ACTC, Apple

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QUESTION 24
Which THREE network connections can you troubleshoot using Mac OS X 10.4 Network Diagnostics?
A. AirPort
B. Internal Modem
C. Built-in-Ethernet
D. Built-in-FireWire
E. Bluetooth Modems

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
You should be able to connect to an AirPort network when your iBook starts up in Safe Mode in Mac OS X
10.4.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Where can you reset the User Account password?
A. Disk Utility
B. Security system preference
C. Accounts system preference
D. Reset Password from the install disc
E. Login window ‘Forgot Password’ button
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 27
What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Create a new user
B. Repair permissions
C. Run Software Update
D. Reinstall the application
E. Archive and install Mac OS X

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
What does starting up in Safe Mode in Mac OS X 10.4 do?
A. It disables Auto-login
B. It disable all Startup items
C. It disables all non-system fonts
D. It moves font caches to the trash
E. It disables only Non-Apple Startup items

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 29
Mac OS X 10.4 Disk Utility lets you run Verify Disk on the current startup volume.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which two options should be used when Disk Utility cant repair a disk in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Back up the data, and erase and install Mac OS X
B. Archive and install Mac OS X preserving user and network settings
C. Click Repair Disk one more time to see if a second attempt resolves the issue
D. Archive and Install Mac OS X WITHOUT preserving user and network settings
E. Back up the data and use a Mac OS X 10.4 compatible third-party utility to repair the disk

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 31
How do you force a Macintosh computer to start up from a disc in the optical drive?
A. Press and hold the V key while the computer starts up, and enter boot cd at the prompt.
B. Press and hold the C key while the computer starts up.
C. Choose “Restart from Disc”from the Apple menu.
D. Press and hold the button for 5 seconds

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
When Maria logs in on her Mac OS X v10.4 computer, a utility she recently installed launches and disables the mouse and keyboard.
How can Maria prevent the utility from automatically launching when she logs in?
A. Hold down the V key while the computer start up.
B. Hold down the Shift key immediately after logging in.
C. Hold down the option key while the computer starts up.
D. Log in as another user and use Disk Utility to fix permissions on the boot volume

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
How do you start up a Mac OS X computer in single-user mode?
A. Restart while holding down Command -S
B. Restart while holding down command-option-S
C. Choose “Restart in single -user mode” from the Apple menu
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk preference and restart

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Starting up a Mac OS X v10.4 computer in verbose mode is a useful FIRST troubleshooting step when___________
A. applications are crashing frequently
B. you suspect a font might be corrupted
C. the system repeatedly crashes during startup
D. System Profiler cannot identify the startup device

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
After pressing the power button on your Macintosh you hear three beeps instead of a startup chime. What does this indicate?
A. The monitor is not properly connected
B. There is a hardware problem such as bad RAM.
C. The computer was not shut down properly the last time it was used.
D. The computer was unable to locate a disk with a bootable system folder.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
The Universal Access preferences allow you to ____________
A. create new keyboard shortcuts
B. apply interface themes the Finder
C. configure your computer as wireless access point
D. enable the use of assistive input and output devices

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You have just completed a default installation of Mac OS v 10.4 (an “easy install”).Which THREE types of applications can run without requiring additional software installations?
A. BSD
B. DOS
C. Java
D. Windows
E. Mac OS 9
F. Native Carbon and Cocoa
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 38
Which application provides the most detail about system processes in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. System Profiler
B. Activity Monitor
C. Process Manager
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which statement is true of protected memory in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Protected memory is configured in System Preferences
B. Protected Memory is installed in a unique RAM slot on the motherboard.
C. Protected memory safeguard against native application errors impacting other running applications
D. Protected memory uses a temporary file to ensure there is sufficient RAM available for open application.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
A user is unable to open a document from within an application. Which is not a recommended troubleshooting procedure?
A. Try to open a different document with the same application
B. Double-click the document icon in the Finder while holding down the option key
C. Try to open the document from another application that support the same document type
D. Copy the document to the Shared folder then log in as another user and try to open the document

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
The default network protocol in Mac OS X 10.4 is___
A. IPX
B. SMB
C. TCP/IP
D. Netbios
E. Apple Talk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
The Lookup tool in Network Utility____________
A. finds the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network
B. determines which ports are open on a remote computer
C. resolve host names to IP addresses
D. resolve IP addresses to host names
E. looks up routing table information
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
What printing system is used by Mac OS X v10.4?
A. Unified Printing Manager
B. Macunosh Printing MANAGER
C. Common UNIX printing System
D. Portable Document Printing System

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
An older network printer is not appearing in the list of discovered printers in Printer Setup Utility’s Default Browser pane in Mac OS X v10.4. What is a possible remedy?
A. Select the Apple Talk plugin in Directory Access.
B. Enable the Discover Printers option in Apple Talk preferences
C. Enable the Apple Talk option in the Printing pane of print & Fax preferences
D. Enable the Make Apple Talk Active option in the Apple Talk pane of Network preferences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
How can you identify who is talking during a multi-way audio conference in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. The buddy’s icon is highlighted
B. By watching the sound-level meter
C. All other participants are dimmed
D. The buddy’s line marked with a “speaking” flag

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
What requirements must be met orderto participate in a multti-way video conference in Mac OS X 10.4 iCha?
A. Broadband internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat and Cinema Display
B. Any internet connection, iChatt AV 2.5 higher, iSigh, and Mac OS X 10.4
C. Any Internet connection. Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, AND COMPATIBLE VIDEO DEVICE
D. Broadband Internet connection, Mac OS X 10.4 iChat, and a compatible video device Correct Answer: D

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ACMT, Apple

Apple 9L0-010 Cert, Pass the Apple 9L0-010 Certification Material Is What You Need To Take

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QUESTION 37
Which of the following is NOT a valid power saving technique in recent Mac computers?
A. Disconnect all peripherals.
B. Activate automatic display sleep.
C. Activate automatic hard disk sleep.
D. Use wireless networks instead of wired networks.
E. Set up locations optimized for different environments.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
A MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Ribbon cable
D. Deflection coil
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. What steps have you taken to resolve the problem yourself?

