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QUESTION 112
Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of a network that is well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router within the network. The classification is based on as many details as possible, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets.
B. Packets are classified based on their position from the hub and the closeness to the router. All the packets are manually classified based on their positioning and flow of the router.
C. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closets to the source of the traffic. The packets are characterized automatically based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
E. Packets are classified based on variable parameters, but close to the edge of the network. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Network design practice emphasizes that you should classify or mark traffic as close to the edge of the network as possible. Traffic class is a criterion for queue selection in the various queuing schemes used at interfaces within the campus switches and WAN devices. When you connect an IP phone using a single cable, the phone becomes the edge of the managed network. As the edge device, the IP phone can and
should classify and mark traffic flows so that network QoS mechanisms can correctly handle the packets.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would you use in the CPE to make sure that voice packets are limited to the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and do not expand beyond the CIR of Frame Relay links?
A. Prioritization
B. Traffic shaping
C. Traffic policing
D. Segmentation
E. Classification
F. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 114
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why CBWFQ is not recommended for voice traffic.
What will your reply be?
A. CBWFQ does not support FIFO
B. CBWFQ allows queue starvation
C. CBWFQ guarantees delay but does not guarantee bandwidth
D. CBWFQ guarantees bandwidth but does not guarantee delay
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 115
Within the IP header, which fields of the ToS byte provide Layer 3 classification? (Choose two.)
A. CoS
B. TTL
C. SNAP
D. DSCP
E. IP Precedence

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which of the following represent the advantages of implementing QoS in Enterprise Networks? (Choose two.)
A. It decreases propagation delay
B. It provides predictable response times.
C. It supports dedicated bandwidth per application.
D. It prevents the need to increase bandwidth when adding applications.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 117
With regard to classification and marketing, which of the following statement is true?
A. When classifying packets at Layer 3, only Layer 3 IP Precedence markings can be used.
B. Marking features allows a router to mark any field that the classification features can examine
C. Classification features can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, unless the packet has already been marked, in which case only the marked field can be examined
D. Although classification can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, it is useful to mark the packet, so that switches and routers that later receive the packet can apply features based on the market field.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Packet classification features provide the capability to partition network traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. For example, by using the three precedence bits in the type of service (ToS) field of the IP packet header (two of the values are reserved for other purposes), you can categorize packets into a limited set of up to six traffic classes. After you classify packets, you can utilize other QoS features to assign the appropriate traffic handling policies, including congestion management, bandwidth allocation, and delay bounds for each traffic class.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.7-18.
QUESTION 118
Certkiller, the CEO of Toronto division of Certkiller.com, want to know what the characteristics of RSVP are.
What should you tell Mrs. Bill?
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Resource Reservation Protocol. Protocol that supports the reservation of resources across an IP network.
Applications running on IP end systems can use RSVP to indicate to other nodes the nature (bandwidth,
jitter, maximum burst, and so on) of the packet streams they want to receive. Also known as Resource
Reservation Setup Protocol.
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is an IETF-draft networking protocol dedicated to being the
facilitator and carrier of standardized QOS information and parameters.

RSVP carries generic (industry-defined) QOS parameters from end nodes (inclusive) to each QOS-aware
network device included in the path between RSVP session members.
That is, RSVP is a means by which end nodes and network devices can communicate and negotiate QOS

parameters and network usage admission.
Reference: Arch student guide p. B-23.
QUESTION 119
Which two of the following factors are typically used to determine QoS requirements for real-time applications such as IP Telephony?
A. Latency
B. Jitter
C. Echo delay
D. Two-way latency
E. Propagation delay

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Voice, as a class of IP network traffic, has strict requirements concerning delay and delay variation (also known as jitter). Compared to most data, it is relatively tolerant of loss. To meet the requirements for voice traffic, the Cisco AVVID IP telephony solution uses a wide range of IP QoS features such as classification, queuing, congestion detection, traffic shaping, and compression.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76.
QUESTION 120
Which speed links is recommended for link efficiency tools to be used?
A. Links below 10 Mbps
B. Links above 2.0 Mbps
C. Links equal to 1.5 Mbps
D. Links at or below 768 Kbps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Link efficiency interleaving is used on links at or below 768 Kbps.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-29
QUESTION 121
The ITU G.114 recommendation specifies which end-to-end delay as the threshold for high-quality voice.
A. 125 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When addressing the QoS needs of voice traffic, keep in mind.
1) One-way latency should be no more than 150-200 ms.
2) Jitter should be no more than 30 ms.
3) Loss should be no more than one percent.

Reference: Arch student guide p.7-45

QUESTION 122
What can be done when voice frames are delayed by large numbers of data packets at an interface?
A. Implement random early detection.
B. Implement prioritized queue service.
C. Implement aggressive fragmentation.
D. Implement token-bucket prioritization.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Allow applications to reserve bandwidth to meet their requirements. For example, a Voice over IP (VoIP) applications can reserve 32 kbps end-to-end using this kind of service. Cisco IOS QoS uses weighted fair queueing (WFQ) with RSVP to provide this kind of service. Guaranteed rate service is implemented using a queue-service discipline.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-12
QUESTION 123
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?
A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiffServ and IntServ are not IOS enhancements, but models of QoS implementations. WFQ is a basic queueing mechanism.

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QUESTION 121
Which specification can associate VLAN groups to Spanning Tree instances to provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
D. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
What is advertised by a Catalyst switch in a VTP domain?
A. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch
B. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CFI Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number
C. the management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters
D. a 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three.)
A. the use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic
B. the use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic
C. the proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible
D. the use of 802.1QinQ trunking for VoIP traffic
E. the use of WRED for the VoIP traffic

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which four protocols have been developed for IP routing redundancy to protect against first-hop router failure? (Choose four.)
A. HSRP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. VRRP
E. MSTP
F. GLBP

Correct Answer: ABDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 30
Which three encryption policies does MACsec support? (Choose three.)
A. always-secure
B. must-secure
C. should-secure
D. never-secure
E. must-not-secure

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Which URL should you enter into the SCEP Certificate Authority profile to enable Native Supplicant Provisioning?
A. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/mscep/mscep.dll
B. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/mscep/scep.dll
C. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/certsrv/scep/scep.dll
D. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/certsrv/mscep/mscep.dll
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which network information device sensor is sending in the RADIUS accounting packet?
A. DHCP
B. HTTP
C. LLDP
D. CDP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which of these is not a default behavior of Cisco ISE 1.1, with respect to authentication, when a user connects to a switch port that is configured for 802.1X, MAB, and web authentication?
A. MAB uses internal endpoints for retrieving identity.
B. 802.1X uses internal users for retrieving identity.
C. Central WebAuth relies on MAB for initial port authentication.
D. Authentication fails if there is no matching policy.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)
A. The default behavior is shown in the exhibit.
B. The default behavior should be Continue/Continue/Continue.
C. If Continue/Continue/Continue is configured, the endpoint is allowed on the network.
D. The default Identity Source is shown in the exhibit.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about identity groups and their use in an authorization policy? (Choose two.)
A. Only user identity groups can be created in Cisco ISE.
B. User identity groups can reference internal and external stores.
C. The Whitelist identity group that is shown in the exhibit can be used to contain MAC addresses that are statically entered into Cisco ISE.
D. The Whitelist identity group is one of the predefined identity groups in Cisco ISE.
E. Identity groups can only reference internal endpoints and users in the local database.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

The authorization policy is using “Multiple Matched Rule Applies” for rule matching.
ProfileA = VLAN attribute 10
ProfileB = DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE
Which statement is correct with regards to the Multiple Matched rule?

