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Exam A QUESTION 1
In Cisco MDS, how is a pWWN assigned to a dynamically assigned iSCSI?
A. by the system
B. by the user in the configuration of the iSCSI target
C. by the iSCSI host
D. created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver, and Connection ID
E. by the storage system attached to Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which of these TCP ports does iSNS use?
A. 3205
B. 3225
C. 3226
D. 3325

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Is the iSNS client supported on VRRP interfaces?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the storage_services_enabler_pkg license is enabled on the switch
D. only on Cisco IPS line cards

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Can Cisco Fabric Services be used to distribute iSCSI initiator configurations?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP_18_4 license is installed on the switch
D. only when ENTERPRISE_PKG is installed on the switch

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of these is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel encoding?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
A. K28.5
B. 8B/10B
C. 3B/4B
D. D28.5
E. idle
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which three of these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A. NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
What set of primitive signals is valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS, ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN, ARB
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
If a Fibre Channel interface is receiving an NOS pattern on its interface, what pattern will the interface be transmitting?
A. OLS
B. LR
C. LRR
D. IDLE
E. NOS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Fibre Channel Protocol is a protocol consisting of several layers. What are these layers, in
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order from FC-0 to FC-4?
A. Media, Encode and Decode, Framing and Control, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
B. Encode and Decode, Media, Framing and Control, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
C. Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Media, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
D. Upper Level Protocol, Common Services, Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Media
E. Media, Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
All of these are functions of LIP except which one?
A. reinitialize a loop
B. perform passive attachment to loop
C. indicate loop receiver failure
D. indicate which port to reset on loop
E. acquire an AL_PA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What Fibre Channel header field indicates the frame is a Link Control frame?
A. R_CTL
B. CS_CTL
C. TYPE
D. F_CTL
E. DF_CTL
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What Fibre Channel transport functions can be found at the FC-2 level?
A. Exchange Operation, Information Unit, and Sequence
B. Session, Exchange, and Information Unit
C. Sequence, Frame, and Flow Control
D. Sequence, Frame, and Information Unit
E. Exchange Management, Link Control, and Flow Control
Correct Answer: C

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 – (ISL)

Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A.
Open Fabric Mode

B.
Native

C.
Interop 1

D.
Interop 2

E.
Interop 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
MDS3_9509# MDS3_9509# dir bootflash: 1106 Dec 08 15:36:14 2003 MDS20031208072937365.lic 1106 Dec 08 15:44:47 2003 MDS20031208074023541.lic 2562 Jun 13
17:25:32 2004 special_config.txt 558 Jun 08 20:25:17 2004 create_mds3_fcalias.script 12288 Dec 04
18:04:10
2003 lost+found/ 12317696 Apr 09 15:41:02 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin 12334592 May 05 19:13:47 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4b.bin 43659162 Apr 09 15:42:12 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin 43687917 May 05 19:13:30 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4b.bin 3222 Mar 26 18:40:02 2004 script_b_fcip Usage for bootflash://sup-local 126206976 bytes used 58352640 bytes free 184559616 bytes total MDS3_95 What command would successfully transfer the “special_config.txt” file to a workstation, PC, or File Server?

A.
copy special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt

B.
copy bootflash:special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt

C.
copy <ftp://bootflash:special_config.txt> <ip address>/<path>/special_config.txt

D.
copy <ftp://<ip> address>/<path>/<filename> special_config.txt

E.
copy special*.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In a long distance link of 100KM, which is true of the desired number of BB credits?
A. More BB credits would cause excessive delay in handling the larger number of packets.
B. The fewer the BB credits there are, the less likely we are to have a packet lost in the network.
C. With fewer BB credits, the transmission pipe will not be full and this will lead to other applications getting bandwidth should they need it.
D. The FC standard defines the number of credits on a long distance link.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5