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
A customer claims that her Mac cannot connect to her AirPort Express network at home. Which of the following would be the BEST question to ask her FIRST?
A. Can any other computer successfully join her network?
B. Does your ISP support wireless access to the Internet?
C. What type of wireless card is installed in your Mac?
D. Have you upgraded to Mac OS X v10.7.3?

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a MacBook 13-inch (Mid 2010)?
A. RAM
B. Logic board
C. Optical drive
D. Power adapter

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which TWO of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no video’ condition? SELECT TWO
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You may hear fan or drive noise.
C. You cannot connect to the Internet.
D. The power button or power indicator lights up.
E. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 46
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a hardware-related problem?
A. No video at startup
B. Error beep at startup
C. Distorted video at startup
D. Blinking question mark at startup Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?
A. No video on display
B. Single beep at startup
C. No Internet connectivity
D. iPhoto quits when launched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
A customer states that he cannot open a Keynote file. What is the most effective question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other Keynote files?
C. Is your Mac connected to a network?
D. What version of Keynote are you using?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
To isolate a video problem as hardware or software on a Mac, which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Replace the built-in display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup volume.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that _____. SELECT THREE
A. third-party software is working
B. the original issue has been resolved
C. the computer falls under service warranty
D. the computer will continue to function after the repair
E. no new problems have been introduced during the repair

Correct Answer: BDE

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Acpt, Apple

Apple 9L0-009 Exam Test Questions, Helpful Apple 9L0-009 Real Questions Answers Covers All Key Points

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QUESTION 67
.
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (Mid 2007) with an 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
.
Which piece of information is best used to determine any Mac’s correct AppleCare name?

A. the EMC number
B. the serial number
C. the MAC address
D. the model number

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
.
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her Mac’s serial number?

A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
.
Examine the exhibit. What AirPort Extreme port does the number 3 identify?
A. USB
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. Power
E. FireWire

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
.
Which THREE of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting AirPort issues? SELECT THREE
A. Are wired computers affected as well?
B. Are just wireless computers affected?
C. How much RAM do you have installed?
D. What is the computer’s processor speed?
E. What is the resolution of the computer’s display?
F. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network?

Correct Answer: ABF QUESTION 72
.
If you are unable to find the password for an AirPort Extreme or Express Base Station, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
.
If an AirPort Extreme Base Station stopped responding, has network accessibility issues, or needs to be reverted back to default factory configuration, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
.
Which of the following is NOT a valid Bluetooth troubleshooting tip for Macs?

A. Check for signal interference.
B. Make sure Bluetooth is turned on.
C. Update Bluetooth software on the Mac.
D. Verify Bluetooth peripheral hardware batteries are charged.
E. Make sure the Bluetooth peripheral is at least 20 meters away from the Mac.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 75
.
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 76
.
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
. The purpose of Apple’s business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
.
You must provide your identity when you use Apple’s Business Conduct Helpline. You may not contact the Helpline anonymously.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
.
Which of the following is NOT a valid example of the type of information that Apple collects from its customers?
A. Credit card information.
B. Discussion blog postings mentioning Apple.
C. Apple product serial number and date of purchase.
D. Name, mailing address, phone number, email address.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
.
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Ribbon cable
D. Deflection coil
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer Correct Answer: ABC

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Acpt, Apple

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. What steps have you taken to resolve the problem yourself?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
A customer states that he cannot open a Keynote file. What is the most effective question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other Keynote files?
C. Is your Mac connected to a network?
D. What version of Keynote are you using?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
A customer claims that her Mac cannot connect to her AirPort Express network at home. Which of the following would be the BEST question to ask her FIRST?
A. Can any other computer successfully join her network?
B. Does your ISP support wireless access to the Internet?
C. What type of wireless card is installed in your Mac?
D. Have you upgraded to Mac OS X v10.5.8?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a MacBook 13-inch (Mid 2010)?
A. RAM
B. Logic board
C. Optical drive
D. Power adapter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which THREE of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no power’ condition? SELECT THREE
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You cannot connect to the Internet.
C. You do not hear any fan or drive noise.
D. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.
E. The power button or power indicator does not light up at all.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 36
Which TWO of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no video’ condition? SELECT TWO
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You may hear fan or drive noise.
C. You cannot connect to the Internet.
D. The power button or power indicator lights up.
E. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?
A. No video on display
B. Single beep at startup
C. No Internet connectivity
D. iPhoto quits when launched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
To isolate a video problem as hardware or software on a Mac, which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Replace the built-in display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup volume.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that _____. SELECT THREE
A. third-party software is working
B. the original issue has been resolved
C. the computer falls under service warranty
D. the computer will continue to function after the repair
E. no new problems have been introduced during the repair

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 40
ESD causes damage to circuits by ________.
A. slowing the circuit down
B. blasting a hole in the circuit
C. cooling the circuit too quickly
D. increasing the circuit’s clock speed

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to service a MacBook. To reduce the risk of damage from ESD, you clear the area of plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene, and have static-shielding storage bags available for ESD-sensitive components. While you are working you should also remember to ________________ and _______________. SELECT TWO
A. ground yourself and the equipment you are working on
B. always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces
C. discharge the display to protect the other ESD-sensitive components
D. handle any ESD-sensitive components by the connectors, rather than by the edges
E. ask other technicians to avoid touching you when you are working on ESD-sensitive components
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 42
Before you leave your bench to take a logic board to a storage place, you should put the board _____.
A. on top of an ESD shielding bag
B. inside an ESD shielding bag
C. inside a cardboard box
D. on a metal table

