Adobe_PrepKing 9A0-031 v2011-06-11_157q_By-Hayden

The 9A0-031 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.Adobe_PrepKing https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-031.html v2011-06-11_157q_By-Hayden

Exam A QUESTION 1
You select an area of an image by using the magic wand tool. Which statement is true?
A. The magic wand tool can be used in any mode.
B. To add to a selection, hold down the Shift key and click in an unselected area.
C. To select all pixels using the same colors, select Contiguous from the options bar.
D. To select colors very similar to the pixel you selected, enter a high value for tolerance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
You want to create a selection by using the Elliptical Marquee tool. Which key should you press to reposition the marquee while still drawing it?
A. A
B. Shift
C. Spacebar
D. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Exhibit

You have selected an area of an image with the rectangular marquee tool. You want to remove a portion of the selection by using the same tool. Which icon should you click to subtract from a selection?
A. Icon A
B. Icon B
C. Icon C
D. Icon D

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
You have made a selection around a circular area in an image by using the Elliptical Marquee tool. You want only the perimeter of the circle to be selected.
Which command should you use?
A. choose Select > Similar
B. choose Select > Inverse
C. choose Select > Modify > Border
D. Choose Select > Transform Selection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You want to round the corners of a rectangular marquee you have made without affecting the selection’s edge. What should you do?
A. choose Select > Feather
B. choose Select > Modify > Border
C. choose Select > Modify > Smooth
D. enter a value for Feather in the tool options bar and press Enter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which feature requires that type be rasterized before it is applied?
A. filters
B. warps
C. styles
D. pattern overlays

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You scan an image and do NOT select any image sharpening options in your scanner software. You
notice the appearance of a lot of film grain in the image. You want to sharpen the image without increasing
the apparent graininess of the image.
Which Unsharp Mask option should you use?

A. Amount
B. Radius
C. Threshold
D. Smoothness

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You want to repair an area of an image by using another area of the image as patch. You select the Patch
tool.
Which two tasks should you complete? (Choose two.)

A. select Source n the options bar
B. select Destination in the options bar
C. crate a selection of the area from which to sample, then click Use Pattern in the options bar
D. create a selection around the area you want to repair; then drag the marquee to the area from which to sample
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
You want to distort a layer in your document by using the Liquify command. You also want to apply the identical distortion to another layer in the document. What should you do?
A. in the Liquify dialog box, check Backdrop and select the other layer to be distorted at 100% opacity
B. choose filter>Liquify and aaply distortion to the first layer; select the other layer and use the History Brush tool to paint the distortion from the previous step
C. choose Filter>Liquify and apply a distortion to the first layer; select the other layer and press Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) + F to apply the same Liquify filter distortion
D. choose Filter>Liquify and create the distortion; then click save Mesh in the Liquify dialog box; select the other layer, choose Filter>Liquify; then click load Mesh choosing the saved mesh file

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
You want to repair an image with a large, irregular stain. What should you do?
A. select a large brush and paint in Overlay mode
B. select an undamaged area and drag it over the stain
C. select a large brush and remove the stain by using the Clone Stamp tool
D. select the stain by using the Patch tool and drag it over an undamaged area

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
You are creating a JPEG file for use on a Web page. When you preview the image in a Web browser, it is so large that it must be viewed by scrolling. You want users to be able to view the image without scrolling. What should you do?
A. increase the resolution of the monitor until the image fits on your screen
B. decrease the resolution of the monitor until the image fits on your screen
C. select Resample Image from the Image Size dialog box, and enter a larger value for Resolution
D. select Resample Image from the Image Size dialog box, and enter a smaller value for resolution

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which is an advantage of vector graphics?
A. They are scalable and resolution independent.
B. They are able to represent continuous-tone images.
C. Filters can be repeatedly applied to them without degradation.
D. Image adjustments can be repeatedly applied to them without degradation.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
You want to use Levels to edit the color in an image without affecting the gray values or contrast. Which color mode should you use?
A. Lab
B. RGB
C. CMYK
D. Indexed
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You are saving a file with several layers that have styles applied. Which file format preservers the layer and style data?
A. PNG
B. PICT File
C. Photoshop EPS
D. Photoshop PDF

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You want to make a selection of an object in an image. You have identified the channel with the most
contrast between the object and its background. You want to create a selection for the object using this
channel.
What should you do?