A. The Multiple Matched rule is not supported in Cisco ISE.
B. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will only receive VLAN attribute 10.
C. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will receive VLAN attribute 0, DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE.
D. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will only receive DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
How are access control lists implemented on a Cisco WLC in a Cisco ISE authorization policy?
A. Dynamic access lists are configured in Cisco ISE.
B. Named access lists are configured in Cisco ISE.
C. Named access lists are pushed down to the WLC.
D. Named access lists are configured on the WLC.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which two statements are correct about Change of Authorization? (Choose two.)
A. Different Change of Authorization types of action can be set based on authorization policy.
B. Change of Authorization exception actions are configured globally in Cisco ISE.
C. Port bounce, reauth, and port shun are supported Change of Authorization types in Cisco ISE.
D. No CoA, port bounce, and reauth are supported Change of Authorization types in Cisco ISE.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 39
Which two statements are correct regarding Cisco ISE Guest Services? (Choose two.)
A. Guest portals must be located on the same secondary node where Cisco ISE network access is configured to handle RADIUS requests in the NAD.
B. A guest administration user interface action can be made from the primary and secondary administration interfaces.
C. The configuration mode for guest services can be different for each node in the deployment.
D. Multiportal uploads to the primary node are replicated to the secondary node and installed as part of the standard data replication system.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 40
What are the Cisco ISE posture building blocks?
A. posture check, posture rules, posture requirement, role requirements
B. posture condition, compound posture condition, posture requirements, posture policy
C. network access devices, Policy Service node, Administration node
D. posture condition, posture rules, role requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which three of these are viable endpoint posture compliance statuses? (Choose three.)
A. unknown
B. infected
C. clean
D. compliant
E. noncompliant
F. quarantine
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 42
Which three conditions can be used for posture checking? (Choose three.)
A. application
B. operating system
C. file
D. certificate
E. service

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 43
Client provisioning resources can be added into the Cisco ISE Administration node from which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. www.cisco.com
B. local disk
C. Posture Agent Profile
D. FTP
E. TFTP

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 44
Which element is not included in the redirect URL?
A. hostname
B. port
C. ACL
D. session ID
E. action

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco ISE component intercepts HTTP and HTTPS requests and redirects them to the Guest User Portal?
A. Policy Service node
B. Administration node
C. Monitoring node
D. network access device
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Which of these is not a method that is used to obtain Cisco ISE profiling data?
A. NetFlow
B. DNS
C. RADIUS
D. QoS
E. active scans
F. SNMP query
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which three client provisioning policies can an administrator create to provision different resources? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint operating system
B. user identity group
C. dictionary-based conditions
D. certificates

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 48
Which of these is NOT a Cisco ISE deployment recommendation?
A. Create a secondary Administration node before adding a Policy Service node.
B. Ensure that node groups are L2-adjacent.
C. Profiling requires maintenance of L3 information.
D. Avoid installing Policy Service and Monitoring personas on the same node.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Which option represents the default action or actions that ISE 1.x 1.0 takes when the endpoint usage count exceeds licensed endpoint values?
A. block all traffic
B. block all traffic, and generate alarms
C. do not block traffic, and generate an INFO, WARNING, or CRITICAL alarm
D. do not take any action
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 82
Switch CK1 is configured to use the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP). What does CK1 advertise in its VTP domain?
A. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CF1 Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number.
C. The management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
D. A 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Each switch participating in VTP advertises VLAN information, revision numbers, and VLAN parameters

on its trunk ports to notify other switches in the management domain.
VTP advertisements are sent as multicast frames. The switch intercepts frames sent to the VTP multicast
address and processes them with its supervisory processor VTP frames are forwarded out trunk links as a
special case.
The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:

1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: page 115, David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7 Incorrect Answers: A: The total number of trunk links is not advertised.
B: A CFI is not advertised.
D: The TPID is not advertised. The value of 0x8100 is used to identify an 802.1Q trunking tag.
QUESTION 83
VTP switches use advertisements to exchange information with each other. Which of the following advertisement types are associated with VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. Domain advertisements
B. Advertisement requests from clients
C. Subset advertisements
D. Summary advertisements

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP advertisements include:

1.
Summary Advertisements – These go out every 5 minutes or ever time the VLAN
topology changes, and lists of information about the management domain (VTP version, domain name,
configuration revision number, timestamp, MD5 encryption hash code, & number of subset advertisements
incoming). When there is a configuration change, summary advertisements are complimented by or more
subset advertisements.
2.
Subset advertisements – These are sent out by VTP domain servers after a
configuration change. They list the specifics of the change (VLAN creation / deletion / suspension /
activation / name change / MTU change) and the VLAN parameters (VLAN status, VLAN type, MTU, VLAN
name, VLAN number, SAID value).
3.
Advertisement Requests from Clients- VTP clients request specific VLAN information
that they’re lacking (ie. Client switch is reset and loses its database, or VTP domain membership changes)
so they can be responded by summary and subset advertisements.
Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: pages 116-117 David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco
Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7

QUESTION 84
Switch CK1 is part of the Certkiller VTP domain. What’s true of VTP Pruning within this domain? (Select all that apply)
A. It does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
B. VLAN 1 is always pruning-eligible
C. it will prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
D. VLAN 2 is always pruning-ineligible
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By definition, pruning-ineligible VLANs can not be pruned. You can make specific VLANs pruning ineligible
with the clear vtp pruneeligible vlan_range command. By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since
the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: VLAN 1 is always pruning-ineligible
C: The opposite is true.
D: By default, VLANs 2-1000 are eligible to be pruned.
QUESTION 85
What action should you execute if you wanted to enable VTP pruning on your entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the management domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
E. Disable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server allows pruning for the entire management domain. Enabling this on the VTP server will mean that the VTP pruning configuration will be propagated to all VTP client switches within the domain. VTP pruning takes effect several seconds after you enable it. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 are pruning-eligible. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 117
QUESTION 86
Switch CK1 is configured with VTP. Which two VTP modes will make CK1 capable of creating and deleting VLANs on itself? (Select two)
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. No-negotiate

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP Modes
You can configure a switch to operate in any one of these VTP modes:

1.
Server-In VTP server mode, you can create, modify, and delete VLANs and specify other configuration parameters (such as VTP version) for the entire VTP domain. VTP servers advertise their VLAN configuration to other switches in the same VTP domain and synchronize their VLAN configuration with other switches based on advertisements received over trunk links. VTP server is the default mode.

2.
Client-VTP clients behave the same way as VTP servers, but you cannot create, change, or delete VLANs on a VTP client.

3.
Transparent-VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based
on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP
advertisements that they receive out their trunk interfaces.
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: Clients can not modify, add, or delete any VLAN information. D, E: These options are not valid VTP modes.
QUESTION 87
When the Catalyst switch CK1 is enabled to use VTP, which information does it advertise on its trunk ports? (Select two)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VTP protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout the network by distributing VLAN information to the network. VLAN information is sent to network devices in advertisements that contain the VTP management domain name, the current configuration revision number, the VLANs that the server knows about, and certain VLAN parameters. Any time you change a VLAN, VTP automatically sends an advertisement to update all other network devices. The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:
1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: Cisco, Configuring VTP http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/lan/cat5000/rel_6_1/config/vtp.htm
QUESTION 88
Is the following statement True or False?
MLS requires that MLS components be in the same VTP domain.

