Cisco 600-511 Test, Helpful Cisco 600-511 Certification Exams Covers All Key Points

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QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric?
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called “anyany” that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 642-871 Demo Free Download, Provide Discount Cisco 642-871 Testing Covers All Key Points

Flydumps Cisco 642-871 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert,Moreover,they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the Cisco 642-871 exam objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the Cisco 642-871 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Cisco expert professionals.

QUESTION 112
Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of a network that is well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router within the network. The classification is based on as many details as possible, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets.
B. Packets are classified based on their position from the hub and the closeness to the router. All the packets are manually classified based on their positioning and flow of the router.
C. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closets to the source of the traffic. The packets are characterized automatically based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
E. Packets are classified based on variable parameters, but close to the edge of the network. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Network design practice emphasizes that you should classify or mark traffic as close to the edge of the network as possible. Traffic class is a criterion for queue selection in the various queuing schemes used at interfaces within the campus switches and WAN devices. When you connect an IP phone using a single cable, the phone becomes the edge of the managed network. As the edge device, the IP phone can and
should classify and mark traffic flows so that network QoS mechanisms can correctly handle the packets.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would you use in the CPE to make sure that voice packets are limited to the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and do not expand beyond the CIR of Frame Relay links?
A. Prioritization
B. Traffic shaping
C. Traffic policing
D. Segmentation
E. Classification
F. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 114
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why CBWFQ is not recommended for voice traffic.
What will your reply be?
A. CBWFQ does not support FIFO
B. CBWFQ allows queue starvation
C. CBWFQ guarantees delay but does not guarantee bandwidth
D. CBWFQ guarantees bandwidth but does not guarantee delay
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 115
Within the IP header, which fields of the ToS byte provide Layer 3 classification? (Choose two.)
A. CoS
B. TTL
C. SNAP
D. DSCP
E. IP Precedence

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which of the following represent the advantages of implementing QoS in Enterprise Networks? (Choose two.)
A. It decreases propagation delay
B. It provides predictable response times.
C. It supports dedicated bandwidth per application.
D. It prevents the need to increase bandwidth when adding applications.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 117
With regard to classification and marketing, which of the following statement is true?
A. When classifying packets at Layer 3, only Layer 3 IP Precedence markings can be used.
B. Marking features allows a router to mark any field that the classification features can examine
C. Classification features can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, unless the packet has already been marked, in which case only the marked field can be examined
D. Although classification can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, it is useful to mark the packet, so that switches and routers that later receive the packet can apply features based on the market field.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Packet classification features provide the capability to partition network traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. For example, by using the three precedence bits in the type of service (ToS) field of the IP packet header (two of the values are reserved for other purposes), you can categorize packets into a limited set of up to six traffic classes. After you classify packets, you can utilize other QoS features to assign the appropriate traffic handling policies, including congestion management, bandwidth allocation, and delay bounds for each traffic class.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.7-18.
QUESTION 118
Certkiller, the CEO of Toronto division of Certkiller.com, want to know what the characteristics of RSVP are.
What should you tell Mrs. Bill?
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Resource Reservation Protocol. Protocol that supports the reservation of resources across an IP network.
Applications running on IP end systems can use RSVP to indicate to other nodes the nature (bandwidth,
jitter, maximum burst, and so on) of the packet streams they want to receive. Also known as Resource
Reservation Setup Protocol.
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is an IETF-draft networking protocol dedicated to being the
facilitator and carrier of standardized QOS information and parameters.

RSVP carries generic (industry-defined) QOS parameters from end nodes (inclusive) to each QOS-aware
network device included in the path between RSVP session members.
That is, RSVP is a means by which end nodes and network devices can communicate and negotiate QOS

parameters and network usage admission.
Reference: Arch student guide p. B-23.
QUESTION 119
Which two of the following factors are typically used to determine QoS requirements for real-time applications such as IP Telephony?
A. Latency
B. Jitter
C. Echo delay
D. Two-way latency
E. Propagation delay

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Voice, as a class of IP network traffic, has strict requirements concerning delay and delay variation (also known as jitter). Compared to most data, it is relatively tolerant of loss. To meet the requirements for voice traffic, the Cisco AVVID IP telephony solution uses a wide range of IP QoS features such as classification, queuing, congestion detection, traffic shaping, and compression.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76.
QUESTION 120
Which speed links is recommended for link efficiency tools to be used?
A. Links below 10 Mbps
B. Links above 2.0 Mbps
C. Links equal to 1.5 Mbps
D. Links at or below 768 Kbps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Link efficiency interleaving is used on links at or below 768 Kbps.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-29
QUESTION 121
The ITU G.114 recommendation specifies which end-to-end delay as the threshold for high-quality voice.
A. 125 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When addressing the QoS needs of voice traffic, keep in mind.
1) One-way latency should be no more than 150-200 ms.
2) Jitter should be no more than 30 ms.
3) Loss should be no more than one percent.

Reference: Arch student guide p.7-45

QUESTION 122
What can be done when voice frames are delayed by large numbers of data packets at an interface?
A. Implement random early detection.
B. Implement prioritized queue service.
C. Implement aggressive fragmentation.
D. Implement token-bucket prioritization.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Allow applications to reserve bandwidth to meet their requirements. For example, a Voice over IP (VoIP) applications can reserve 32 kbps end-to-end using this kind of service. Cisco IOS QoS uses weighted fair queueing (WFQ) with RSVP to provide this kind of service. Guaranteed rate service is implemented using a queue-service discipline.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-12
QUESTION 123
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?
A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiffServ and IntServ are not IOS enhancements, but models of QoS implementations. WFQ is a basic queueing mechanism.

