to feel stressed and anxious, which can affect their performance.

Question Difficulty: Some of the questions on the 350-401 exam is very complex or involve abstract concepts that may require specific skills, knowledge, or experience to solve, which can be difficult for some people.

Nervousness and anxiety: The exam itself is a high-pressure environment, and even with good preparation, some people tend to feel nervous and anxious, which can affect their performance and thinking ability.

Lack of self-confidence: Some people may lack self-confidence and feel that they are not equipped enough to cope with the challenges of the 350-401 exam, which can also make it difficult for them.

In short, the most difficult factors of the exam vary from person to person and need to be analyzed and solved according to individual circumstances.

But it’s probably a few points outlined above, don’t worry, these can be solved.

The latest 350-401 dumps 2023 help overcome all the difficulties of the exam

The latest 350-401 dumps 2023, especially those provided by Pass4itSure, contain all 350-401 exam question types, which are difficult and easy, allowing you to fully understand the content of the exam, promote the understanding of knowledge, and master the difficult points. By practicing the exam questions, you will no longer be nervous and anxious, and face the final exam with more confidence.

Requires practice and thorough preparation by 350-401 dumps 2023

Do not fight unprepared battles. The highly competitive 350-401 (ENCOR) exam requires adequate practice and preparation. So, here is specially prepared for you to practice the latest exam part of the 350-401 dumps questions 2023 online, provided by Pass4itSure for free.

last update 350-401 dumps questionstime
free 350-401 questionsSeptember 28, 2022
Question 1:

A client on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same.

What type of roam occurs?

A. inter-controller

B. inter-subnet

C. intra-VLAN

D. intra-controller

Correct Answer: D

Mobility, or roaming, is a wireless LAN client\’s ability to maintain its association seamlessly from one access point to another securely and with as little latency as possible. Three popular types of client roaming are:


Intra-Controller Roaming: Each controller supports same-controller client roaming across access points managed by the same controller. This roaming is transparent to the client as the session is sustained, and the client continues using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address.


Inter-Controller Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group and on the same subnet. This roaming is also transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP- or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.


Inter-Subnet Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group on different subnets. This roaming is transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between the controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Update 350-401 exam questions 2

Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode negotiate NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

B. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

C. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

D. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode auto NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:
Update 350-401 exam questions 3

Which HTTP code must be returned to prevent the script from exiting?

A. 200

B. 201

C. 300

D. 301

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?





Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

import JSON from requests import get

Headers = { “Content-Type” : “application/yang-data+json”, “Accept” : “application/yang-data+json” }

Devices = open(“devices.txt”, “r”)

for Device in Devices.deadlines():Hostname, IP, Login, Pass = Device.strip().split(“,”)URL = f”https://{IP}/restconf/data/Cisco-IOS-XE-native:native”Creds = (Login, Pass)

Response = get(URL, auth = Creds, headers = Headers, verify = False)

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

Update 350-401 exam questions 5

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?



C. Proxy ETR

D. Proxy ITR

Correct Answer: C

ETR, (Egress) from internal to External ITR, (Internal) from External to Internal

Question 7:

When voice services are deployed over a wireless environment, which service must be disabled to ensure the quality of calls?

A. Aggressive load balancing

B. Dynamic transmit power control

C. Priority queuing

D. Fastlane

Correct Answer: A

To have a successful voice deployment with 792x phones, not only do you need a professional site survey, you also need to make sure that the controller and the switched network are properly configured for voice.

The controller has several settings for a proper voice configuration:

Aggressive Load Balancing should be disabled.

Reference: http://what-when-how.com/deploying-and-troubleshooting-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/configuration-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/

Question 8:

What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete

C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

Correct Answer: D

Stateful Switchover Routers specifically designed for high availability include hardware redundancy, such as dual power supplies and route processors (RPs). An RP is responsible for learning the network topology and building the routing table (RIB).

An RP failure can trigger routing protocol adjacencies to reset, resulting in packet loss and network instability.

