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QUESTION 1
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing
business models?
A. business model visualization
B. business model framework
C. business model canvas
D. business model agenda
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are proposing a solution to a group that conflicts with a competing intiative of one of the group
members.
Which audience type does this group member belong to?
A. Critical
B. Hostile
C. Uninformed
D. Sympathetic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which purpose is the business architecture domain used for tithing the open group architecture
framework?A. To describe the logical software and hardware capabilities to support the deployment of business
services.
B. To describe the business strategy, governance, organization, and business processes.
C. To identify stakeholders, create the architecture vision, and obtain initial approvals.
D. To create the blueprint for the application system to be deployed to the core business processes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Stakeholder architecture
B. Digitization
C. Enterprise architecture
D. Business engagement
E. Business acumen
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
You are an account manager and your customer asks whether Cisco can become a strategic partner to
assist solving the business problems your customer is facing. Which two description best describes the
value of the Cisco Business Architecture Methodology? (Choose two.)
A. clearly illustrate product outcomes via a technology roadmap aligned to high level business outcomes
B. ensure that business capabilities and solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term
strategy
C. captures and realizes value from defined business outcomes
D. ensures that product outcomes are aligned to business drivers
E. ensure that business capabilities are identified in product briefing sessions, clearly highlighting the
outcomes the product benefits deliver
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are characteristics of communities leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It involves of high level of communities.
B. A trained and qualifies team lead efforts.
C. The leader provides reward and incentives
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open
group architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint is the perspective of an individual user.
B. A view can be generic and stored in libraries for later reuse.
C. Some views do not have associated viewpoints.
D. A view is perspective of an individual user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which goal of the business architect in a business architecture engagement is true?
A. Lead post-sales technical support.
B. Provide Cisco specific technology solutions.
C. Become a trusted advisor to the customer.
D. Gain experience in developing low-level designs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which value of enterprise architecture frameworks is true?
A. They describe the arrangement of products to deliver a business outcome.
B. They describe how business outcomes are defined.
C. They provide an overall view of a given problem.
D. They outline how business priorities are reached.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which vSphere 6 Standard Edition feature will allow an organization to ensure that critical multi-threaded applications have the maximum possible uptime?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. High Availability
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. App HA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the effective vSphere licensing level during the 60 day evaluation period?
A. vSphere Foundation Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What component must be installed prior to deploying a vCenter Server in vSphere 6.x?
A. vCenter Identity Services
B. Platform Services Controller
C. vCenter Single Sign-On
D. Client Integration Plug-In
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An administrator is installing vCenter Server for an environment that has 40 ESXi 6.x Hosts and 150 virtual machines.
Which database would meet the minimal requirements needed for this task?
A. vFabric Postgres
B. Microsoft SQL Express 2008
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2014
D. Oracle 11g
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that needs to be made is that the hostname of the
server needs to change.
What are two ways that an administrator can change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.)
A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here.
B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client.
C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname.
D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You are editing the management network configuration of an ESXi 6.x Host from the vSphere Web Client. You mistakenly put the incorrect VLAN in place for the
management network.
What action do you need to take to correct this?
A. You need to manually edit the configuration on the host with command line utilities.
B. No action is required. By default ESXi rolls back configuration changes that disconnect the host.
C. The ESXi host system configuration will need to be restored to the factory configuration to fix the issue.
D. The change can be reverted in the vSphere Web Client by simply editing the switch again.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In order for a company to meet regulatory requirements, all ESXi 6.x Hosts must be configured to direct logs to a syslog server.
What are two ways ESXi hosts can configured for this action? (Choose two)
A. Use the esxcli system syslog command.B. Edit them in the ESXi host Advanced System Settings.
C. From the Syslog collector user interface of the Web Client.
D. Syslog logging is not available for ESXi Hosts.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
An administrator is performing a scripted installation of ESXi 6.x.
In which three locations does the script need to be? (Choose three.)
A. PXE Server
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. NFS
E. VVOLs Datastore
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
An administrator has just completed installing an ESXi 6.x host, but doesn’t know what address has been configured.
Where is the ESXi host IP address configured?
A. RVC console
B. Direct Console User Interface
C. vSphere Web Client
D. vSphere Client
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your manager has given you a bash script that retrieves data for ESXi 6.x host configurations. This data needs to be collected right after the installation of a host
and must be run directly on the host.
Which two actions can be used to run this script on an ESXi host? (Choose two.)
A. Connect to the host with Ruby vSphere Console and run the script from there.
B. Enable SSH access from the Direct Console User Interface.
C. Enable the ESXi Shell from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Run the script directly from the vSphere Web Client.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
How are ports scaled on vSphere Standard Switches (vSS)?
A. Ports on a vSS can be dynamically scaled up and down.
B. Ports on a vSS can only be statically scaled up or down.
C. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled down.
D. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled up.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How many Link Aggregation Groups (LAGs) can be configured on a vSphere 6.x Distributed Switch?
A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
During a new vSphere Distributed Switch configuration, where does the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) value get modified?
A. Uplink Settings
B. Switch Settings
C. Portgroup Settings
D. NIC Teaming Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which load balancing policy, previously limited to vSphere Distributed Switches, is now available on vSphere Standard Switches with vSphere 6.x?
A. Route based on physical NIC workload
B. Route based on IP Hash
C. Route based on the originating virtual port
D. Route based on Source MAC Hash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to monitor traffic on vSwitches in a vSphere 6.x environment.
Which option, if configured, would accomplish this task?
A. Forged Transmits
B. MAC Address Changes
C. Promiscuous Mode
D. Notify Switches
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two allow for the disabling of Network Rollback operations? (Choose two.)
A. Modifying the vpxd advanded configuration options and adding the config.vpxd.network.rollback key
B. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\vpxd.cfg file and adjusting the<rollback> xml tag
C. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\vpxd.cfg file and adjusting the <networkrollback> xml tag
D. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\firstboot\vpxd-service- spec.prop file and adjusting the <rollback> xml tag
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which two Fibre Channel zoning options are supported with vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Single-Initiator
B. Single-Initiator-Single-Target