A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the “show vsan 1009” command?
A. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/ dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only Fibre Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would you use?
A. HSSC
B. MIA
C. GBIC
D. SFP
E. DUAL SC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. Ethereal with PAA
D. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
E. MDS fcanalyzer
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
You have a host that you connect to a switch port on a MDS switch. The switch port does not come up and a “show interface” indicates that the port is initializing and eventually goes offline. You configure the port as a TL port and the port comes up. What type of device is the host?
A. Public loop device
B. Private loop device
C. Non Fibre Channel device
D. The host has a DB-9 copper connector
E. The port should not come up after being configured as TL port because TL ports are used to connect to other switches.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Inrange FC/9000
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is TCP fast recovery?
A. It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
B. It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C. It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D. It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. snmp-server contact name defined
B. callhome site-id defined
C. Enterprise license installed
D. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
E. snmp-server location defined
Correct Answer: A

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Flydumps-2016 Hottest Cisco 350-040 Questions And Answer Study Guide Ensure You 100% Pass From Flydumps

Updated Cisco 350-040 exam questions and 350-040 braindumps from Flydumps. Pass the Cisco 350-040 exam with our https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-040.html VCE dumps. Free try the 350-040 PDF demo.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% –SUCCESS Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% –SUCCESS Extracting “sic”version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% — SUCCESS Extracting “ips” version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% — SUCCESS Extracting “system” version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% — SUCCESS Extracting “kickstart”version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% — SUCCESS Extracting “loader” version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% — SUCCESS Compatibility check is done: Module bootable impact install-type reason ——— ——— ———- ——- —– ——— 2 yes non-disruptive rolling 3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported 5 yes non-disruptive reset 6 yes non-disruptive reset Images will be upgraded according to following table: Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required ——— ——- ———- ———– —— ———- 2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no 3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no 5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no 5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no 6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes 6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no 6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n] What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?
A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The “rolling-upgrade” for module 2 requires a second “slc” to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity which could provide a “stable” upgrade.
E. No reason – the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.
A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the “show vsan 1009” command?
A. vsan 1009 information: name: VSAN 1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information: name: VSAN 1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information: name: VSAN 1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information: name: VSAN 1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information: name: VSAN 1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which are functions of the Domain identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS? Select two
A. It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned a Domain identifier.
B. It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier.
C. It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is operational.
D. It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.
E. It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
What zoning option can be used in interop mode 2 and 3?
A. domain / port
B. nWWN
C. fcid
D. lin zoning
E. sWWN
Correct Answer: A

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PDF Test CheckPoint 156-510 Pass Certification Dumps Guaranteed‎ for Groundbreaking Results

Free VCE & PDF File for Cisco 156-510 Real Exam

Exam A
QUESTION 1
You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message “FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)” whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
When installing FW-1 on a Windows NT platform, what state should IP forwarding be in for correct FW-1 operation?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
What is true about detecting “blocked connection port scanning”?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 4
In a load sharing MEP environment accessed by secuRemote.What is true about gateway selection?
A. SecuRemote will choose the gateway closest to the server
B. SecuRemote will use the first gateway to respond
C. SecuRemote will chose the gateway randomly
D. SecuRemote will prefer its primary gateway if both respond

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which two types of overlapping encryption domains are supported by FW-1?
A. Partial overlap
B. Full overlap
C. Proper subset
D. Partial subset

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 6
What does LDAP stand for?
A. Link level Direct Access Process
B. Layered Directory Administration Protocol
C. Layer Dependent Administration process
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
When using IP pools for MEP VPN access, where would you specify the pool to be used for a particular gateway?
A. The NAT screen of the gateway’s properties configuration
B. The ADVANCED screen of the gateway’s properties configuration
C. The VPN screen of the gateway’s properties screen
D. The TOPOLOGY screen of the gateway’s properties configuration

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart

Correct Answer: D

Free VCE & PDF File for Cisco 156-510 Real Exam

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Checkpoint 156-315 PDF: Most Reliable Checkpoint 156-315 VCE And PDF And Latest Checkpoint 156-315 Questions

The 156-315 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. https://www.pass4itsure.com/156-315.html – Checkpoint Real Exam Questions – 100% Free

Exam A QUESTION 1
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?