A. False
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. True
D. It could be true or false, depending on the type of switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
MLS requires that MLS components, including the end stations, must be in the same Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP) domain. VTP is a Layer 2 protocol used for managing VLANs on several Catalyst switches from a central switch. It allows an administrator to create or delete a VLAN on all switches in a domain without having to do so on every switch in that domain. The MultiLayer Switching Protocol (MLSP), which the MLS-SE and the MLS-RP use to communicate with one another, does not cross a VTP domain boundary.
QUESTION 89
Which of the following VTP modes receives and forwards VTP updates, but does NOT participate in VTP synchronization?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transparent-VTP transparent network devices do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent network device does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent network devices do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunking LAN ports.
QUESTION 90
How can VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. By limiting the spreading of VLAN information.
B. By reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs.
C. By disabling periodic VTP updates.
D. By restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains.
E. By updating unicast traffic periodically.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.
Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a0080091

QUESTION 91
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding VTP?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.
E. All of the above are true statements.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
For VTP pruning to be effective, all devices in the management domain must either support VTP pruning
or, on devices that do not support VTP pruning, you must manually configure the VLANs allowed on
trunks.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: This statement is true. Transparent VTP switches do not participate in the VTP process, but they do forward VTP information to other switches. B, C: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices.
QUESTION 92
By what condition can a VTP version 2 switch operate in the same domain as a switch running VTP version 1?
A. VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
B. VTP version 2 is enabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
C. VTP version 1 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
D. None of the above. VTP version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1
provided VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch (VTP version 2 is disabled by
default). With VTP version 2 disabled, the switch will revert to version 1 to become backward compatible.

QUESTION 93
Is the following statement True or False?
If you modified a VTP transparent switch, the changes you implement will affect all the switches in the
network?

A. True
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. False

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch. Transparent switches do not participate in VTP. Only changes made to a VTP
switch in server mode will be propagated to all the other client switches within the network.

QUESTION 94
Which of the following message types are associated with VTP header fields on a Cisco switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Summary advertisements
B. Advertisement requests
C. VTP Join messages
D. Subset advertisement
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The format of the VTP header can vary depending on the type of VTP message.
However, they all contain the following fields in the header: VTP protocol version: 1 or 2 VTP Message
Types: Summary advertisements, Subset advertisement, Advertisement requests, VTP join messages,
Management domain length, and Management domain name.

QUESTION 95
In order for the Certkiller network to use VTP, which of the following conditions have to be met? (Select all that apply)
A. Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
B. The Catalyst switches must be non-adjacent for trunking to be possible between them
C. The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
D. Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same VTP domain name.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: In order to use VTP, you must assign a VTP
domain name to each switch. VTP information will remain only within the same VLAN domain. The
following are conditions for a VTP domain: -Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same
VTP domain name.
-The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
-Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
If any one of the previous conditions is not met, the VTP domain is broken and information will not travel
between the two separate parts.

QUESTION 96
The Certkiller switches are all VTP enabled. What is true about VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. VTP version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
B. you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2.
C. VTP version 1 is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later
D. VTP version 1 is supported in ATM software release 3.1 or later.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco Documentation:
If you use VTP in your network, you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2. VTP version 1
is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later and ATM software release 3.1 or later. VTP
version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps679/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007
d

QUESTION 97
In the Certkiller switched network VTP pruning has been enabled. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
A. Enhancing network integrity
B. Enhancing network bandwidth use
C. Deploying AAA
D. Enhancing network security
E. Enhancing network load balancing
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.

QUESTION 98
Switches CK1 and CK2 are both configured for transparent mode in the VTP domain. Which statement accurately describes these transparent VTP switches? (Select all that apply):
A. They do not synchronize VLAN configuration based on received advertisements
B. They do not participate in VTP
C. They do not advertise VLAN configuration
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN
configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements.
However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out
their trunk ports.

QUESTION 99
You are configuring switch CK1 for VTP. Which of the following are valid VTP operating modes that can be configured on CK1 ? (Select all that apply)
A. Server
B. Front-end
C. Client
D. Transparent
E. Backbone

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are only three VTP operating modes:
1) Server: These switches have full control in the creation and modification of VLANs.
Servers advertise out all the VLAN information they receive, and they configure

themselves in accord with whatever information they hear. Switches are in server mode by default.
2) Client: These switches listen to VTP advertisements, they modify their configuration as a result of what
they hear, and they forward out VTP information to neighboring switches; but they don’t have the ability to:
create, change, or delete VLANs.
3) Transparent: These switches don’t participate in the VTP process. They don’t advertise their VLAN
configurations and they don’t synchronize their database when they receive advertisements. In VTP
version 1 a switch doesn’t relay information it gets to the other switches but in VTP version 2 they do.

QUESTION 100
Which of the following are true regarding the default values of a switch that is configured for VTP pruning? (Select two).
A. VLAN 1-1000 are pruning-eligible
B. VLAN 2-1000 are pruning-eligible
C. VLAN 1 is pruning-eligible
D. VLAN 1 is pruning-ineligible
E. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-eligible
F. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-ineligible

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst
switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.

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QUESTION 1
Which address type does the IPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A. unspecified
B. aggregable global unicast
C. link local
D. site local unicast
E. multicast
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: All IPv6 multicast addresses start with the first 8 bits of the address set to 1. Thus all multicast addresses start with the hexadecimal notation FF (1111 1111). The multicast range is as follows: FF00::/8 FFFF::/8 The second octet, following to the first octet of FF, identifies both the scope and the lifetime of the multicast address. In this way, IPv6 has millions of group multicast addresses to use in current and emerging technologies. Reference: CCNP Self-Study CCNP BSCI Exam Certification Guide p.112
QUESTION 2
In IS-IS routing, which level is used to route between different areas within the same domain?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which statement is true about the Certkiller .com network?

A. There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement.
B. All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000.
C. There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement.
D. All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded.
E. The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
Exhibit, Network topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, default information-originate, is added to the OSPF configuration on Certkiller 1, what will the neighboring routers see in their route table?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
B. O E1 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
C. O E2 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
D. No default routes will be propagated to neighboring routers.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 3, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?

A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Both Certkiller 5 and Certkiller 2 are performing two-way IGRP/RIP route redistribution. What behavior will Certkiller 2 use with the given Certkiller 2 configurations?
A. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through RIP will be ignored.
B. Updates about 192.168.1.0 will be advertised out the s0 interface.
C. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are heard through the s1 interface will be ignored.
D. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through IGRP will be added to the routing table, but not advertised to Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which command will Certkiller 2 use to summarize routes for the 192.168.16.0/22 supernet before injecting them into Area 0?

A. area 10 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
B. summary-address 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
C. ip summary-address ospf 101.192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
D. area 0 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
E. ip summary-address area 0 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three are advantages to creating multiple areas in OSPF? Select three.
A. less frequent SPF calculations
B. fewer hello packets
C. smaller routing tables
D. reduced LSU overhead
E. fewer adjacencies needed
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 2, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
B. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
C. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
D. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
E. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
F. All available paths.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Exhibit interface serial0 bandwidth 40 ip bandwidth-percent eigpr 1 200 In the configuration in the exhibit, how much bandwidth will be used by the EIGRP updates?
A. 40 kbps
B. 60 kbps
C. 80 kbps
D. 200 kbps
E. 40 Mbps
F. 60 Mbps
G. 80 Mbps
H. 200 Mbps
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor?
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? Select three.
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 address is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 13
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? Select three.
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Exhibit, Network Topology

Exhibit You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Studyy the exhibit carefully. What is the effect of the distribute list command in the Certkiller 1 configuration?

