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Exam Code: 810-403
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-37)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 6
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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.
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QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
648-244 dumps

QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilization
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
810-403 vce Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which characteristic of the Cisco Internet of Everything has the most impact on business?
A. connecting people for measuring the usage trends of services
B. delivering the services to the right person at the right time
C. leveraging data into more useful information for decision making
D. having physical devices and objects connected to the internet
810-403 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How does a performance measurement help the customer business?
A. Provides feedback on progress towards settled goals.
B. Compliance of certain industries regulations.
C. Help companies monitor its past state.
D. To reward and to discipline employees.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account?
(Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
Which framework is used to plan influential communication when seeking customer support for action?
A. business model canvas
B. principled negotiation
C. seven elements
D. stakeholder analysis matrix
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect benefits of a business outcome? (Choose two.)
A. Lower maintenance contract cost
B. Improved customer satisfaction
C. Lower purchase price of IT assets
D. Faster time to market for new solutions
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 30
Which two options are financial considerations related to determining business outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. Capital Expenditures, Operating Expenses.
B. Internal Return Rate, Discount Rate.
C. Payback, Chargeback.
D. Capital Expenditures, Working Capital.
E. Chargeback, Showback.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 31
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
810-403 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which two dimensions are used in the stakeholder power grid? (Choose two.)
A. Influence/Authority
B. Power/Influence
C. Interest/Empathy
D. Interest/Support
E. Consensus/Support
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
Which option is a difference in the set of questions that Cisco’s approach to outcomes- based sales users
A. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approach answers what capabilities are needed to achieve the solutions.
B. The product approach answers the question of how progress is displayed and correctly communicated, while the outcomes approach answers what the business objectives services must be included in each solution.
C. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approachanswers what the business objectives anddesired outcomes are.
D. The product approach answers the question of what capabilities are needed to deliver product & services, while the outcomes approach gives ananswer towhat the business rules and capabilities are.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Why are customer stakeholders important to the business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Because understandingthe concerns, interests, power, and influence of stakeholders enables successful stakeholder engagement.
B. Because stakeholders consists of partners who are either part of the organization or are external to the organization.
C. Because stakeholder strategy influence business needs and their involvement in a project to change them.
D. Because relevant and potential stakeholders exist across customers’ and sales professionals’ organizational and functional roles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of effective communication with stakeholders? (Choose two.)
A. It allows other strengths to create maximum impact.
B. It lessen the impact of business weakness.
C. It helps mitigate the intrinsic risks with negotiation.
D. It allows effective interaction between stakeholders.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 37
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: DE

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Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 810-403 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Latest Updated Cisco 648-244 Dumps PDF Practice Exam Video Study Q1-Q30

Where can we download the newest 648-244 dumps, 648-244 exam and 648-244 pdf? pass4itsure 648-244 dumps pdf (Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems) is the part of Cisco CCNA R&S certification. Passing Cisco 648-244 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 648-244 dumps Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems course exam.

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Exam Code: 648-244
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems
Q&As: 60

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-244 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this
storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
648-244 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
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QUESTION 23
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QUESTION 24
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QUESTION 26
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QUESTION 30
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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 648-244 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 648-244 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 648-244 dumps test questions.
648-244 dumps

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  • Quality and Value for the 648-244 Dumps
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  • 100% Guarantee to Pass Your 648-244 Dumps
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  • Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual 648-244 Dumps Exams
  • Our Practice Test Questions are backed by our 100% MONEY BACK GUARANTEE.

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[2018 New Updated] Latest Release Cisco 648-232 Dumps PDF APE Practice Exam Video Training Q1-Q39

Where can we download the newest 648-232 dumps, 648-232 exam and 648-232 pdf? pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam (Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation) is the part of Cisco certification. Passing Cisco 648-232 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 648-232 dumps Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation course exam.

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Exam Code: 648-232
Exam Name: Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation
Q&As: 50

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-232 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-39)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
648-232 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 dumps Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 pdf Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 31
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are
offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose
three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 34
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the
contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 38
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support
team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
What are two benefits of downloading WebEx Productivity Tools using the company WebEx site? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies deployment
B. drives usage and adoption
C. promotes virtualization
D. reduces corporate bandwidth usage
648-232 vce Correct Answer: AB

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Real Cisco 300-360 Dumps PDF Real CCNP Wireless Exam Questions Answers With New Discount Youtube Q1-Q19

Where can we download the newest 300-360 dumps, 300-360 exam and 300-360 pdf? pass4itsure 300-360 dumps (Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks) is the part of Cisco CCNP Wireless certification. Passing Cisco 300-360 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 300-360 dumps Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks course exam.

