700-805 CRM Dumps 2023 – New Exam Preparation Materials

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The 700-805 CRM exam is a 60-minute assessment of Cisco Renewals Manager to demonstrate their knowledge of customer experience (CX) concepts and tools covered in the Renewals Manager course learning map.

The 700-805 exam costs $300. Languages are available in English and Japanese.

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Cisco 700-805 free dumps 2023 questions:

QUESTION 1

What does TPV mean?

A. Total Product Value
B. Total Partner View
C. Telepresence Value
D. Total Partner Value

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which statement best summarizes the intended outcome of the Success Plan?

A. development of a customer-centric view for achieving value from their portfolio
B. provide scheduling for resolving customer qual y issues
C. generate financial data that indicates a customer\\’s propensity to renew
D. grow incremental annual recurring revenue

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

What is the primary customer value of the Cisco Services Portfolio?

A. Services priced based on usage
B. Services packages tailored to specific customer needs
C. Customers can develop their own service offerings
D. On-call, 24/7 service technicians at all levels

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

During which activity of the renewal process would an RM provide an appropriate co-termination timeframe and gain
required internal approvals?

A. deal strategy
B. billing
C. proposal build
D. quote delivery

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which task is the responsibility of the Renewals Manager?
A. billing recurring revenue contracts
B. managing recurring revenue risk
C. driving adoption of specific technologies
D. managing the Success Plan

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which licensing model is the most complex for a customer to manage?

A. Managed service agreement
B. Subscription
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. A La Carte

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

What is the main purpose of CCW-R?

A. to factor customer ATR, up-sell, and attrition
B. to allow customers and partners to download renewal data
C. to allow customers and partners to store new software subscriptions and service contracts from one tool
D. to capture partner and customer billing preferences

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

How does Cisco define Business Critical Services?
A. subscription-based services covering the lifecycle of a technology
B. Pay-as-you-go, services covering business-critical functions
C. hardware replacement
D. Pay-as-you-go, technology-based services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Customer A purchased a one-year WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. Customer B purchases a three-year
WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. What is the annual recurring revenue (ARR) for each?

A. $1000 and $3000
B. $1100 and $3300
C. $1000 and $1000
D. $3000 and $3000

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which is the first step in a solutions-led sales approach?

A. present quote to the customer
B. examine previous purchases
C. identify the latest technology release
D. understand the customer\\’s objectives

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which statement best describes an Ask the Expert session?

A. A pre-recorded webinar from an expert
B. A hosted an educational webinar with live expert Q and A
C. A 24-7 phone line providing expert advice
D. A one-on-one coaching engagement covering specific use cases

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which service offering helps define the customer\\’s IT vision and strategy?

A. Support
B. Advisory
C. Optimization
D. Training

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

When renewing a contract with a customer, which action is important?

A. Start discussions once the contract has expired.
B. Validate customers’ business needs.
C. Do not offer any financing solutions.
D. Propose only the most important part of the solution.

Correct Answer: A

One last word:

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350-401 Dumps (r 9.27) Brand-New 350-401 ECOR Exam Preparation Materials

Use our 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) to prepare for the Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam. Our new 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) contains 866 practice questions and answers to ensure you’re ready.

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350-401 ECOR Preparation Materials

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The 350-401 exam is also known as the 350-401 ENCOR. It requires you to answer 100 ± questions in two hours and get 750-850 out of 1000 points to pass. It costs $400 to take the exam.

Passing the 350-401 exam is closely linked to the following certifications:

  • CCNP Enterprise (CCNP Enterprise Core Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Qualifying Exam)
  • CCIE Enterprise Wireless (CCIE Enterprise Wireless Qualifying Exam)

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  • Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • ENCOR training videos
  • ENCOR study materials

……

There are more, welcome to add.

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Or read the online 350-401 exam questions directly below.

Cisco 350-401 Free Dumps: New 350-401 ENCOR Questions Test:

NEW QUESTION 1

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A. a predetermined string that is passed from client to server
B. a one-time encrypted token
C. a username that is stored in the local router database
D. a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Correct Answer: A

In REST API Security – API keys are widely used in the industry and became some sort of standard, however, this
the method should not be considered a good security measure.