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
You want to follow ESD prevention rules, but your work area is too small for you to be tethered with a wired wrist strap. What is one acceptable alternative solution to this issue?
A. Use a wireless wrist strap.
B. Use a grounded ESD heel strap.
C. Do not practice ESD prevention.
D. Work on the floor instead of a table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
A computer service technician says “I don’t use ESD precautions and have never had a problem.” What (if anything) is wrong with this statement?
A. Nothing is wrong with this statement.
B. ESD damage may not appear immediately.
C. ESD happens only to inexperienced technicians.
D. ESD damage is really not as bad as everyone thinks.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Which THREE of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? SELECT THREE
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Wireless wrist strap
F. Static-shielding bags
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 46
You should periodically _____ your ESD mats.
A. clean
B. replace
C. turn over
D. disconnect
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is NOT a good step to take when working onsite on a computer?
A. Place parts on the floor.
B. Use a grounded ESD mat.
C. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.
D. Check the polarity of the grounded power outlet.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
When you work at a customer site, you do not need to take any precautions to avoid ESD damage.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
You are replacing a logic board in a Mac Pro. You should handle the board by its _____.
A. edges
B. heat sinks
C. connectors
D. components

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which part or parts of a CRT display should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Yoke assembly
B. Anode aperture
C. High voltage cable
D. Front of CRT display
E. Flyback transformer
F. Outer plastic housing
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 51
Which THREE of the following are valid CRT safety rules? SELECT THREE
A. Touch the computer’s metal chassis.
B. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.
C. Connect the AC power cord.
D. Remove any metal jewelry.
E. Wear safety goggles.
F. Don’t work alone.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 52
Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO
A. CRT displays may leak cooling fluid.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 53
Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when you begin working inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2010)?
A. Reset the SMC.
B. Remove the hard drive.
C. Disconnect the optical drive.
D. Disconnect the main battery.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which safety issue applies to newer Apple portable models?
A. Fragile bottom case
B. High voltage display
C. Heavy internal frame
D. Soft battery enclosure
E. Sharp logic board edges

Correct Answer: D
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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Qs&As, Best CheckPoint 156-215 Certification Are The Best Materials

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QUESTION 92
A digital signature:
A. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
B. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Automatically changes the shared keys.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
You are setting up a Virtual Private Network, and must select an encryption scheme. Your data is extremely business sensitive and you want maximum security for your data communications. Which encryption scheme would you select?
A. Tunneling mode encryption
B. In-place encryption
C. Either one will work without compromising performance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
You have just started a new job as the Security Administrator for Certkiller . Your boss has asked you to ensure that peer-to-peer file sharing is not allowed past the corporate Security Gateway. Where should you configure this?
A. SmartDashboard > SmartDefense
B. SmartDashboard > WebDefense
C. By editing the file $FWDIR/conf/application_intelligence.C
D. SmartDashboard > Policy > Global Properties > Malicious Activity Detection
E. SmartDashboard > Web Intelligence

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Amy is configuring a User Authentication rule for the technical-support department to access an intranet server. What is the correct statement?
A. The Security Server first checks if there is any rule tat does not require authentication for this type of connection.
B. The User Authentication rule must be placed above the Stealth Rule.
C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.
D. Amy can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, and rlogin services.
E. Amy can limit the authentication attempts in the Authentication tab of the User Properties screen.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
How can you unlock an administrator’s account, which was been locked due to SmartCenter Access settings in Global Properties?
A. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the SmartCenter Server.
B. Clear the “locked” box from the user’s General Properties in SmartDashboard.
C. Type fwm unlock_admin -ua from the command line of the SmartCenter Server.
D. Type fwm unlock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Gateway.
E. Delete the file admin.lock in the $FWDIR/tmp/ directory of the SmartCenter Server.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
How many administrators can be created during installation of the SmartCenter Server?
A. Only one
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. As many as you want
D. Depends on the license installed on the SmartCenter Server
E. Specified in the Global Properties
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
Which SmartConsole tool verifies the installed Security Policy name?
A. SmartView Status
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Server
D. SmartUpdate
E. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 99
Ilse manages a distributed NGX installation for Certkiller .com. Ilse needs to know which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days. Which SmartConsole application should Ilse use to gather this information?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Tracker
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Herman is attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of his firm’s business partner. Herman thinks Phase 2 negotiations are failing. Which SmartConsole application should Herman use to confirm his suspicions?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
How can you reset the password of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial installation of the SmartCenter Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and select “Administrators”.
B. Launch SmartDashboard, click the admin user account, and overwrite the existing Check Point Password.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administration account name. Reset the Security Administrator’s password.
D. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the “Password” portion of the file. The log in to the account without password. You will be prompted to assign a new password.
E. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator’s account. Recreate the account with the same name.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 102
What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu?
A. It is not possible to export an old log file, only save and switch in SmartView Tracker.
B. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file.
C. Exported log entries are still viewable in SmartView Tracker.
D. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.
E. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 103
Which type of TCP attack is a bandwidth attack, where a client fools a server into sending large amount of data, using small packets?
A. SMURF
B. Small PMTU
C. Host System Hogging
D. LAN
E. SYN-Flood

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
What is the proper command for exporting users in LDAP format?
A. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.txt
B. fw dbimport -f c:\temp\users.ldif -l -s “o=YourCity.com,c=YourCountry”
C. fw dbimport -f c:\temp\users.ldap
D. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.ldap -l -s
E. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.ldif -l -s “o=YourCity.com,c=YourCountry”

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 105
Shauna is troubleshooting a Security Gateway that is dropping all traffic whenever the most recent Security Policy is installed. Working at the Security Gateway, Shauna needs to uninstall the Policy, but keep the processes running so she can see if there is an issue with the Gateway’s firewall tables. Which of the following commands will do this?
A. fw dbload 10.1.1.5
B. fw unload 10.1.1.5
C. cprestart
D. fw tab -x -u
E. cpstop

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker. How can you see the addresses you have blocked?
A. In SmartView Status click the Blocked Intruder tab.
B. Run fwm blocked_view.
C. Run fw sam -va.
D. Run fw tab -t sam_blocked_ips.
E. In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab, and the actively blocked connections display.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
Your internal Web server in the DMZ has IP address 172.16.10.1/24. A particular network from the Internet tries to access this Web server. You need to set up some type of Network Address Translation (NAT), so that NAT occurs only from the HTTP service, and only from the remote network as the source. The public IP address for the Web server is 200.200.200.1. All properties in the NAT screen of Global Properties are enabled. Select the correct NAT rules, so NAT happens ONLY between “web_dallas” and the remote network.
A. 1. Create another node object named “web_dallas_valid”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Create two manual NAT rules above the automatic Hide NAT rules for the 172.16.10.0 network.