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Exam Code: 300-360
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Q&As: 140

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A downstream packet that contains a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped and the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
C. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants the DSCP marking to align with the 802.11e access category video. What will this marking be?
A. 34
B. AF31
C. 40
D. 56
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside dimension and enter that value.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
While performing a Layer 1 passive wireless site survey of a location an engineer detects several instances of low power frequency hopping interference, but cannot physically locate the interfering device or devices. Why is the engineer unable to locate the offending device or devices?
A. The sources are nearby narrow-beam radar and are sweeping through the facility.
B. The sources are PAN and are mobile.
C. The sources are above the ceiling file and transmit intermittently.
D. The sources are actually high-powered devices and transmit from off the site.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which two types of information must be included in the installation inventory portion of the post-installation report? (Choose two.)
A. all AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. the names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
C. a layout of the rack that the equipment is installed
D. results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
E. the number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
An engineer is configuring an autonomous AP for RADIUS authentication. What two pieces of information must be known to configure the AP? (Choose two.)
A. BVI IP address
B. group name
C. RADIUS IP address
D. PAC encryption key
E. username and password
F. shared secret
300-360 vce Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A cabling contractor is working at a customer facility. The contractor is asking what rating of cable should be installed in return-air areas. Which information can be referenced to provide the contractor the requested information?
A. OSHA Codes
B. BICSI TDDM
C. NEC Ratings
D. IEEE Standards
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
An engineer plugs in a Cisco Aironet 2700 Series Access Point and it is running in low power. Which three power requirements should be verified? (Choose three.)
A. 802.3ac compliant
B. 802.3at compliant
C. AP requires 43 VDC to function in full power.
D. AIR-PWRINJ3 power injector should be used.
E. AP requires 57 VDC to function in full power.
F. AIR-PWRINJ4 power injector should be used.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which three recommendations must be taken into consideration when an engineer is installing a new Voice WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Use the Cisco wireless phone site survey client utility.
B. Use a separate Cisco Wireless Lan Controller.
C. Enable load balance on voice WLANs.
D. Maintain -67dBM as a minimal RSSI.
E. Set data for 2.4 GHz and voice for 5 GHz using separate SSIDs.
F. Enable lower data rates for 2.4-GHz data WLAN.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
A customer wants to implement a wireless network in a historic location, but is concerned about the structural and aesthetic impact to the facility. Which benefit of using wireless mesh addresses these concerns?
A. Power is required only at the installation location.
B. The APs do not have LED lights.
C. More wireless channels can be supported.
D. APs do not need network connections.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing a wireless site survey? (Choose three.)
A. The time required to acquire any additional infrastructure components.
B. The time required to survey each potential AP location.
C. The time required to assess application server locations at the customer facility.
D. The type of wireless survey tools required to perform the site survey.
E. The time required to assess customer WLAN density and throughput requirements.
F. The time required to utilize the design mode in Cisco WCS to prepare a preliminary WLAN design to reduce on-site survey time.
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
300-360 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. optimized power-save mode periods
B. increased call capacity
C. bandwidth reservation
D. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
E. efficient roaming
F. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Unscheduled automatic power-save delivery (U-APSD) is a feature that has two key benefits:
The primary benefit of U-APSD is that it allows the voice client to synchronize the transmission and reception of voice frames with the AP, thereby allowing the client to go into power-save mode between the transmission/reception of each voice frame tuple. The WLAN client frame transmission in the access categories supporting U-APSD triggers the AP to send any data frames queued for that WLAN client in that AC. A U-APSD client remains listening to the AP until it receives a
frame from the AP with an end-of-service period (EOSP) bit set. This tells the client that it can now go back into its power-save mode. This triggering mechanism is considered a more efficient use of client power than the regular listening for beacons method, at a period controlled by the delivery traffic indication map (DTIM) interval, because the latency and jitter requirements of voice are such that a WVoIP client would either not be in power-save mode during a call, resulting in
reduced talk times, or would use a short DTIM interval, resulting in reduced standby times. The use of U-APSD allows the use of long DTIM intervals to maximize standby time without sacrificing call quality. The U-APSD feature can be applied individually across access categories, allowing U-APSD can be applied to the voice ACs in the AP, but the other ACs still use the standard power save feature. The secondary benefit of this feature is increased call capacity. The coupling of
transmission buffered data frames from the AP with the triggering data frame from the WLAN client allows the frames from the AP to be sent without the accompanying interframe spacing and random backoff, thereby reducing the contention experience by call.

