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Cisco 350-030 VCE Files, Discount Cisco 350-030 Exam Guide Covers All Key Points

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QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?
A. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
B. time slots 1 to 32
C. time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
D. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32
E. timeslots to 31
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?
A. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 960
B. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 768000 7680 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 fragment frfl2 960 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960

E. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 compress header ip rtp service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 640

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?
A. !
B. +
C. *
D. .
E. ?
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 82
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?
A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled.
D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?
A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?
A. Station Media Port List message
B. Station Set Ringer message
C. Station Stop Tone message
D. Station Start Media Transmission message
E. Station Open Receive Channel message
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C. VAD is disabled.
D. VAD is enabled.
E. NLP is disabled. F NLP is enabled.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86 PS：由于原CCIE语音群已满请大家转到新 CCIE-QQ(500人)群：53357075 —王Sir

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?
A. RSVP-based
B. gatekeeper-based
C. CUBE-based
D. locations-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?
A. show call active voice brief
B. show voip rtp connections
C. show voice dsp detailed
D. show voice call summary
E. show policy-map interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?
A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover
D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)
A. FXS
B. E&MTypel
C. E&MTypell
D. E&MTypelV
E. FXO

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 91
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?
A. The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0
B. The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C. The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D. The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?
A. server name
B. server IP address
C. DNS domain D. SIP proxy domain
E. enable presence

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours
E. 48 hours

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What will occur if a video bridge is not available during a video call setup on Cisco Unified Communications Manager using the Intelligent Bridge Selection feature?
A. The video call will fail, and the caller will receive a busy tone.
B. The video call will succeed, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use the default video image.
C. The video call will fail and will be forwarded to voice mail.
D. The video call will fall back to an audio-only call.
E. The video call will fail, and the caller will hear a message.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end-to- end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco RTP
B. H.245 signal
C. H.245 alphanumeric
D. RTP-NTE
E. H.225 Notify
F. in-band voice

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 96
What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages for a Cisco Unity Connection user?
A. 2 MB
B. 4MB
C. 10 MB
D. 14 MB
E. 20 MB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio streams?
A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.
C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
When a call is being established on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to inform the gateway where to send RTP traffic?
A. MDCX
B. RTPX
C. CRCX
D. NTFY
E. RQNT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99

Refer to the exhibit. When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of 2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, from highest to lowest priority?
A. II,III, IV
B. II,IV, III,I
C. III,IV,II,I
D. III, II, IV,I
E. II, III, IV, I

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission?
A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway with a voice ISDN PRI connection to the PSTN, which two PSTN signals are processed locally by the gateway? (Choose two.)
A. MGCP endpoint configuration
B. T1 framing and line code
C. ISDNQ.921
D. ISDNQ.931
E. ISDN call setup

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 102
A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 700
D. 1000
E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect? (Choose three)
A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both.
B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups.
C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL.
D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group.
E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines which MOH server is used to play music to the held device.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service
D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine
E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent
F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 105
Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct?
A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech
B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay.
C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay.
D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed.
E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS WAN.
B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.
C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resides must be enabled as a CE device.
D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.
E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement-based CAC.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 107
An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?
A. No Route To Destination
B. Normal Call Clearing
C. Subscriber Absent
D. User Busy
E. Network Busy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108
Which three statements are correct with regard to the Certificate Trust List file? (Choose three.)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. It is signed using the administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key, and role information.
D. It is created by the CTL client on the administrator workstation.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 109

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Cisco 642-541 Exam Tests, First-hand Cisco 642-541 Dumps Are Based On The Real Exam

September 10, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 176
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on source address
D. provides session state information based on destination address
E. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 177
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 179
As an alternative design in the SAFE SMR small network campus module, a small filtering router can be placed between the rest of the network and which devices?
A. Layer 2 switches
B. management stations
C. corporate users
D. routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What signature actions can be configured on an IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? Choose two.
A. UDP reassembly
B. none
C. IP log
D. total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Which of the following is not a SAFE guideline to proactively mitigate Code Red attacks?
A. host intrusion prevention system
B. network-based application recognition
C. antivirus
D. access control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections? Choose two.
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections
B. only frame relay connections
C. private WAN connections
D. ATM connections