C. Multiple-Initiators-Single-Target
D. Multiple-Initiators-Multiple-Targets
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
What is true regarding datastores on ESXi 6.x?
A. NFS 4.1 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT)
B. VMFS3 and VMFS5 datastores can be newly created
C. NFS datastore can be concurrently mounted using NFS 4.1 on one host and NFS on another
D. NFS 3.0 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What are two benefits of using NFS 4.1 with vSphere 6.x as compared to NFS 3? (Choose two.)
A. NFS 4.1 supports Kerberos Authentication
B. NFS 4.1 supports multipathing
C. NFS 4.1 supports IPv6
D. NFS 4.1 supports hardware acceleration
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment. The Virtual SAN cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are
on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
Two SAS Controllers that support Passthrough Mode
Four Solid State Drives (SSDs) 1TB in size each
20 SAS Magnetic Disks (MDs) 1TB in size each
The SSDs and MDs are evenly split between the two SAS controllers
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while maximizing storage capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)
A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An administrator is creating a new Virtual SAN cluster on a Layer 2 network. There is an existing Virtual SAN cluster on the same Layer 2 network.
Which two actions would allow the new Virtual SAN cluster to coexist with the older cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default Multicast Address on the new Virtual SAN cluster.
B. Change the default Unicast Address on the new Virtual SAN Cluster.
C. Create a separate VLAN for each cluster.
D. Create an ARP Alias for the Virtual SAN VMkernel Network Adapter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
An organization has an ESXi 6.x host that contains two resource pools. The host is being relocated to a DRS cluster.
What two actions can be taken to integrate the host into the cluster, and what would happen to the existing ESXi resource pool hierarchy as a result? (Choose
two.)
A. Place all of the host’s virtual machines into the DRS cluster root resource pool. The resource pools present on the host will be deleted.
B. Create a resource pool for the ESXi host’s virtual machines and resource pools. The resource pools present on the host will be deleted.
C. Place all of the host’s virtual machines into the DRS cluster root resource pool. The resource pools present on the host will be preserved.
D. Create a resource pool for the ESXi host’s virtual machines and resource pools. The resource pools present on the host will be preserved.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
Which two High Availability (HA) Cluster admission control policies can help avoid resource fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. Define failover capacity by static number of hosts
B. Define failover capacity by reserving a percentage of the cluster resources
C. Use dedicated failover hosts
D. Use Virtual Machine Monitoring
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
What must be enabled to ensure that VM Component Protection (VMCP) works in a High Availability cluster?
A. VMware Tools Virtual Machine Communication Interface (VMCI)
B. Fault Tolerance
C. Atomic Test and Set (ATS)
D. All Paths Down (APD) Timeout
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which three features are not supported when using Fault Tolerance in vSphere 6.x? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Volumes (VVOLS)
B. Storage vMotion
C. Virtual Machine Component Protection
D. vMotion
E. vSphere Distributed Switches
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
An administrator is moving a virtual machine into a resource pool. The VM and resource pool are configured as shown:
VM configuration:
2GHz CPU reservation
1GB Memory limit
Resource Pool configuration:6GHz CPU reservation
1GB Memory reservation
No limit to memory
What happens to the virtual machine’s resource settings when it is moved into the pool?
A. The VM inherits the resource settings of the resource pool if expandable reservations is enabled.
B. The VM’s reservations and limits are ignored and removed.
C. The VM keeps the 2GHz CPU reservation but receives the 1GB memory reservation.
D. The VM keeps the 2GHz CPU reservation and the 1GB Memory limit.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
An administrator is tasked with performing a vMotion migration of a virtual machine.
The virtual machine is configured as follows:
vSphere Flash Read Cache (vFRC) enabled
Is part of a Distributed Resource Cluster (DRS) Cluster
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each ESXi host in the cluster supports multiple virtual flash resources.
B. Each ESXi host in the cluster supports one virtual flash resource.
C. DRS treats powered-on virtual machines with Flash Read Cache as having a preferred affinity to their current host and moves them only for mandatory
reasons.
D. DRS treats powered-on virtual machines with Flash Read Cache as having a required affinity to their current host and does not move them.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which three operations occur during a cold migration of a virtual machine? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual machine disks are moved if the datastore is being changed.
B. The virtual machine is registered with the destination server.
C. The source virtual machine is removed from the old hosts.
D. The virtual machine hardware is upgraded.
E. The virtual machine files are quiesced prior to the migration.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 29
An administrator has been tasked with enabling High Availability (HA) on a cluster in a vSphere 6.x environment with default settings. The cluster configures
properly and there are no errors. The next day when powering on a virtual machine, an error is presented:
Not Enough Failover Resources
Which three scenarios are likely causes of this error message? (Choose three.)
A. The default VM Monitoring Sensitivity is set too high.
B. There are not enough datastore heartbeat datastores configured by default.
C. The default slot size in the cluster is set too high.
D. There are virtual machines with large CPU reservations.
E. A host is in maintenance mode for a replacement of a failed Hard Drive.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 30
An administrator is attempting to remove an ESXi 6.x host from a vSphere Distributed Switch (vDS). When the administrator attempts to remove the host, the
following error is observed:
The resource ’16’ is still in use.
What three steps are needed to successfully remove the host from the switch? (Choose three.)
A. Select Manage Ports on the vDS for the host.
B. Locate all ports currently in use on the vDS for the host.
C. Migrate or delete any vmkernel or virtual machine adapters associated with the switch.
D. Remove all network cards from the switch before trying to remove the host.
E. Create a standard switch for everything to be automatically be migrated to.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 31
Users of an application are reporting performance issues. The following performance values are observed in the vSphere Web Client:
Host CPU utilization is 90%
Virtual Machine memory utilization is consistently greater than 90%
CPU Ready values are higher than 20%
What could be the cause of the application performance issue?
A. The host is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
B. The host is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
C. The virtual machine is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
D. The virtual machine is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
An administrator receives a report that no real time statistics are available for a virtual machine in the vCenter Server inventory.
Which two statements indicate likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine is powered off.
B. The host containing the virtual machine is disconnected from vCenter Server.
C. There is insufficient real time data to display the information.
D. The vCenter Server service is not running.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 33
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which two are true about the Risk badge in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. The Risk badge indicates potential future problems that may degrade the performance of the system.
B. Risks may require attention in the near future.
C. The Risk badge indicates problems that are degrading performance of the system.
D. Risks require attention now to correct system performance problems.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Which two badges are major badges in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. Risk
B. Efficency
C. Workload
D. Faults
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
A user wants to monitor a business-critical virtual machine to ensure that it doesn’t run out of resources.
What metric could be monitored in vRealize Operations to address this concern?
A. Time Remaining badge
B. Compliance badge
C. Reclaimable Waste badge
D. Density badge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.