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Cisco 642-811 Questions, Provide Latest Cisco 642-811 Study Guides With The Knowledge And Skills

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QUESTION 121
Which specification can associate VLAN groups to Spanning Tree instances to provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
D. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
What is advertised by a Catalyst switch in a VTP domain?
A. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch
B. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CFI Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number
C. the management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters
D. a 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three.)
A. the use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic
B. the use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic
C. the proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible
D. the use of 802.1QinQ trunking for VoIP traffic
E. the use of WRED for the VoIP traffic

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which four protocols have been developed for IP routing redundancy to protect against first-hop router failure? (Choose four.)
A. HSRP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. VRRP
E. MSTP
F. GLBP

Correct Answer: ABDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 30
Which three encryption policies does MACsec support? (Choose three.)
A. always-secure
B. must-secure
C. should-secure
D. never-secure
E. must-not-secure

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Which URL should you enter into the SCEP Certificate Authority profile to enable Native Supplicant Provisioning?
A. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/mscep/mscep.dll
B. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/mscep/scep.dll
C. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/certsrv/scep/scep.dll
D. http:/[ise-server-name/IP]/certsrv/mscep/mscep.dll
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which network information device sensor is sending in the RADIUS accounting packet?
A. DHCP
B. HTTP
C. LLDP
D. CDP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which of these is not a default behavior of Cisco ISE 1.1, with respect to authentication, when a user connects to a switch port that is configured for 802.1X, MAB, and web authentication?
A. MAB uses internal endpoints for retrieving identity.
B. 802.1X uses internal users for retrieving identity.
C. Central WebAuth relies on MAB for initial port authentication.
D. Authentication fails if there is no matching policy.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)
A. The default behavior is shown in the exhibit.
B. The default behavior should be Continue/Continue/Continue.
C. If Continue/Continue/Continue is configured, the endpoint is allowed on the network.
D. The default Identity Source is shown in the exhibit.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about identity groups and their use in an authorization policy? (Choose two.)
A. Only user identity groups can be created in Cisco ISE.
B. User identity groups can reference internal and external stores.
C. The Whitelist identity group that is shown in the exhibit can be used to contain MAC addresses that are statically entered into Cisco ISE.
D. The Whitelist identity group is one of the predefined identity groups in Cisco ISE.
E. Identity groups can only reference internal endpoints and users in the local database.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

The authorization policy is using “Multiple Matched Rule Applies” for rule matching.
ProfileA = VLAN attribute 10
ProfileB = DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE
Which statement is correct with regards to the Multiple Matched rule?

A. The Multiple Matched rule is not supported in Cisco ISE.
B. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will only receive VLAN attribute 10.
C. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will receive VLAN attribute 0, DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE.
D. If both Rule 1 and Rule 2 are matched based on the conditions, the switch port will only receive DACL= Employee, Voice DomainPermission = TRUE.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
How are access control lists implemented on a Cisco WLC in a Cisco ISE authorization policy?
A. Dynamic access lists are configured in Cisco ISE.
B. Named access lists are configured in Cisco ISE.
C. Named access lists are pushed down to the WLC.
D. Named access lists are configured on the WLC.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which two statements are correct about Change of Authorization? (Choose two.)
A. Different Change of Authorization types of action can be set based on authorization policy.
B. Change of Authorization exception actions are configured globally in Cisco ISE.
C. Port bounce, reauth, and port shun are supported Change of Authorization types in Cisco ISE.
D. No CoA, port bounce, and reauth are supported Change of Authorization types in Cisco ISE.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 39
Which two statements are correct regarding Cisco ISE Guest Services? (Choose two.)
A. Guest portals must be located on the same secondary node where Cisco ISE network access is configured to handle RADIUS requests in the NAD.
B. A guest administration user interface action can be made from the primary and secondary administration interfaces.
C. The configuration mode for guest services can be different for each node in the deployment.
D. Multiportal uploads to the primary node are replicated to the secondary node and installed as part of the standard data replication system.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 40
What are the Cisco ISE posture building blocks?
A. posture check, posture rules, posture requirement, role requirements
B. posture condition, compound posture condition, posture requirements, posture policy
C. network access devices, Policy Service node, Administration node
D. posture condition, posture rules, role requirements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which three of these are viable endpoint posture compliance statuses? (Choose three.)
A. unknown
B. infected
C. clean
D. compliant
E. noncompliant
F. quarantine
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 42
Which three conditions can be used for posture checking? (Choose three.)
A. application
B. operating system
C. file
D. certificate
E. service

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 43
Client provisioning resources can be added into the Cisco ISE Administration node from which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. www.cisco.com
B. local disk
C. Posture Agent Profile
D. FTP
E. TFTP

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 44
Which element is not included in the redirect URL?
A. hostname
B. port
C. ACL
D. session ID
E. action

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco ISE component intercepts HTTP and HTTPS requests and redirects them to the Guest User Portal?
A. Policy Service node
B. Administration node
C. Monitoring node
D. network access device
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Which of these is not a method that is used to obtain Cisco ISE profiling data?
A. NetFlow
B. DNS
C. RADIUS
D. QoS
E. active scans
F. SNMP query
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which three client provisioning policies can an administrator create to provision different resources? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint operating system
B. user identity group
C. dictionary-based conditions
D. certificates

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 48
Which of these is NOT a Cisco ISE deployment recommendation?
A. Create a secondary Administration node before adding a Policy Service node.
B. Ensure that node groups are L2-adjacent.
C. Profiling requires maintenance of L3 information.
D. Avoid installing Policy Service and Monitoring personas on the same node.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Which option represents the default action or actions that ISE 1.x 1.0 takes when the endpoint usage count exceeds licensed endpoint values?
A. block all traffic
B. block all traffic, and generate alarms
C. do not block traffic, and generate an INFO, WARNING, or CRITICAL alarm
D. do not take any action
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 82
Switch CK1 is configured to use the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP). What does CK1 advertise in its VTP domain?
A. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CF1 Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number.
C. The management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
D. A 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Each switch participating in VTP advertises VLAN information, revision numbers, and VLAN parameters

on its trunk ports to notify other switches in the management domain.
VTP advertisements are sent as multicast frames. The switch intercepts frames sent to the VTP multicast
address and processes them with its supervisory processor VTP frames are forwarded out trunk links as a
special case.
The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:

1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: page 115, David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7 Incorrect Answers: A: The total number of trunk links is not advertised.
B: A CFI is not advertised.
D: The TPID is not advertised. The value of 0x8100 is used to identify an 802.1Q trunking tag.
QUESTION 83
VTP switches use advertisements to exchange information with each other. Which of the following advertisement types are associated with VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. Domain advertisements
B. Advertisement requests from clients
C. Subset advertisements
D. Summary advertisements