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
How does Java applet filtering distinguish between trusted and untrusted applets?
A. examines the applet for suspicious code
B. relies on a list of applets that you designate as hostile
C. relies on a list of applets that you designate as friendly
D. relies on a list of external sites that you designate as friendly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which two are design alternatives in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module? Choose two.
A. place a URL filtering server on the public services segment
B. eliminate the router between the firewall and the campus module
C. set up a small filtering router between the management stations and the rest of the network
D. eliminate HIDS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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August 27, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 161
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server Correct Answer: B

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-42
QUESTION 162
Which of the following protocols is able to provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. SCSI-FP
B. SIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCIP
E. eSCSI
F. CIFS

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 163
Below is a list of characteristics and applications that can belong to either the SAN or the NAS storage network model. Can you sort the list by dragging the appropriate option to the correct box on the right? Drag each option to the appropriate box.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which device will act as a bridge between a Fiber Channel SAN and an IP network.
What would your reply be?
A. Storage Router
B. Switching hub
C. FC-HBA attached host
D. FC Switch
E. NAS GE Switch

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Cisco storage router delivers redundant iSCSI paths to a pair of Fibre Channel switches. iSCSI takes advantage of the connection-oriented TCP protocol for reliable service. Ethernet was already part of the IT network. This meant trained personnel were on board, and simplified
the storage networking installation shown in the figure.
Cost was an important factor in choosing iSCSI. Because the research facility already had TCP/IP and
Gigabit Ethernet networks installed, the iSCSI solution fit their budget and met their storage networking
needs.

Reference: Arch student guide p.13-33

QUESTION 165
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol encapsulates Fiber Channel frames so that they can be transported transparently over an IP network.
What will your reply be?
A. iSCSO
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
E. CIFS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
An important technology for linking Fibre Channel SANs is FCIP. FCIP and iSCSI are complementary solutions for enabling company-wide access to storage. FCIP transparently interconnects Fibre Channel SAN islands over IP networks through FCIP tunnels, while iSCSI allows IP-connected hosts to access iSCSI or FC-connected storage.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-15
QUESTION 166
You are a network technician at Certkiller.com. The database for Certkiller.com requires continuous uptime (24×7) and processes many write-intensive applications from many different sources. The current Certkiller.com LAN network operates at approximately 50% utilization, with peaks that exceed 70%.
Which storage networking model would you include your network upgrade design?
A. Metro Optical
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. Universal IP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 167
Which IP storage network solution is best suited for high-volume, write-intensive, transaction-driven applications?
A. Storage area networking
B. Network-attached storage
C. Local storage
D. Metro optical storage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
SAN provides block-oriented access to native disk storage. It is based on a shared or switched
infrastructure, often Fibre Channel. You can extend SAN to an ip infrastructure.
New protocols and products are emerging that allow the integration of SANs with the IP network.
Historically, SANs have been well suited to high-volume, write-intensive transaction-driven applications.

Reference: Arch student guide p.13-7.

QUESTION 168
In which scenario would a SAN storage solution be a better choice than an iSCSI-based NAS solution?
A. Traditional file-sharing applications.
B. Fast growing data storage needs.
C. Applications that cannot tolerate block level, storage access latency.
D. Highly reads-intensive applications.
E. Web serving applications with many active pages.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three)
A. Reliability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Manageability
E. Available bandwidth
F. Access speed