An administrator is configuring an ESXi 6.x host to use multiple NICs to resolve a management network redundancy error. After configuring a second NIC, the
server is not able to communicate when the primary connection is taken down. The administrator analyzes the Exhibit shown here.
Based on the exhibit, what is the likely cause of the issue?
A. vmnic4 is not attached to a vSwitch.
B. vmnic2 is not connected to a physical switch.
C. E1000 is the incorrect NIC Driver for this card.
D. There is a MAC address conflict on the network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Refer to the Exhibit.
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
An administrator has configured network connectivity for a new virtual machine, as shown in the Exhibit.
What will occur with the network traffic of this virtual machine when communicating externally from vSwitch1?
A. The virtual machine will communicate on both uplinks
B. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic1
C. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic2
D. The virtual machine will fail to communicate externally
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
A developer needs to create a multi-tier development stack for a home lab. Which vSphere product will support the architecture required for the least software
cost?
A. vSphere Hypervisor
B. vSphere Essentials
C. VMware Player
D. VMware Workstation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 40
Immediately after installing ESXi, an administrator observes that the Configure Lockdown Mode option is grayed out in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The host has not yet been added to a vCenter Server.
B. The BIOS on the host does not have NX/XD enabled.
C. The ESXi host is running in evaluation mode.
D. The host requires a reboot before this feature is available.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
The vSphere administrator attempts to connect to an ESXi host via an SSH client and receives the following security alert:
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
The vSphere administrator needs to determine whether the RSA key fingerprint shown in the security alert is the fingerprint of the intended ESXi host.
Which tool should the vSphere administrator use?
A. Direct Console User Interface
B. vSphere Client
C. vSphere Web Client
D. vSphere Management Assistant
Correct Answer: A