A. load the channel as a selection and then edit
B. load the channel as a selection and convert to a Layer Mask
C. duplicate the channel, increase the contrast, and load it as a selection
D. increase the contrast of the channel with Levels and load it as a selection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When should you add an alpha channel to a document?
A. to apply a filter
B. to save a selection
C. to apply a bevel effect to a layer
D. to create areas of reduced saturation in a document

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
You want to edit a selection by using painting tools and creating a temporary mask. What should you do?
A. press M on the keyboard
B. press Q on the keyboard
C. choose Load Selection from the Select menu
D. click the Add Mask button at the bottom of the Layers palette f

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
You are editing a portrait of a person. You need to mask away the background and apply some
transparency; to the person’s hair.
Which masking method should you use?

A. make a selection and use Quick Mask to edit the edges
B. isolate the person with a Vector Mask and edit the paths
C. make a selection and use a Layer Mask to edit the edges
D. choose Filter>Extract, highlight the hair, and fill the background

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
You need to mask a layer on an image that will be scaled. You want to assure that the edges are as sharp
as possible.
What should you do?

A. make a selection and convert it to a Layer Mask
B. add a Vector Mask and create the shape with paths
C. deselect Anti-Aliasing and convert a selection into an Alpha channel
D. click the Quick Mask mode button and paint with a hard-edged brush

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In the Levels dialog box, what does Option-dragging (Mac OS) or Alt-dragging (Window) the Input Sliders accomplish?
A. It sets the amount of clipping.
B. It resets the values in the dialog box.
C. It sets the black and white points in the image.
D. It displays the lightest and darkest areas in the image.

Correct Answer: D

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Adobe 9A0-029 Adobe Framemaker 7.0 Product Proficiency Exam 170 Q&A Version 2.73

The 9A0-029 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-029.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which is necessary to create new data and markup text that will be inserted into an XML or SGML document when a structured FrameMaker document is exported?
A. a read/write rule file
B. an SGML or XML application
C. a special version of FrameMaker
D. an API client created with the FDK

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which part of the structured FrameMaker application controls how long SGML and FrameMaker element names can be by default?
A. EDD
B. DTD
C. SGML declaration file
D. CSS formatting sheet

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
In the application definition file, what is the first required child element needed in the SGML or XML application?
A. Doctype
B. Template
C. ReadWriteRules
D. ApplicationName

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
How many read/write rules documents can be referenced in a single structured FrameMaker application?
A. one, as a child of the SGMLApplication element or XMLApplication element
B. none, since read/write rules are not referenced in structured FrameMaker applications
C. an unlimited number as long as each one is a reference to a different read/write rules document
D. an unlimited number as long as each one is in referenced with a separate ReadWriteRules element

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which command should you use to update the EDD of a structured FrameMaker document with a DTD?
A. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > New EDD
B. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Open DTD
C. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Import DTD
D. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Save As DTD

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
In which three file formats can Adobe FrameMaker files be saved? (Choose three.)
A. TXT
B. IAF
C. PDF
D. EPS
E. HTML
F. PM65

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
You need to rename a file in your book. You are accessing the file on your local hard disk. You want to ensure that all cross-references from other chapters to the file are maintained. What should you do?
A. rename the file from the book window
B. open the file and choose File > Save As
C. rename the file from the operating system
D. delete the file from the book, rename the file from the operating system, and add the file with the new name back to the book

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are creating a document that will need to be localized and printed on different paper sizes. The document contains cross-references, variables, and conditional text. What should you do?
A. create separate layers
B. create separate text flows
C. create separate templates
D. create separate master pages