During an RP failure, it may be more desirable to hide the failure and allow the router to continue forwarding packets using the previously programmed CEF table entries rather than temporarily drop packets while waiting for the secondary RP to reestablish the routing protocol adjacencies and rebuild the forwarding table.

Stateful switchover (SSO) is a redundancy feature that allows a Cisco router with two RPs to synchronize router configuration and control plane state information.

The process of mirroring information between RPs is referred to as checkpointing. SSO-enabled routers always checkpoint line card operation and Layer 2 protocol states.

During a switchover, the standby RP immediately takes control and prevents basic problems such as interface link flaps. However, Layer 3 packet forwarding is disrupted without additional configuration.

The RP switchover triggers a routing protocol adjacency flap that clears the roundtable. When the routing table is cleared, the CEF entries are purged, and traffic is no longer routed until the network topology is relearned and the forwarding table is reprogrammed.

Enabling nonstop forwarding (NSF) or nonstop routing (NSR) high availability capabilities informs the router(s) to maintain the CEF entries for a short duration and continue forwarding packets through an RP failure until the control plane recovers.

Question 9:

Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors?

A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes.

B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server.

C. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.

D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.

Correct Answer: A

A virtual machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical server with an operating system. From an application\’s point of view, the VM provides the look and feel of a real physical server, including all its components, such as CPU, memory,

and network interface cards (NICs).

The virtualization software that creates VMs and performs the hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run concurrently is known as a hypervisor. There are two types of hypervisors: type 1 and type 2 hypervisors. In type 1 hypervisor

(or native hypervisor), the hypervisor is installed directly on the physical server. Then instances of an operating system (OS) are installed on the hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore they are

more efficient than hosted architectures. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware vSphere/ESXi, Oracle VM Server, KVM, and Microsoft Hyper-V.

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. answer \’Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes\’ big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required.

Examples of type 2 hypervisors are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac, and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (which only runs

on Windows).

Update 350-401 exam questions 9

Question 10:


An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Update 350-401 exam questions 10
Update 350-401 exam questions 10-2

Question 11:

Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

A. HTTP Status Code: 200

B. HTTP Status Code: 302

C. HTTP Status Code: 401

D. HTTP Status Code: 504

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/401

Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C

B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.

C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.

D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A

E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

Question 14:

What happens to the signal strength of an RF signal due to wave spreading?

A. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off equally near the transmitter and also farther away

B. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off quickly near the transmitter but more slowly farther away

C. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the receiver and more quickly farther away

D. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the transmitter but more quickly farther away

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Update 350-401 exam questions 15

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A. sampler SAMPLER-1 mode random 1-out-of 2 flow FLOW-MONITOR-1

Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor SAMPLER-1 input

B. sampler SAMPLER-1 no mode random 1-out-of 2 mode percent 50 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

D. flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 record v4_r1 sampler SAMPLER-1 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

Correct Answer: C

Everything is complete and configured correctly, we just have to apply it on an interface.

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Cisco 700-805 free dumps 2023 questions:


What does TPV mean?

A. Total Product Value
B. Total Partner View
C. Telepresence Value
D. Total Partner Value

Correct Answer: B


Which statement best summarizes the intended outcome of the Success Plan?

A. development of a customer-centric view for achieving value from their portfolio
B. provide scheduling for resolving customer qual y issues
C. generate financial data that indicates a customer\\’s propensity to renew
D. grow incremental annual recurring revenue

Correct Answer: C


What is the primary customer value of the Cisco Services Portfolio?

A. Services priced based on usage
B. Services packages tailored to specific customer needs
C. Customers can develop their own service offerings
D. On-call, 24/7 service technicians at all levels

Correct Answer: B


During which activity of the renewal process would an RM provide an appropriate co-termination timeframe and gain
required internal approvals?

A. deal strategy
B. billing
C. proposal build
D. quote delivery

Correct Answer: C


Which task is the responsibility of the Renewals Manager?
A. billing recurring revenue contracts
B. managing recurring revenue risk
C. driving adoption of specific technologies
D. managing the Success Plan

Correct Answer: D


Which licensing model is the most complex for a customer to manage?