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Are You Really Ready for the Cisco Certificate Exam – CCNA Routing and Switching Certification

Do you know The IT certifications is very important? It takes a solid position in the modern world. The development of science and technology makes IT certification in the market occupies a huge position, even in the larger scope of job selection, The IT certification can occupy a place, the status should not be underestimated. At the same time, as technology continue to progress, employers are also looking for more skilled and proficient in the relevant it knowledge of the candidates. Today, if you have a valid it certificate in any given field, you have acquired some very necessary skills that are recognized by the public. There is no doubt that the IT industry’s professional certification will bring you a lot of benefits, but also become your advantages. The best thing that once get an IT certification that means you’ll get a permanent career opportunity, and if you get a valid certification in any particular area of the IT industry, that means you have the more and more opportunity to come from the global IT industry.

It is not too late for you to strive for the best, to improve your working ability to the best possible condition, to get the ideal career, and to achieve the desired level of employment. Reaching your career goals will be hard work, determination and dedication. Once you have done what you need to do, you will be successful, financially stable, and mentally happy. You can enjoy life, and you will find all of them is worthwhile. If you want to get a better future, you need to invest wisely in yourself and your time, so it is important to learn how to achieve the best results in your career and business opportunities. Many professions require you to have specific qualifications, so in order to achieve your career goals, you have to find out what you need, what exams you need to pass, and what you need to do next.

Therefore, getting a certificate in the IT field is the perfect choice to improve your career prospects. The next step is to know exactly what type of certification you want to make, after you have identified the idea that you want to get the certification. Before registering or preparing your certification exam, you need to consider some factors. Preparing an exam is a huge task that requires sufficient time to study and the experience of the certification in the corresponding work area that you plan to obtain. The first step is to look at your current career and review your passion and career goals. If your current career path is where you want to insist to, then you can continue to get certified in these areas. But if you change your goal later, it’s best to think about your career plan at the preparation stage to avoid wasting time and energy.

Take the CCNA Routing and Switching certification exam as an example, how do you start to prepare? It is not surprising that millions of candidates are trying to get the certification every year. Unlike other certificates, Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certifications are globally recognized and can be used in any it world. Getting the CCNA Routing and Switching certification in advance is a great way to improve your career prospects in the IT industry. After we understand the importance of Cisco certificates, you do bot be panic,worry,and despair. Here we have some great suggestions that will help you do everything possible to get your IT certification.