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP advertisements include:

1.
Summary Advertisements – These go out every 5 minutes or ever time the VLAN
topology changes, and lists of information about the management domain (VTP version, domain name,
configuration revision number, timestamp, MD5 encryption hash code, & number of subset advertisements
incoming). When there is a configuration change, summary advertisements are complimented by or more
subset advertisements.
2.
Subset advertisements – These are sent out by VTP domain servers after a
configuration change. They list the specifics of the change (VLAN creation / deletion / suspension /
activation / name change / MTU change) and the VLAN parameters (VLAN status, VLAN type, MTU, VLAN
name, VLAN number, SAID value).
3.
Advertisement Requests from Clients- VTP clients request specific VLAN information
that they’re lacking (ie. Client switch is reset and loses its database, or VTP domain membership changes)
so they can be responded by summary and subset advertisements.
Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: pages 116-117 David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco
Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7

QUESTION 84
Switch CK1 is part of the Certkiller VTP domain. What’s true of VTP Pruning within this domain? (Select all that apply)
A. It does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
B. VLAN 1 is always pruning-eligible
C. it will prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
D. VLAN 2 is always pruning-ineligible
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By definition, pruning-ineligible VLANs can not be pruned. You can make specific VLANs pruning ineligible
with the clear vtp pruneeligible vlan_range command. By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since
the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: VLAN 1 is always pruning-ineligible
C: The opposite is true.
D: By default, VLANs 2-1000 are eligible to be pruned.
QUESTION 85
What action should you execute if you wanted to enable VTP pruning on your entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the management domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
E. Disable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server allows pruning for the entire management domain. Enabling this on the VTP server will mean that the VTP pruning configuration will be propagated to all VTP client switches within the domain. VTP pruning takes effect several seconds after you enable it. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 are pruning-eligible. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 117
QUESTION 86
Switch CK1 is configured with VTP. Which two VTP modes will make CK1 capable of creating and deleting VLANs on itself? (Select two)
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. No-negotiate

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP Modes
You can configure a switch to operate in any one of these VTP modes:

1.
Server-In VTP server mode, you can create, modify, and delete VLANs and specify other configuration parameters (such as VTP version) for the entire VTP domain. VTP servers advertise their VLAN configuration to other switches in the same VTP domain and synchronize their VLAN configuration with other switches based on advertisements received over trunk links. VTP server is the default mode.

2.
Client-VTP clients behave the same way as VTP servers, but you cannot create, change, or delete VLANs on a VTP client.

3.
Transparent-VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based
on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP
advertisements that they receive out their trunk interfaces.
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: Clients can not modify, add, or delete any VLAN information. D, E: These options are not valid VTP modes.
QUESTION 87
When the Catalyst switch CK1 is enabled to use VTP, which information does it advertise on its trunk ports? (Select two)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VTP protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout the network by distributing VLAN information to the network. VLAN information is sent to network devices in advertisements that contain the VTP management domain name, the current configuration revision number, the VLANs that the server knows about, and certain VLAN parameters. Any time you change a VLAN, VTP automatically sends an advertisement to update all other network devices. The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:
1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: Cisco, Configuring VTP http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/lan/cat5000/rel_6_1/config/vtp.htm
QUESTION 88
Is the following statement True or False?
MLS requires that MLS components be in the same VTP domain.

A. False
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. True
D. It could be true or false, depending on the type of switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
MLS requires that MLS components, including the end stations, must be in the same Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP) domain. VTP is a Layer 2 protocol used for managing VLANs on several Catalyst switches from a central switch. It allows an administrator to create or delete a VLAN on all switches in a domain without having to do so on every switch in that domain. The MultiLayer Switching Protocol (MLSP), which the MLS-SE and the MLS-RP use to communicate with one another, does not cross a VTP domain boundary.
QUESTION 89
Which of the following VTP modes receives and forwards VTP updates, but does NOT participate in VTP synchronization?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transparent-VTP transparent network devices do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent network device does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent network devices do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunking LAN ports.
QUESTION 90
How can VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. By limiting the spreading of VLAN information.
B. By reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs.
C. By disabling periodic VTP updates.
D. By restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains.
E. By updating unicast traffic periodically.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.
Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a0080091

QUESTION 91
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding VTP?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.
E. All of the above are true statements.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
For VTP pruning to be effective, all devices in the management domain must either support VTP pruning
or, on devices that do not support VTP pruning, you must manually configure the VLANs allowed on
trunks.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: This statement is true. Transparent VTP switches do not participate in the VTP process, but they do forward VTP information to other switches. B, C: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices.
QUESTION 92
By what condition can a VTP version 2 switch operate in the same domain as a switch running VTP version 1?
A. VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
B. VTP version 2 is enabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
C. VTP version 1 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
D. None of the above. VTP version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1
provided VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch (VTP version 2 is disabled by
default). With VTP version 2 disabled, the switch will revert to version 1 to become backward compatible.

QUESTION 93
Is the following statement True or False?
If you modified a VTP transparent switch, the changes you implement will affect all the switches in the
network?

A. True
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. False

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch. Transparent switches do not participate in VTP. Only changes made to a VTP
switch in server mode will be propagated to all the other client switches within the network.

QUESTION 94
Which of the following message types are associated with VTP header fields on a Cisco switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Summary advertisements
B. Advertisement requests
C. VTP Join messages
D. Subset advertisement
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The format of the VTP header can vary depending on the type of VTP message.
However, they all contain the following fields in the header: VTP protocol version: 1 or 2 VTP Message
Types: Summary advertisements, Subset advertisement, Advertisement requests, VTP join messages,
Management domain length, and Management domain name.