A. Certkiller 1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
B. Certkiller 1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
C. Certkiller 1 will filter 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
D. Certkiller 1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the following diagram:

When performing a show run on router Certkiller 1, you notice that two static entries shown above were
configured for the 10.0.0.0 network.
Which path will be selected by the router as the best path?

A. Per-destination load sharing will be implemented.
B. The path through Certkiller 2 will be used.
C. The path through Certkiller 3 will be used.
D. Per-packet load sharing will be implemented.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A static route configured using the interface is considered to be a directly connected route. Directly connected
routes have an administrative distance of 0, while all other static routes have and AD of 1. In this case, the route specifying the interface will be chosen over a static route that specifies the IP address of the next hop, because of the lower AD.
QUESTION 16
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. one update package
B. two update package
C. three update package
D. four update package
E. five update package
F. six update package
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP 2 Packet Format:
The RIP 2 specification (described in RFC 1723) allows more information to be included in RIP packets
and provides a simple authentication mechanism that is not supported by RIP. Figure 47-2 shows the IP
RIP 2
packet format.
The following descriptions summarize the IP RIP 2 packet format fields illustrated in Figure 47-2:
1.
Command-Indicates whether the packet is a request or a response. The request asks that a router send all or a part of its routing table. The response can be an unsolicited regular routing update or a reply to a request. Responses contain routing table entries. Multiple RIP packets are used to convey information from large routing tables.

2.
Version-Specifies the RIP version used. In a RIP packet implementing any of the RIP 2 fields or using authentication, this value is set to 2.

3.
Unused-Has a value set to zero.

4.
Address-family identifier (AFI)-Specifies the address family used. RIPv2’s AFI field functions identically to RFC 1058 RIP’s AFI field, with one exception: If the AFI for the first entry in the message is 0xFFFF, the remainder of the entry contains authentication information. Currently, the only authentication type is simple password.

5.
Route tag-Provides a method for distinguishing between internal routes (learned by RIP) and external routes (learned from other protocols).

6.
IP address-Specifies the IP address for the entry.

7.
Subnet mask-Contains the subnet mask for the entry. If this field is zero, no subnet mask has been specified for the entry.

8.
Next hop-Indicates the IP address of the next hop to which packets for the entry should be forwarded.

9.
Metric-Indicates how many internetwork hops (routers) have been traversed in the trip to the destination. This value is between 1 and 15 for a valid route, or 16 for an unreachable route. NoteUp to 25 occurrences of the AFI, Address, and Metric fields are permitted in a single IP RIP packet. That is, up to 25 routing table entries can be listed in a single RIP packet. If the AFI specifies an authenticated message, only 24 routing table entries can be specified. Given that individual table entries aren’t fragmented into multiple packets, RIP does not need a mechanism to resequence datagrams bearing routing table updates from neighboring routers. Since a single update packet can contain at most 25 route entries, 4 packets will be needed to advertise 77 routes.
QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single interface is used to route between subnets or networks, this is know as a router-on-a-stick.
To assign multiple IP addresses to the same interface, secondary addresses or subinterfaces are used.
The Advantage is that it is useful when there are limited Ethernet interfaces on the router.
The Disadvantages to this design are:
subnets. resources that will be consumed on the router can become an issue.

QUESTION 18
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three)
A. Supports variable-length subnet mask by default.
B. Does not support variable-length subnet mask by default.
C. Supports discontiguous networks by default.
D. Multicast updates to 224.0.0.9.
E. Broadcast updates.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Features of RIP v2 To help today’s IP internetworks minimize broadcast traffic, use variable length subnetting to conserve IP addresses, and secure their routing environment from misconfigured or malicious routers, several key features were added to RIP v2. Multicasted RIP Announcements Rather than broadcasting RIP announcements, RIP v2 supports sending RIP announcements to the IP multicast address of 224.0.0.9. Non-RIP nodes are not disturbed by RIP router announcement traffic. Subnet Masks RIP v2 announcements send the subnet mask (also known as a network mask) along with the network ID. RIP v2 can be used in subnetted, supernetted, and variable-length subnet mask environments. Subnets of a network ID do not have to be contiguous (they can be disjointed subnets).
QUESTION 19
The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used by the grand majority of distance vector routing protocols in DUAL (diffusing update algorithm). Which of the following routing protocols is it?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DUAL is used by EIGRP. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur.
QUESTION 20
The Certkiller EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command “variance 3” was added to the EIGRP configuration of Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Complex, redundant EIGRP networks can cause scalability problems. The best solution to this is to provide a means within the context of the EIGRP protocol itself to control traffic flows and limit query depth. TheEIGRP Stub Router functionality in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(7)T can achieve this solution. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
QUESTION 22
The Certkiller OSPF network is displayed below: Refer to the exhibit. All routers have converged and neighbor relationships have been established. Which state is Certkiller 4 in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment. The same process is repeated for the BDR. In case of a tie, the router with the highest RID will win. The default for the interface OSPF priority is one. Based on the output above, the dead timer shows that the neighbor relationships have already been established, so the state will be Full for all neighbors, and since the OSPF priorities are all set to 1, the router with the highest router ID will be the DR.
QUESTION 23
The Certkiller backbone OSPF network is shown below:

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Certkiller 1 RID is 1.1.1.1.
B. The Certkiller 1 RID is 10.1.1.1.
C. The Certkiller 1 RID is 192.168.1.1.
D. The Certkiller 2 RID is 10.1.1.2.
E. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.1.2.
F. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.2.1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Remember that the RID is the highest IP address on the box or the loopback interface, calculated at boot time or whenever the OSPF process is restarted. Although the other interfaces on routers Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are higher, the loopback interface is always used as the router ID. If more than one loopback interface is configured, the loopback interface with the highest IP address is chosen as the Router ID.
QUESTION 24

Which type of Link State Announcement will Certkiller E use to announce changes in network 22 to Area 1?
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The external link LSA is originated by AS boundary routers and is flooded throughout the AS. Each external advertisement describes a router to a destination in another autonomous system. Default routes for the AS can also be described by AS external advertisements. This is identified as a Type 5 LSA.
QUESTION 25
What is the OSPF cost for the 100 Mbps Ethernet media type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
E. 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, OSPF uses the formula of 100,000,000 (100M) divided by bandwidth, or 100,000,000/BW. For
a
100M fast Ethernet connection, the formula is 100M/100M = 1.