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided
Incorrect answers:
A: Reliability would be good. **CONTRADICTING ANSWER!!**
E: Bandwidth would be excellent.
F: Access speed would be excellent.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6.
QUESTION 170
Which protocol enables the location of a fully synchronized hot backup Fiber Channel storage solution at a remote site over existing optical WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. SCSI-FCP
C. FCIP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
You can use FCIP to connect two geographically dispersed Fibre Channel storage arrays for the purpose of synchronous data storage. If the local storage array becomes unavailable, an application could utilize the FCIP link to access the data on the “hot backup” storage system at the remote site. It is also possible to implement remote tape backups to further protect customers’ valuable information in the event of disaster at the primary site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-16
QUESTION 171
Why is G.729a commonly used instead of G.729?
A. It receives a higher MOS score.
B. It uses less complex algorithms.
C. It uses more complex algorithms.
D. It samples speech pattern more often.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What are two benefits of a high availability network? (Choose two)
A. Improves user satisfaction.
B. Minimized lost opportunity costs.
C. Increases network manageability.
D. Reduces hardware and software costs.
E. Reduces information technology (IT) costs.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11b?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 1.44 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 11 Mbps data.
E. 1.44 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 174
You would choose IS-IS for a routing protocol to meet the following two requirements. (Choose two)
A. Expansion of the backbone area is a concern.
B. Dial-up connections are required.
C. The network has NBMA connections.
D. The network is very large.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi-vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
E. EIRGP
F. BGP

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 176
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three)
A. Rate limit traffic.
B. Configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence.
C. Isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs.
D. Use low latency queuing at the source.
E. Classify and mark traffic close to the source.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 177
With which of the following does the Cisco Product Advisor help customers? (Choose three)
A. Design options
B. Hardware devices
C. Software options
D. Hardware options
E. Protocol components
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 178
Which statement about fully redundant topologies is true?
A. Public bandwidth can be utilized on an as-needed basis.
B. Key components can be replaced within the device without turning power off.
C. Devices can be replaced in the network without interrupting the network operation.
D. Each device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
E. A backup exists for every link and for every device between the client and the server.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11a?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 64 Mbps data.
E. 12 GHz frequency and 12 Mbps data.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which two QoS functions are used to prioritize voice over data? (Choose two)
A. Voice activity detection
B. Queue servicing
C. Classification
D. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 181
Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 182
Which of the following modules of the Enterprise Campus is NOT considered important to the scalability of the campus network?
A. Building distribution
B. Building access
C. Campus backbone
D. Network management
E. Server farm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three)
A. Dial plans
B. Dialed numbers
C. Voice mail prompts
D. Phone features
E. Ring tones

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
What does ATM do that Frame Relay does not?
A. Packet looping
B. Priority queuing
C. Packet forwarding
D. Circuit emulation

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
What happens when packets traversing the network exceed the MTU of an IPSec/VPN interface?
A. They trigger a link failure.
B. They are all discarded and re-transmitted.
C. They are unable to be sent.
D. They come fragmented.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 186
Which type of disaster recovery application protects from user error or data corruption, as well as hardware failure?
A. Disk mirroring
B. Replication
C. Backup and off-site storage
D. Disk duplexing
E. RAID 5 stripe sets

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 187
What are two characteristics of shaping, but not policing? (Choose two)
A. It forces TCP resends.
B. It is typically performed on enterprise egress.
C. It is rate limiting with no buffering mechanism.
D. It can adapt to Frame Relay BECN and FECN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
Certkiller.com is a global insurance company with headquarters in Mexico City. The campus there is made of a number of buildings located in the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building Certkiller 12A was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Certkiller.com has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Certkiller.com. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets.
Which IP technology deployment best suits their need?
A. Single-site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Multisite with distributed call processing
D. Clustering over the WAN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
In the Enterprise Composite Network model, which Enterprise Campus Infrastructure Module submodule provides aggregation of wiring closets, and performing routing, quality of service, and access control?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Backbone
D. Edge Distribution

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
Certkiller.com is a small company with 25 agents stationed around Spain. It is necessary for these agents to transmit customer data securely from their homes and from their customer sites.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual Remote Access IPSec-based VPN
B. Leased Line T1 Connection
C. Dial-up ISDN Access
D. Site-to-Site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
In which two instances would static routing be preferred over the use of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. In small networks that are planning to grow
B. In networks using on demand routing that are not expected to grow significantly
C. In networks where a total knowledge of the network is not known
D. In a network that has a few very large sites and a single connection to the Internet
E. When routing to and from stub networks

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which two types of attacks are addressed at the Building Access sub-module of the Enterprise Campus infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Viruses
B. Packet sniffers
C. IP spoofing
D. Password attacks
E. Unauthorized access

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. QoS
B. Work force optimization
C. Security
D. E-business infrastructure
E. IP telephony
F. IP multicasting

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
C. Dual Wan links to the regional office
D. Dual Wan links to another branch office

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 191
Which MST configuration statement is correct?
A. MST configurations can be propagated to other switches using VTP.
B. After MST is configured on a switch, PVST+ operations will also be enabled by default.
C. MST configurations must be manually configured on each switch within the MST region.
D. MST configurations only need to be manually configured on the Root Bridge.
E. MST configurations are entered using the VLAN Database mode on Cisco Catalyst switches.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?