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You plan to import EPS graphics into your FrameMaker document. You want to ensure that the graphic can be viewed in FrameMaker, regardless of which platform you are using. You want to be able to preview the image. Which format should you use?
A. GIF
B. WMF
C. PICT
D. TIFF

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are using WebDAV to manage your files. You want to modify a file while preventing other users from overwriting your work. Which command from the Workgroup menu should you use to access the file?
A. Open
B. Import
C. Check Out
D. Get File from Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
You are importing a Microsoft Word file. The file was created by using a template with the same format names as those used in FrameMaker. Which option from the Import Text Flow by References dialog box should you choose so that the text will use the formatting in the FrameMaker document?
A. Reformat as Plain Text
B. Retain Source’s Formatting
C. While Importing, Remove Other Overrides
D. Reformat Using Current Document’s Catalogs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which statement about books is true?
A. A FrameMaker document can be included in any number of books.
B. A FrameMaker document can ONLY be included in one book at a time.
C. When a FrameMaker file is added to a book, the Table of Contents updates immediately.
D. When added to a book, the content of a FrameMaker document is copied into the book file.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
You want to print the page number at the bottom of every page in your document. On the master pages, what should you do?
A. insert a Page Count variable in a template text frame
B. insert a Page Count variable in a background text frame
C. insert a Current Page # variable in a template text frame
D. insert a Current Page # variable in a background text frame

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You want to create a character tag that changes the text to italic and blue.
The character tag will be used in a number of paragraph tags with different fonts and point sizes. What should you do?
A. leave blank all settings except Color and Style
B. set everything except Color and Angle to “As Is”
C. create one tag for italic and one for blue and apply both
D. create separate character tags for each font and point size

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which statement about reference frames is true?
A. They can be used in the margins of any page.
B. They can be used to the left or right of a paragraph.
C. They can only be used above or below a paragraph.
D. They can be used above, below, or to the left or right of a paragraph.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
In the Paragraph Designer, how do you increase the space between words WITHOUT affecting the space between characters?
A. increase the value for spread
B. increase the value for stretch
C. increase the values for word spacing and select Allow Automatic Letter Spacing
D. increase values for word spacing but do NOT select Allow Automatic Letter Spacing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
When creating a cross-reference format, which building block should you use to print only the information contained in the building blocks of the Autonumber property of the source paragraph?
A. <$pagenum>
B. <$paranum>
C. <$paratext>
D. <$paranumonly>

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
When creating a table format, which setting allows you to determine how many rows must be together at the top or bottom of a column or page?
A. Straddle
B. Keep with
C. Row Format
D. Orphan Rows

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Click the Exhibit button.
Which pair of autonumbering formats can you use to create the autonumbered list shown in the exhibit?
A. <n+>.\\t and Figure <A+>:\\t
B. N:<n+>.\\t and N:Figure <A+>:\\t
C. N:<n+>.\\t and F:Figure <A+>:\\t
D. F:<n+>.\\t and F:Figure <A+>:\\t

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You have created a master page mapping table to associate a master page with a paragraph tag. How do you instruct FrameMaker to use this feature?
A. choose Format > Page Layout > Master Page Usage
B. choose Format > Page Layout > Apply Master Pages
C. choose Format > Page Layout > Reorder Master Pages
D. choose Format > Page Layout > Update Column Layout

Correct Answer: B

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Adobe.Actualtests 9a0-019 v10.13.04.115q

Latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-019.html Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Exhibit:

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 4
You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Exhibit:

You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Exhibit:

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer: with the type layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer: with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set
D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You want to randomly display 7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do?
A. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to 7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference
C. apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity
D. apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with 7% opacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set 10 pixels. When would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve
C. Difference
D. Color Burn

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers.
D. It adds a series of frames between existing frames.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
You make a selection with the polygon lasso tool. When a color fill is applied, the edg appears rough. Which tool option should have been selected to soften the selection edg.
A. Blur
B. Border
C. Smooth
D. Anti-Alised