QUESTION 95
In order for the Certkiller network to use VTP, which of the following conditions have to be met? (Select all that apply)
A. Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
B. The Catalyst switches must be non-adjacent for trunking to be possible between them
C. The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
D. Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same VTP domain name.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: In order to use VTP, you must assign a VTP
domain name to each switch. VTP information will remain only within the same VLAN domain. The
following are conditions for a VTP domain: -Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same
VTP domain name.
-The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
-Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
If any one of the previous conditions is not met, the VTP domain is broken and information will not travel
between the two separate parts.

QUESTION 96
The Certkiller switches are all VTP enabled. What is true about VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. VTP version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
B. you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2.
C. VTP version 1 is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later
D. VTP version 1 is supported in ATM software release 3.1 or later.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco Documentation:
If you use VTP in your network, you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2. VTP version 1
is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later and ATM software release 3.1 or later. VTP
version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps679/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007
d

QUESTION 97
In the Certkiller switched network VTP pruning has been enabled. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
A. Enhancing network integrity
B. Enhancing network bandwidth use
C. Deploying AAA
D. Enhancing network security
E. Enhancing network load balancing
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.

QUESTION 98
Switches CK1 and CK2 are both configured for transparent mode in the VTP domain. Which statement accurately describes these transparent VTP switches? (Select all that apply):
A. They do not synchronize VLAN configuration based on received advertisements
B. They do not participate in VTP
C. They do not advertise VLAN configuration
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN
configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements.
However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out
their trunk ports.

QUESTION 99
You are configuring switch CK1 for VTP. Which of the following are valid VTP operating modes that can be configured on CK1 ? (Select all that apply)
A. Server
B. Front-end
C. Client
D. Transparent
E. Backbone

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are only three VTP operating modes:
1) Server: These switches have full control in the creation and modification of VLANs.
Servers advertise out all the VLAN information they receive, and they configure

themselves in accord with whatever information they hear. Switches are in server mode by default.
2) Client: These switches listen to VTP advertisements, they modify their configuration as a result of what
they hear, and they forward out VTP information to neighboring switches; but they don’t have the ability to:
create, change, or delete VLANs.
3) Transparent: These switches don’t participate in the VTP process. They don’t advertise their VLAN
configurations and they don’t synchronize their database when they receive advertisements. In VTP
version 1 a switch doesn’t relay information it gets to the other switches but in VTP version 2 they do.

QUESTION 100
Which of the following are true regarding the default values of a switch that is configured for VTP pruning? (Select two).
A. VLAN 1-1000 are pruning-eligible
B. VLAN 2-1000 are pruning-eligible
C. VLAN 1 is pruning-eligible
D. VLAN 1 is pruning-ineligible
E. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-eligible
F. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-ineligible

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst
switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.

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QUESTION 1
Which address type does the IPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A. unspecified
B. aggregable global unicast
C. link local
D. site local unicast
E. multicast
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: All IPv6 multicast addresses start with the first 8 bits of the address set to 1. Thus all multicast addresses start with the hexadecimal notation FF (1111 1111). The multicast range is as follows: FF00::/8 FFFF::/8 The second octet, following to the first octet of FF, identifies both the scope and the lifetime of the multicast address. In this way, IPv6 has millions of group multicast addresses to use in current and emerging technologies. Reference: CCNP Self-Study CCNP BSCI Exam Certification Guide p.112
QUESTION 2
In IS-IS routing, which level is used to route between different areas within the same domain?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which statement is true about the Certkiller .com network?

A. There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement.
B. All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000.
C. There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement.
D. All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded.
E. The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
Exhibit, Network topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, default information-originate, is added to the OSPF configuration on Certkiller 1, what will the neighboring routers see in their route table?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
B. O E1 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
C. O E2 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
D. No default routes will be propagated to neighboring routers.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 3, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?

A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Both Certkiller 5 and Certkiller 2 are performing two-way IGRP/RIP route redistribution. What behavior will Certkiller 2 use with the given Certkiller 2 configurations?
A. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through RIP will be ignored.
B. Updates about 192.168.1.0 will be advertised out the s0 interface.
C. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are heard through the s1 interface will be ignored.
D. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through IGRP will be added to the routing table, but not advertised to Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which command will Certkiller 2 use to summarize routes for the 192.168.16.0/22 supernet before injecting them into Area 0?

A. area 10 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
B. summary-address 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
C. ip summary-address ospf 101.192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
D. area 0 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
E. ip summary-address area 0 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three are advantages to creating multiple areas in OSPF? Select three.
A. less frequent SPF calculations
B. fewer hello packets
C. smaller routing tables
D. reduced LSU overhead
E. fewer adjacencies needed
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 2, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
B. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
C. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
D. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
E. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
F. All available paths.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Exhibit interface serial0 bandwidth 40 ip bandwidth-percent eigpr 1 200 In the configuration in the exhibit, how much bandwidth will be used by the EIGRP updates?
A. 40 kbps
B. 60 kbps
C. 80 kbps
D. 200 kbps
E. 40 Mbps
F. 60 Mbps
G. 80 Mbps
H. 200 Mbps
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor?
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? Select three.
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 address is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 13
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? Select three.
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Exhibit, Network Topology

Exhibit You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Studyy the exhibit carefully. What is the effect of the distribute list command in the Certkiller 1 configuration?

A. Certkiller 1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
B. Certkiller 1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
C. Certkiller 1 will filter 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
D. Certkiller 1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the following diagram:

When performing a show run on router Certkiller 1, you notice that two static entries shown above were
configured for the 10.0.0.0 network.
Which path will be selected by the router as the best path?

A. Per-destination load sharing will be implemented.
B. The path through Certkiller 2 will be used.
C. The path through Certkiller 3 will be used.
D. Per-packet load sharing will be implemented.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A static route configured using the interface is considered to be a directly connected route. Directly connected
routes have an administrative distance of 0, while all other static routes have and AD of 1. In this case, the route specifying the interface will be chosen over a static route that specifies the IP address of the next hop, because of the lower AD.
QUESTION 16
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. one update package
B. two update package
C. three update package
D. four update package
E. five update package
F. six update package
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP 2 Packet Format:
The RIP 2 specification (described in RFC 1723) allows more information to be included in RIP packets
and provides a simple authentication mechanism that is not supported by RIP. Figure 47-2 shows the IP
RIP 2
packet format.
The following descriptions summarize the IP RIP 2 packet format fields illustrated in Figure 47-2:
1.
Command-Indicates whether the packet is a request or a response. The request asks that a router send all or a part of its routing table. The response can be an unsolicited regular routing update or a reply to a request. Responses contain routing table entries. Multiple RIP packets are used to convey information from large routing tables.