A. All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment.
B. The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address.
C. The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit and the show ip mroute output on router R2. The network administrator wants to check the multicast traffic coming on R2. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is sourced from two different sources.
B. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is reaching R2.
C. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 gets dropped because of RPF failure.
D. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is forwarded out the Ethernet3/1 and Ethernet3/2 interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port: 00:06:34: %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

e
A. The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B. The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.
C. The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D. Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
Switch 1:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch 2:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveGiven the switch configurations, which of the following statements is correct?

A. PAgP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
B. LACP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
C. One switch must be in LACP Active mode for the EtherChannel to form.
D. Only one switch must be in the On mode and the other in the LACP Passive mode for Etherchannel to form.
E. Each physical port in the EtherChannel must have the command switchport access vlan 10 for the EtherChannel to form.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
What command will specify IEEE 802.1Q as the encapsulation method for a trunked port on a Cisco IOS switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot1q
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel?
A. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode.
B. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type.
C. The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on.
D. The ports will not form an EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
The network administrator maps VLANs 10 through 20 to MST instance 2. How will this information be propagated to all appropriate switches?
A. Information will be carried in the RSTP BPDUs.
B. It will be propagated in VTP updates.
C. Information is stored in the Forwarding Information Base and the switch will reply upon query.
D. Multiple Spanning Tree must be manually configured on the appropriate switches.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
IEEE 802.1w RSTP defines which port states?
A. Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking, Disabled
B. Learning, Forwarding, Discarding
C. Learning, Active, Block
D. Listening, Forwarding, Active, Blocking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest time to receive BPDUs
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 221
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
E. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
An administrator recently entered the following commands on a switch:Switch(config)# vtp mode transparentSwitch(config)# vtp version 2What is the result of this configuration?
A. VLAN configuration information is saved in RAM only.
B. VLANs cannot be created, modified or deleted via command line interface.
C. VLAN configuration information received via VTP advertisements are forwarded to other switches within the management domain.
D. VLAN configuration information is synchronized with information within VTP advertisements received from other switches in the management domain.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 228
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 230
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 231
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 232
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the default multicast configuration is being used. Which host or hosts will receive multicast traffic sent from host A?

A. host B
B. host C
C. hosts B, C, and D
D. none

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 233
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 234
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show spanning-tree command, which statement is true?

A. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary global configuration e command.
B. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.
C. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 24577 global configuration command.
D. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 2 global configuration command.
E. The root bridge has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 235
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 236
When STP operation is functioning normally, which statement is true about BPDUs?
A. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every two seconds
B. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every 15 seconds.
C. A bridge sends a TCN BPDU to the root bridge once upon initial configuration, followed by configuration BPDUs every two seconds.
D. A bridge sends only TCN BPDUs to the root bridge and no configuration BPDUs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 237
On a Cisco multilayer switch, which command will configure a port to act as a routed interface?”
A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport trunk native vlan 1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 238
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. an identical VTP mode
B. an identical speed/duplex
C. an identical trunk negotiation parameter
D. an identical trunk encapsulation parameter

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 239
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 240
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241
Which action could have caused the following output to appear on a switch? %SPANTREE-2-ROOTGUARDBLOCK: Port 1/1 tried to become non-designated in VLAN 77. Moved to root-inconsistent state
A. The switch is configured with Loop Guard and stops receiving BPDUs.
B. The switch is configured with PortFast and starts receiving BPDUs.
C. The switch is configured with Root Guard and starts receiving superior BPDUs.
D. The switch is configured with BackboneFast and starts receiving inferior BPDUs.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 244
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?