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1.Know The Content of The CCNA Routing and Switching Certification Exam

The most important first step is to understand the content of the exam, if you do not know anything, then you will not start. The official website provides all the details you need to know about CCNA Routing and switching certification exams. In addition to the information on testing, you can find a number of useful links to different Web sites where you can find the materials that help you prepare.

Overview:

As organizations migrate to a controller-based architecture, the roles and skills required for core network engineers are evolving and becoming increasingly important. To prepare for this kind of network transformation, CCNA Routing and Exchange authentication not only allows you to master the basics of technology, but also ensures that you remain relevant to the skill sets required to adopt next-generation technologies.

Prerequisite:

No Prerequisites

Exam and Recommended Training:

To obtain this Cisco certification, you must pass the following exams:

  • 200-125 CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX)

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, infrastructure security, and infrastructure management.

This is a comprehensive course that combines ICND1 and ICND2 content into a five-day training course.

  • 100-105 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

This course provides the basics of network layer 1-3 for core routing and switching, and introduces advanced technology. Topics include the interaction and networking capabilities of firewalls, wireless controllers and access points, and additional attention to IPV6 and basic network security.

  • 200-105 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

This course provides the knowledge and skills required to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot a small business network. Key topics include QoS elements, virtualization and cloud services, and controller types and tools that can be used to support a software-defined network architecture.

CCNA Routing and Switching certifications are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:

  • Pass any current Associate-level exam except for ICND1 exam, or
  • Pass any current 642-XXX Professional-level or any 300-XXX Professional-level exam, or
  • Pass any current 642-XXX Cisco Specialist exam (excluding Sales Specialist exams or MeetingPlace Specialist exams, Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations (ITI) exams, Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction exams, or any 650 online exams), or
  • Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
  • Pass the current CCDE Written Exam OR current CCDE Practical Exam, or
  • Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview AND the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications

When a higher level of authentication is used to extend other certifications, the validity period of other certifications is extended to the expiration date of the higher certification (i.e. if you have a year of CCNA Routing and Exchange certification, and you obtain CCIE certification (with two years of certification), Then your CCIE certification and your CCNA Routing and Exchange certification will expire within two years from the date you obtained the CCIE certification.

2.Make a Personal Study Plan

This is important for your success in the certification exam. In fact, your degree of success depends to a large extent on the plan you make. Develop a personal learning plan to understand your responsibilities and review progress. Although Cisco’s website also has a time suggestion for review exams, it’s not enough to do that, and you have to go beyond that to create a customized learning plan to suit your day-to-day schedule. When you put your plans together, you must consider some important factors. First of all, you need to decide when you are going to take the exam, this will helps you know how short or long to you have before the examination. Visit the Cisco website to check the CCNA Routing and Switching certification time details for the tests. You should also create an account on the site and check the location and time that is right for you. When you determine the date of the exam, you will have the motivation to begin to study hard. Second, understand your learning style and how long you can study every day. Some people prefer to study for a short time, while others can study for 5 hours without losing attention. Know yourself and the categories you belong to. If you’re the kind of person who can only study for a short period, don’t pile up your study time until the weekend. Devote a short time every day to learn and stick to it.

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3.Registered For And Take an Exam Preparation Training Course

In addition to your study plan, we recommend that you also take the exam preparation training course. This gives you the opportunity to learn from experts in the field and to learn more about what you expect during the certification test. This is one of the useful ways that you can ask questions and get correct answers. You can also share your strategy and experience with other candidates and build networks with them, which means you are being trained on the spot. There is another good way, you can also through the video exam training courses to learn. There are many websites offering video training courses, but most courses are subject to charges. If you have a good budget, you can choose a course from the website below.

4.Join Online Courses

If you are having problems reviewing your IT credentials and cannot resolve them individually, we recommend that you conduct a course online. However, as mentioned above, some websites need to charge a fee. such as CBTNUGGETS, Udemy.

5.Joining Cisco online forums

It can help you get well preparation. You can share and learn other candidates’ exam strategies. You can join the Cisco Learning Network and view some other forums online. You only need to use Google search to get the CCNA Routing and switching certification forum. There are a lot of people on the web who are going through the process of writing a certification exam, and you can learn a few things from it, which will have a big impact on your preparation. But learning resources are relatively loose and it is difficult to get a full set of learning materials.