2.
Version-Specifies the RIP version used. In a RIP packet implementing any of the RIP 2 fields or using authentication, this value is set to 2.

3.
Unused-Has a value set to zero.

4.
Address-family identifier (AFI)-Specifies the address family used. RIPv2’s AFI field functions identically to RFC 1058 RIP’s AFI field, with one exception: If the AFI for the first entry in the message is 0xFFFF, the remainder of the entry contains authentication information. Currently, the only authentication type is simple password.

5.
Route tag-Provides a method for distinguishing between internal routes (learned by RIP) and external routes (learned from other protocols).

6.
IP address-Specifies the IP address for the entry.

7.
Subnet mask-Contains the subnet mask for the entry. If this field is zero, no subnet mask has been specified for the entry.

8.
Next hop-Indicates the IP address of the next hop to which packets for the entry should be forwarded.

9.
Metric-Indicates how many internetwork hops (routers) have been traversed in the trip to the destination. This value is between 1 and 15 for a valid route, or 16 for an unreachable route. NoteUp to 25 occurrences of the AFI, Address, and Metric fields are permitted in a single IP RIP packet. That is, up to 25 routing table entries can be listed in a single RIP packet. If the AFI specifies an authenticated message, only 24 routing table entries can be specified. Given that individual table entries aren’t fragmented into multiple packets, RIP does not need a mechanism to resequence datagrams bearing routing table updates from neighboring routers. Since a single update packet can contain at most 25 route entries, 4 packets will be needed to advertise 77 routes.
QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single interface is used to route between subnets or networks, this is know as a router-on-a-stick.
To assign multiple IP addresses to the same interface, secondary addresses or subinterfaces are used.
The Advantage is that it is useful when there are limited Ethernet interfaces on the router.
The Disadvantages to this design are:
subnets. resources that will be consumed on the router can become an issue.

QUESTION 18
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three)
A. Supports variable-length subnet mask by default.
B. Does not support variable-length subnet mask by default.
C. Supports discontiguous networks by default.
D. Multicast updates to 224.0.0.9.
E. Broadcast updates.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Features of RIP v2 To help today’s IP internetworks minimize broadcast traffic, use variable length subnetting to conserve IP addresses, and secure their routing environment from misconfigured or malicious routers, several key features were added to RIP v2. Multicasted RIP Announcements Rather than broadcasting RIP announcements, RIP v2 supports sending RIP announcements to the IP multicast address of 224.0.0.9. Non-RIP nodes are not disturbed by RIP router announcement traffic. Subnet Masks RIP v2 announcements send the subnet mask (also known as a network mask) along with the network ID. RIP v2 can be used in subnetted, supernetted, and variable-length subnet mask environments. Subnets of a network ID do not have to be contiguous (they can be disjointed subnets).
QUESTION 19
The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used by the grand majority of distance vector routing protocols in DUAL (diffusing update algorithm). Which of the following routing protocols is it?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DUAL is used by EIGRP. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur.
QUESTION 20
The Certkiller EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command “variance 3” was added to the EIGRP configuration of Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Complex, redundant EIGRP networks can cause scalability problems. The best solution to this is to provide a means within the context of the EIGRP protocol itself to control traffic flows and limit query depth. TheEIGRP Stub Router functionality in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(7)T can achieve this solution. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
QUESTION 22
The Certkiller OSPF network is displayed below: Refer to the exhibit. All routers have converged and neighbor relationships have been established. Which state is Certkiller 4 in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment. The same process is repeated for the BDR. In case of a tie, the router with the highest RID will win. The default for the interface OSPF priority is one. Based on the output above, the dead timer shows that the neighbor relationships have already been established, so the state will be Full for all neighbors, and since the OSPF priorities are all set to 1, the router with the highest router ID will be the DR.
QUESTION 23
The Certkiller backbone OSPF network is shown below:

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Certkiller 1 RID is 1.1.1.1.
B. The Certkiller 1 RID is 10.1.1.1.
C. The Certkiller 1 RID is 192.168.1.1.
D. The Certkiller 2 RID is 10.1.1.2.
E. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.1.2.
F. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.2.1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Remember that the RID is the highest IP address on the box or the loopback interface, calculated at boot time or whenever the OSPF process is restarted. Although the other interfaces on routers Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are higher, the loopback interface is always used as the router ID. If more than one loopback interface is configured, the loopback interface with the highest IP address is chosen as the Router ID.
QUESTION 24

Which type of Link State Announcement will Certkiller E use to announce changes in network 22 to Area 1?
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The external link LSA is originated by AS boundary routers and is flooded throughout the AS. Each external advertisement describes a router to a destination in another autonomous system. Default routes for the AS can also be described by AS external advertisements. This is identified as a Type 5 LSA.
QUESTION 25
What is the OSPF cost for the 100 Mbps Ethernet media type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
E. 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, OSPF uses the formula of 100,000,000 (100M) divided by bandwidth, or 100,000,000/BW. For
a
100M fast Ethernet connection, the formula is 100M/100M = 1.