QUESTION 17
An engineer is determining the signal levels for the wireless cells. Which signal-to-noise ratio is an optimal configuration to achieve?
A. minimum SNR of -33 dBm
B. minimum SNR of -25 dBm
C. minimum SNR of 25 dB
D. minimum SNR of 33 dB
300-360 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
A hospital environment was designed to guarantee RF coverage at or better than -67 dBm in the 5 GHz spectrum. The customer mandates that RRM be used for DCA and TPC in both bands. After deployment, why do many of the legacy 802.11b/g devices have difficulty maintaining connectivity?
A. Excessive co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
B. Excessive overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
C. TPC drastically reduces Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
D. TCP drastically increases Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
An engineer installed a 3702 AP and is getting power from the switch. What is the reason for getting 3×3 MIMO instead of 4×4?
A. 802.1p
B. 802.3af
C. 802.11e
D. 802.3at
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 300-360 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 300-360 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 300-360 dumps test questions.
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[2018 New Updated] Most Popular Cisco 300-209 Dumps PDF CCNP Security Real Exam Video Questions Answers With Low Price Q26-Q48

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Q&As: 271

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Q&As(26-48)

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose two )
A. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Acid NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP redirects on the spoke.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
When an IPsec SVTI is configured, which technology processes traffic forwarding for encryption?
A. ACL
B. IP routing
C. RRI
D. front door VPN routing and forwarding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
300-209 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 35
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session.
Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
An administrator is adding IPv6 addressing to an already functioning tunnel. The administrator is unable to ping 2001:DB8:100::2 but can ping 209.165.200.226. Which configuration needs to be added or changed?
A. No configuration change is necessary. Everything is working correctly.
B. OSPFv3 needs to be configured on the interface.
C. NHRP needs to be configured to provide NBMA mapping.
D. Tunnel mode needs to be changed to GRE IPv4.
E. Tunnel mode needs to be changed to GRE IPv6.
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 37
Which technology supports tunnel interfaces while remaining compatible with legacy VPN implementations?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
You are troubleshooting a site-to-site VPN issue where the tunnel is not establishing. After issuing the debug crypto ipsec command on the headend router, you
see the following output.
What does this output suggest?
1d00h: IPSec (validate_proposal): transform proposal
(port 3, trans 2, hmac_alg 2) not supported
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) : atts not acceptable. Next payload is 0
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) SA not acceptable
A. Phase 1 policy does not match on both sides.
B. The Phase 2 transform set does not match on both sides.
C. ISAKMP is not enabled on the remote peer.
D. The crypto map is not applied on the remote peer.
E. The Phase 1 transform set does not match on both sides.
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; Logging andgt; E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; E-Mail Setup andgt; Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. SHA-256
D. SHA-384
300-209 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the
ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelall split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel
network-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of
device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE
configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network?
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-512
B. SHA-256
C. SHA-192
D. SHA-380
E. SHA-192
F. SHA-196
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 48
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B

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Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 300-209 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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[2018 New Updated] Free Cisco 300-208 Dumps PDF CCNP Security Exam Questions For Download Q1-Q35

Where can we download the newest 300-208 dumps, 300-208 exam and 300-208 pdf? pass4itsure 300-208 dumps pdf (Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions) is the part of Cisco CCNP Security certification. Passing Cisco 300-208 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 300-208 dumps Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions course exam.