API Keys were created as somewhat of a fix to the early authentication issues of HTTP Basic Authentication and other
such systems. In this method, a unique generated value is assigned to each first-time user, signifying that the user is
known. When the user attempts to re-enter the system, their unique key (sometimes generated from their hardware
combination and IP data, and other times randomly generated by the server which knows them) is used to prove that
they’re the same user as before.

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/4-most-used-rest-api-authentication-methods/

NEW QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.



An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo\\’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30
seconds and continue until stopped?

A. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life forever
B. IP SLA schedule 30 start-time now life forever
C. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life 30
D. IP SLA schedule 100 life forever

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

A. VXLAN
B. IS-IS
C. 802 1Q
D. CTS

Correct Answer: C

SD-Access Extended Nodes provide the ability to extend the enterprise network by providing connectivity to non-carpeted spaces of an enterprise – commonly called the Extended Enterprise. This allows network connectivity and management of IoT devices and the deployment of traditional enterprise end devices in outdoor and non-carpeted environments such as distribution centers, warehouses, or Campus parking lots.

This feature extends consistent, policy-based automation to Cisco Industrial Ethernet, Catalyst 3560-CX Compact, and
Digital Building Series switches and enables segmentation for user endpoints and IoT devices connected to these
nodes.

Using Cisco DNA Center automation, switches in the extended node role are onboarded to their connected edge node
using an 802.1Q trunk over an EtherChannel with one or multiple physical link members. Extended nodes are
discovered using zero-touch Plug-and-Play.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-designguide.html#Network_Components

NEW QUESTION 4

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address 50
IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
B. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast route-map ACL-to-red
C. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.256 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
D. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.265 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address acl-to-red IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast ACL-to-red

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS authentication queries the router`s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:
Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm
Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C
B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.
C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.
D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A
E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “Tommy” under normal operation?

A. Cisco
B. local
C. 0 Cisco
D. Tommy

Correct Answer: A

In this question, there are two different passwords for user “Tommy”:
+
In the TACACS+ server, the password is “Tommy”
+
In the local database of the router, the password is “Cisco”.
From the line “login authentication local” we know that the router uses the local database for authentication so the
password should be “Cisco”.
Note: “… password 0 …” here means unencrypted password.

NEW QUESTION 10

In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database?

A. fabric border node
B. fabric edge node
C. fabric wireless controller
D. control plane node

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

NEW QUESTION 13

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node.

Correct Answer: A

SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node Closer Look Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map
Server / Resolver Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+
A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)
+
Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID (EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128*, or MAC/48
+
Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+
Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+
Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility, and RLOC information

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/latam/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf

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Cisco 300-425 Exam Dumps Publishes | The Most Powerful 300-425 ENWLSD Learn Materials

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What do you think of the Cisco CCNP 300-425 exam?

Abbreviation: 300-425 ENWLSD
Full Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
Exam time: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Cost: $300
Certification: CCNP Enterprise (Prove your skills with Enterprise networking solutions)
Other:
To earn CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to pass two exams: a core exam (350-401 ENCOR) and an enterprise concentration exam of your choice (one of six). The 300-425 exam happens to be one of the concentrated exams.

There are 6 enterprise concentration exams you need to know:

The above are the basic knowledge points of the exam, you need to know.

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) exam learn resources:

The official ones are:
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)

Powerful study material: Pass4itSure 300-425 exam dumps

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Download the Pass4itSure 300-425 exam dumps (learn material)
Practice all the questions in the 300-425 dumps
Take the ENWLSD exam 300-425
Finally, you will be notified that you succeeded

[2022.7] Newly released 300-425 free exam questions:

QUESTION # 1

An engineer performs a Layer 1 survey by using the Metegeek analyzer only on the current operating channel. Which
the operating mode is configured for a Cisco CleanAir AP?

A. Local
B. Sniffer
C. Monitor
D. SE-connect

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

QUESTION # 2

An engineer Is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise
wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer
deploy?

A. N+1 solution without SS0
B. N+1 with SSO
C. N+N solution without SSO
D. N+N with SSO

Correct Answer: B

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/hi_avail/N1_High_Availability_Deploy
ment_Guide/N1_HA_Overview.html?

QUESTION # 3

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design
to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

A. RRM
B. Cisco centralized key management
C. Band select
D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 4

An engineer changed the TPC Power Threshold for wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The
engineer conducts a new post-deployment Survey to validate the results What is the expected outcome?