QUESTION 26
As a Certkiller .com network technician you are required to drag the appropriate IS-IS routing item to its correct definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Given the NSAP 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A NET is a NSAP where the last byte is always zero. On a router running IS-IS, a NET can be 8 to 20 B in length. The last byte is always the n-selector and must be zero. The n-selector indicates which transport entity the packet is sent to. An n-selector of zero indicates no transport entity, and means that the packet is for the routing software of the system. The six bytes directly preceding the n-selector are the system ID. The system ID length is a fixed size and cannot be changed. The system ID must be unique throughout each area (Level 1) and throughout the backbone (Level 2). All bytes preceding the system ID are the area ID. The area ID field is the portion of the NSAP preceding the system ID. The following example shows a router with area ID 47.0004.004d.0001 and system ID 0001.0c11.1110: 47.0004.004d.0001.0001.0c11.1110.00 In our example, the six bytes preceding the N selector is 0001.0c00.1211 which is the system ID. The portion preceding this, 39.0100.0102, is the area ID.
QUESTION 28
Which two commands can be used to verify that RIPv2 authentication is working properly to ensure that RIP neighbors form adjacencies properly? (Choose two.)
A. show interface
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip rip authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Verifying Plain Text Authentication RIP version 2 routers can use either plain text or MD5 authentication. By configuring the routers using RIPv2 authentication, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from thedebugip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3
02:11:39.207: RIP: received packet with text authentication 234 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: received v2 update from 141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:25, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C
80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 Using plain text authentication improves the network design by preventing the addition of routing updates originated by routers not meant to take part in the local routing exchange process. However, this type of authentication is not secure. The password (234 in this example) is exchanged in plain text. It can be captured easily and thus exploited. As mentioned before, MD5 authentication must be preferred over plain text authentication when security is an issue. Verifying MD5 Authentication By configuring the RA and RB routers as shown above, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received packet with MD5 authentication *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received v2 update from
141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 20:48:37.050: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:03, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 MD5 authentication uses the one-way, MD5 hash algorithm, acknowledged to be a strong hashing algorithm. In this mode of authentication, the routing update does not carry the password for the purpose of authentication. Rather, a 128-bit message, generated by running the MD5 algorithm on the password, and the message are sent along for authentication. Thus, it is recommended to use MD5 authentication over plain text authentication since it is more secure. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f1c.shtml#veri
QUESTION 29

1.
all routers are using BGP

2.
synchronization is OFF in AS 647000
A. Router CK6
B. Routers CK2 and CK6
C. Routers CK2 , CK4 , and CK6
D. Routers CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
F. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6
G. It will not be propagated to any other router

Correct Answer: FEACDGB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The AS PATH is a well known mandatory attribute. Mandatory means that it is required by all routers.
These
attributes are required and are therefore recognized by all BGP implementations.

QUESTION 32
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:

7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if bestpath is already selected.

9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath. Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.

10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).

11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 33
The Certkiller WAN is displayed below:

You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully.
BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and one of the default attributes have
been changed except the MED attribute on Certkiller 5.
Which path is preferred by Certkiller 2 to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24?

A. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it is the shortest path.
B. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it has a higher metric.
C. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower administrative distance.
D. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In BGP, the lowest MED metric is preferred over a higher metric. By default, the value of the metric is 0, so
for AS 200, the path via Certkiller 5 will have a metric of 0, and the path via Certkiller 1 will have a metric of
150, so the path from Certkiller 5 will be preferred.

QUESTION 34
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The WEIGHT attribute is a Cisco proprietary feature used to measure a route’s preference. The WEIGHT inbound route maps. Use the WEIGHT attribute to influence routes from multiple service providers to a central location. Like LOCAL_PREF, assigning a higher weight to a route makes that route more preferred. The WEIGHT attribute also has the highest precedence of any BGP attribute. Reference: CCIE Practical Studies: Configuring Route-Maps and Policy-based Routing, Karl Solie, Cisco Press.
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QUESTION 78
You are the network administrator at Flydumps. You are in the planning stages of upgrading the Certkiller network, and need to decide which protocol to use. You need to choose a protocol that will meet the following goals: Supports classless routing Supports VLSM Does not rely on TCP/IP to exchange routing information Performs auto-summarization by default Allows for manual route summarization Which routing protocol should you implement on the Certkiller network?
A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
E. IGRP
F. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: EIGRP is a classless protocol that supports VLSM and performs auto-summarization of subnets by default. The subnet routes are summarized into a single network number aggregate. In addition, IP-EIGRP will allow aggregation on any bit boundary in an IP address and can be configured on a network interface for additional granularity. EIGRP also supports automatic summarization of network addresses at major network borders. There is an automatic redistribution mechanism used so IGRP routes are imported into EIGRP and vice versa. Since the metrics for both protocols are directly translatable, they are easily comparable as if they were routes that originated in their own AS.
QUESTION 79
Which routing protocol: (1) is intended to support large routing domains consisting of combinations of many media types, (2) may be used as an IGP, and (3) supports multiple routed protocols in an integrated manner rather than “Ships in the Night” method?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EIGRP is a very scalable Interior Routing Protocol (IGP) that supports large networks. In
addition to support for IP, EIGRP can be used for routing IPX and Appletalk networks.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C: Although OSPF and IS-IS are link state protocols that are used as IGPs and are highly
scalable, they do not provide support for routed networks such as those used by Novell and
Apple.

D: BGP only supports IP, and is generally used only for external routing.
QUESTION 80
Match the correct routing protocol on the left to its characteristics on the right side. Note that not all answer choices will be used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
PDR is being used as the routing protocol for a new Certkiller network. Which network topology is best suited for ODR?
A. highly redundant
B. fully meshed
C. dual self-healing ring
D. hub and spoke
E. NBMA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: On Demand Routing (ODR) is a mechanism that provides minimum-overhead IP routing for stub sites. The overhead of a general dynamic routing protocol is avoided, without incurring the configuration and management overhead of using static routing. A stub router is the peripheral router in a hub and spoke network topology. Stub routers commonly have a WAN connection to the hub router and a small number of LAN network segments (stub networks) that are connected directly to the stub router. To provide full connectivity, the hub routers can be statically configured to know that a particular stub network is reachable via a specified access router. However, if there are multiple hub routers, many stub networks, or asynchronous connections between hubs and spokes, the overhead required to statically configure knowledge of the stub networks on the hub routers becomes too great. ODR simplifies installation of IP stub networks in which the hub routers dynamically maintain routes to the stub networks. This is accomplished without requiring the configuration of an IP routing protocol at the stub routers. With ODR, the stub advertises IP prefixes corresponding to the IP networks that are configured on its directly connected interfaces. Because ODR advertises IP prefixes, rather than IP network numbers, ODR is able to carry Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM) information. Once ODR is enabled on a hub router, the router begins installing stub network routes in the IP forwarding table. The hub router can also be configured to redistribute these routes into any configured dynamic IP routing protocols. IP does not need to be configured on the stub router. With ODR, a router is automatically considered to be a stub when no IP routing protocols have been configured on it.
QUESTION 82
Your company, Certkiller Inc, has a central office and a remote branch office. Each site has a separate autonomous system (AS) as well as a separate Internet connection. In this network, what is the best method to route Internet traffic.
A. IGP routing
B. BGP routing
C. Configure “ip route prefix mask”
D. Configure “ip default-gateway ip address”
E. Configure IS-IS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used to exchange routing information for the Internet and is the protocol used between Internet service providers (ISP). In order to take full advantage of multiple Internet connections, as well as multiple Internet providers, BGP is the best choice to ensure full redundancy. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/cisintwk/ito_doc/bgp.htm Incorrect Answers:
A: Customer networks usually employ an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) such as RIP or OSPF for the exchange of routing information within their networks. C, D: Using statically assigned default routes and default gateways is a simplistic approach that works well in many situations, but will not provide for automatic failover and does not provide the routing options that BGP provides.
E: IS-IS is used exclusively as an IGP.
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network is in the process of migrating the IP address scheme to use IPv6. Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Select three)
A. Unicast
B. Private
C. Broadcast
D. Public
E. Multicast
F. Anycast