QUESTION 26
As a Certkiller .com network technician you are required to drag the appropriate IS-IS routing item to its correct definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Given the NSAP 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A NET is a NSAP where the last byte is always zero. On a router running IS-IS, a NET can be 8 to 20 B in length. The last byte is always the n-selector and must be zero. The n-selector indicates which transport entity the packet is sent to. An n-selector of zero indicates no transport entity, and means that the packet is for the routing software of the system. The six bytes directly preceding the n-selector are the system ID. The system ID length is a fixed size and cannot be changed. The system ID must be unique throughout each area (Level 1) and throughout the backbone (Level 2). All bytes preceding the system ID are the area ID. The area ID field is the portion of the NSAP preceding the system ID. The following example shows a router with area ID 47.0004.004d.0001 and system ID 0001.0c11.1110: 47.0004.004d.0001.0001.0c11.1110.00 In our example, the six bytes preceding the N selector is 0001.0c00.1211 which is the system ID. The portion preceding this, 39.0100.0102, is the area ID.
QUESTION 28
Which two commands can be used to verify that RIPv2 authentication is working properly to ensure that RIP neighbors form adjacencies properly? (Choose two.)
A. show interface
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip rip authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Verifying Plain Text Authentication RIP version 2 routers can use either plain text or MD5 authentication. By configuring the routers using RIPv2 authentication, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from thedebugip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3
02:11:39.207: RIP: received packet with text authentication 234 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: received v2 update from 141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:25, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C
80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 Using plain text authentication improves the network design by preventing the addition of routing updates originated by routers not meant to take part in the local routing exchange process. However, this type of authentication is not secure. The password (234 in this example) is exchanged in plain text. It can be captured easily and thus exploited. As mentioned before, MD5 authentication must be preferred over plain text authentication when security is an issue. Verifying MD5 Authentication By configuring the RA and RB routers as shown above, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received packet with MD5 authentication *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received v2 update from
141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 20:48:37.050: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:03, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 MD5 authentication uses the one-way, MD5 hash algorithm, acknowledged to be a strong hashing algorithm. In this mode of authentication, the routing update does not carry the password for the purpose of authentication. Rather, a 128-bit message, generated by running the MD5 algorithm on the password, and the message are sent along for authentication. Thus, it is recommended to use MD5 authentication over plain text authentication since it is more secure. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f1c.shtml#veri
QUESTION 29

1.
all routers are using BGP

2.
synchronization is OFF in AS 647000
A. Router CK6
B. Routers CK2 and CK6
C. Routers CK2 , CK4 , and CK6
D. Routers CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
F. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6
G. It will not be propagated to any other router

Correct Answer: FEACDGB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The AS PATH is a well known mandatory attribute. Mandatory means that it is required by all routers.
These
attributes are required and are therefore recognized by all BGP implementations.

QUESTION 32
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:

7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if bestpath is already selected.

9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath. Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.

10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).

11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 33
The Certkiller WAN is displayed below:

You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully.
BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and one of the default attributes have
been changed except the MED attribute on Certkiller 5.
Which path is preferred by Certkiller 2 to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24?

A. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it is the shortest path.
B. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it has a higher metric.
C. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower administrative distance.
D. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In BGP, the lowest MED metric is preferred over a higher metric. By default, the value of the metric is 0, so
for AS 200, the path via Certkiller 5 will have a metric of 0, and the path via Certkiller 1 will have a metric of
150, so the path from Certkiller 5 will be preferred.

QUESTION 34
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The WEIGHT attribute is a Cisco proprietary feature used to measure a route’s preference. The WEIGHT inbound route maps. Use the WEIGHT attribute to influence routes from multiple service providers to a central location. Like LOCAL_PREF, assigning a higher weight to a route makes that route more preferred. The WEIGHT attribute also has the highest precedence of any BGP attribute. Reference: CCIE Practical Studies: Configuring Route-Maps and Policy-based Routing, Karl Solie, Cisco Press.
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QUESTION 78
You are the network administrator at Flydumps. You are in the planning stages of upgrading the Certkiller network, and need to decide which protocol to use. You need to choose a protocol that will meet the following goals: Supports classless routing Supports VLSM Does not rely on TCP/IP to exchange routing information Performs auto-summarization by default Allows for manual route summarization Which routing protocol should you implement on the Certkiller network?
A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
E. IGRP
F. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: EIGRP is a classless protocol that supports VLSM and performs auto-summarization of subnets by default. The subnet routes are summarized into a single network number aggregate. In addition, IP-EIGRP will allow aggregation on any bit boundary in an IP address and can be configured on a network interface for additional granularity. EIGRP also supports automatic summarization of network addresses at major network borders. There is an automatic redistribution mechanism used so IGRP routes are imported into EIGRP and vice versa. Since the metrics for both protocols are directly translatable, they are easily comparable as if they were routes that originated in their own AS.
QUESTION 79
Which routing protocol: (1) is intended to support large routing domains consisting of combinations of many media types, (2) may be used as an IGP, and (3) supports multiple routed protocols in an integrated manner rather than “Ships in the Night” method?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EIGRP is a very scalable Interior Routing Protocol (IGP) that supports large networks. In
addition to support for IP, EIGRP can be used for routing IPX and Appletalk networks.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C: Although OSPF and IS-IS are link state protocols that are used as IGPs and are highly
scalable, they do not provide support for routed networks such as those used by Novell and
Apple.

D: BGP only supports IP, and is generally used only for external routing.
QUESTION 80
Match the correct routing protocol on the left to its characteristics on the right side. Note that not all answer choices will be used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
PDR is being used as the routing protocol for a new Certkiller network. Which network topology is best suited for ODR?
A. highly redundant
B. fully meshed
C. dual self-healing ring
D. hub and spoke
E. NBMA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: On Demand Routing (ODR) is a mechanism that provides minimum-overhead IP routing for stub sites. The overhead of a general dynamic routing protocol is avoided, without incurring the configuration and management overhead of using static routing. A stub router is the peripheral router in a hub and spoke network topology. Stub routers commonly have a WAN connection to the hub router and a small number of LAN network segments (stub networks) that are connected directly to the stub router. To provide full connectivity, the hub routers can be statically configured to know that a particular stub network is reachable via a specified access router. However, if there are multiple hub routers, many stub networks, or asynchronous connections between hubs and spokes, the overhead required to statically configure knowledge of the stub networks on the hub routers becomes too great. ODR simplifies installation of IP stub networks in which the hub routers dynamically maintain routes to the stub networks. This is accomplished without requiring the configuration of an IP routing protocol at the stub routers. With ODR, the stub advertises IP prefixes corresponding to the IP networks that are configured on its directly connected interfaces. Because ODR advertises IP prefixes, rather than IP network numbers, ODR is able to carry Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM) information. Once ODR is enabled on a hub router, the router begins installing stub network routes in the IP forwarding table. The hub router can also be configured to redistribute these routes into any configured dynamic IP routing protocols. IP does not need to be configured on the stub router. With ODR, a router is automatically considered to be a stub when no IP routing protocols have been configured on it.
QUESTION 82
Your company, Certkiller Inc, has a central office and a remote branch office. Each site has a separate autonomous system (AS) as well as a separate Internet connection. In this network, what is the best method to route Internet traffic.
A. IGP routing
B. BGP routing
C. Configure “ip route prefix mask”
D. Configure “ip default-gateway ip address”
E. Configure IS-IS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used to exchange routing information for the Internet and is the protocol used between Internet service providers (ISP). In order to take full advantage of multiple Internet connections, as well as multiple Internet providers, BGP is the best choice to ensure full redundancy. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/cisintwk/ito_doc/bgp.htm Incorrect Answers:
A: Customer networks usually employ an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) such as RIP or OSPF for the exchange of routing information within their networks. C, D: Using statically assigned default routes and default gateways is a simplistic approach that works well in many situations, but will not provide for automatic failover and does not provide the routing options that BGP provides.
E: IS-IS is used exclusively as an IGP.
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network is in the process of migrating the IP address scheme to use IPv6. Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Select three)
A. Unicast
B. Private
C. Broadcast
D. Public
E. Multicast
F. Anycast

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP version 6 introduced the concet of anycasts. The three IP address types used for IPv6 are:

Unicast – An IPv6 unicast address is an identifier for a single interface, on a single node. A packet that is
sent to a unicast address is delivered to the interface identified by that address.
Anycast – An anycast address is an address that is assigned to a set of interfaces that typically belong to
different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to the closest interface-as defined by the
routing protocols in use-identified by the anycast address.
Multicast – An IPv6 multicast address is an IPv6 address that has a prefix of FF00::/8 (11111111). An IPv6
multicast address is an identifier for a set of interfaces that typically belong to different nodes. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1839/products_feature_guide_chapter0918
6a0080110dd2.html#99899

QUESTION 84
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F:0:0:AB/56
B. 200F:0:AB00::/56
C. 200F::AB00/56
D. 200F:AB/56

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Due to the method of allocating certain styles of IPv6 addresses, it will be common for addresses to contain long strings of zero bits. In order to make writing addresses containing zero bits easier a special syntax is available to compress the zeros. The use of “::” indicates multiple groups of 16-bits of zeros. The “::” can only appear once in an address. The “::” can also be used to compress the leading and/or trailing zeros in an address. For example the following addresses: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01:0:0:0:0:0:0:43 a multicast address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 the loopback address
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 the unspecified addresses may be represented as: 1080::8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01::43 a multicast address ::1 the loopback address :: the unspecified addresses In our example, the trailing zero’s can be compressed into ::, giving us 200F:0:AB00:: as the address.

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QUESTION 1
Which three possible values can be set for the TIME_ZONE session parameter by using the ALTER SESSION command? (Choose three.)
A. ‘os’
B. local
C. -8:00′
D. dbtimezone Li
E. ‘Australia’

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2
EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME. Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
A. UPDATE empdet SET ename = ‘Amit’ WHERE empno = 1234;
B. DELETE FROM empdet WHERE ename LIKE ‘J%’;
C. CREATE VIEW empvu ASSELECT* FROM empdept;
D. CREATE INDEX empdet_dx ON empdet(empno);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which three tasks can be performed using regular expression support in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose three.)
A. it can be used to concatenate two strings.
B. it can be used to find out the total length of the string.
C. it can be used for string manipulation and searching operations.
D. it can be used to format the output for a column or expression having string data.
E. it can be used to find and replace operations for a column or expression having string data.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT oi.order_id, product_jd, order_date FROM order_items oi JOIN orders o USING(order_id);
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?

A. The statement would not execute because table aliases are not allowed in the JOIN clause.
B. The statement would not execute because the table alias prefix is not used in the USING clause.
C. The statement would not execute because all the columns in the SELECT clause are not prefixed with table aliases.
D. The statement would not execute because the column part of the USING clause cannot have a qualifier in the SELECT list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 7
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));
Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?

A. It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D. It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT INFORMATION table.

Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
B. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the product status orderable
E. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Evaluate the following statement: INSERT ALL WHEN order_total < 10000 THEN INTO small_orders WHEN order_total > 10000 AND order_total < 20000 THEN INTO medium_orders WHEN order_total > 2000000 THEN INTO large_orders SELECT order_id, order_total, customer_id FROM orders; Which statement is true regarding the evaluation of rows returned by the subquery in the INSERT statement?
A. They are evaluated by all the three WHEN clauses regardless of the results of the evaluation of any other WHEN clause.
B. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is true, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
C. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is false, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
D. The INSERT statement would give an error because the ELSE clause is not present for support in case none of the WHEN clauses are true.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.

Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o USING monthly_orders m ON (o.order_id = m.order_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
The user SCOTT who is the owner of ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables issues the following GRANT command:
GRANT ALL ON orders, order_items TO PUBLIC;
What correction needs to be done to the above statement?
A. PUBLIC should be replaced with specific usernames.
B. ALL should be replaced with a list of specific privileges.
C. WITH GRANT OPTION should be added to the statement.
D. Separate GRANT statements are required for ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You executed the following command to add a primary key to the EMP table:

ALTER TABLE emp
ADD CONSTRAINT emp_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (emp_id)
USING INDEX emp_id_idx;

Which statement is true regarding the effect of the command?

A. The PRIMARY KEY is created along with a new index.
B. The PRIMARY KEY is created and it would use an existing unique index.
C. The PRIMARY KEY would be created in a disabled state because it is using an existing index.
D. The statement produces an error because the USING clause is permitted only in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true regarding roles? (Choose two.)
A. A role can be granted to itself.
B. A role can be granted to PUBLIC.
C. A user can be granted only one role at any point of time.
D. The REVOKE command can be used to remove privileges but not roles from other users.
E. Roles are named groups of related privileges that can be granted to users or other roles.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 15
Which statement is true regarding Flashback Version Query?
A. It returns versions of rows only within a transaction.
B. It can be used in subqueries contained only in a SELECT statement.
C. It will return an error if the undo retention time is less than the lower bound time or SCN specified.
D. It retrieves all versions including the deleted as well as subsequently reinserted versions of the rows.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Evaluate the following SQL statements that are issued in the given order:
CREATE TABLE emp
(emp_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk PRIMARY KEY, enameVARCHAR2(15),
salary NUMBER(8,2),
mgr_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_mgr_fk REFERENCES emp);

ALTER TABLE emp
DISABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk CASCADE;

ALTER TABLE emp
ENABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk;

What would be the status of the foreign key EMP_MGR_FK?

A. It would be automatically enabled and deferred.
B. It would be automatically enabled and immediate.
C. It would remain disabled and has to be enabled manually using the ALTER TABLE command.
D. It would remain disabled and can be enabled only by dropping the foreign key constraint and re-creating it.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. Which task would require subqueries?

A. displaying the total order value for sales representatives 161 and 163
B. displaying the order total for sales representative 161 in the year 1999
C. displaying the number of orders that have order mode online and order date in 1999
D. displaying the number of orders whose order total is more than the average order total for all online orders
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

SELECT phone_number,
REGEXP_REPLACE(phone_number,'([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{4})’, ,(\1)\2-\3′) “PHONE
NUMBER”
FROM employees;

The query was written to format the PHONE_NUMBER for the employees. Which option would be the
correct format in the output?

A. xxx-xxx-xxxx
B. (xxx) xxxxxxx
C. (xxx) xxx-xxxx
D. xxx-(xxx)-xxxx

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
The details of the order ID, order date, order total, and customer ID are obtained from the ORDERS table. If the order value is more than 30000, the details have to be added to the LARGEjDRDERS table. The order ID, order date, and order total should be added to the ORDERJHISTORY table, and order ID and customer ID should be added to the CUSTJHISTORY table. Which multitable INSERT statement would you use?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Your database is open and running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You take RMAN full backups every Sunday night. On Monday morning, while querying the user1.employees table, you receive the following error message:
01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 5, block # 51) ORA-01110: data file 5: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/example01.dbf’
You need to rectify the corruption while ensuring the following:
The data file should remain online.
The mean time to recover (MTTR) should be minimal.
You are not using a backup control file, and all the archived logs are accessible. Which option would you choose?
A. flash back the corrupted blocks
B. use the DBMS_REPAIR package
C. use the RMAN TSPITR command
D. use the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
E. use the RESTORE DATABASE and RECOVER DATABASE commands
F. investigate the time at which the corruption occurred and perform a point-in-time recovery

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. It has two online redo log groups and each group has one member. A LGWR I/O fails due to permanent media failure that has resulted in the loss of a redo log file and the LGWR terminates causing the instance to crash.
Which method should be used to efficiently recover from this loss of the current group member?
A. Restart the database; it would automatically re-create the corrupted redo log member.
B. Restore the corrupted redo log group, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
C. Restore the corrupted redo log member, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
D. Restore whole database backup, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with the RESETLOGS option.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
There was media failure and you need to check the data files for any block corruption. Which option would you use to create a report on any corruptions found within the database?
A. the DBNEWID utility
B. the DBVERIFY utility
C. the ANALYZE command
D. the RMAN REPORT command
E. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
F. the CHECK_OBJECT procedure of the DBMS_REPAIR package

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
You are using Oracle Database 10g. Which statement regarding an incomplete recovery is true?
A. You do not need to restore all the data files.
B. You do not need to open the database with the RESETLOGS operation.
C. You do not need to perform a full backup after the RESETLOGS operation.
D. You do not need to recover all the data files to the same system change number (SCN).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
You set the value for the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter to 7. Which two records in the control file of the database are circularly reused for storage because of using this parameter? (Choose two.)
A. backup records
B. data file records
C. archive log records
D. tablespace records
E. redo thread records

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 6
You executed the following command at the command prompt:
$ rman TARGET sys/oracle@ad10g CATALOG rmanusr/rmanusr@as10g SCRIPT backup_whole
Which three statements are true regarding this command? (Choose three.)