A. Increase cell size
B. Decreased client signal strength
C. Increased received sensitivity
D. Decreased channel overlap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 5

During a post-deployment site Survey, issues are found with non-wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to
identify the source of the Interference?

A. Network analysis module
B. Wireless intrusion prevention
C. Wireshark
D. Cisco spectrum expert

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 6

A customer called with a requirement that internal clients must be on different subnets depending on the building they
are in, AH access points are operating in local mode and will not be modified, and this is a single controller solution.
Which design approach creates the desired result?

A. Create an SSID, place it to the desired VLAN under WLANs, and configure 802 lx in ISE to assign the correct VLAN
based on the SSID from which the client is authenticating.
B. Create FlexConnecI groups, place the access points in. and set the correct VLAN to SSID mapping based on
location.
C. Create AP groups for each desired location, map the correct VLANs to the internal SSID and add the access points
for that location.
D. Create mobility anchors for the SSID, and on the controller under the internal SSID. create a foreign map to the
desired VLAN based on location.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 7

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues between two WLCs running 8.x code in SSO mode and finds
that the redundancy management heartbeat is failing. Which packet type must be filtered for heartbeats when taking a
capture to verify communication?

A. RSTP
B. UDP
C. TOP
D. ICMP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 8

Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room?

A. X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band.
B. X-rays impact the 802,11a UNll-2 channels that cause access points to dynamically change channels.
C. X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues.
D. X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 9

Which CLI command does an engineer use to validate that the redundancy peer of a Stateful Switchover pair of
controllers are up and connected?

A. rping
B. ping
C. eping
D. mping

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

QUESTION # 10

A network engineer is working on a predictive WLAN design, the new wireless network must support access to the Internet,
email, voice, and the inventory database, to successfully support these services, which configuration must the engineer
use for the signal strength levels and SNR on the planning tool?

A. signal strength of 67 dBm, 25-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
B. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 5 percent, packet loss.
C. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
D. signal strength of 70 dBm,30-dB SNR., and maximum 10 percent packet loss.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057site-survey-guidelineswlan-00.html

QUESTION # 11

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network for a warehouse using access points with internal antennas. Which
two elements have a negative effect on wireless users? (Choose two.)

A. wireless channels
B. access point height
C. client authentication
D. client authorization
E. absorption

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1250-series/design_guide_c07-693245.ht
ml#_Toc309331086

QUESTION # 12

An engineer has successfully configured high availability and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. The
engineer can access the Active Primary WLC, but the Secondary Standby WLC is not accessible. Which two methods
allow access to the standby unit? (Choose two.)

A. via the console connection
B. SSH to the redundancy management interface of the primary WLC
C. SSH to the service port interface
D. SSH to the virtual interface of the secondary WLC
E. SSH to the management interface of the primary WLC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference:

QUESTION # 13

A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperloctation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom
mobile app Issues appeared in the past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet
these requirements?

A. Cisco CMX SDK in the location app
B. redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion.
C. device Bluetooth via the app
D. Cisco FastLocate technology

Correct Answer: D

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For those preparing for the Cisco 300-920 exam, the first thing to do is to look for reliable Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX study materials to prepare for the exam. Here are the reliable Cisco 300-920 exam dumps you want, up to date.

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Which ones do you have to master? Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX exam?

Abbreviation: 300-920 DEVWBX
Full Name: Develop Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Test language: English
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Cost: $300
Relevant certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Topics:
Webex API Fundamentals, Webex Meetings, Webex Devices, Messaging, Embedding Webex, and Management and Compliance
Recommended Official Resource: Developing Apps for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Recommended study material: Pass4itSure 300-920 Exam Dumps

To earn the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional certification, you will need to pass two exams, one Core Exam (350-901 DEVCOR) and the Software Developer Intensive Exam of your choice (300-435 ENAUTO, 300-835 CLAUTO, 300-535 SPAUTO, 300-735 SAUTO, 300-910 DEVOPS, 300-920 DEVWBX). The 300-920 DEVWBX is one of them and the subject we’re talking about today, so you have to get through successfully.

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New 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions released [2022.6]:

QUESTION # 1

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.
B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.
C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.
D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

QUESTION # 2

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the expressions to create a Webex Teams widget that uses Guest Issuer to enable customers to chat
and meet with agents. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 3

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses Webex Teams extensively for communications involving customers and wants to
enforce a consistent messaging policy. Which code completes line 20 to send a notification when non-compliant
messages are detected?