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP version 6 introduced the concet of anycasts. The three IP address types used for IPv6 are:

Unicast – An IPv6 unicast address is an identifier for a single interface, on a single node. A packet that is
sent to a unicast address is delivered to the interface identified by that address.
Anycast – An anycast address is an address that is assigned to a set of interfaces that typically belong to
different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to the closest interface-as defined by the
routing protocols in use-identified by the anycast address.
Multicast – An IPv6 multicast address is an IPv6 address that has a prefix of FF00::/8 (11111111). An IPv6
multicast address is an identifier for a set of interfaces that typically belong to different nodes. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1839/products_feature_guide_chapter0918
6a0080110dd2.html#99899

QUESTION 84
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F:0:0:AB/56
B. 200F:0:AB00::/56
C. 200F::AB00/56
D. 200F:AB/56

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Due to the method of allocating certain styles of IPv6 addresses, it will be common for addresses to contain long strings of zero bits. In order to make writing addresses containing zero bits easier a special syntax is available to compress the zeros. The use of “::” indicates multiple groups of 16-bits of zeros. The “::” can only appear once in an address. The “::” can also be used to compress the leading and/or trailing zeros in an address. For example the following addresses: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01:0:0:0:0:0:0:43 a multicast address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 the loopback address
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 the unspecified addresses may be represented as: 1080::8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01::43 a multicast address ::1 the loopback address :: the unspecified addresses In our example, the trailing zero’s can be compressed into ::, giving us 200F:0:AB00:: as the address.

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QUESTION 1
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 11
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?
A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24

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QUESTION 45
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when HSRP is not supported by the design
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
F. when the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode? (Choose two.)

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
E. Traffic switched between VLANs is subject to state tracking and other firewall configurable options.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)
A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
E. Bridge mode passive
F. Combo Bridge router mode

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type.
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated.
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE wireless standard will allow backward compatibility with 802.11b.
What would your reply be?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.1g
E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11g standard operates in the same unlicensed portion of the 2.4-GHz spectrum as 802.11b. Both the IEEE 802.11g and 802.11a standards provide a 54-Mbps data rate. IEEE 802.11g provides the benefit of backward compatibility with IEEE 802.11b equipment, preserving users investment in their existing WLAN infrastructure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-10
QUESTION 61
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of wireless IP phones that can register with an Access point is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
E. 33
F. 35
G. 40
H. 57

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum data rate of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 2.4 Mbps data
B. 54 Mbps data
C. 1.44 Mbps data
D. 11 Mbps data
E. 2.4 Mbps data

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11b Standard Long established, the 802.11b standard is used today by the majority of installed
wireless LANs.
General Features:

Has a maximum transmission rate per channel of 11Mbps (actual throughput is about 6 to 7Mbps).
Operates in the 2.4GHz radio band.
Supports three channels at distances up to 350 feet.

QUESTION 63
With regard to wireless enterprise networks, which of the following is true?
A. Routing protocols is the most important consideration
B. Power of the transmitter is the most important consideration
C. RF interference is the most important consideration
D. STP domains is the most important consideration
E. Geological environment is the most important consideration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
It is very important, since the performance of the network depends of it.
You can use RF design to minimize the RF radiation in coverage areas or directions not required. For
example, if WLAN coverage is required only in the buildings, then you can minimize the amount of RF
coverage outside the building through access-point placement and direction antennas.
The performance of the WLAN and its equipment depends upon its RF environment.

Reference: Arch student guide p.10-23.

QUESTION 64
Your Certkiller.com trainee Sandra is curios about Cisco wireless LAN.
What should you tell Sandra? (Select two.)
A. Only IP can be transmitted over a wireless LAN
B. All stations in a wireless cell share the bandwidth
C. Wireless LANs use CSMA/CD access method
D. Only one station can send at one time
E. Wireless LANs use a token sharing access method.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A WLAN consists of an access point communicating over radio frequency to wireless clietnts. The data rate, power level, and antenna choice affect the size of the coverage area of a single wireless cell, which in turn affects how many access points are required in a specific implementation. This topic describes the wireless communication architecture. Only one station in a wireless cell, including the access point, can send data at any one time (D). The bandwidth is shared among all stations (B). If a station wishes to send, it listens and waits for an available slot. WLANs use carrier sense multiple access collision avoidance (CSMA/CA).
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-6.
QUESTION 65
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an IEEE 802.11b wireless environment. What is the maximum recommended number of calls using G.711 per access point?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The maximum recommended number of phones per access point is seven. This limitation is due to the number of packets that can be forwarded per second over an 802.11 link and minimizing transmission delays, rather than a bandwidth limitation of the link.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.10-35
QUESTION 66
What can be done to ensure connections to workstations that are placed on the edge of a wireless access point’s coverage area?
A. Lower data rates
B. Increase data rates
C. Group access point frequency channels together for increased range
D. Enable multicasting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Data rates affect cell size. Lower data rates (such as 1 Mbps) can extend farther from the access point than can higher data rates (such as 11 Mbps). Therefore, the data rate (and power level) affects cell coverage and consequently the number of access points required.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-21
QUESTION 67
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the frequency of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 5 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 1.4 GHz
D. 11 MHz