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette.
B. Select the gradient tool from the toolbox: select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient tool across the shape
C. Select the shape layer; click the Layer Style button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Overly; choose a gradient and click OK
D. Select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Map: choose a gradient and click OK

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
What is the most efficient method to isolate a complex object form is background?
A. create a layer mask
B. create an alpha channel
C. use the Extract Image command
D. use the lasso tool to create a selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool you want modify the selection. Which tool or tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Which file format supports spot color channel?
A. PICT
B. JPEG
C. Gif89a
D. DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: D

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3COM.ActualTests 3M0-701 v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.128q

The 3M0-701 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-701.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A QUESTION 1
The Dial Plan Entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose One)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Mailbox
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Extension

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Dial Plan operations. Match the Dial plan Operation with the appropriate description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)
A. Personal Operator
B. System Operator
C. User Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)
A. Voice profile for internet messaging
B. Vector profile for internet messaging
C. Voice protocol for internet messages
D. Vector protocol for internet messages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)
A. Supports up to 1500 total devices
B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
E. Supports up to 200 total devices
F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 9
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. NBX 100
C. V5000
D. V3000 BRI-ST
E. V3001R

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Call
Forward Options. Match the Options with the appropriate descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. IMAP4
C. LEC
D. TAPI
E. WAV

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 12
IMAP4 capability and SMTP capability are included with NBX at no charge and no license is required
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Other
C. After-Hours
D. Lunch
E. Closed
F. Emergency close
G. Holiday

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 14
A NBX System running in SIP Mode can interoperate with any other SIP endpoint, including gateways, devices and SIP enabled applications.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following are not subject to Class of Service settings? (Choose two.)
A. WAN class
B. Long Distance calls
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Emergency 911 Calls
E. System Wide Speed Dials
F. International

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Detail Reporting (CDR)? ) (Choose three.)
A. Tracks only complete calls
B. Telephone system usage tracked on a per telephone group/per call basis
C. Does not require a license
D. Tracks completed calls and all attempted and/or abandoned calls
E. Telephone System usage tracked on a per user/ per call basis
F. Requires a CDR license
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in this group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call
D. When you employ this call distribution, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? ( Choose three.)
A. Activated before or during a call
B. Configured via a Feature Code
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis
D. Configured via Button Mappings
E. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. TAPI
C. WAV
D. IMAP4
E. LEC

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are recommended tools for troubleshooting and repairing Analog Lines? ( Choose Four.)
A. 599 Punch-Down Tool/Blades
B. Tone Generator
C. Loop Current Tester
D. Cable Splicer’s Knife
E. Flux Capacitor
F. Butt-Set
Correct Answer: BCDF

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3Com.ActualTests 3M0-700 v.2006.08.17

The https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-700.html Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which four Call Forward user settings are available on the NBX Telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voice mail
B. Forward the call to an e-mail inbox
C. Forward calls to an Auto Attendant
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Disconnect the call after a set number of rings
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD and/or the Names Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 2
How does the NBX administrator assign a new user to a Hunt Group?
A. Select Dial Plan / Table and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
B. Select Dial Plan / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
C. Select Operations/ Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify
D. Select User Configuration / Hunt Groups and choose the desired Hunt Group and click Modify

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which four components are required to use the NBX CTI Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) solution? (Choose four.)
A. NBX CTI license
B. Any NBX system
C. H.323 protocol support
D. NBX TAPI service provider (NBXTSP) software
E. Computer supporting TAPI, for example, Microsoft Windows
F. Either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. Desktop TAPI application software, for example, Desktop Call Assistant or Outlook
Correct Answer: BDEG