A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 246
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the Reverse Path Forwarding check procedure is true?

A. If a multicast packet arrives from 66.66.66.2 on Serial 0/1, then the packet is forwarded.
B. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
C. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
D. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
E. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
F. If a multicast packet arrives from 192.168.30.0 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded out all other interfaces.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 247
Refer to the exhibit. How can the hello timers on SW_B be adjusted from the default?

e A. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_A
B. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_B
C. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_A
D. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 248
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 250
Refer to the exhibit. What command was issued on the Layer 3 switch Sw1 between Exhibit #1 and Exhibit #2?

A. ip routing
B. no ip routing
C. router eigrp 1
D. no router eigrp 1
E. mls qos
F. no mls qos

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 251
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured router R1 to provide interVLAN routing between the various subnets on the network. Based on the output provided by the show ip route command, what statement is true?

e
A. Users on all VLANs can communicate with each other and access the Internet.
B. Because of the missing routing protocol, none of the VLANs can route traffic.
C. Users can access all the resources on the network but cannot browse the Internet.
D. Users will have full access to the Internet but will not be able to communicate with each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 252
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured in an HSRP group to provide redundancy for the users on Network A. The T1 link between R1 and Network B has failed. How will HSRP respond to the failure?

A. R1 will change its priority but will remain active using the Frame Relay backup link to forward the traffic to Network B.
B. R2 will assume the role of active router and will use its T1 link to forward the traffic to Network B.
C. Both routers R1 and R2 will be active, and the traffic will be load balanced between the T1 links.
D. Both routers R1 and R2 will be inactive, and the users on Network A will lose the connectivity to Network
E.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 253
Refer to the exhibit. All of the switches used in the network started with a cleared (default) configuration. After the switches were powered on, the commands in the exhibit were entered on switch CAT1. What was the response of switch CAT1?

A. The command was accepted, and a dot1q trunk was established.
B. The command was rejected, and a dot1q trunk was established by default.
C. The command was accepted, and an access link was autonegotiated.
D. The command was rejected, and a port channel was autoconfigured with a native VLAN of 1.
E. The command was accepted only because the command no shutdown was issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT2.
F. The command was rejected because the trunking encapsulation on the activated interface defaulted to auto mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 254
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)

A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 255
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?

A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 256
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 257
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information available, which statement is true?

e
A. Instance 0 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
B. Instance 1 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-1024.
C. Instance 2 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
D. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 101.
E. Switch P1S1 is the primary root for VLAN 110.
F. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 30.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 258
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 259
Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
D. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch
1. Where will the broadcast propagate?

A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 261
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 262
Refer to the exhibit and the show vtp status output. Switch SW_B was previously used in a lab but is now connected to the production network in VTP transparent mode. What will happen when the trunk link between SW_A and SW_B is brought up?

A. SW_A will update its VLAN database with the information from SW_B because SW_A is configured as a VTP server.
B. Because SW_B is configured as a VTP server, SW_A will not change its VLAN database information.
C. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because of a higher revision number on SW_B.
D. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because SW_B is configured in VTP transparent mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 263
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 264
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 265
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 266
Refer to the exhibit. Supervisor redundancy has been configured on a Catalyst 4500 switch. The administrator issued the show redundancy states command. Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)

A. Route processor redundancy (RPR) is not currently functional.
B. Route processor redundancy (RPR)is currently up and functional.
C. This route processor is offline.
D. The Mode = Simplex portion of the output indicates that the system is currently not in redundant mode.
E. The redundant supervisor is in standby mode.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

Cisco 642-996 PDF Dumps, Prepare for the Cisco 642-996 Exam Download With Low Price

August 13, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION: 20
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. LISP
C. HSRP
D. VDC
E. VRF

Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 22 The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. Cisco ISO ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 23 The classical access layer has its limitations due to a high value in which of the following items?
A. oversubscription
B. jitter
C. cost
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet links

Answer: A
QUESTION: 24 Your customer is designing a new data center and would like the aggregation layer to be able to route and have Layer 3 capability. What Cisco platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5596 without Layer 3 daughter card
C. Cisco MDS 9506 chassis with supervisor engine
D. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with Enterprise Services Package

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 Which technology provides additional scalability and simplification of an Ethernet network, providing more efficient forwarding and eliminating the need for the Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. OTV
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. FabricPath

Answer: D
QUESTION: 26 Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active- active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 27 Classical aggregation layer designs do not provide isolation of the control and data planes. What provides a solution to this limitation?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 29
What are the benefits of an Adapter FEX?