3.
Select “HTTP” in the Service column of both manual NAT rules.

4.
Enter an ARP entry and route on the Security Gateway’s OS.
B. 1. Enable NAT on the web_dallas object, select “static”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Specify “HTTP” in the automatic Static Address Translation rules.

3.
Create incoming and outgoing rules for the web_dallas server, for the HTTP service only.
C. 1. Enable NAT on the web_dallas object, select “hide”, and enter “200.200.200.1” for the Hide NAT IP address.
2.
Specify “HTTP” in the Address Translation rules that are generated automatically.

3.
Create incoming and outgoing rules for the web_dallas server, for the HTTP service only.
D. 1. Create another node object named “web_dallas_valid”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Create two manual NAT rules below the Automatic Hide NAT rules for network 172.16.10.0, in the Address Translation Rule Base.

3.
Select “HTTP” in the Service column of both manual NAT rules.

4.
Enter an ARP entry and route on the Security Gateway’s OS.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Using SmartDefense how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports? By enabling:
A. Network Port scan
B. Host Port scan
C. Malware Scan protection
D. Sweep Scan protection
E. Malicious Code Protector

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Jack’s project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization’s disaster recovery plan for his
organization’s distributed NGX installation. Jack must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required objective: The security policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24
hours.
Desired objective: The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up no less
frequently than once a week. Desired objective: Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week.
Administrators should be able to view backed up logs in SmartView Tracker.
Jack’s disaster recovery plan is as follows:
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each night on the SmartCenter Servers. Configure
the organization’s routine backup software to back up the files created by the upgrade_export command.
Configure the SecurePlatform backup utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each Saturday night on the Log Servers.
Configure an automatic, nightly logexport. Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up
the export log every night.
Jack’s plan:

A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
B. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
D. Does not meet the required objective.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Anna is working at Certkiller .com, together with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole tool should she use to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Eventia Tracker
D. Eventia Monitor
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B

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SOA Certified Professional, SOACP

SOA Certified Professional S90-01A Certification Exam, Sale Latest Release SOA Certified Professional S90-01A Tests 100% Pass With A High Score

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QUESTION 50
.
Complete the following statement with the correct text: “The objective of organizational agility is to dramatically reduce the time and effort required to fulfill new or changed business requirements…
A. …as long as the business requirements don’t change too often.”
B. …once legacy integration has been broadly achieved.”
C. …once a collection of mature agnostic services is available.”
D. …as long as the organization can continually outsource its IT projects.”
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
.
Service composition is important to the success of SOA initiatives because:
A. You can only create service-oriented solutions as service compositions.
B. Services that compose multiple legacy systems can be designed to leverage only the parts of each system that are relevant to the functional context of the service.
C. Service compositions enable the service-oriented computing goal of Increased Federation by guaranteeing that service endpoints are consistently designed and developed.
D. Services that can be composed and recomposed support several service-oriented computing goals, including Increased ROI and Increased Organizational Agility.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
.
A software program that invokes and interacts with a service is referred to as a:

A. service contract
B. service inventory
C. service container
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
.
The ability of one service to __________ another service forms the basis of service __________.

A. divert, diversification
B. register, registries
C. consume, composition
D. integrate, integration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. For a service consumer to interact with a service it must comply to the requirements of the service contract.
B. The service contract is used to express meta data about a service for human consumption only, and compliance to the service contract by service consumers is therefore not required.
C. Service contracts are only used to access a service when the service consumer itself is not a service.
D. All of these statements are true.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Intrinsic Interoperability.
B. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Governance Integration.
C. The standardization of service contracts is supported by service-orientation.
D. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Federation.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
. If a service can have one or more service capabilities, then how can a service consumer interact with a service?
A. It can’t. The service must only provide one service capability in order for it to be accessible by service consumers.
B. Each service capability represents a function that the service has to offer. The service consumer can invoke and interact with one service capability at a time, thereby only using a subset of the service’s overall functionality.
C. Service capabilities are designed to be composed together, which means that in order for a service consumer to interact with a service, it must be designed to invoke all of its service capabilities at the same time.
D. Services do not have service capabilities that are explicitly invoked. Services almost always exist as event-driven programs that transparently intercept service consumer messages at runtime.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
.
An IT enterprise proceeds with an SOA initiative that is based on the creation of a single enterprise service inventory. However, conflicts arise when different IT departments disagree on who will own the services and how they will be governed. Which of the following alternative approaches could be chosen to address these conflicts?
A. The top-down approach is chosen. This allows services to be modeled subsequent to their design, thereby enabling each service to be governed by multiple owners.
B. It is decided to proceed with the creation of multiple domain service inventories. This allows collections of services to be independently governed by different owners, while still enabling the IT enterprise as a whole to transition toward SOA.
C. The established “contract last” approach is chosen, allowing different IT managers to focus on contract-related governance issues after the services are deployed and in use.
D. Because SOA projects absolutely require enterprise-wide standardization and further demand the creation of an enterprise service inventory, the IT managers have no choice than to cancel the project.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
.
Project Team A delivers Domain Service Inventory A with 20 services. If Project Team B delivers Domain Service Inventory B with 50 services, how many services are in the Enterprise Service Inventory?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 70
D. An enterprise service inventory is not comprised of domain service inventories.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
.
What is the minimum number of domain service inventories you need in order to create a single enterprise service inventory?
A. two
B. three
C. one for each business domain
D. An enterprise service inventory is not comprised of domain service inventories.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
.
Four IT managers from different organizations have chosen to adopt SO
A. When subsequently interviewed, each was asked to explain why this decision was made. One of the IT managers is confused and chose to adopt SOA for the wrong reasons. Study the following responses and select the one that is not accurate:
B. “SOA will help us increase the responsiveness of the organization as a whole. When our business encounters change, our IT department will be able to adapt and respond to this change more efficiently and effectively than before.”
C. “SOA will help us increase the amount of value we get from the software programs we build as reusable services. Over time, this will allow us to improve the cost-effectiveness of IT as a whole.”
D. “SOA will help us streamline our IT enterprise. Our goal, ultimately, is to turn the IT department into a part of the organization that provides increased value to the business while reducing its overall burden.”
E. “SOA will help our IT department overcome cultural challenges we’ve traditionally had with the ownership of EAI (Enterprise Application Integration) platforms. Through the use of proven bridging and transformation technologies introduced by SOA, any IT staff that have historically disagreed with each other about ownership issues, will now be able to overcome their differences.” Complete collection of S90-01A Exam’s Question and answers. http://www.ExamsKey.com