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The Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Managing a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Maintaining a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Monitoring a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Troubleshooting a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator used the versioning feature of Provisioning Services to test changes made to a vDisk. After a successful test, the version is promoted. All users are using the latest production version. Over time, additional versions of the vDisk are created. To conserve space, the administrator decides to merge all of the versions to a new base version but the Merge option appears grayed out. Why does the Merge option appear grayed out?
A. Merging within the Provisioning Service console is only possible for an individual vDisk version.
B. The vDisk was NOT created with the latest version of the Provisioning Services target device software.
C. The administrator needs to promote the existing Maintenance Version to Test or Production, after that the Merge option becomes available.
D. The last production version of the vDisk is locked and used by the Target Devices. After all locks are removed, the Merge option becomes available.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21Y0-201 dumps
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to the Citrix StoreFront store. When users attempt to log in, they are presented with the following error:
\’Cannot complete your request. You can log on and try again, or contact your help desk for assistance.\’ Which service on the StoreFront server should a Citrix Administrator ensure is running in order to resolve this issue?
A. Citrix Licensing
B. Citrix Configuration
C. Citrix ICA File Signing
D. Citrix Credential Wallet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to manage XenDesktop 7.6 in an organization. One Delivery Group currently deploys 100 pooled-random Desktop OS machines. The administrator increased the number of Desktop OS machines in the machine catalog to 150. After increasing the number of machines, only 100 users are able to log in to the pooled-random Desktop OS machines. Which additional step must the administrator take to ensure 150 users are able to log in simultaneously to 150 Desktop OS machines?
A. Power on the newly added machines.
B. Join the new machines to the domain.
C. Add the new machines to the Delivery Group.
D. Remove the new Desktop OS machines from maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C

2018 New Pass4isture Citrix 1Y0-401 Dumps Version:

The Designing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Assessing the Current Environment
  • Planning and Risk Assessment
  • Analyzing the Current Environment
  • Designing an Integrated Virtualization Solution
  • Designing and Documenting the Infrastructure
  • Designing and Documenting the Security Infrastructure

QUESTION 1
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21Y0-401 dumps
Why would having one farm with three configured sites, with three Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter, meet the requirements of a regional, single-image management strategy with minimal WAN traffic across datacenters?
A. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability within each region.
B. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, and reduces management overhead.
C. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability between regions.
D. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, guarantees high availability within each region, and reduces management overhead.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by IP address, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Updated] Up To Date Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exams Cisco Business Value Specialist Video Study With Low Price Q1-Q37

Where can we download the newest 810-403 dumps, 810-403 exam and 810-403 pdf? pass4itsure 810-403 dumps exam (Selling Business Outcomes) is the part of Cisco Business Value Analyst Specialist, Cisco Business Value Specialist certification. Passing Cisco 810-403 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 810-403 dumps Selling Business Outcomes course exam.

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Exam Code: 810-403
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-37)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.
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QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilization
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
810-403 vce Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which characteristic of the Cisco Internet of Everything has the most impact on business?
A. connecting people for measuring the usage trends of services
B. delivering the services to the right person at the right time
C. leveraging data into more useful information for decision making
D. having physical devices and objects connected to the internet
810-403 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How does a performance measurement help the customer business?
A. Provides feedback on progress towards settled goals.
B. Compliance of certain industries regulations.
C. Help companies monitor its past state.
D. To reward and to discipline employees.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account?
(Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
Which framework is used to plan influential communication when seeking customer support for action?
A. business model canvas
B. principled negotiation
C. seven elements
D. stakeholder analysis matrix
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect benefits of a business outcome? (Choose two.)
A. Lower maintenance contract cost
B. Improved customer satisfaction
C. Lower purchase price of IT assets
D. Faster time to market for new solutions
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 30
Which two options are financial considerations related to determining business outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. Capital Expenditures, Operating Expenses.
B. Internal Return Rate, Discount Rate.
C. Payback, Chargeback.
D. Capital Expenditures, Working Capital.
E. Chargeback, Showback.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 31
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
810-403 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which two dimensions are used in the stakeholder power grid? (Choose two.)
A. Influence/Authority
B. Power/Influence
C. Interest/Empathy
D. Interest/Support
E. Consensus/Support
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
Which option is a difference in the set of questions that Cisco’s approach to outcomes- based sales users
A. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approach answers what capabilities are needed to achieve the solutions.
B. The product approach answers the question of how progress is displayed and correctly communicated, while the outcomes approach answers what the business objectives services must be included in each solution.
C. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approachanswers what the business objectives anddesired outcomes are.
D. The product approach answers the question of what capabilities are needed to deliver product & services, while the outcomes approach gives ananswer towhat the business rules and capabilities are.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Why are customer stakeholders important to the business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Because understandingthe concerns, interests, power, and influence of stakeholders enables successful stakeholder engagement.
B. Because stakeholders consists of partners who are either part of the organization or are external to the organization.
C. Because stakeholder strategy influence business needs and their involvement in a project to change them.
D. Because relevant and potential stakeholders exist across customers’ and sales professionals’ organizational and functional roles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of effective communication with stakeholders? (Choose two.)
A. It allows other strengths to create maximum impact.
B. It lessen the impact of business weakness.
C. It helps mitigate the intrinsic risks with negotiation.
D. It allows effective interaction between stakeholders.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 37
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: DE