A. Managed service agreement
B. Subscription
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. A La Carte

Correct Answer: D


What is the main purpose of CCW-R?

A. to factor customer ATR, up-sell, and attrition
B. to allow customers and partners to download renewal data
C. to allow customers and partners to store new software subscriptions and service contracts from one tool
D. to capture partner and customer billing preferences

Correct Answer: B


How does Cisco define Business Critical Services?
A. subscription-based services covering the lifecycle of a technology
B. Pay-as-you-go, services covering business-critical functions
C. hardware replacement
D. Pay-as-you-go, technology-based services

Correct Answer: A


Customer A purchased a one-year WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. Customer B purchases a three-year
WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. What is the annual recurring revenue (ARR) for each?

A. $1000 and $3000
B. $1100 and $3300
C. $1000 and $1000
D. $3000 and $3000

Correct Answer: C


Which is the first step in a solutions-led sales approach?

A. present quote to the customer
B. examine previous purchases
C. identify the latest technology release
D. understand the customer\\’s objectives

Correct Answer: C


Which statement best describes an Ask the Expert session?

A. A pre-recorded webinar from an expert
B. A hosted an educational webinar with live expert Q and A
C. A 24-7 phone line providing expert advice
D. A one-on-one coaching engagement covering specific use cases

Correct Answer: D


Which service offering helps define the customer\\’s IT vision and strategy?

A. Support
B. Advisory
C. Optimization
D. Training

Correct Answer: B


When renewing a contract with a customer, which action is important?

A. Start discussions once the contract has expired.
B. Validate customers’ business needs.
C. Do not offer any financing solutions.
D. Propose only the most important part of the solution.

Correct Answer: A

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Passing the 350-401 exam is closely linked to the following certifications:

  • CCNP Enterprise (CCNP Enterprise Core Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Qualifying Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Wireless (CCIE Enterprise Wireless Qualifying Exam)

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Cisco 350-401 Free Dumps: New 350-401 ENCOR Questions Test:


What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A. a predetermined string that is passed from client to server
B. a one-time encrypted token
C. a username that is stored in the local router database
D. a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Correct Answer: A

In REST API Security – API keys are widely used in the industry and became some sort of standard, however, this
the method should not be considered a good security measure.

API Keys were created as somewhat of a fix to the early authentication issues of HTTP Basic Authentication and other
such systems. In this method, a unique generated value is assigned to each first-time user, signifying that the user is
known. When the user attempts to re-enter the system, their unique key (sometimes generated from their hardware
combination and IP data, and other times randomly generated by the server which knows them) is used to prove that
they’re the same user as before.

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/4-most-used-rest-api-authentication-methods/


Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo\\’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30
seconds and continue until stopped?

A. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life forever
B. IP SLA schedule 30 start-time now life forever
C. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life 30
D. IP SLA schedule 100 life forever

Correct Answer: A


In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

C. 802 1Q

Correct Answer: C

SD-Access Extended Nodes provide the ability to extend the enterprise network by providing connectivity to non-carpeted spaces of an enterprise – commonly called the Extended Enterprise. This allows network connectivity and management of IoT devices and the deployment of traditional enterprise end devices in outdoor and non-carpeted environments such as distribution centers, warehouses, or Campus parking lots.

This feature extends consistent, policy-based automation to Cisco Industrial Ethernet, Catalyst 3560-CX Compact, and
Digital Building Series switches and enables segmentation for user endpoints and IoT devices connected to these

Using Cisco DNA Center automation, switches in the extended node role are onboarded to their connected edge node
using an 802.1Q trunk over an EtherChannel with one or multiple physical link members. Extended nodes are
discovered using zero-touch Plug-and-Play.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-designguide.html#Network_Components


How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A


An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address 50
IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
B. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast route-map ACL-to-red
C. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
D. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address acl-to-red IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast ACL-to-red

Correct Answer: D


Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS authentication queries the router`s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

Correct Answer: DE


An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:
Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm
Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C
B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.
C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.
D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A
E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE


Refer to the exhibit.

Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “Tommy” under normal operation?

A. Cisco
B. local
C. 0 Cisco
D. Tommy

Correct Answer: A

In this question, there are two different passwords for user “Tommy”:
In the TACACS+ server, the password is “Tommy”
In the local database of the router, the password is “Cisco”.
From the line “login authentication local” we know that the router uses the local database for authentication so the
password should be “Cisco”.
Note: “… password 0 …” here means unencrypted password.


In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database?

A. fabric border node
B. fabric edge node
C. fabric wireless controller
D. control plane node

Correct Answer: D


A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: B


Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.


In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node.

Correct Answer: A

SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node Closer Look Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map
Server / Resolver Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)
Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID (EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128*, or MAC/48
Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility, and RLOC information

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/latam/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf

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Abbreviation: 300-425 ENWLSD
Full Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
Exam time: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Cost: $300
Certification: CCNP Enterprise (Prove your skills with Enterprise networking solutions)
To earn CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to pass two exams: a core exam (350-401 ENCOR) and an enterprise concentration exam of your choice (one of six). The 300-425 exam happens to be one of the concentrated exams.

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[2022.7] Newly released 300-425 free exam questions:


An engineer performs a Layer 1 survey by using the Metegeek analyzer only on the current operating channel. Which
the operating mode is configured for a Cisco CleanAir AP?

A. Local
B. Sniffer
C. Monitor
D. SE-connect

Correct Answer: A



An engineer Is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise
wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer

A. N+1 solution without SS0
B. N+1 with SSO
C. N+N solution without SSO
D. N+N with SSO

Correct Answer: B



A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design
to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

B. Cisco centralized key management
C. Band select
D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C


An engineer changed the TPC Power Threshold for wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The
engineer conducts a new post-deployment Survey to validate the results What is the expected outcome?

A. Increase cell size
B. Decreased client signal strength
C. Increased received sensitivity
D. Decreased channel overlap

Correct Answer: B


During a post-deployment site Survey, issues are found with non-wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to
identify the source of the Interference?

A. Network analysis module
B. Wireless intrusion prevention
C. Wireshark
D. Cisco spectrum expert

Correct Answer: D


A customer called with a requirement that internal clients must be on different subnets depending on the building they
are in, AH access points are operating in local mode and will not be modified, and this is a single controller solution.
Which design approach creates the desired result?

A. Create an SSID, place it to the desired VLAN under WLANs, and configure 802 lx in ISE to assign the correct VLAN
based on the SSID from which the client is authenticating.
B. Create FlexConnecI groups, place the access points in. and set the correct VLAN to SSID mapping based on
C. Create AP groups for each desired location, map the correct VLANs to the internal SSID and add the access points
for that location.
D. Create mobility anchors for the SSID, and on the controller under the internal SSID. create a foreign map to the
desired VLAN based on location.

Correct Answer: C


A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues between two WLCs running 8.x code in SSO mode and finds
that the redundancy management heartbeat is failing. Which packet type must be filtered for heartbeats when taking a
capture to verify communication?


Correct Answer: B


Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room?

A. X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band.
B. X-rays impact the 802,11a UNll-2 channels that cause access points to dynamically change channels.
C. X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues.
D. X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation.

Correct Answer: A


Which CLI command does an engineer use to validate that the redundancy peer of a Stateful Switchover pair of
controllers are up and connected?

A. rping
B. ping
C. eping
D. mping

Correct Answer: B



A network engineer is working on a predictive WLAN design, the new wireless network must support access to the Internet,
email, voice, and the inventory database, to successfully support these services, which configuration must the engineer
use for the signal strength levels and SNR on the planning tool?

A. signal strength of 67 dBm, 25-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
B. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 5 percent, packet loss.
C. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
D. signal strength of 70 dBm,30-dB SNR., and maximum 10 percent packet loss.

Correct Answer: A



A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network for a warehouse using access points with internal antennas. Which
two elements have a negative effect on wireless users? (Choose two.)