A. requires fewer adapters, cables, network ports, and network devices
B. provides the ability to VMware VMotion across data centers
C. reduces complexity in the data center
D. works with the IEEE 802.1RB standard

Answer: A
QUESTION: 30
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?

A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?

A. Cisco Adapter FEX extends the Cisco FEX technology into a traditional rack servers MoR design.
B. An EoR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX extends VDCs across multiple Cisco Nexus switches.
D. A ToR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 33
What is one required component to run FCoE?

A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
C. HBA
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34 Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR

Answer: A
QUESTION: 35 Which two technologies can overcome the link blocking feature that STP implements to ensure a loop-free topology? (Choose two.)
A. vPC
B. ISSU
C. MEC
D. NX-OS HA
E. GLBP

Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 36 Your customer would like to run FCoE in the access layer. Which fabric extender should the customer utilize in its design?
A. Cisco Nexus 2148T
B. Cisco Nexus 2224TP
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-F
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
Which Cisco Nexus switch offers possibilities for implementation of the virtual switching layer in VMware?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 2248 FEX

Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which item represents a method of increasing storage utilization efficiency?

A. thin provisioning
B. thick provisioning
C. transparent provisioning
D. hold-back provisioning
E. weighted provisioning

Answer: A
QUESTION: 39
Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
F. iSCSI

Answer: F
QUESTION: 40
What is required to allow for FCoE multihop prior to the ratification of FC-BB-6?

A. VN to VF encapsulation
B. FIP snooping
C. FCoE proxy
D. Fibre Channel bridging at FC-2
E. VE to VE tunneling

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41 What is required to be configured in VMware vCenter to allow a VM direct access to a Fibre Channel LUN?
A. DirectPath I/O
B. VM-FEX
C. Adapter FEX
D. Raw Device Mapping
E. Solid State Drive

Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one.
Which SAN topology is Cisco recommended?

A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge

Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which two Cisco MDS 9500 line cards support SME? (Choose two.)

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CCNA Data Center, Cisco

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QUESTION 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)
A. Time and Date
B. Management IP address
C. Default Zoneset distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 36
Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. Zone

D. FLOGI
E. LUN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?
A. MDS-A# show vsan 10
B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database
C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports
D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership
E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 4
E. RAID 5
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. better server utilization
B. increased network visibility
C. decreased complexity
D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems
E. physical resource sharing
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 40
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG
QUESTION 43
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vem
B. N1000v-VSM# vem status
C. N1000v-VSM# show module
D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status
E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 14
B. None
C. Ports 16
D. Ports 18
E. Ports 1720

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 49
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI

F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 50
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 51
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 54
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 55
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?
A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.
B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.
C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.
D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?
A. access
B. services
C. aggregation
D. transport
E. network
F. core

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and intrusion prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 62
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC overlay link
B. vPC peer link
C. vPC keepalive link
D. vPC control link
E. vPC management link
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?
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QUESTION 159
Which are the attack mitigation roles for the VPN Concentrator in the SAFE standard VPN WLAN design? Choose three.
A. authenticate remote users
B. two-factor authentication
C. terminate IPsec
D. RFC 2827 filtering
E. DHCP relay
F. VPN client auto-initiate

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 161
Which IDS guidelines should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use TCP shunning as opposed to TCP resets
B. use shunning no longer than 15 minutes
C. use shunning on only UDP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than TCP
D. use shunning on only TCP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than UDP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which three Cisco components encompass secure connectivity? Choose three.
A. Cisco IDS Sensors
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco VPN Concentrators
E. Cisco IOS IDS
F. Cisco IOS VPN

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
According to the SAFE Layer 2 security white paper, which is not a threat to switches?
A. CAM table overflow
B. DHCP starvation
C. IP address spoofing
D. VLAN hopping
E. Spanning-Tree Protocol manipulation