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Where can we download the newest 648-244 dumps, 648-244 exam and 648-244 pdf? pass4itsure 648-244 dumps pdf (Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems) is the part of Cisco CCNA R&S certification. Passing Cisco 648-244 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of pass4itsure to become Cisco certified. The pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 648-244 dumps Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems course exam.

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Exam Code: 648-244
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cisco Unified Communications on Unified Computing Systems
Q&As: 60

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-244 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
648-244 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
648-244 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
648-244 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this
storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
648-244 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
648-244 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
648-244 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
648-244 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 24
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QUESTION 25
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QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
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DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 30
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Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

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Exam Code: 648-232
Exam Name: Cisco WebEx Solutions Design and Implementation
Q&As: 50

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-232 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-39)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
648-232 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 dumps Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
648-232 pdf Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps

QUESTION 31
What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are
offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose
three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 34
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the
contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 38
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support
team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
What are two benefits of downloading WebEx Productivity Tools using the company WebEx site? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies deployment
B. drives usage and adoption
C. promotes virtualization
D. reduces corporate bandwidth usage
648-232 vce Correct Answer: AB

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Yes. Our PDF of pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on pass4itsure 648-232 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Pass4itsure is the website that provides all candidates with IT certification exam dumps and can help all candidates pass their exam with ease. pass4itsure IT expert edits all-time exam materials together on the basis of flexibly using the experiences of forefathers, thereby writing the best pass4itsure 648-232 dumps test questions.
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Exam Code: 300-360
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Q&As: 140