A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
D. Load Sharing – Multicast

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unloadlocal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm

Correct Answer: A

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Latest Release Checkpoint 156-315 Practice Answers and Questions Easily Free Download

Latest 156-315 Checkpoint Real Exam Questions,Latest Release Checkpoint https://www.pass4itsure.com/156-315.html Practice Answers and Questions Easily Free Download

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following QoS rule-action properties is an Advanced action type, only available in Traditional mode?
A. Guarantee Allocation
B. Rule weight
C. Apply rule only to encrypted traffic
D. Rule limit
E. Rule guarantee
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Greg is creating rules and objects to control VoIP traffic in his organization, through a VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway. Greg creates VoIP Domain SIP objects to represent each of his organization’s three SIP gateways. Greg then creates a simple group to contain the VoIP Domain SIP objects. When Greg attempts to add the VoIP Domain SIP objects to the group, they are not listed. What is the problem?
A. The related end-points domain specifies an address range.
B. VoIP Domain SIP objects cannot be placed in simple groups.
C. The installed VoIP gateways specify host objects.
D. The VoIP gateway object must be added to the group, before the VoIP Domain SIP object is eligible to be added to the group.
E. The VoIP Domain SIP object’s name contains restricted characters.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The following rule contains an FTP resource object in the Service field:
Source: local_net Destination: Any Service: FTP-resource object Action: Accept
How do you define the FTP Resource Properties > Match tab to prevent internal users from sending corporate files to external FTP servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Enable the “Get” method on the match tab.
B. Disable “Get” and “Put” methods on the Match tab.
C. Enable the “Put” and “Get” methods.
D. Enable the “Put” method only on the match tab.
E. Disable the “Put” method globally.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5

You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other objects should you have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on which the proxy is installed
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on which the gatekeeper is installed
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which the transmission router is installed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and SmartCenter Server run on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX in a distributed environment, where the existing machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and a new machine will be the VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration, including such items as Internal Certificate Authority files, databases, and Security Policies.
How do you request a new license for this VPN-1 NGX upgrade?
A. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine’s IP address. Request a new local license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine’s IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
C. Request a new VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with AI SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
D. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with AI SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway, licensed for the existing SmartCenter Server IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are preparing a lab for a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology:
Vip internal cluster IP = 172.16.10.1; Vip external cluster IP = 192.168.10.3 Cluster Member 1: four NICs, three enabled: qfe0: 192.168.10.1/24, qfe1: 10.10.10.1/24, qfe2: 172.16.10.1/24 Cluster Member 2: five NICs, three enabled; hme0: 192.168.10.2/24, eth1: 10.10.10.2/24, eth2: 172.16.10.2/24 Member Network tab on internal-cluster interface: is 10.10.10.0, 255.255.255.0 SmartCenter Pro Server: 172.16.10.3
External interfaces 192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) switch. The upstream router connects to the same VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 10.10.10.1 and
10.10.10.2 connect to a hub. There is no other machine in the 10.10.10.0 network. 172.19.10.0 is the synchronization network. What is the problem with this configuration?

A. The SmartCenter Pro Server cannot be in the synchronization network.
B. There is no problem with this configuration. It is correct.
C. Members do not have the same number of NICs.
D. The internal network does not have a third cluster member.
E. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate. Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VPN-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlatform NGX R60
D. SVN Foundation
E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGX R60
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which service type does NOT invoke a Security Server?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. CIFS
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGX. The SmartCenter Server and both members are version VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG FP3, with the latest Hotfix.
What is the correct upgrade procedure?
1.
Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object.

2.
Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade.

3.
Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade.