A. events?resource=people
B. compliance?resource=messages
C. events?resource=messages
D. compliance?resource=people

Correct Answer: C
The function is to get messages. Then a request is made so they get to come into action and does
events?Resource=messages to get the data for the events.

QUESTION # 4

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on
the right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION # 5

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to construct the JavaScript to create a new meeting with the Webex Meetings
XML API. Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 6

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401
B. 403
C. 429
D. 501

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

QUESTION # 7

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over
a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.
B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.
C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.
D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.
E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boardscustomization-guide-ce98.pdf

QUESTION # 8

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording
file download links?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 9

Which two statements are true when comparing the SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces of a Cisco Collaboration
device? (Choose two.)

A. The SSH interface supports XML payloads only.
B. The SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces support JSON and XML payloads.
C. The HTTP interface supports JSON and XML payloads.
D. Communications can be encrypted for all SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces.
E. The WebSocket interface supports JSON payloads only.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION # 10

DRAG-DROP
The Express framework receives a Webex Teams webhook event when someone presses a button in an Adaptive
Card. Drag and drop the property names onto the code snippet to access the form field named “preference”. Not all
options are used.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://github.com/marchfederico/ciscospark-websocket-events

QUESTION # 11

Which list of API calls must be made to provision 50 new Webex Room devices for an organization?

A. POST to /places with `displayName\\’, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/
B. POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/activationCode
C. POST to /licenses, POST the returned `licneseId\\’ and a specified `displayName\\’ to /devices
D. POST to /licenses, POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST `licensed\\’ and placeId\\’ to /devices

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/devices/list-devices

QUESTION # 12

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the expressions from the right onto the Webex JavaScript SDK code on the left to create a Webex
Teams space, add a person to the space, and send a welcome message. Not all expressions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 13

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an
organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.
B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.
C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\\’s “” value to “TRUE”.
D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.
E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-TeamsSecurity-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

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300-720 Dumps [Updated] Perfect Cisco 300-720 SESA Preparation Material

When you prepare for the Cisco 300-720 exam, you must be equipped with an updated 300-720 dumps. Because the 300-720 dumps are your perfect 300-720 SESA preparation material.

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Cisco 300-720 exam details: 300-720 (SESA) wondering?

Introduction 300-720 (SESA):

Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 300-720 SESA
Exam Title: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
language: English
Cost: $300
This exam tests:
Learning Resources:
1 Cisco Learning Platform
2 Instructor-led training
3 Practice Tests – Pass4itSure 300-720 dumps
4 books

CCNP Security Certification 

To earn the CCNP Security credential, you need to pass two exams: a core exam 350-701 SCOR and an optional security concentration exam. 300-720 is a self-selected security concentration exam, and the necessity of passing it can be imagined.

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Where can I find the 300-720 exam questions? Share your 300-720 free dumps some exam questions below:

QUESTION # 1

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query
B. Update Frequency
C. Server Priority
D. Entity ID

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Ad
min_Guide_11_5/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION # 2

A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be
scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be
assigned to a mail policy named ‘Sales’ that has yet to be created. Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy
B. Preliminary Mail Policy
C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy
D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html#task_1409483

QUESTION # 3

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject
B. workqueue
C. action
D. delivery
E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_12_1_chapter_011.pdf
(p.1)

QUESTION # 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?

A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all
B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all
C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all
D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 5

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the
email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.
C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 6

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering
B. message exceptions
C. message detachment
D. message aggregation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 7

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the
Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering
B. Connection Reputation Filtering
C. Talos Reputation Filtering
D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan
B. attachment scanning timeout
C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type
D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-onav/td-p/3923243

QUESTION # 9

Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most
flexible way?

A. Set up the interface group with the flag.
B. Issue the altsrchost command.
C. Map the envelope sender address to the host.
D. Apply a filter on the message.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html#con_1133810

QUESTION # 10

What is a benefit of enabling external SPAM quarantine on Cisco SMA?

A. It provides access to the SPAM quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete.
B. It provides the ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate.
C. It provides the ability to consolidate SPAM quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.
D. It provides the ability to back up SPAM quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 11

When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.)

A. redirect
B. return
C. drop
D. delay
E. abandon

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION # 12

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter
B. antivirus scanning
C. outbreak filter
D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handlemessages-that-skipped-d.html

QUESTION # 13

What is the default behavior of any listener for TLS communication?