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
.
Below are excerpts from four different SOA adoption strategy documents. Based on your understanding of SOA, service-orientation, and the goals of service-oriented computing, select the adoption strategy that is clearly the most likely to succeed:
A. “As part of our planned transition toward service-orientation, we will continue to extend the existing legacy applications with transformation-centric middleware that will enable seamless integration and runtime conversion between the different data models and data formats used by these applications.”
B. “Each of our existing legacy applications already establishes a domain boundary that is defined by the purpose of the application. We are confident that by leveraging these pre-defined silo-based boundaries we can create a series of effective domain service inventories, each with a scope that corresponds to a legacy application boundary.”
C. “Our strategy fully supports the tactical (short-term) nature of service-oriented computing by de-emphasizing standardization and allowing different project teams to deliver services optimized to their respective requirements. This not only speeds the initial delivery of services, it further supports interoperability by enabling services to leverage established integration technologies.”
D. “Our strategy is to make the consistent application of service-orientation principles a priority in order to support the attainment of the goals of service-oriented computing. The primary justification for this approach is the fact that we have identified the goals of service-oriented computing to be in alignment with our own business goals.”
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
.
Which of the following is an expected result of successfully adopting SOA?
A. A natural increase in runtime performance that you will gain as a result of the fact that service compositions will often be comprised of a greater amount of individually participating programs (services) than traditional distributed applications.
B. The fact that the existing IT organizational structure will not have to change because of how well a service-oriented enterprise fits into traditional IT departmental structures that are focused on project-centric application delivery.
C. The tactical (short-term) focus of service-orientation, which allows for the initial rapid delivery of services without concerns about their subsequent governance.
D. The strategic (long-term) target state that is attainable when many of the services delivered are interoperable and reusable, thereby allowing for them to be repeatedly composed in response to new and changing business requirements.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
.
Service Composition A is comprised of 4 services. Service Composition B is comprised of 6 services. Because both service compositions are comprised of services from the same service inventory, the service inventory will have a total of how many services?
A. 10
B. 24
C. Based on the information provided, it’s impossible to know how many services reside in the service inventory because we don’t know how many other service compositions exist.
D. Based on the information provided, it’s impossible to know how many services reside in the service inventory because the quantity of services within a service inventory is not determined by the quantity of services in service compositions.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
.
I built a service-oriented solution a year ago comprised of 3 services. I’ve just been told that the business process automated by the solution is going to be replaced by a new business process that introduces some changes to how the business process logic needs to be automated. What should I do?
A. Replace the solution with a brand new service-oriented solution comprised of new services designed specifically to automate the new business process.
B. Identify the services within the solution that are no longer relevant to the new business process and permanently retire them so that no other service-oriented solution inadvertently uses them.
C. Assuming there is an established service inventory in place, attempt to locate any existing services that can provide the logic required to automate the new business process and then change how the services within the solution need to be composed, as required.
D. Due to the fact that service-oriented solutions are inherently unable to adapt to business process change, you should investigate for how long you can continue to use your current solution. Even if it does not exactly provide the functionality required by the new business process, it is still likely to automate a subset of the new business process logic, thereby providing you with an opportunity to continue to get some value from the solution before you are forced to retire it.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
.
Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. I am going to register my new service in the service registry so that other project teams can discover it in order to determine whether they should reuse it as part of service-oriented solutions they are planning to build.
B. I am going to register my new service inventory in the service registry in order to improve the performance of my service-oriented solution, because other services in my service composition will be able to dynamically discover and retrieve the new service much faster than if it was not registered in
the service registry.
C. I am going to register my new service in the service registry because Service Registration is one of the eight principles of service-orientation.
D. None of these statements make sense.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
.
Which of the following is a recommended or common part of a service-oriented enterprise?

A. business services
B. service registries
C. service contracts
D. all of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
.
I anticipate building larger service compositions comprised of more services. How will this likely affect performance and infrastructure?
A. It will likely increase performance demands and require an increase in infrastructure investment.
B. It will likely reduce performance demands and require an increase in infrastructure investment.
C. It will likely increase performance demands and require a reduction in infrastructure investment.
D. It will not affect performance or infrastructure.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
. Service A invokes ServiceB. Service B invokes ServiceC. Service C invokes both Service D and Service
A. In this runtime scenario, which services are acting as service consumers?
B. Service A, Service B, Service C
C. Service D, Service E
D. Service A
E. None, because a service cannot also be a service consumer.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
.
When following the distinct lifecycle phases of an SOA delivery project you are:

A. discouraged from involving business analysts as part of the definition of services so that services remain technically focused
B. discouraged from involving technology experts as part of the definition of services so that services remain business focused
C. encouraged to have business analysts and technology experts collaborate in the definition of services so that services have and retain an alignment of technology and business
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 70
.
When you establish a federated service layer, you end up creating:

A. a unified set of service contracts for the benefit of those building service consumers
B. a unified set of service consumer programs for the benefit of those building services to be consumed by those programs
C. a unified set of service compositions for the benefit of those responsible for defining service inventory boundaries
D. all of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
.
A service-oriented solution can be comprised of a single service with a single service capability.