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What causes the default TCP intercept feature of the IOS Firewall to become more aggressive? Choose two.
A. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 1100
B. the number of connections arriving in the last 1 minute exceeds 1100
C. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 100
D. the number of connections arriving in the last 10 minutes exceeds 1000

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is true about the PIX Firewall in the remote site firewall option in the SAFE SMR remote user design environment?
A. ISAKMP is enabled when the ISAKMP policy is created
B. ISAKMP is enabled when the crypto map is applied to the interface
C. ISAKMP is disabled by default
D. ISAKMP is enabled by default

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR remote user network? Choose two.
A. firewall with VPN support
B. Layer 2 switch
C. broadband access device
D. NIDS
E. Layer 3 switch

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What is the function of a crypto map on a PIX Firewall?
A. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IKE peer address or host name
B. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IPSec peer address or host name
C. to specify which algorithms to use with the selected security protocol
D. to filter and classify the traffic to be protected

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 168
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 169
How are password attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
According to SAFE worm mitigation, which of the following is not a mitigation for MS Blaster?
A. private VLANs
B. NBAR
C. CAR
D. sink-hole routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which method will always compute the password if it is made up of the character set you selected to test?
A. brute force computation
B. strong password computation
C. password reassemble
D. brute force mechanism

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 173
What are the SAFE guidelines when routing information is exchanged with an outside routing domain? (Select two.)
A. Use exterior gateway protocols only
B. Use exterior gateway protocols that operate between routing domains and do not allow administrators to build and act on policies.
C. Use exterior gateway protocols because they allow administrators to build and act on policies rather than just on reachability information.
D. Do not use autonomous system path filters on every EBGP peering session in network
E. Use exterior gateway protocols or static routes.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. WAN router
B. VPN Concentrator
C. firewalls
D. NIDS host
E. corporate servers
F. layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
According to SAFE SMR, what type of VPN connectivity is typically used with the Cisco PIX Firewall?
A. remote access
B. site-to-site
C. mobile user
D. corporate

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 136
Which are the functional areas in SAFE Enterprise Network? Choose two.
A. Enterprise Network VPN/Remote Access
B. Enterprise Network Campus
C. Enterprise Network Distribution
D. Enterprise Network Corporate Internet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
How are packet sniffer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network campus module?
A. host based virus scanning
B. the latest security fixes
C. the use of HIDS and application access control
D. switched infrastructure
E. HIDS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What are private VLANs?
A. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
B. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
C. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments
D. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 139
Which IDS guideline should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof
B. use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof
C. use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes
D. use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
What IKE proposal should be chosen on the VPN Concentrator for the Unity Client?
A. any proposal that ends with DH7
B. any IKE proposal, except the IKE proposal that ends with DH7
C. any proposal that starts with Cisco VPN Client
D. any proposal that starts with DH7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which two Cisco components encompass secure management? Choose two.
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. CiscoWorks
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco PIX Firewalls
E. Web Device Managers

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
What Radio Frequency (RF) band does the Home RF Shared Wireless Access Protocol (SWAP) specification use
A. 900 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 5.7 GHz
D. 900 MHz

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
What is the primary function of the IOS firewall in the SAFE SMR small network design?
A. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
B. provide remote site connectivity and general filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
C. provide host DoS mitigation
D. authenticate IPSec tunnels
E. provide remote site authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
How are virus and Trojan Horse attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What threats are expected for the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose two.
A. IP spoofing
B. packets sniffers
C. denial of service
D. applications layer attacks

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which type of attack is usually implemented using packet sniffers?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. DoS
C. brute force
D. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR remote user network environment? Choose two.
A. trust exploitation
B. port redirection attacks
C. man in the middle attacks
D. network reconnaissance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which is a design alternative in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. A NIDS appliance can be placed in front of the firewall.
B. A URL filtering server can be placed on the public services segment to filter the types of Web pages employees can access.
C. A separate router and Layer 2 switch can be used for the core and distribution rather than the higher-performing Layer 3 switch.
D. The router between the firewall and the campus module can be eliminated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 150
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
According to SAFE SMR guidelines, where do you implement the Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator?
A. in front of the Internet access router
B. behind the PIX Firewall and parallel to the Internet access router
C. behind the Internet access router and parallel to the PIX Firewall
D. behind the corporate network module