A. preferred-verify
B. off
C. preferred
D. required

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118954-config-esa-00.html

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500-560 Dumps [Updated] Valid Cisco 500-560 OCSE Exam Learning Materials

The 500-560 dumps update is the Cisco 500-560 OCSE exam learning materials valid for the Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions exams.

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Need help passing the Cisco 500-560 OCSE exam? help?

Yes, with help, you will have fewer detours. Below I’ll summarize the basics of the Cisco 500-560 exam and some caveats.

Abbreviations: 500-560 OCSE
Full name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Number of questions: 45 – 55
Exam language: English
Exam duration: 60 minutes
Associated Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Passing score: 700 (1-1000)
Cisco exam 500-560 topics:
Switching Overview and Features
Routing Overview and Features
Wireless Overview and Features
Meraki Overview and Products
Security Overview and Features
Recommended official resources: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions

Points to note 1. Arrange your exam reasonably 2. Be sure to understand the exam policy 3. Effective study materials for exam preparation

It is also important to overcome anxiety and fear of failure.

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Published latest 500-560 (learning materials) free dumps questions answers:

QUESTION # 1

Which Cisco product is the network management system,foundational controller,and analytics platform all the center of
……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces
B. Cisco Meraki
C. Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 2

What option or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?

A. WebUl
B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center
C. mobile app
D. WebUI or mobile app

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 3

What is one charlatanistic differentiating the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?

A. comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
B. instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. centralized single pane of glass for access and management

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 4

Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for a small branch and campus deployments up to 200
APs?

A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 5

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.
B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.
C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.
D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 6

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)
B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 7

Which product is considered part of the Cisco Meraki full stack?

A. UCS servers
B. MR wireless access points
C. Aironet wireless access points
D. Catalyst switches

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 8

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24
B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X
C. MS225-48 and MS350-48
D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 9

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate, and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 10

What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 11

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network
up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express
B. Cisco 8540
C. Cisco 3504
D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 12

What feature of the Catalyst 2960-L allows customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center
B. on-box web interface for configuration
C. flexible deployments with Stackwise-160
D. complete CLI support

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 13

What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s datacenters to be fully HIPAA and PCI compliant?

A. non-existent command line interface
B. controller and server-free design
C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
D. out-of-band control plane

Correct Answer: D

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300-420 Dumps [Update]Most Useful Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks Online Resource

The only unavoidable online resource for successfully passing the Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam is the 300-420 dumps. Exactly, the updated 300-420 dumps are the most efficient online resource for you to learn Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks.

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Pick out the key points and talk about the next 300-420 exam

CCNP Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is one of the CCNP Enterprise certification intensive exams (300-410 ENARSI, 300-415 ENSDWI, 300-420 ENSLD, 300-425 ENWLSD, 300-430 ENWLSI, 300-435 ENAUTO). Passing the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is also required to pass the core exam – 350-401 ENCOR in order for you to receive the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Speaking of CCNP Enterprise Certification, let me just say what are the points to note?

  • There are no formal prerequisites, but you should have a good understanding of the exam topics before taking the exam.
  • Candidates need to have three to five years of experience implementing enterprise networking solutions.

Some resource links to share:

CCNP Enterprise At-a-glance

Frequently asked questions

Legacy CCNP migration tools

Practice Cisco (ENSLD) 300-420 Free Dumps First:

QUESTION 1

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?

A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RIPng

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

An ISP provides Layer 3 VPN service over MPLS to a customer with four branches and multiple CE routers at each
branch. To exchange the routes that are learned from the CE routers, which BGP address family should the ISP activate
among the PE routers?

A. address-family multicast
B. L2VPN EVPN
C. VPNv4 unicast
D. IPv4 unicast

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider\’s switch to the customer\’s router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic?

A. Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router.
B. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy.
C. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy.
D. Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning
B. primary authentication point
C. NAT traversal facilitation
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7

The customer solution requires QoS to support streaming multimedia over a WAN. An architect chooses to use Per-Hop
Behavior. Which solution should the engineer use to classify and mark traffic traveling between branch sites?

A. CBWFQ with DSCP AF2
B. LLQ with DSCP EF
C. CBWFQ with DSCP AF3
D. LLQ with DSCP AF4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

In the SD-WAN underlay network, which WAN Edge VPN ID is defined as the transport VPN and is used to carry control
traffic?