A. True B .False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 72
.
Service-oriented architecture must be designed to be both integration-centric and silo-based.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
.
Service-oriented analysis and service-oriented design are typical phases of an SOA delivery lifecycle.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
.
The Universal SOA Commission (USOAC) has been standardizing the service-oriented architectural model since 1998. Their role is to regulate the marketplace to ensure that all usages of the “SOA” acronym for branding purposes are legitimate. They enforce this via product assessment and certification, a process that all of the major software vendors follow to obtain official USOAC certification.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
.
Service-orientation supports the realization of the strategic goals associated with service-oriented computing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
.
There can be different types or scopes of service-oriented architecture. For example, you could define separate architecture specifications for a service and a service inventory.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A

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ACMA, Apple

Apple 9L0-964 Exam Practice PDF, New Release Apple 9L0-964 Demo Download With High Quality

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QUESTION 66
Which synchronization options are available when creating a multiclip.(Select all that apply.)
A. In Points
B. Out Points
C. Markers
D. Timecode

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 67
Click the button that allows you to display Title Safe.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
Which tool would perform this edit in one drag?(Select the best answer.)

A. Slide Tool
B. Ripple Tool
C. Roll Tool
D. Slip Tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Click the tool used to make keyframes.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 70
Which transition alignment is being used at this edit point?(Select the best answer.)

A. Start on Edit
B. Center on Edit
C. End on Edit

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
What is the result of applying the above to an audio clip?(Select the best answer.)

A. The lowest dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
B. The average dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
C. The peak dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Click the Clip Overlays control.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 73
You want to output an HDV sequence to HDV tape. Which output option should you select?(Select the best answer.)
A. Edit to Tape
B. Print to Video
C. QuickTime Movie
D. QuickTime Conversion Correct Answer: B

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Sybase, Sybase Certification

Sybase 510-026 Online Exam, Most Hottest Sybase 510-026 Preparation Materials Is What You Need To Take

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The 100% valid latest Sybase 510-026 question answers ensure you 100% pass! And now we are offering the free Sybase 510-026 new version along with the VCE format Sybase 510-026 practice test. Free download more new Sybase 510-026 PDF and VCE on Flydumps.com.

Question: 1
Which of the following statistics are NOT captured by QP Metrics?
A. Elapsed time
B. Logical I/O
C. Physical I/O
D. Subquery caching

Answer: D
Question: 2
In which of the following partition types is data distributed in order of operation?
A. Hash
B. Range
C. List
D. Round robin

Answer: D
Question: 3
Which of the following are TRUE about the cursor fetch statement? (Choose 2)
A. The row number starts at 0.
B. If fetch behavior is not specified, the next row is assumed by default.
C. For a scrollable cursor, @@rowcount cannot exceed the total number of rows in the result set.
D. @@fetch_status=0 implies the last fetch was successful.

Answer: B, D
Question: 4
Which function measures the amount of change in the data distribution since update statistics?
A. Data_pages
B. Count
C. Datachange
D. Used_pgs
Answer: C
Question: 5
Global indexes can be clustered on
A. Round robin partitioned tables only.WS
B. Round robin or range partitioned tables.
C. Round robin, range or hash partitioned tables.
D. List partitioned tables only.
Answer: A
Question: 6
The allrows_oltp optimization goal considers
A. Bushy trees.
B. Hash joins.

Exam Name: Sybase ASE SQL Developer Professional Exam (Versuib 15.0)
Exam Type: Sybase
Exam Code: 510-026 Total Questions: 120

C. Merge joins.
D. Nested loop joins.
E. Parallelism.
F. All optimization methods.

Answer: D
Question: 7
An operator tree is displayed as a result of which command?
A. Set showplan on
B. Set option show_lio on
C. Set statistics plancost on
D. Set option show long

Answer: C
Question: 8
Metrics capture gives the administrator the ability to see which query performed (Choose 2)
A. the most physical I/O.
B. the least logical I/O.
C. a table scan.
D. a clustered index scan.
E. large I/O.

Answer: A, B
Question: 9
Which type of join requires outer and inner tables sorted in join key order?
A. Nested Loop
B. Merge
C. Hash
D. N-ary Nested Loop
Answer: B
Question: 10
In which of the following clauses of a SELECT are subqueries permitted? (Choose 3)
A. SELECT
B. WHERE
C. GROUP BY
D. FROM
E. ORDER BY
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 11
Which operator returns a single result set that combines the result of two or more queries?
A. IN
B. UNION
C. LIKE D. AND

Exam Name: Sybase ASE SQL Developer Professional Exam (Versuib 15.0)
Exam Type: Sybase
Exam Code: 510-026 Total Questions: 120
Answer: B
Question: 12
Which of the following is TRUE about correlated subqueries?
A. The two statements can be resolved independently of one another.
B. The subqueries can be run in any order.
C. The subqueries can be rewritten as joins.
D. The inner query is dependent on the outer query.

Answer: D
Question: 13
Isolation level 2
A. Decreases the duration of shared locks.
B. Decreases the duration of exclusive locks.
C. Increases the duration of shared locks.
D. Only applies to All Pages locking schemes.