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q&As: 310

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which RADIUS attribute can be used to dynamically assign the Inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE
node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. session-timeout attribute
D. termination-action attribute
300-208 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web
authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which command defines administrator CLI access in ACS5.x?
A. Application reset-passwd acs username
B. username username password password role admin
C. username username password plain password role admin
D. password-policy
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two possible reasons why a scheduled nightly backup of ISE to a FTP repository would fail? (Choose two.)
A. ISE attempted to write the backup to an invalid path on the FTP server.
B. The ISE and FTP server clocks are out of sync.
C. The username and password for the FTP server are invalid.
D. The server key is invalid or misconfigured.
E. TCP port 69 is disabled on the FTP server.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which model does Cisco support in a RADIUS change of authorization implementation?
A. push
B. pull
C. policy
D. security
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
300-208 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user is on a wired connection and the posture status is noncompliant. Which state will their EPS session be placed in?
A. disconnected
B. limited
C. no access
D. quarantined
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are the initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B.
1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security andgt; Administration andgt; New.
3.Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D.
1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. Windows Server Update Services Remediation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have configured a Cisco ISE 1.2 deployment for self-registration of guest users. What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins? (Choose two.)
A. CreateTime
B. FirstLogin
C. BeginLogin
D. StartTime
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which type of access list is the most scalable that Cisco ISE can use to implement network authorization enforcement for a large number of users?
A. downloadable access lists
B. named access lists
C. VLAN access lists
D. MAC address access lists
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An organization has recently deployed ISE with Trustsec capable Cisco switches and would like to allow differentiated network access based on user groups. Which solution is most suitable for achieving these goals?
A. Cyber Threat Defense for user group control by leveraging Netflow exported from the Cisco switches and identity information from ISE
B. MACsec in Multiple-Host Mode in order to encrypt traffic at each hop of the network infrastructure
C. Identity-based ACLs preconfigured on the Cisco switches with user identities provided by ISE
D. Cisco Security Group Access Policies to control access based on SGTs assigned to different user groups
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown
B. Compliant
C. FailOpen
D. FailClose
E. Noncompliant
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 15
Which command would be used in order to maintain a single open connection between a network access device and a tacacs server?
A. tacacs-server host timeout
B. tacacs-server host single-connection
C. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt;
D. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt; single-connection
300-208 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which statement about system time and NTP server configuration with Cisco ISE is true?
A. The system time and NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE.
B. The system time can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
C. NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but the system time must be configured individually on each ISE node.
D. The system time and NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which valid external identity source can be used with Cisco ISE?
A. IPsec vpn authentication
B. smart card
C. local user name and password
D. TACACS+ token
300-208 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which functionality does the Cisco ISE self-provisioning flow provide?
A. It provides support for native supplicants, allowing users to connect devices directly to the network.
B. It provides the My Devices portal, allowing users to add devices to the network.
C. It provides support for users to install the Cisco NAC agent on enterprise devices.
D. It provides self-registration functionality to allow guest users to access the network.
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
In a basic ACS deployment consisting of two servers, for which three tasks is the primary server responsible? (Choose three.)
A. configuration
B. authentication
C. sensing
D. policy requirements
E. monitoring
F. repudiation
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
During client provisioning on a Mac OS X system, the client system fails to renew its IP address. Which change can you make to the agent profile to correct the problem?
A. Enable the Agent IP Refresh feature.
B. Enable the Enable VLAN Detect Without UI feature.
C. Enable CRL checking.
D. Edit the Discovery Host parameter to use an IP address instead of an FQDN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network administrator has just added a front desk receptionist account to the Cisco ISE Guest Service sponsor group. Using the Cisco ISE Guest Sponsor Portal, which guest services can the receptionist provide?
A. Authenticate guest users to Cisco ISE.
B. Keep track of guest user activities.
C. Create and manage guest user accounts.
D. Configure authorization setting for guest users.
300-208 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which two profile attributes can be collected by a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller that supports Device Sensor? (Choose two.)
A. LLDP agent information
B. user agent
C. DHCP options
D. open ports
E. CDP agent information
F. FQDN
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. monitor mode
B. high-security mode
C. closed mode
D. low-impact mode
300-208 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Where is dynamic SGT classification configured?
A. Cisco ISE
B. NAD
C. supplicant
D. RADIUS proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
By default, how many days does Cisco ISE wait before it purges the expired guest accounts?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command on the switch ensures that the Service-Type attribute is sent with all RADIUS authentication request?
A. radius-server attribute 8 include-in-access-req
B. radius-server attribute 25 access-request include
C. radius-server attribute 6 on-for-login-auth
D. radius-server attribute 31 send nas-port-detail
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
A network administrator is seeing a posture status andquot;unknownandquot; for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as andquot;compliantandquot;. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as andquot;unknownandquot;?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
300-208 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps
Which two things must be verified if authentication is failing with this error message? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ISE EAP identity certificate is valid.
B. CA cert chain of Cisco ISE EAP certificate is installed on the trusted certs store of the client machine.
C. CA cert chain of the client certificate is installed on Cisco ISE.
D. Cisco ISE HTTPS/admin certificate is valid.
E. Cisco ISE server certificate is installed on the client.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
Which two Active Directory authentication methods are supported by Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. PEAP
C. PPTP
D. EAP-PEAP
E. PPP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. EAP-MD5
D. LEAP
E. EAP-FAST
F. MSCHAPv2
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: AB