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152
What services do extranet VPNs provide?
A. link corporate headquarters to remote offices
B. link telecommuters and mobile users to corporate network resources
C. link network resources with third-party vendors and business partners
D. link private networks to public networks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
According to SAFE, which statement is true about IPSec tunneling protocols?
A. L2TP supports data encryption and packet integrity.
B. GRE is better suited for site-to-site VPNs.
C. IPSec standard supports IP unicast and multicast traffic.
D. GRE is better suited for remote-access VPNs.
E. GRE supports data encryption and packet integrity.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. Syslog hosts
B. corporate servers
C. Layer 3 switches
D. firewalls
E. VPN Concentrator
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which routing protocol does not support the use of MD5 authentication?
A. BGP
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 158
What version of the Cisco PIX Firewall is required to use the VPN accelerator card?
A. version 2.3 or higher
B. version 3.3 or higher
C. version 4.3 or higher
D. version 5.3 or higher
E. version 6.3 or higher

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the ability that “Hyper Scale” provides to Cisco UCS Invicta?
A. Scale out either independently or together
B. Scale up only
C. Scale out only
D. Scale up and out but only at the same time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option is not a key target audience for the Cisco UCS Invicta solution?
A. IT managers/CIOs
B. Application owners
C. Business decision makers
D. Archival library managers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the (lash array, based on the Parity Research of TCO. are true? (Choose two.)
A. HDD used 2 times the power of flash array.
B. HDD used 5 times the power of flash array.
C. HDD used 10 times the power of flash array.
D. HDD used 50 times the power of flash array.
E. HDD took 8 times the physical space of flash array.
F. HDD took 15 times the physical space of Hash array
G. HDD took 2 times the physical space of flash array.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which two options are the two main products in the Invicta portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Stand-alone appliance
B. Stand-alone array
C. Scaling appliance
D. Scaling array
E. Latency appliance
F. Latency array
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which four customer characteristics indicate a good match for Cisco UCS Invicta? (Choose four.)
A. Space and power constraints due to scaling out
B. Those focused on large disk backup service
C. New or existing Cisco UCS customers
D. Application scaling issues
E. Those with large data archives infrequently accessed

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QUESTION 1
What is the Cisco position on the Gartner Magic Quadrant for IPSs?
A. visionary
B. challenger
C. niche player, highest ability to execute
D. leader, most visionary

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
In which category of the attack continuum model does the next-generation firewall belong?
A. prologue
B. before
C. during
D. after

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which security technology can protect networks in the During phase of the attack continuum model?
A. next-generation firewall
B. AMP
C. next-generation IPS
D. VPN

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Retrospective security is unique to which vendor?
A. McAfee
B. Palo Alto Networks
C. Checkpoint
D. Cisco

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Which security technology can protect networks during the After phase of the attack continuum model?
A. next-generation firewall
B. AMP
C. web security
D. next-generation IPS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Why is advanced malware difficult to stop by using traditional control-and-detect technologies?
A. Security teams can quickly use threat intelligence to understand the most recent threats.
B. Attackers continue to innovate around traditional control and detection technologies.
C. Customers invest too heavily in detection.
D. Advanced malware is based on phishing.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which two attributes in the visibility-driven component of the Cisco security model are needed to see all threats? (Choose two.)
A. management
B. depth
C. network
D. breadth
E. endpoint

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which security strategy is implemented during the After phase of the before-during-after model?
A. detect
B. enforce
C. discover
D. remediate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
In which attack-continuum category does email security belong?
A. prologue
B. before
C. after
D. during
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
With regard to being threat-focused, which Cisco security technology provides context?
A. CWS
B. ISE
C. AMP
D. threat defense
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which feature in the Cisco AMP solution provides the ability to track malware activity over time?
A. trajectory
B. blacklisting
C. sandboxing
D. malware detection
Correct Answer: A

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