QUESTION 4
Which four are features of the SuperStack 3 NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Has an two integrated, redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet port for LAN connectivity
B. Supports up to 200 devices, including up to 100 central office lines
C. Redundancy options include dual power supplies and disk mirroring
D. Supports up to 1500 devices, including up to 720 central office lines
E. System scales to 12 auto-attendant voice messaging ports and 80 hour of voice-mail storage
F. Uses the same Network Control Processor (NCP) card as the NBX 100 Communications System
G. Uses many of the same interface cards, for example, Analog Line and Analog Terminal Cards, as the NBX 100 Communications System
Correct Answer: ACDG
QUESTION 5
Which three are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.1 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
B. Has a default IP address of 192.168.1.190 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
C. Supports 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
D. To have user privileges, sign on with a username of “user” and use your voicemail password
E. To have system configuration privileges, sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000”
F. With administrator privileges, you can easily change a user’s password but there is no easy way to retrieve the administrator password if it is lost

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With an NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With an NBX Telephony system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/ from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example., VPN, T1, E1, Frame and Relay

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 7
Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN tagging must be turned on
B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones
C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p
D. NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging
E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Telephony System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
B. NBX phones, using VLAN-tagged frames, automatically set the priority level to 6
C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
D. NBX phone place audio traffic in a priority queue, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
The NBX phones support IEEE 802.1p/q for voice prioritization across the WAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three are features/benefits of using Silent Suppression on your NBX Telephony System? (Choose three.)
A. On average, provides a 42% reduction in voice bandwidth utilization
B. Can be enabled/disabled for the entire system or for individual phones
C. Compresses all voice traffic, reducing packet size and network congestion
D. Eliminates additional voice packets between phones when there is a conversation
E. Enabled devices send small packets with a silence indication when it detects silence in the conversation
F. Eliminates the need for phones to send “keep alive” packets every 5 seconds, as the phones create a connection-oriented network session

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communications System? (Choose three.)
A. Requires the Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
B. Supports hot-swap power supply, Network Call Processor and disk drive
C. Provides 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
D. Is a combination of two chassis – the Network Call Processor and the interface chassis
E. Has 6-useable card slots with the top slot designated for the Network Call Processor Card
F. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are installed on a LAN

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 12
How does the NBX administrator install a Disk Mirroring Kit on a SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System?
A. Backup system and dial plan configuration, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system
B. Backup NBX system configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system
C. Backup system and dial plan configuration, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, install license key for disk mirroring
D. Backup system and dial plan configuration, install license key for disk mirroring, shut down the NBX system via NetSet, power off the NBX system, install the second hard disk, power up NBX system, initial disk and perform a disk copy using NetSet Operations / Manage Data

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which four are hardware redundancy features of the SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony System? (Choose four.)
A. Disk mirroring on the NBX V5000 Call Processor
B. Dual NCP support in the NBX V5000 Call Processor
C. Dual-homing support for T1/E1 Digital Line Card ports
D. External Redundant Power Supply (RPS) for NBX V5000 Chassis
E. Redundant 10/100 Mbps Ethernet uplink ports for LAN connectivity
F. NBX V5000 Chassis internal backup power supply with load sharing
G. NBX V5000 Call Processor internal backup power supply with load sharing

Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 14
Which two NBX Phones support the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 1102 Business Phone
B. NBX 2102PE Business Phone
C. NBX 2102-IR Business Phone
D. NBX 3102 Business Phone
E. NBX 2102 Business Phone

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which NBX NetSet Administrator screen provides basic NBX information, such as: software version,IP address, Network Protocol, etc?
A. System Settings
B. System Main Menu
C. System Configuration
D. System Reports / System Data

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Which two types of devices are not supported by the NBX Analog Terminal Card or Analog Terminal Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 18
Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. Can use the Auto Discover function to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a power failure
E. In PBX System Mode, CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
F. When a port is mapped to multiple telephones, by default incoming calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 19
The company executive staff does not want to receive phone calls from employees.
How would you ensure the executive staff phone extensions do not show up in the NBX internal directory?
A. Configure the extensions as “No Call”
B. Exclude the extensions from the LCD Directory
C. Exclude the extensions from the Name Directory
D. Include all the staff extensions in the “No Call List”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS

Correct Answer: B

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3COM.ActualTests 3M0-600 v2008-04-14.by.Ramon.90q

The 3M0-600 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-600.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP Drag the 3Com product you would use for each location (A, B and C) to complete the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System solution.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
B. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. False B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which three are benefits of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System? (Choose three.)
A. Automates access point (AP) management, i.e., adjusts traffic loads, optimizes AP power, changes AP channel assignments
B. Provides centralized management for wireless controllers/switches and Managed Access Points
C. Enhances user and group security with security profiles
D. Improves throughput of critical data with multiple priority queues and queuing algorithms on each wireless controller/switch
E. Eliminates the need to install access points (APs) throughout the building

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP Match each 3Com wireless component with its description. Exhibit: 600-c-45.JPG

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
B. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
D. Unauthorized third-party access point
E. Authorized wireless NIC

Correct Answer: ACD

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3Com_CertifyMe 3M0-331_v2010-07-31_173q_By-Shehzebq

The 3M0-331 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?

A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 10
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?

A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 15
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 19
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD

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3COM 3M0-300 3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam v3.0 50 Q&A Version 2.73

The 3M0-300 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-300.html Exam Questions & Answers.We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

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3COM 3M0-212 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist Finsl Exam v3.0 50 Q&A Version 2.73

The 3M0-212 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html Exam Questions & Answers We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Click the Task button.
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
Click the Task button.
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 7
Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B. User definable MAC table aging period
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 8
The Switch 5500 allows VLANs to be automatically assigned based on user credentials or on the MAC address of the device.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 10
Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. RIP 2
B. OSPF
C. VRRP
D. PIM Dense Mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 12
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations
B. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
What is the security benefit obtained when the Switch 5500 is integrated with Tipping Point IPS?
A. Prevents unauthorized users from logging onto the network
B. Illegal activity or infected machine can be automatically isolated or blocked
C. Automatically works with IEEE 802.1X Network Login and switch ACLs to determine user authorization and access authority

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
The Switch 5500 RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) is designed to authenticate users based on MAC address without the requirement for IEEE 802.1X client on the attached devices.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which best describes the Switch 8800 dual-fabric architecture?
A. Two active, redundant fabrics – one master and one slave
B. One active master switch fabric and one standby slave switch fabric
C. Each I/O chassis module is assigned to one of the two master switch fabrics

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
B. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
C. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 19
Which three hardware reliability features are supported by all Switch 8800 chassis models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable switch elements
B. Redundant, load-sharing switch fabric
C. Redundant, load-sharing power supplies
D. Hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant switch fabric
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) redundant backbone support

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20
Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.11a/g Wireless Access Point
B. 2,048 Virtual LANs (VLANs) per chassis
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) and Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which three routing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Routing policies
D. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 22
The Switch 8800 supports IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet Jumbo Ethernet Frames (9KB).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
B. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 25
Click the Task button.
Match each Switch 8800 internal component with its function.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 26
What is a security feature on the Switch 8800?
A. User names and passwords can be configured on the switch
B. Switch only acts as authenticator but not authentication server
C. Requires RADIUS for IEEE 802.1x Network Login authentication

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which two are security features on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Supports a single supplicant on each physical port
B. Switch can act as both authenticator and authentication server
C. Switch requires an external RADIUS server for user authentication
D. IEEE 802.1X Network Login can be enabled globally or on individual ports

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 28
Which two Access Control Lists (ACLs) features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 ACLs only
B. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ACLs
C. Default switch flow template includes all IP fields
D. Each interface has an associated flow template that defines the subset of all possible protocol fields used by the interface

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 29
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Eight output queues per port
B. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
C. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
D. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted Random Early Discard)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30
Click the Task button.
Match each Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) component with its function.
A. https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html
B.
C.
D.

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3COM.ActualTests.3M0-211.v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.80q

3COM.ActualTests  https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html  v2009-03-12.by.Ramon.80q.The 3M0-211 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service. We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)

3M0-211 Exam Questions & Answers : https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html dumps

A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

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