4.
Reinstall the Security Policy.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 1, 3, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
To change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode, what configuration change must be made?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object. Reinstall the Security Policy.
B. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy.
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to re-enable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig.
D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster-member object.
E. Switch the internal network’s default Security Gateway to the pivot machine’s IP address.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Robert has configured a Common Internet File System (CIFS) resource to allow access to the public partition of his company’s file server, on \\erisco\goldenapple\files\public.
Robert receives reports that users are unable to access the shared partition, unless they use the file server’s IP address. Which of the following is a possible cause?
A. Mapped shares do not allow administrative locks.
B. The CIFS resource is not configured to use Windows name resolution.
C. Access violations are not logged.
D. Remote registry access is blocked.
E. Null CIFS sessions are blocked.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which VPN-1 NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy?
A. Policy Package management
B. cpinfo
C. cpconfig
D. Database Revision Control
E. upgrade_export/import

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
In SmartView Tracker, you see an entry for an outbound connection showing address translation. But when setting SmartView Tracker to show all entries for that connection, only outbound entries show. What is the possible cause for this?
A. The entry is for a Manual Dynamic NAT connection, from a specific host infected by a worm.
B. The entry is for a Manual Static NAT connection, where inbound traffic is managed by a separate rule.
C. The entry is for a Static NAT connection, from a specific host that has been infected by a worm.
D. The entry is for a Dynamic NAT connection from a specific host.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands is used to restore VPN-1 NGX configuration information?
A. gunzip
B. cpconfig
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cpinfo
E. upgrade_import

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which OPSEC server is used to prevent users from accessing certain Web sites?
A. CVP
B. DEFENDER
C. URI
D. FTP
E. UFP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Your organization Certkiller .com’s security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. How would you request and apply the license?
A. Request a central license, using the remote Security Gateway’s IP address. Apply he license locally with the fwputlic command.
B. Request a central license, using the SmartCenter Server’s IP address. Apply the license locally on the remote Gateway with the fwputlic command.
C. Request a central license, using your SmartCenter Server’s IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
D. Request a central license, using the remote Gateway’s IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
E. Request local licenses for all Gateways separately. Apply the license locally on the remote Gateways with the fwputlic command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
How do you create more granular control over commands, such as CWD and FIND, in FTP data connections?
A. Use Global Properties > Security Server settings.
B. Use the gateway object’s Security Server settings.
C. Use the Service field of the Rule Base.
D. Use an FTP resource object.
E. Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the final step in a VPN-1 NGX backup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command.
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location.
C. Copy the conf directory to another location.
D. Run the upgrade_export command.
E. Run the cpstop command.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on SmartDashboard, for use with an LDAP server:
A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application.
B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object.
C. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.
E. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You want to create an IKE VPN between two VPN-1 NGX Security Gateways, to protect two networks. The network behind one Gateway is 10.15.0.0/16, and network 192.168.9.0/24 is behind the peer’s Gateway. Which type of address translation should you use, to ensure the two networks access each other through the VPN tunnel?
A. Hide NAT
B. None
C. Dynamic NAT
D. Static NAT
E. Manual NAT

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Yoav is a Security Administrator preparing to implement a VPN solution for his multisite organization. To comply with industry regulations, Yoav’s VPN solution must meet the following requirement:
*
Portability: Standard

*
Key management: Automatic, external PKI

*
Session keys: Changed at configured times during a connection’s lifetime

*
Key length: No less that 128-bit

*
Data integrity: Secure against inversion and brute-force attacks What is the most appropriate setting Yoav should choose?

A.
IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and DES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash

B.
IKE VPNs: SHA1 encryption for IKE Phase 1, and MD5 encryption for Phase 2; AES hash

C.
IKE VPNs: CAST encryption for IKE Phase 1, and SHA1 encryption for Phase 2; DES hash

D.
IKE VPNs: DES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and 3DES encryption for Phase 2; MD5 hash

E.
IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and AES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash

Correct Answer: E

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements does not make sense?

A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic interoperability.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term “Web service” must always be synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term “service”.
D. None of these statements are true.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked. However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be designed or established.
D. “Contract first” design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services. Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent and unified service endpoint layer.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
.
In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
.
Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service- oriented computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations into account.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
.
Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged, regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to change over time.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the design of individual services.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual governance burden of services.