Do you maintain 100% Guarantee on Pass4itsure.com products?

Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 300-208 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 300-208 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 300-208 dumps test questions.
300-208 dumps

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  • Quality and Value for the 300-208 Dumps
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  • 100% Guarantee to Pass Your 300-208 Dumps
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  • Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual 300-208 Dumps Exams
  • Our Practice Test Questions are backed by our 100% MONEY BACK GUARANTEE.

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Exam Code: 74-409
Exam Name: Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-8)

QUESTION 1
A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
74-409 dumps
You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you do?
A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.
C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.
D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).
74-409 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Requirements
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed. ?A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group.
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations. ?SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.

QUESTION 2
A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:
The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.
You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?
A. Enable the Guest services integration service.
B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.
C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.
D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V?
A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

QUESTION 3
A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time
highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time
highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
74-409 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server.You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs.
B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs.
C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs.
D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
What is SR-IOV
Requires support in network adapter
Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines
Increases network throughput
Reduces network latency
Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server
Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch
Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used

QUESTION 5
You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability.
You need to deploy the VMs. What should you do?
A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value.
B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network.
C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs).
D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set.
74-409 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2. Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates.
What should you do?
A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).
B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection.
Deploy updates to the collection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:
?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode
?Moves the clustered roles off the node
?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
?Performs a restart if necessary
?Brings the node out of maintenance mode
?Restores the clustered roles on the node
?Moves to update the next node
For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case
of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 7
An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper- V host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2. The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the Hyper-V host servers.
You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host servers in the cluster.
B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection.
C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft Update.
74-409 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
Performs a restart if necessary
Brings the node out of maintenance mode
Restores the clustered roles on the node
Moves to update the next nodeFor many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 8
Your environment contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. All domain controllers are virtualized domain controllers.
You design a disaster recovery strategy. You have the following requirements:
The domain controllers can be recovered in the event that a Hyper-V host server fails.
The AD DS domain must be restorable to a consistent state.
You must minimize the data loss. You need to ensure that the domain controllers can be recovered in the event of a failure. What should you do?
A. Clone the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role to a different Hyper-V host server. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to run the Checkpoint- VM cmdlet on each virtual domain controller.
B. Run Windows Azure Hyper-V Recovery Manager.
C. On each guest operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
D. On the host operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
E. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to back up each domain controller’s virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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[2018 New Updated] Best Quality Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Microsoft Project Exam Qs&As With 100% Pass Rate Youtube (Question 1 – Question 12)