A. wireless channels
B. access point height
C. client authentication
D. client authorization
E. absorption

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1250-series/design_guide_c07-693245.ht


An engineer has successfully configured high availability and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. The
engineer can access the Active Primary WLC, but the Secondary Standby WLC is not accessible. Which two methods
allow access to the standby unit? (Choose two.)

A. via the console connection
B. SSH to the redundancy management interface of the primary WLC
C. SSH to the service port interface
D. SSH to the virtual interface of the secondary WLC
E. SSH to the management interface of the primary WLC

Correct Answer: AC



A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperloctation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom
mobile app Issues appeared in the past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet
these requirements?

A. Cisco CMX SDK in the location app
B. redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion.
C. device Bluetooth via the app
D. Cisco FastLocate technology

Correct Answer: D

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300-920 Exam Dumps [New] Benefit Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX Study Material

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Abbreviation: 300-920 DEVWBX
Full Name: Develop Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Test language: English
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Cost: $300
Relevant certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Webex API Fundamentals, Webex Meetings, Webex Devices, Messaging, Embedding Webex, and Management and Compliance
Recommended Official Resource: Developing Apps for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Recommended study material: Pass4itSure 300-920 Exam Dumps

To earn the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional certification, you will need to pass two exams, one Core Exam (350-901 DEVCOR) and the Software Developer Intensive Exam of your choice (300-435 ENAUTO, 300-835 CLAUTO, 300-535 SPAUTO, 300-735 SAUTO, 300-910 DEVOPS, 300-920 DEVWBX). The 300-920 DEVWBX is one of them and the subject we’re talking about today, so you have to get through successfully.

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New 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions released [2022.6]:


What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.
B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.
C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.
D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)


Drag and drop the expressions to create a Webex Teams widget that uses Guest Issuer to enable customers to chat
and meet with agents. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Refer to the exhibit. A company uses Webex Teams extensively for communications involving customers and wants to
enforce a consistent messaging policy. Which code completes line 20 to send a notification when non-compliant
messages are detected?

A. events?resource=people
B. compliance?resource=messages
C. events?resource=messages
D. compliance?resource=people

Correct Answer: C
The function is to get messages. Then a request is made so they get to come into action and does
events?Resource=messages to get the data for the events.


Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on
the right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics


Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to construct the JavaScript to create a new meeting with the Webex Meetings
XML API. Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401
B. 403
C. 429
D. 501

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details


With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over
a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.
B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.
C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.
D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.
E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boardscustomization-guide-ce98.pdf


Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording
file download links?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Which two statements are true when comparing the SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces of a Cisco Collaboration
device? (Choose two.)

A. The SSH interface supports XML payloads only.
B. The SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces support JSON and XML payloads.
C. The HTTP interface supports JSON and XML payloads.
D. Communications can be encrypted for all SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces.
E. The WebSocket interface supports JSON payloads only.

Correct Answer: BD


The Express framework receives a Webex Teams webhook event when someone presses a button in an Adaptive
Card. Drag and drop the property names onto the code snippet to access the form field named “preference”. Not all
options are used.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://github.com/marchfederico/ciscospark-websocket-events


Which list of API calls must be made to provision 50 new Webex Room devices for an organization?

A. POST to /places with `displayName\\’, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/
B. POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/activationCode
C. POST to /licenses, POST the returned `licneseId\\’ and a specified `displayName\\’ to /devices
D. POST to /licenses, POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST `licensed\\’ and placeId\\’ to /devices

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/devices/list-devices


Drag and drop the expressions from the right onto the Webex JavaScript SDK code on the left to create a Webex
Teams space, add a person to the space, and send a welcome message. Not all expressions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an
organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.
B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.
C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\\’s “” value to “TRUE”.
D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.
E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-TeamsSecurity-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

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300-720 Dumps [Updated] Perfect Cisco 300-720 SESA Preparation Material

When you prepare for the Cisco 300-720 exam, you must be equipped with an updated 300-720 dumps. Because the 300-720 dumps are your perfect 300-720 SESA preparation material.

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Cisco 300-720 exam details: 300-720 (SESA) wondering?