Correct Answer: A

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which clip would be adjusted if you dragged left?(Select the best answer.)

A. Clip in Track V1
B. Clip in Track V2
C. Clip in Track V3

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What is the result of applying the above to an audio clip?(Select the best answer.)

A. The lowest dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
B. The average dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
C. The peak dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Where are Voice Over tool recordings saved?(Select the best answer.)
A. Audio Renders
B. Autosave Vault
C. Capture Scratch
D. Render Files

Correct Answer: C

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When a Mac OS X client connects to a server for the first time in a Mac OS X Server v10.4 Open Directory replication system, the client FIRST ________.
A. registers itself with each of the replicas
B. adds a search path for Directory Access for one of the servers in the replication system
C. downloads a list of LDAP replicas from the LDAP server for storage in its LDAPv3 Plugin plist file
D. looks at the Password Server public key and references this key to find out what password servers can be used for authentication

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which three (3) are Mac OS X Open Directory plug-ins that can request data from a directory service? (Choose THREE.)
A. SMB
B. LDAPv3
C. Bonjour
D. AppleTalk
E. Active Directory
F. BSD Flat File and NIS

Correct Answer: BEF QUESTION 3
Review the following command:
ldapsearch -LLL -x -H ldap://oneserver.example.com -b dc=example,dc=com objectClass=apple-group)?cn objectClass The last two options in this command, cn and objectClass, specify the ________.
A. LDAP entries to exclude from the results
B. attributes to return in the results
C. search filter
D. search base

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which is a valid method for optimizing the performance of a server providing Open Directory services?
A. Add memory and increase the BerkeleyDB cache size.
B. Store the Open Directory data and logs on the same disk.
C. Store the Open Directory data and operating system on the same disk partition.
D. Run all services that client computers require on the same server that is providing the Open Directory services.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
What two pieces of information must be specified in the Active Directory plug-in configuration in order for Mac OS X v10.4 to bind to Active Directory via the Active Directory plug-in? (Choose TWO.)
A. Computer ID
B. Ethernet address
C. Active Directory tree
D. Active Directory forest
E. Active Directory domain

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
To support Mac OS X clients, you deploy a server running directory services on Mac OS X Server v10.4 to supplement the existing Active Directory services. This solution provides ________.
A. a mechanism for mapping Mac OS X schema to Active Directory
B. a mechanism for storing Microsoft Exchange data in Open Directory
C. a means of managing Windows Group Policy objects from Workgroup Manager in Mac OS X
D. a way to store user principals in Active Directory, and delegate Mac-specific management to Mac OS X Server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
What are three (3) ways to supplement data that is missing from a third-party LDAP server to support Mac OS X clients? (Choose THREE.)
A. Repurpose existing fields in the directory schema.
B. Modify the server’s search path to exclude /NetInfo/root.
C. Create local mappings with static and variable attributes.
D. Remove unused objectClasses from the local directory schema.
E. Enable Option 95 to assure communication with the DHCP server.
F. Modify the schema for the directory on the third-party LDAP server.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 8
What authentication token does a client present when accessing a kerberized service?
A. the user password
B. a client-generated service ticket
C. a service ticket obtained from the key distribution center (KDC)
D. a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the key distribution center (KDC)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You want services that are running on Mac OS X Server to accept Kerberos service tickets generated by another server. Which of the following is a valid step to accomplish this in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. Enable the Kerberos Open Directory plug-in.
B. Use Server Admin to join the Kerberos realm of the other server.
C. Use NeST to establish a trust relationship with the Kerberos server.
D. Add an /etc/kerberos.conf file to define the correct Kerberos domain and service principal.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which tool uses the DirectoryService process to retrieve directory data?
A. Workgroup Manager
B. NetInfo Manager
C. ldapsearch
D. nicl

Correct Answer: A

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