A. VPN 0
B. VPN 512
C. VPN 128
D. VPN 256

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application
between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?

A. AFT for public web presence
B. host-initiated tunnels
C. dual stack
D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11

An architect must address sustained congestion on the access and distribution uplink of network. QoS has already been
implemented and optimized, but it is no longer effective in ensuring optimal network performance. Which two solutions
should the architect use to improver network performance. (Choose two)

A. Reconfigure QoS based on the IntServ model
B. Utilize random early detection to manage queues
C. Implement higher-speed uplink interfaces
D. Bundle additional uplinks into logical EtherChannels
E. Configure selective packet discard to drop noncritical network traffic.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is running HSRP on the core routers. Over time the company has grown and requires more network
capacity. In the current environment, some of the downstream interfaces are almost fully utilized, but others are not.
Which solution improves the situation?

A. Make router R2 active for half of the VLANs.
B. Add more interfaces to R1 and R2.
C. Configure port channel toward downstream switches.
D. Enable RSTP on the downstream switches.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)

A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.

Correct Answer: AE

Want to continue? Click here for more exam questions.

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300-610 Dumps [Update] Most Useful 300-610 DCID Online Resource

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What should you focus on for the 300-610 exam

Exam Information

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Abbreviation: 300-610 DCID
Exam duration: 90 minutes
Language: English
Exam fee: $300, plus tax or use Cisco Learning Credits

Associated certifications:

Two points of attention

  1. Be aware that certification exams are overdue.
    It is generally valid for three years from the date of adoption.
  2. Once certified, you will have the right to use the Cisco Certification logo that identifies you. Before using the logo, you must read and confirm the Cisco Certified Logo Protocol.
Cisco CCNP Data Center

Next, focus on this certification(CCNP Data Center):

To qualify for the Cisco CCNP Data Center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and the optional data center concentration exam.

See the picture below, you will understand:

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Practice is also needed. Practice the latest Cisco 300-610 DCID exam Q&A daily. Next you may ask where to get the practice questions. Don’t worry, I’m sharing below with your free dumps practice Q&A 1-13.

QUESTION 1

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 2

A storage engineer requires a solution that achieves multiple paths between a server and storage array. The design
must support complete traffic isolation and support a 50% growth in the next year. Which FCoE solution meets these
requirements?

A. single switch with multiple links
B. at least two VSANs across the fabric
C. at least two FC zone sets with multiple zones
D. single VSAN across the fabric

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/dmm/dm
mcfg/toplgy.html

QUESTION 3

A company has several data centers around the world that must be interconnected over Layer2. The service provider
supports MPLS services to all the locations. The proposed solution must be vendor agnostic and scalable enough to
support the rapid growth of the company. Which data center technology is recommended to achieve this goal?

A. OTV
B. VXLAN EVPN
C. FabricPath
D. EoMPLS

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A network engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution based on these requirements:
two clusters in the main data center consisting of five HyperFlex nodes one edge node for the remote branch cluster
nodes that use one rack unit of space. Which two devices should be used in the remote branch cluster for this design? (Choose two.)

A. UCS B200
B. Gigabit Ethernet Switch
C. Fabric Interconnect 6300
D. HX240c
E. HX220c

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en_in/products/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx240c-m4-nodes-ucsb200-blade-servers/index.html

QUESTION 5

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer needs an orchestration and monitoring tool that should be used for managing the storage networks and
VXLAN fabrics. The tool should also allow support built-in dashboard and real-time health summary for managed
devices. Which tool meets these requirements?

A. Cisco Intersight
B. Ansible
C. Puppet
D. Cisco DCNM

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

An engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution to support a virtualized environment in a single data center
location. The design must consider these customer requirements:

1. a large-scale cluster with eight or more nodes
2. distributed high-performance file system for virtualized servers
3. high fault tolerance to multiple node failures Which action meets these objectives?
A. Configure data destaging and deduplication.
B. Implement a replication factor of four.
C. Enable logical availability zones.
D. Create multiple datastores for storage of VM.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data
centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment
was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided
to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Config
uration_Guide_2_2/configuring_network_related_policies.html#task_7F03A03C719A4A44B8ACFAD73AADC73C

QUESTION 10

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between
the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway
on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the
outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point. Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data
center network appears to be one large switch?