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Exam Code: 74-343
Exam Name: Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do?
A. Add a Material Resource named architect.
B. Add a Budget Resource named architect.
C. Add a Work Resource named architect,
D. Add a Cost Resource named architect.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to
display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
74-343 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner. What should you do?
A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013.
B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button.
C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013.
D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are a resource manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage all of your resources in a single plan, which acts as a Shared Resource Pool for other projects in your organization. Each resource needs to pass an annual exam in order to work on construction sites. You need to set up a method that allows you to pick the renewal month for each resource. What should you do?
A. Rename the Resource Text1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Enter the month when the exam expires. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
B. Use the Organizer to copy the Resource Finish1 Custom field from the Global.mpt. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
C. Rename the Resource Date1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with values containing the last date of each month. Select the correct expiration date for each exam.
D. Rename the Resource Month1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with monthly values. Select the correct expiration month for each exam.
E. Rename the Resource Flag1 Custom field to Exam Expired Date. Enter the expiration dates into a Lookup table. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
74-343 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013, and your task list includes a flag field that indicates, with Yes or No, if a non-summary task represents a physical deliverable. Your project involves several tasks marked as deliverables, and management requires you to track how many deliverables are completed. The deliverable is considered completed when the Percent complete field is 100%. You need to create a formula to calculate the total number of deliverables that are completed. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,1,0).
B. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Sum.
C. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,0,1).
D. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Count All.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do?
A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task.
B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time.
C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure.
D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You manage a project by using Project Standard 2013. You need to use the Baseline2 fields to calculate Variance at Completion (VAC). You have already set Baseline2. What should you do?
A. Enter physical percent complete for the tasks that have actual values. Set the Baseline to the Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
B. Change the Earned Value method to Baseline2 in the Task Information Form.
Enter tracking data, and view the VAC on the Earned Value table.
C. Change the Baseline for Earned Value calculation option to Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
D. Go to the Earned Value table and insert the Baseline2 column. Recalculate the project.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. When viewing the critical path, you notice that there are some inconsistencies. To investigate the status of the critical path, you insert the Total Slack column into a task table. You discover that many of the tasks have negative Total Slack values. You need to resolve the negative Total Slack values. What should you do?
A. Remove lag time from task relationships.
B. Remove as many constraints as possible.
C. Re-assign resources that have more availability at the time of the negative slack.
D. Remove lead time from the task relationships.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. The work variance for a task is 48 hours. The remaining work is 25 hours. The work for this task has been completed. You need the work variance to be adjusted to reflect what has occurred during the performance of the task. What should you do?
A. Adjust the value in the Baseline Work column.
B. Enter a 0 in the remaining Duration column.
C. Adjust the value in the Work Variance column.
D. Mark the task inactive.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 74-343 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 74-343 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

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[2018 New Updated] 100% Success Rate EC-COUNCIL 712-50 Dumps Exam Qs&As Video With Accurate Answers (Question 1 – Question 26)

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Exam Code: 712-50
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO)
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate EC-COUNCIL 712-50 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-26)

QUESTION 1
When dealing with risk, the information security practitioner may choose to:
A. assign
B. transfer
C. acknowledge
D. defer
712-50 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?
A. Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost
B. Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs
C. Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair
D. Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST
answer):
A. low risk-tolerance
B. high risk-tolerance
C. moderate risk-tolerance
D. medium-high risk-tolerance
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?
A. Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated
B. Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level
C. Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology
D. Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?
A. Upper management support
B. More frequent project milestone meetings
C. Stakeholder support
D. Extend work hours
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design
and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called
A. Security certification
B. Security system analysis
C. Security accreditation
D. Alignment with business practices and goals.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When managing the security architecture for your company you must consider:
A. Security and IT Staff size
B. Company Values
C. Budget
D. All of the above
712-50 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a term related to risk management that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is
expected to transpire?
A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
B. Exposure Factor (EF)
C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. Temporal Probability (TP)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?
A. Chief Information Security Officer
B. Chief Executive Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Chief Legal Counsel
712-50 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN. What type of control is being implemented by supervisors and data owners?
A. Management
B. Operational
C. Technical
D. Administrative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don\’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
A. Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert
B. Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better
C. Request additional resources to handle the workload
D. Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Within an organization\’s vulnerability management program, who has the responsibility to implement remediation actions?
A. Security officer
B. Data owner
C. Vulnerability engineer
D. System administrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates. When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:
A. Easiest regulation or standard to implement
B. Stricter regulation or standard
C. Most complex standard to implement
D. Recommendations of your Legal Staff
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When dealing with Security Incident Response procedures, which of the following steps come FIRST when reacting to an incident?
A. Escalation
B. Recovery
C. Eradication
D. Containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?
A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Attack vector
D. Exploitation
712-50 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?
A. To estimate risk and negate liability to the company
B. To understand the attack vectors and attack sources
C. To communicate risk and forecast resource needs
D. To forecast usage and cost per software licensing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
An organization is required to implement background checks on all employees with access to databases containing credit card information. This is considered a security
A. Procedural control
B. Management control
C. Technical control
D. Administrative control
712-50 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.
An effective way to evaluate the effectiveness of an information security awareness program for end users, especially senior executives, is to conduct periodic:
A. Controlled spear phishing campaigns
B. Password changes
C. Baselining of computer systems
D. Scanning for viruses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:
A. ` o 1=1 –
B. /../../../../
C. andquot;DROPTABLE USERNAMEandquot;
D. NOPS
712-50 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When measuring the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System which one of the following would be MOST LIKELY used as a metric framework?
A. ISO 27001
B. PRINCE2
C. ISO 27004
D. ITILv3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?
A. Determine the risk tolerance
B. Perform an asset classification
C. Create an architecture gap analysis
D. Analyze existing controls on systems
712-50 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The risk found after a control has been fully implemented is called:
A. Residual Risk
B. Total Risk
C. Post implementation risk
D. Transferred risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified. The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?
A. Validate the effectiveness of applied controls
B. Validate security program resource requirements
C. Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders
D. Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings
712-50 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN. Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage
their bank information?
A. Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country
B. Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity
C. Force a change of all passwords
D. Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following BEST describes an international standard framework that is based on the security model Information Technology–Code of Practice for Information Security Management?
A. International Organization for Standardization 27001
B. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-12
C. Request For Comment 2196
D. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-26
712-50 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?
A. Lack of asset management processes
B. Lack of change management processes
C. Lack of hardening standards
D. Lack of proper access controls
Correct Answer: B