Answer: C
Question: 14
What lock type will prevent a series of shared locks from blocking an exclusive lock?
A. Demand
B. Intent
C. Next-key
D. Range-key
E. Update

Answer: A
Question: 15
When using the READPAST keyword, when do rows/pages with conflicting locks get read?
A. As soon as blocking locks are released
B. At the end of each read operation
C. At the end of the transaction
D. Depends on the value of lock wait
E. Never
Answer: E
Question: 16
Locks escalate from (Choose 2)
A. latch to page.
B. latch to row.
C. page to table.
D. row to page.
E. row to table.

Exam Name: Sybase ASE SQL Developer Professional Exam (Versuib 15.0)
Exam Type: Sybase
Exam Code: 510-026 Total Questions: 120
Answer: C, E
Question: 17
Which of the following options is FALSE about unchained mode in ASE?
A. A commit tran is always implied for every transaction.
B. Unchained mode is the default mode in ASE
C. The server does not issue the begin tran implicity
D. The value of @@tranchained is 0

Answer: A
Question: 18
Given the following command sequence: create table publishers (pub_id char(4) not null, pub_name varchar(40) null, city varchar(20) null, state char(2) null) go create default def_ca as CA go create default def_ny as NY go sp_bindefault def_ca, publishers.state go sp_bindefault def_ny, publishers.state go insert publishers (pub_id, pub_name, city, state) values (0736, New Age Books, Berkeley, null) go
What will be the result? (Choose 2)
A. The state column will have the value CA.
B. The state column will have the value NY.
C. The sp_bindefault def_ca command will generate an error.
D. The sp_bindefault def_ny command will generate an error.
E. The state column will be null.
F. The insert command will generate an error.
Answer: D, E
Question: 19
Which of the following structures can be used to enforce entity integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Trigger
B. sp_primarykey
C. Check constraint
D. References constraint
E. Primary key constraint
Answer: A, E
Question: 20

Exam Name: Sybase ASE SQL Developer Professional Exam (Versuib 15.0)
Exam Type: Sybase
Exam Code: 510-026 Total Questions: 120

What methods are available to enforce entity integrity?
A. Check constraints
B. Primary key constraints
C. Reference constraints
D. Rules

Answer: B
Question: 21
Which normal forms require that non-key columns be functionally dependent solely on the primary key? (Choose 3)
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. BoyceCodd

Answer: C, D, E
Question: 22
What is the effect of creating a stored procedure with recompile?
A. The stored procedure will not pass output parameters
B. The stored procedure will be re-optimized each time it is executed
C. The stored procedure query tree will not be saved in the sysprocedures table
D. The stored procedure will not fire any triggers

Answer: B
Question: 23
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the rollback trigger statement? (Choose 2)
A. May modify the value of @@error
B. Allows the trigger to finish executing before rolling back
C. Rolls back the entire transaction that contains the trigger
D. Rolls back work done by the trigger and the firing statement
E. Rolls back only work done by the trigger, not the firing statement

Answer: A, D
Question: 24
Which of the following commands can be used to receive a return status from a stored procedure?
A. select @status = exec proc_name @parm1
B. exec @status = proc_name @parm1
C. exec proc_name @parm1 select @status = @parm1
D. exec proc_name @parm1 select @status = @@sqlstatus
E. exec pro_name @status = @parm1
Answer: B Question: 25

Exam Name: Sybase ASE SQL Developer Professional Exam (Versuib 15.0)
Exam Type: Sybase
Exam Code: 510-026 Total Questions: 120

When a view is used within a procedure, how is the view referenced within the query tree?
A. By object id
B. By the view name
C. By the internal binary reference number assigned to derived objects
D. By the names of the objects referenced by the view when it was created

Answer: A
Question: 26
Which of the following statistics is NOT simulated?
A. Cache pools
B. Max parallel degree
C. Table level statistics
D. Column statistics

Answer: D
Question: 27
What is the command-line utility for viewing, writing and simulating statistics?
A. sybmigrate
B. optdiag
C. sqldbgr
D. bcp

Answer: B
Question: 28
What is used to determine how many rows qualify for the search argument?
A. Histogram
B. Forwarded rows
C. Data cluster ratio
D. Index cluster ratio
Answer: A
Question: 29
The modulos operator (%) CANNOT be used on the _____ datatype.
A. Tinyint
B. Money
C. Float
D. Smallint
Answer: B
Question: 30
Which of the following statements are FALSE about identity columns? (Choose 2)
A. The identity_insert command allows the user to put in duplicate values in the column.
B. The identity column can use any integer as its datatype.

Sybase 510-026 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Sybase 510-026 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Sybase 510-026 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Sybase 510-026 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations,thus increasing recall during exam time.

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RCSA-SD, Riverbed

Riverbed 501-01 Test, Latest Updated Riverbed 501-01 Exam Download Is What You Need To Take

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QUESTION 1
Granite Edge appliance supports which of the following protocols? (Select 2)
A. Fiber channel
B. iSCSI
C. MPIO
D. NFS
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
A customer is looking to deploy Steelhead EX 1160-L’s to 10 branches. Each branch is to have a file server with 2TB of storage. What data set size does the Granite Core appliance need to be capable of handling, assuming standard Granite Edge appliance blockstore sizing recommendations? (Each 1160 has been configured with 275 GB/275 GB VSP/Blockstore setting)
A. 20 TB
B. 10 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 2.75 TB
E. 2 TB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What file systems would most benefit on pinning a LUN? (Select 2)
A. NTFS formatted LUN.
B. EXT3 formatted LUN.
C. FAT32 formatted LUN.
D. VMFS 3 formatted LUN.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
The Riverbed hardware snapshot provider will run on which of the following operating systems? (Choose 2)
A. Redhat Linux
B. Windows 2008 R2
C. Windows 2003
D. Windows 2008
E. SUSE Enterprise