A. vPC+
B. UDLD
C. EVPN
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Server 1 fails to connect to the storage array over the Storage Area Network (SAN) of the Cisco NDS 9000 Series
Switch. The requirements are to redesign the storage network and keep these considerations in mind:
The traffic from each of the server must be redundant and isolated.
The design must tolerate hardware and software failures and upgrades of SAN fabric devices.

Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Enable NPV and F-Port-channel on ports that face Server 1 on the Fibre Channel switch to create redundant paths.
B. Create a SAN port channel that faces the storage device to sustain a link failure.
C. Add an additional supervisor to the Fibre Channel switch to support nondisruptive upgrades.
D. Place an additional Fibre Channel switch to create two physically independent storage fabrics.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

An engineer is operating data center environment that hosts data-intensive financial applications. The applications are
mostly processing HTTP/HTTPS data with large data segments, which results in a CPU contention due to the significant
network processing. Which set of the Ethernet adapter policies must be selected to resolve the issue?

A. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 32 Ring Size field: 256
B. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 64 Ring Size field: 128
C. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 128 Ring Size field: 64
D. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 256 Ring Size field: 128

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_01010.html

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820-605 Dumps [Updated] Online Real Exam Preparation Materials

Prepare for the highly competitive and challenging Cisco Customer Success Manager exam with the Cisco (DTCSM) 820-605 dumps update.

We have updated the 820-605 dumps with all valid questions and answers. You can rest assured that you can successfully pass the exam with the help of the real exam preparation material 820-605 dumps. Download Cisco 820-605 dumps now: https://www.pass4itsure.com/820-605.html PDF, VCE.

Update Free Dumps 820-605 Questions Released [2022]

Help you effectively detect Pass4itSure 820-605 dumps! You can improve your exam skills using the free 820-605 VCE and 820-605 PDF practice materials provided by Pass4itSure.

Q1#

Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with this RACI example?

A. Every task should have four people consulted.
B. No one has multiple roles.
C. More stakeholders should be involved.
D. Too many people are accountable for this task.

Correct Answer: D

Q2#

A client deployed a new collaboration solution six months ago. Utilization telemetry indicates only 60% of activated
users are engaging with the solution. Which two actions should the Customer Success Manager recommend to the
client? (Choose two.)

A. Have marketing write a blog post about the new solution.
B. Encourage the customer to purchase updated endpoints.
C. Block all alternative chat and video collaboration systems.
D. Conduct a survey to determine which collaboration solutions users are using.
E. Advertise additional user training sessions throughout the organization.

Correct Answer: DE

Q#3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken by Customer Success Manager?

A. Recommend expansion opportunities.
B. Review the financial index.
C. Develop a customer testimonial.
D. Identify the adoption barriers.

Correct Answer: D

Q4#

The customer wants to improve operational expenditure and reduce the C02 footprint of the organization. Which two
business outcomes are critical to the company\’s success? (Choose two.)

A. sustainability
B. credibility
C. time to market
D. business growth
E. cost efficiency

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.1080/17583004.2017.1386533

Q5#

What is the best method to measure customer consumption of technology?

A. telemetry and analytics
B. recurring revenue management
C. enterprise CRM and incident management
D. content management

Correct Answer: A

Q6#

Who does a Customer Success Manager work with to overcome a technical solution adoption barrier encountered by a
customer?

A. Customer Success Specialist
B. Technical Engineer
C. Sales Engineer
D. Solutions Product Manager

Correct Answer: B

Q7#

Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome?

A. milestones
B. key performance indicators
C. metrics
D. benchmarks

Correct Answer: D

Q#8

As a Customer Success Manager, what is the most important metric to uncover during onboarding?

A. cost
B. value
C. benefit
D. customer relationship

Correct Answer: B

Q9#

DRAG DROP
The Customer Success Manager is preparing for a review meeting. The customer has asked for a balance between
subjective and objective metrics. Drag and drop the inputs from the left onto the correct subjective and objective
categories on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Q10#

Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the
Customer Success Manager\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.)

A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress
B. successful contract renewal
C. green health scores over intermittent time periods
D. continuing results based on unexpected value
E. results that are not measurable

Correct Answer: AB

Q11#

Which two steps in the customer lifecycle approach are owned by the sales and marketing team? (Choose two.)