Introduction 300-720 (SESA):

Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 300-720 SESA
Exam Title: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
language: English
Cost: $300
This exam tests:
Learning Resources:
1 Cisco Learning Platform
2 Instructor-led training
3 Practice Tests – Pass4itSure 300-720 dumps
4 books

CCNP Security Certification 

To earn the CCNP Security credential, you need to pass two exams: a core exam 350-701 SCOR and an optional security concentration exam. 300-720 is a self-selected security concentration exam, and the necessity of passing it can be imagined.

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Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query
B. Update Frequency
C. Server Priority
D. Entity ID

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Ad


A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be
scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be
assigned to a mail policy named ‘Sales’ that has yet to be created. Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy
B. Preliminary Mail Policy
C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy
D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA


What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject
B. workqueue
C. action
D. delivery
E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA


Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?

A. v=spf1 a mx ip4: -all
B. v=spf1 a mx ip4: -all
C. v=spf1 a mx ip4: -all
D. v=spf1 a mx ip4: -all

Correct Answer: D


A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the
email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.
C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Correct Answer: D


What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering
B. message exceptions
C. message detachment
D. message aggregation

Correct Answer: A


Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the
Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering
B. Connection Reputation Filtering
C. Talos Reputation Filtering
D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A


Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan
B. attachment scanning timeout
C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type
D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-onav/td-p/3923243


Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most
flexible way?

A. Set up the interface group with the flag.
B. Issue the altsrchost command.
C. Map the envelope sender address to the host.
D. Apply a filter on the message.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA


What is a benefit of enabling external SPAM quarantine on Cisco SMA?

A. It provides access to the SPAM quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete.
B. It provides the ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate.
C. It provides the ability to consolidate SPAM quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.
D. It provides the ability to back up SPAM quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.

Correct Answer: C


When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.)

A. redirect
B. return
C. drop
D. delay
E. abandon

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA


Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter
B. antivirus scanning
C. outbreak filter
D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handlemessages-that-skipped-d.html


What is the default behavior of any listener for TLS communication?

A. preferred-verify
B. off
C. preferred
D. required

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118954-config-esa-00.html

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500-560 Dumps [Updated] Valid Cisco 500-560 OCSE Exam Learning Materials

The 500-560 dumps update is the Cisco 500-560 OCSE exam learning materials valid for the Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions exams.

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Abbreviations: 500-560 OCSE
Full name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Number of questions: 45 – 55
Exam language: English
Exam duration: 60 minutes
Associated Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Passing score: 700 (1-1000)
Cisco exam 500-560 topics:
Switching Overview and Features
Routing Overview and Features
Wireless Overview and Features
Meraki Overview and Products
Security Overview and Features
Recommended official resources: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions

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Published latest 500-560 (learning materials) free dumps questions answers:


Which Cisco product is the network management system,foundational controller,and analytics platform all the center of
……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces
B. Cisco Meraki
C. Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Correct Answer: C


What option or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?

A. WebUl
B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center
C. mobile app
D. WebUI or mobile app

Correct Answer: B


What is one charlatanistic differentiating the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?

A. comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
B. instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. centralized single pane of glass for access and management

Correct Answer: D


Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for a small branch and campus deployments up to 200

A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80

Correct Answer: A


Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.
B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.
C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.
D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B


What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)
B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B


Which product is considered part of the Cisco Meraki full stack?

A. UCS servers
B. MR wireless access points
C. Aironet wireless access points
D. Catalyst switches

Correct Answer: B


Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24
B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X
C. MS225-48 and MS350-48
D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B


Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate, and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend

Correct Answer: D


What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A


What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network
up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express
B. Cisco 8540
C. Cisco 3504
D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C


What feature of the Catalyst 2960-L allows customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center
B. on-box web interface for configuration
C. flexible deployments with Stackwise-160
D. complete CLI support

Correct Answer: B


What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s datacenters to be fully HIPAA and PCI compliant?

A. non-existent command line interface
B. controller and server-free design
C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
D. out-of-band control plane

Correct Answer: D

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