A. The backup_whole script is stored in the target database.
B. The backup_whole is a stored script in the recovery catalog.
C. The RMAN session terminates automatically after the execution of the command.
D. The backup_whole script is executed automatically after the successful connection to the recovery catalog only.
E. The command produces an error because the RMAN script cannot be executed from the command line.
F. The backup_whole script is executed automatically after the successful connection to target and catalog database.

Correct Answer: BCF QUESTION 7
You have configured and registered your target database in a recovery catalog. Because the application needs it, you created a new tablespace in the target database. Then you executed the following command from an RMAN session after connecting to the target and catalog databases, both:
RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA;
Which statement describes the operation performed?
A. The target database instance transfers the updated information to the recovery catalog.
B. The command shows the information from the control file of the target database and recovery catalog is synchronized with the target database after the command is executed.
C. The media manager transfers the schema details from the control file of the target database to the recovery catalog.
D. The recovery catalog will be updated by RMAN with the updated information in the control file of the target database and displays information about the database files.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Your database is functioning in ARCHIVELOG mode. In which two situations would you perform a cancel-based recovery? (Choose two.)
A. You find that one of the redo log members in each redo log group is lost.
B. You find that a data file that belongs to the USERS tablespace is damaged.
C. You find that a data file that belongs to the SYSTEM tablespace is damaged.
D. You find that the current redo log group is damaged and is not available for recovery.
E. You realized while performing a recovery that an archived redo log file needed for recovery is lost.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 9
Users in your production database complain that they are getting the following error message while trying to insert rows into the ORDERS table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01654: unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8 in tablespace INDEXES

While investigating, you find that the INDEXES tablespace has run out of space and there is no more free space on the disk where the data files are available.
Which two actions could you perform to overcome this error without affecting the queries that are currently being executed? (Choose two.)
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the ORDERS_IND index
C. coalesce the INDEXES tablespace
D. drop and re-create the ORDERS table
E. rebuild the index online and move it to another tablespace

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 10
You lost the index tablespace in your database. You are not able to use tablespace point-in-time recovery on the index tablespace. What could be the reason for this?
A. The index tablespace contains bitmap indexes.
B. The index tablespace contains more than one data file.
C. The index tablespace supports only complete recovery.
D. The index tablespace is not a dictionary-managed tablespace.
E. There is a dependency relationship between a table and its indexes.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 11
Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two things may happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)
A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database gets mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
You executed the following query:
SELECT operation, undo_sql, table_name FROM flashback_transaction_query;
Which statement is correct regarding the query output?
A. It would return information regarding only the last committed transaction.
B. It would return only the active transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
C. It would return only the committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
D. It would return both active and committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
E. It would return information regarding the transactions that began and were committed in the last 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You used the FLASHBACK TABLE command to flash back the CUSTOMERS table. Before executing the FLASHBACK TABLE command, the System Change Number (SCN) was 663571. After flashing back the CUSTOMERS table, you realize that the table is not in the correct state and the resultant changes are not what you had desired. So, you need to reverse the effects of the FLASHBACK TABLE command while ensuring that:
A. No other user data in the database is affected.
B. The operation takes the minimum possible time.
Which option would you choose?
A. use the ROLLBACK command with SCN 663571
B. perform Flashback Transaction Query with SCN 663571
C. execute the FLASHBACK DATABASE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
D. execute another FLASHBACK TABLE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
You have created a resource plan, PROD_DB_PLAN, that uses the RATIO policy. The following consumer groups and their respective plan directives have been assigned to this resource plan:
Consumer group HIGH_CG with CPU_P1 as 10. Consumer group MEDIUM_CG with CPU_P1 as 5. Consumer group LOW_CG with CPU_P1 as 2. Consumer group OTHER_GROUPS with CPU_P1 as 1.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. The plan PROD_DB_PLAN can have subplans.
B. The members of the HIGH_CG consumer group would get 10% of the CPU.
C. The CPU allocation for the consumer groups would be based on the ratio defined for the CPU_P1.
D. The CPU allocation would be equal between the HIGH_CG and MEDIUM_CG consumer groups if there are no sessions existing for the LOW_CG and OTHER_GROUPS consumer groups.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
You want to create a consumer group, GROUP1, and you execute the following command in the command-line interface:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER.CREATE_CONSUMER_GROUP (CONSUMER_GROUP =>’group1′, COMMENT => ‘New Group’);
This command errors out displaying the following message:
ERROR at line 1: ORA-29371: pending area is not active ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RMIN”, line 115 ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER”, line 108 ORA-06512: at line 1
What action would you take to overcome this error?
A. create the Pending Area before creating the consumer group
B. activate the Pending Area before creating the consumer group
C. increase the size of the large pool to accommodate the Pending Area
D. increase the size of the shared pool to accommodate the Pending Area
E. increase the size of the database buffer cache to accommodate the Pending Area

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
You are working on an Oracle Database 10g database. You enabled the Flashback Database feature. Which two statements regarding flashback logs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Flashback logs are not archived.
B. Flashback logs are maintained in redo log files.
C. Flashback logs are maintained in the Flash Recovery Area.
D. Flashback logs are used to maintain Flashback Databaserelated errors.
E. Flashback logs need to be cleared manually after you disable Flashback Database.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 17
You are connected to Recovery Manager (RMAN) without a recovery catalog. There is no copy of the control file available. You want to restore the control file from an autobackup. To retrieve the autobackup, you need the database ID (DBID). In which two sources would you find the DBID? (Choose two.)
A. the trace file
B. the alert log file
C. an RMAN session log file
D. the server parameter file
E. the formatted name of a control file autobackup

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 18
You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:
RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3;
What would be the output of this command?

A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
You have created a job class, CUST_JOB_1, with two jobs, CUST_JOB_1_A and CUST_JOB_1_B. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both the jobs would be executed concurrently.
B. Jobs in the job class must have been assigned the same priority.
C. The member jobs would get dropped when the job class is dropped.
D. The member jobs would get disabled when the job class is dropped.
E. The attributes defined at the class level would be applied to both the jobs.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 20
When you start the database instance, it does not open after reaching the mount state. The initialization parameter DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE is set to 2 GB. The archive destination for the database is set to USE_DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST. While opening the database by using the ALTER DATABASE command, you receive the following error:
ERROR at line 1: ORA-16038: log 1 sequence# 1535 cannot be archived ORA-19809: limit exceeded for recovery files
Which is the operation after which you can open the database successfully?
A. Delete the obsolete files in RMAN after running the CROSSCHECK command.
B. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command.
C. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command, and then use RMAN to delete the expired files after running the CROSSCHECK command.
D. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command, and then run the RESYNC command in RMAN.