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
After connecting a Granite Core appliance to a Granite Edge appliance, all Granite appliances configurations are completed at:
A. The Edge
B. The Core
C. The array
D. The server
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Utilizing Granite appliance allows customers to: (Select 2)
A. Remove storage from the branch.
B. Centralize backups.
C. Collaborate on shared files across the whole network.
D. Accelerate centralized file servers.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
What is the default write reserve percentage of blockstore size?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
If Granite appliance experiences a WAN outage, and a user requests a block that *is* contained in the blockstore, what happens?
A. Blue screen
B. I/O error
C. The read request is satisfied
D. The read request is queued

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Some users at a specific branch have been reporting that occasionally when accessing their local file server (which is being presented out through Granite appliance onto ESXi), it is continually hanging when attempting to access certain files, which eventually reports “File does not exist”. What is the most likely problem?
A. The SAN array is having communications issues with the Granite appliance Core.
B. The Granite appliance Core is having communications issues with the Granite appliance Edge.
C. ESXi is having issues communicating to the Granite appliance Edge.
D. ESXi is having issues communicating to the Granite appliance Core.
E. The Steelhead appliance is not optimizing the Granite appliance traffic.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What information is needed to configure a Granite Edge in the Granite Core?
A. Granite Edge Identifier.
B. IP address of the Granite Edge.
C. Primary IP address of the Granite Edge.
D. Granite Edge IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name).
E. In-path IP address of Granite Edge.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The Riverbed hardware snapshot provider enables what?
A. Multipath I/O
B. Application-consistent snapshots
C. Crash-consistent snapshots
D. Storage array snapshots

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
What are three available disk management modes for the Granite Edge? (Select 3)
A. Granite storage mode.
B. Granite standalone mode.
C. VSP standalone storage mode.
D. VSP and local LUN mode.
E. VSP and Granite storage mode.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 13
The delay between taking a snapshot at the edge and flushing the snapshot to the storage array is called what?
A. Snapshot Target
B. Snapshot Lag
C. Snapshot Window
D. Snapshot Integration

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What are two optional Windows server plugins utilities for branch offices using Granite appliance?
A. DFS and VSS.
B. VSS and Turbo Boot.
C. IPCFG and Diskshadow.
D. RHSP and Turbo Boot.
E. iSCSI Initiator and iSCSI target.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following storage array features does Granite appliance allow customers to take advantage of? (Select 2)
A. Deduplication
B. Extends data center thin provisioning
C. Backup and restore
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 16
Granite appliance simplifies backup and restore by migrating these functions to:
A. The data center
B. Tape drives
C. The cloud
D. The branch office

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The term for “fixing” a LUN’s blocks in blockstore so that they may not be ejected via LRU is:
A. Pinning
B. Prepop
C. Snapshot
D. Online

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Customer Acme corporation has 30 remote offices and needs to make 20 TBytes of storage available to those offices. What would be the appropriate Granite Core appliance for sizing?
A. VGC1000 L
B. VGC1000 H
C. GC2000 L
D. GC2000 M
E. GC2000 H
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which Granite appliance feature would be used to implement disconnected operations? (Select 2)
A. Pinning
B. Offlining
C. High availability
D. MPIO
E. Prepopulation
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
What are the default ports used between the Granite Edge and Granite Core on a Steelhead EX platform?
A. 7150-7154, 7170
B. 7950-7954, 7970
C. Granite uses the same default ports as the Steelhead WAN Optimization

D. 7750-7754, 7770
E. 7050-7050, 7070
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
In a solution where Granite appliance is providing projected LUNs to the branch office the Granite Edge is considered what?
A. ESXi server and LUN
B. MPIO initiator
C. iSCSI target
D. iSCSI initiator

The Cisco contains more than 400 practice questions for the Riverbed 501-01 exams,including simulation-based questions.Also contains hands-on exercises and a customized copy of the Riverbed 501-01 exams network simulation software.

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ECCouncil, ECCouncil Certification

ECCouncil 412-79V8 Exam Q&As, Provide Latest ECCouncil 412-79V8 Exam Guide For Sale

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the table inside the database using the below query and finds the table: http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx notation, where ‘xx’ is the
A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that could be exploited by an external attacker.

During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level of a company.
Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing
C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
The IP protocol was designed for use on a wide variety of transmission links. Although the maximum length of an IP datagram is 64K, most transmission links enforce a smaller maximum packet length limit, called a MTU. The value of the MTU depends on the type of the transmission link. The design of IP accommodates MTU differences by allowing routers to fragment IP datagrams as necessary. The receiving station is responsible for reassembling the fragments back into the original full size IP datagram. IP fragmentation involves breaking a datagram into a number of pieces that can be reassembled later. The IP source, destination, identification, total length, and fragment offset fields in the IP header, are used for IP fragmentation and reassembly.

The fragment offset is 13 bits and indicates where a fragment belongs in the original IP datagram. This value is a:
A. Multiple of four bytes
B. Multiple of two bytes
C. Multiple of eight bytes
D. Multiple of six bytes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
From where can clues about the underlying application environment can be collected?
A. From the extension of the file
B. From executable file
C. From file types and directories
D. From source code

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which of the following information gathering techniques collects information from an organization’s web-based calendar and email services?
A. Anonymous Information Gathering
B. Private Information Gathering
C. Passive Information Gathering
D. Active Information Gathering

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which Wireshark filter displays all the packets where the IP address of the source host is 10.0.0.7?

A. ip.dst==10.0.0.7
B. ip.port==10.0.0.7
C. ip.src==10.0.0.7
D. ip.dstport==10.0.0.7

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is true about the LM hash?
A. Disabled in Windows Vista and 7 OSs
B. Separated into two 8-character strings
C. Letters are converted to the lowercase
D. Padded with NULL to 16 characters

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Which of the following statement holds true for TCP Operation?

A. Port numbers are used to know which application the receiving host should pass the data to
B. Sequence numbers are used to track the number of packets lost in transmission
C. Flow control shows the trend of a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host
D. Data transfer begins even before the connection is established

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following will not handle routing protocols properly?
A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture”
B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture”
C. “Internet-firewall -net architecture”
D. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture”
Correct Answer: B

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