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A downstream packet that contains a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped and the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
C. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants the DSCP marking to align with the 802.11e access category video. What will this marking be?
A. 34
B. AF31
C. 40
D. 56
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
An engineer receives a digital image scanned from the floor plans of a facility to be surveyed for wireless survey and imported it into Air Magnet Pro. However, the document contains no scale. Which action can the engineer take to most accurately calibrate the size of the floor plan in Air Magnet?
A. Mark the length of a hallway, then count the ceiling tiles, multiply that number by 2 and enter that value.
B. Zoom in and mark across a hallway, then count the floor tiles across that hallway and enter that value.
C. Zoom in and mark a doorway, then size it at 3 feet because most doorways are 36 inches.
D. Mark the entire longest dimension of the floorplan, then use Google Earth to measure the correspondingoutside dimension and enter that value.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
While performing a Layer 1 passive wireless site survey of a location an engineer detects several instances of low power frequency hopping interference, but cannot physically locate the interfering device or devices. Why is the engineer unable to locate the offending device or devices?
A. The sources are nearby narrow-beam radar and are sweeping through the facility.
B. The sources are PAN and are mobile.
C. The sources are above the ceiling file and transmit intermittently.
D. The sources are actually high-powered devices and transmit from off the site.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space.How many access points should be estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which two types of information must be included in the installation inventory portion of the post-installation report? (Choose two.)
A. all AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. the names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN
C. a layout of the rack that the equipment is installed
D. results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
E. the number and type of all WLAN clients and tags
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
An engineer is configuring an autonomous AP for RADIUS authentication. What two pieces of information must be known to configure the AP? (Choose two.)
A. BVI IP address
B. group name
C. RADIUS IP address
D. PAC encryption key
E. username and password
F. shared secret
300-360 vce Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A cabling contractor is working at a customer facility. The contractor is asking what rating of cable should be installed in return-air areas. Which information can be referenced to provide the contractor the requested information?
A. OSHA Codes
B. BICSI TDDM
C. NEC Ratings
D. IEEE Standards
300-360 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
An engineer plugs in a Cisco Aironet 2700 Series Access Point and it is running in low power. Which three power requirements should be verified? (Choose three.)
A. 802.3ac compliant
B. 802.3at compliant
C. AP requires 43 VDC to function in full power.
D. AIR-PWRINJ3 power injector should be used.
E. AP requires 57 VDC to function in full power.
F. AIR-PWRINJ4 power injector should be used.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which three recommendations must be taken into consideration when an engineer is installing a new Voice WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Use the Cisco wireless phone site survey client utility.
B. Use a separate Cisco Wireless Lan Controller.
C. Enable load balance on voice WLANs.
D. Maintain -67dBM as a minimal RSSI.
E. Set data for 2.4 GHz and voice for 5 GHz using separate SSIDs.
F. Enable lower data rates for 2.4-GHz data WLAN.
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
A customer wants to implement a wireless network in a historic location, but is concerned about the structural and aesthetic impact to the facility. Which benefit of using wireless mesh addresses these concerns?
A. Power is required only at the installation location.
B. The APs do not have LED lights.
C. More wireless channels can be supported.
D. APs do not need network connections.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing a wireless site survey? (Choose three.)
A. The time required to acquire any additional infrastructure components.
B. The time required to survey each potential AP location.
C. The time required to assess application server locations at the customer facility.
D. The type of wireless survey tools required to perform the site survey.
E. The time required to assess customer WLAN density and throughput requirements.
F. The time required to utilize the design mode in Cisco WCS to prepare a preliminary WLAN design to reduce on-site survey time.
300-360 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?
A. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B. That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C. The location of application and authentication servers.
D. The proposed location for the WDS server.
E. The proposed location for the WCS.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?
A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.
300-360 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. optimized power-save mode periods
B. increased call capacity
C. bandwidth reservation
D. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
E. efficient roaming
F. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Unscheduled automatic power-save delivery (U-APSD) is a feature that has two key benefits:
The primary benefit of U-APSD is that it allows the voice client to synchronize the transmission and reception of voice frames with the AP, thereby allowing the client to go into power-save mode between the transmission/reception of each voice frame tuple. The WLAN client frame transmission in the access categories supporting U-APSD triggers the AP to send any data frames queued for that WLAN client in that AC. A U-APSD client remains listening to the AP until it receives a
frame from the AP with an end-of-service period (EOSP) bit set. This tells the client that it can now go back into its power-save mode. This triggering mechanism is considered a more efficient use of client power than the regular listening for beacons method, at a period controlled by the delivery traffic indication map (DTIM) interval, because the latency and jitter requirements of voice are such that a WVoIP client would either not be in power-save mode during a call, resulting in
reduced talk times, or would use a short DTIM interval, resulting in reduced standby times. The use of U-APSD allows the use of long DTIM intervals to maximize standby time without sacrificing call quality. The U-APSD feature can be applied individually across access categories, allowing U-APSD can be applied to the voice ACs in the AP, but the other ACs still use the standard power save feature. The secondary benefit of this feature is increased call capacity. The coupling of
transmission buffered data frames from the AP with the triggering data frame from the WLAN client allows the frames from the AP to be sent without the accompanying interframe spacing and random backoff, thereby reducing the contention experience by call.

QUESTION 17
An engineer is determining the signal levels for the wireless cells. Which signal-to-noise ratio is an optimal configuration to achieve?
A. minimum SNR of -33 dBm
B. minimum SNR of -25 dBm
C. minimum SNR of 25 dB
D. minimum SNR of 33 dB
300-360 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
A hospital environment was designed to guarantee RF coverage at or better than -67 dBm in the 5 GHz spectrum. The customer mandates that RRM be used for DCA and TPC in both bands. After deployment, why do many of the legacy 802.11b/g devices have difficulty maintaining connectivity?
A. Excessive co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
B. Excessive overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
C. TPC drastically reduces Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
D. TCP drastically increases Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
An engineer installed a 3702 AP and is getting power from the switch. What is the reason for getting 3×3 MIMO instead of 4×4?
A. 802.1p
B. 802.3af
C. 802.11e
D. 802.3at
300-360 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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