Correct Answer: D

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Question: 1
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. With composite partitioning, table partitions can store data rows.
B. With composite partitioning, table partitions cannot store data rows.
C. With composite partitioning, table subpartitions can store data rows.
D. With composite partitioning, table subpartitions cannot store data rows.

Answer: B, C
Question: 2
Which two statements are true for an online index rebuild? (Choose two)
A. No table locking is required.
B. The operation can be done in parallel.
C. Queries on the base table will result in errors.
D. Changes to the base table are logged in a journal table.

Answer: A, D
Question: 3
Following an upgrade from Oracle8, release 8.0, to Oracle8i, release 1 or 2, you should run the script utlrp.sql to accomplish which goal?
A. Create a set of compatible data dictionary tables.
B. Recompile any PL/SQL modules made invalid by the upgrade.
C. To remove the release upgrade program modules from the SYSTEM tablespace.
D. Replace statistics tables created with the DBMS_STATS with current versions.

Answer: B
Question: 4
When you create a stored outline, in which schema is it stored?
A. SYS
B. OUTLN
C. SYSTEM
D. The Current User

Answer: B
Question: 5
What is the maximum number of parallel recover servers when the FAST_START_PARALLEL_ROLLBACK parameter is set to HIGH?
A. 2* CPU_COUNT
B. 4* CPU_COUNT
C. 6* CPU_COUNT
D. 2* number of rollback transactions
E. 4* number of rollback transactions
Answer: B
Question: 6
Given: LOG_ARCHIEVE_DEST_2??? ?.ìC ???LOCATION = /archive2 OPTIONAL??? What effect does OPTIONAL have in the location parameter?
A. There is an error on startup because there is no OPTIONAL clause available.
B. If the destination is unavailable, it puts the archive log in a default directory.
C. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten.
D. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten at the request of the DBA.
E. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten if the parameter LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2_OVERWRITE is set to ??True??

Answer: C
Question: 7
Which two can be obtained from the summary advisor? (Choose two)
A. Summary accounting.
B. Summary refresh plan.
C. Summary recommendations.
D. Summary space requirements.

Answer: C, D
Question: 8
What does fine-grained access enable you to do?
A. Associate policies with tables and view.
B. Choose the schema in which a stored PL/SQL block will execute in.
C. Select which user??s privilege map is used during execution.
D. Select how external object references are resolved in queries.

Answer: A
Question: 9
What are autonomous transactions?
A. PL/SQL blocks that have a transaction scope independent of the transaction scope of the calling PL/SQL block.
B. Nested transactions that share resources with the calling transaction.
C. The transaction that is created by the LOGON event trigger.

Answer: A
Question: 10
When the listener is NOT available during client load balancing and failover, which file does the client use to pick a listener/
A. TNSNAMES.ORA on the server
B. LISTENER.ORA on the client
C. TNSNAMES.ORA on the client
D. LISTENER.ORA on the server
Answer: C
Question: 11
Which four steps are required to transport a tablespace? (Choose four)
A. Make the tablespace read-only.
B. Import metadata into the target database.
C. Export metadata from the source database.
D. Copy the data files to the target system.
E. Make the tablespace in the target database read-write.
F. Rename the data files on the source system.

Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 12
Examine this statement:
SELECT deptno, job, SUM(sal)
FROM emp
Which GROUP BY clause would you use to generate a subtotal of the sum of salaries in each
department, and a subtotal of the sum of salaries of all the different job types?

A. GROUP BY deptno, job;
B. GROUP BY CUBE (deptno, job);
C. GROUP BY ROLLUP (deptno, job);
D. GROUP BY SUM (deptno), SUM (job);
E. GROUP BY CUBE (deptno, job, sal);

Answer: C
Question: 13
Why would you drop a column instead of marking it unused?
A. You want to release the space.
B. You want it to process more quickly.
C. You want users to be able to modify the table during the operation.
D. You want to prevent users from creating a new column with the same name.
E. You want the column data to be available again on export or import of the table.
Answer: A
Question: 14
Which statement about transportable tablespaces is true?
A. They can be used reorganize table in a tablespace.
B. The name of the tablespace can be changed during transportation.
C. The data in the tablespace is copied using the SQL*Loader utility.
D. The name of the schema that owns the objects in the tablespace can be changed during transportation.

Answer: D
Question: 15
Which three steps should you complete before attempting a manual upgrade from Oracle8, version 8.0, to Oracle *I, release 1 or 2? (Choose three)
A. Ensure you do not have a role or user called OUTLN in your database.
B. Make a backup.
C. Drop all rollback segments with unlimited extents.
D. Ensure you have free space in your SYSTEM tablespace.

Answer: A, B, D
Question: 16
Which type of statement specifies whose schema should be used when resolving object names?
A. DEFINE
B. AUTHID
C. PRAGMA
D. EXECUTE
E. SET USER

Answer: B
Question: 17
Examine this statement:
SELECT *
FROM (SELECT class_id, crs_id
FROM classes
ORDER BY start_date DESC)
WHERE ROWNUM < 11;
What will happen when this executes?

A. The ten rows with the latest start date will be returned.
B. The ten rows with the earliest start date will be returned.
C. An error is returned citing an ORDER BY embedded within a subquery.
D. An error is returned citing an ORDER BY clause reference to a column that is not selected.

Answer: A
Question: 18
What happens during query rewrites of materialized views?
A. The user rewrites the SELECT statement without the GROUP BY clause.
B. The user rewrites the SELECT statement to use the table instead of the materialized view.
C. The optimizer the SELECT statement to use the table instead of the materialized view.
D. The optimizer rewrites the SELECT statement to use the materialized view instead of the table.

Answer: D
Question: 19
Which two initialization parameters are used to create the default value for the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter when it is not specified? (Choose two)
A. DB_NAMES
B. DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT
C. DB_DOMAIN
D. MTS_SERVICE
E. INSTANCE_NAME
Answer: A, C

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QUESTION 37
You have just completed replacing a logic board in an iMac (Flat Panel) and are reassembling the computer. Which of the following special tools is recommended during this reassembly?
A. CRT discharge tool
B. Torque screwdriver
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by _________.
A. Visually inspecting them for damage.
B. Replacing them with known-good parts in any order.
C. Adding more known-good parts in a specified order.
D. Replacing them with known-good parts in specified order.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. Logic Board
E. Power Cable
F. Power Supply
G. Front Panel Board
H. Processor with Heatsink

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of ______ within computers.
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to_____.
A. Boot the system into Mac OS 9.
B. Boot the system into Mac OS X.
C. Boot the system into Open Firmware diagnostics.
D. Hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
You are using component isolation to troubleshoot a Power Mac G4 (Quicksilver). You have already reduced the computer to the appropriate minimal configuration. You have just installed a known-good video card and have attached a known-good external VGA display to it. Upon startup, you see a flashing question mark on the VGA display, but you hear no startup chime. What signals or power could be missing to cause this problem?
A. Timing signals to the processor through the logic board.
B. Power to the memory subsystem through the logic board.
C. Backup battery voltage to the PMU through the logic board.
D. Audio signals to the speaker through the front panel board.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wriest strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 75%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which FOUR of the following actions helps reduce the risk of damage from ESD? (Choose four)
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ABDE

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