A. Experience
B. Evaluation
C. Awareness
D. Deployment
E. Adoption

Correct Answer: CE

Q12#

Which definition of customer success is true?

A. It is the business methodology of ensuring that customers achieve their expected and unexpected outcomes while
using your product or service.
B. It is a business methodology for increasing recurring revenues by minimizing the risk of churn while driving adoption
and expansion.
C. It is the business methodology of ensuring that customers are always on the latest software releases and
subscription contracts so that they can focus on the core business activities that make them successful.
D. It is a measure of the Net Promoter Score that results from a disciplined engagement of sales, services, marketing,
and customer success teams working seamlessly to deliver a positive experience for the customer.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/guides/the-essential-guide-to-customer-success/

Q13#

How are operating expenses (OpEx) different from capital expenses (CapEx)?

A. OpEx are investments a company pays for up-front, while CapEx are the on-going costs to run a business.
B. OpEx includes software licenses with contracts that have user rights in perpetuity, while CapEx includes software
services that are easily reconfigured.
C. OpEx is expenses for the day-to-day operation of a business, while CapEx is investments in assets.
D. OpEx has depreciation, while there is no deprecation with CapEx.

Correct Answer: C

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350-701 Dumps Updated Great Help In Passing The Cisco SCOR Exam

With the updated 350-701 dumps, you can successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) exam.

We have updated the 350-701 dumps with 492+ new practice questions and answers to help you successfully prepare, pass exams and achieve high scores.

Pass4itSure will help you, Download Cisco 350-701 Dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-701.html to get the best results on the 350-701 dumps updated 2022 exam questions in the 350-701 exam.

350-701 Dumps 2022

Of course, before downloading, we have prepared a free dumps Q&A for you, you can try it first:

1. Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol

Correct Answer: BC

2. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

A. SDN controller and the network elements
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the cloud

Correct Answer: A

The Southbound API is used to communicate between Controllers and network devices

3. Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A. transparent mode
B. routed mode
C. inline mode
D. active mode
E. passive monitor-only mode

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/asdm72/firewall/asa-firewall-asdm/modulessfr.html

4. Refer to the exhibit.
How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled, and allowed.
B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.
C. Traffic is proxied through the intelligent proxy.
D. Traffic is allowed but logged.

Correct Answer: B

5. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A. hypervisor
B. virtual machine
C. network
D. application

Correct Answer: D

6. What is the difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub
B. GETVPN provides key management and security association management
C. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1
D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Correct Answer: A

7. How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

A. per policy
B. in the Reporting settings
C. in the Security Settings section
D. per network in the Deployments section

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/log-management

8. What is the capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

A. It filters NSEL events based on traffic
B. It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured
C. It logs all event types only to the same collector
D. It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active-standby failover pair

Correct Answer: A

9.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the Python script accomplish?

A. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username or said.
B. It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE.
C. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.
D. It allows authentication with the TLSv1 SSL protocol.

Correct Answer: A

10. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A. to register new laptops and mobile devices
B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device
C. to provision userless and agentless systems
D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-4/mydevices/b_mydevices_2x.html

11. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

A. File Analysis
B. SafeSearch
C. SSL Decryption
D. Destination Lists

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.umbrella.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004564126-SSL-Decryption-in-the-IntelligentProxy

12. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server
devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to
authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however, it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to
accept the server\’s authentication key?

A. ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1
B. ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1
C. ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1
D. ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Correct Answer: B

To configure an NTP enabled router to require authentication when other devices connect to it, use the following
commands:
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Server(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
Then you must configure the same authentication key on the client router:
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Client(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
NTP_Client(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1 key 2
Note: To configure a Cisco device as an NTP client, use the command NTP server.
For example:
Router(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1.
This command will instruct the router to query 10.10.10.1 for the time.

13. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent
the session during the initial TCP communication?

A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails
B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails
C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication
D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Correct Answer: A

Previously updated 350-701 exam practice questions: https://www.pass4cert.net/?s=350-701

You can also download the 350-701 PDF free dumps online to check if the 350-701 dumps questions are helpful for the exam:

free 350-701 (SCOR) dumps pdf https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qlA6RGGf0i2n-WSyi857N76spSy_Zbdr/view?usp=sharing

The updated 350-701 dumps [Pass4itSure] are based on exam 350-701 topics to help you easily pass the Cisco CCNP Certification (SCOR) exam.

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