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Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 712-50 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-29)

QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11. What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 12. Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13. Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 14. Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
Answer: D

QUESTION 15. If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 16. When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%).
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

QUESTION 17. In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
210-060 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 18. During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

QUESTION 19. The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 20. If Committed Access is being used, which statements are true?
A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits.
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction.
C. It retains Write locks on all affected blocks until the transaction commits.
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 21. Within Database | Statistics, what does block density indicate?
A. the actual number of blocks existing within the database
B. the average percentage of data cells within each block that contain data
C. the maximum possible number of blocks that could exist for this database
D. the percentage of blocks that exist compared to the total potential number of blocks
210-060 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 22. What would defragment defrag a fragmented database?
A. adding a dense member to the outline
B. adding a sparse member to the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc and Store
Answer: A

QUESTION 23. What would cause fragmentation in a database?
A. deleting a dense member from the outline
B. deleting a sparse member from the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc (Non-Store)
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24. The stored members in the dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded. Which statement is true about Database B?
A. The index would be half as large as Database A.
B. Half the number of blocks exist as in Database A.
C. Block density is reduced by 50% from Database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks would fit in the Data Cache as in Database A.
Answer: C

QUESTION 25. If you have a production database named Sales, which files should be backed up to perform a complete system backup?
A. sales.db
B. sales.otn
C. essbase.sec
D. ess00001.ind
210-060 exam Answer: ACD

QUESTION 26. An application on a test server is ready to be put into production. The production server already has three applications. What should you do to move the application from development to production?
A. Use the Application | Copy command.
B. Export data from the development application.
C. Copy the Essbase.sec file from development to production.
D. Copy the application directories from development to production.
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. What does the setting NETDELAY 500 represent?
A. the number of times the network will retry a connection before failing and reporting an error
B. the amount of time in seconds allowed to a Named Pipes network to establish a connection to your server
C. the amount of time in milliseconds an unsuccessful operation waits before Essbase retries the operation
D. the number of seconds an Agent thread waits for a resource to become available so it can perform a specific action
210-060 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 28. Which file descriptions are correct?
A. basic.otl contains the outline
B. ess00001.ind stores data blocks
C. basic.esm is a storage manager file
D. basic.mdb is a partition definition file
E. ess00001.pag stores the database index
Answer: AC

QUESTION 29. What occurs upon execution of DISABLELOGIN in ESSCMD?
A. All server logins are disabled.
B. Logins to a specific database are disabled.
C.Logins to a specific application are disabled.
D. It logs out any users currently on a specific database.
210-060 pdf Answer: C

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Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 210-060 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. With the learning information and guidance of Pass4itsure, you can through Cisco 210-060 practice questions the first time. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. Pass4itsure can provide you a pertinence training and high quality exercises, which is your best preparation for your first time to attend Cisco certification 210-060 dumps exam.  Pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-060.html dumps test questions.

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  • 210-060 Dumps Practice Test Questions accompanied by exhibits
  • Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual 210-060 Dumps Exams
  • Our Practice Test Questions are backed by our 100% MONEY BACK GUARANTEE.

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