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Both 802.11b and 802.11g use frequency 2.4GHz. 802.11b is rated at 11Mbps while 802.11g is rated at 54 Mpbs. 802.11g is backwards capable with 802.11b.
Incorrect:
A. 5 GHz – 802.11A
QUESTION 68
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

What is the Certkiller VPN topology as shown in the illustration?
A. Full-mesh VPN
B. Hub-and-spoke VPN
C. Hierarchical VPN
D. Token Ring
E. Private WAN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which of the following types of VNP technology is needed when multicast, broadcast and non-IP packets needs to be tunneled?
A. IPSec
B. GRE
C. Triple-DES
D. IKE
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In site-to-site VPNs, the principal tunneling is generic routing encapsulation (GRE). If only IP-unicast packets are being tunneled, simple encapsulation provided by IPSec is suffiecient. GRE is used when multicast, broadcast, and no-IP packets need to be tunneld.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-7
QUESTION 70
Which of the following will cause Egress Blocking?
A. Packet flooding.
B. Re-transmission of packets blocking all traffic.
C. Large data packets blocking voice packets.
D. Large voice packets blocking data packets.
E. Excessive data fragmentation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
Certkiller Ltd. is a medium-sized company with 12 stationary offices and one head office, where every office is several hundred miles away from the next. You are the network administrator and the CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a VNP. Considering the scenario, what type of VNP would you design?
A. Enterprise remote access VPN
B. Wireless VPN
C. Remote access VPN
D. Site to site VPN
E. Wide area wireless VNP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Since the company is not big the solution may be cost effective. The offices are very far so the internet connection may be used. The best solution here would be site-to-site VPN. Site-to-Site VPNs are an alternative WAN infrastructure used to connect branch offices, home offices, or business partners sites to all or portions of an enterprise’s network. VPNs do not inherently change private WAN requirements, such as support for multiple protocols, high reliablility, and extensive scalability, but instead meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility. Site-to-site VPNs utilize the most pervasive transport technologies available today, such as the public Internet or service provider IP networks, by employing tunneling and encryption for data privacy and QoS for transport reliability.
QUESTION 72
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. You have designed a high availability network based on a redundant network topology. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the advantages of this design are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. It reduces the cost of the network.
B. It can guarantee Quality of Service.
C. Redundant topologies are easier to configure.
D. It allows the secondary path to automatically take over for the primary path.
E. It reduces the impact of individual network device failure.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Loss of IP connectivity can be caused by local-link failure, full-loss connectivity by the service provider, or device failure. For a typical remote site, an alternate path (dedicated or dial-on-demand) to the head-end site can protect against local-link failure or loss of service provider connectivity. Protection against a local-device failure at a remote site I is not usually provided unless the importance of connectivity for the remote site warrants the cost. For a typical head-end site, you can achieve redundancy by implementing multiple provider connections and by deploying multiple head-end routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-34
QUESTION 73
You work as a network administrator at the small real estate company Certkiller.com located in Toronto area. Certkiller.com has two locations 100 miles apart. Each site has 10 computers attached to a LAN with high speed Internet access. There is a need to securely transmit large amounts of customer data from one office location to the other.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual remote access VPN
B. Leased point-to-point connections
C. ISDN dial-up access
D. Site-to-site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which IP NAT implementation allows IPSec peers to establish a connection through a NAT device?
A. PAT
B. PAT-T
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IPSec ESP NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
NAT Traversal (NAT-T) lets IPSec peers establish a connection through a NAT device.
It does this by encapsulating IPSec traffic in UDP datagrams, using port 4500, thereby providing NAT
devices with port information. NAT-T autodetects any NAT devices, and only encapsulates IPSec traffic
when necessary.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-64

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of choosing a site-to-site VPN instead of a private WAN? (Choose two)
A. Usually less expensive.
B. Guaranteed bandwidth.
C. Globally available.
D. Increased reliability.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Site-to-site VPNs are primarily deployed to connect office locations of an enterprise. They provide an alternative to the WAN infrastructure, while offering significant cost benefits. They enable new infrastructure applications such as extrantet, and extend and enhance network connectivity. Enterprise WAN requirements for traditional private WAN services, such as multiprotocol support, high -availability, scalability, and security, are also requirements for VPNs. VPNs can often meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility than private WAN services using leased lines or virtual circuit technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-27,9-28.
QUESTION 76
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications and that data flows within the required time frames?
A. Availability
B. Performance
C. Functionality
D. Manageability
E. Scalability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which of the following characteristics determines the choice of Layer 1 technology for WAN, remote, or Internet access at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose Two.)
A. Scalability.
B. Transportability
C. Loss
D. Layer 2 technology
E. Layer 1 media
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following application characteristics are significant and must be taken into account in the Enterprise Edge design process.
What would your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Database magnitude
B. Delay sensitivity
C. Data content
D. Bandwidth usage
E. Loss tolerance
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
You are contracted as a network administrator for a small newly established company, Certkiller.com. The network consists of three buildings that 150 hundred feet apart that are connected via fast Ethernet single-mode fiber. 10Mbps hubs with 100Mbps Ethernet uplinks over multi-mode fibers to a switch in each building provide access to the network. Category 5 wiring connects over 200 users to the hubs.
The CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a new network that will take scalability, performance, manageability, security and availability into account, while still keeping costs low as the company is still relatively new.
What recommendation regarding wiring infrastructure would you include in your network design?
A. Install Category 5e copper to the desktop from the wiring closets.
B. Replace the copper wiring with fiber optic cables will save costs over a longer period.
C. Maintain the current wiring structure.
D. Install multi-mode fiber to the desktop from the wiring closets.
E. Replace the multi-mode fiber within the buildings with single-mode fiber.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following would you select to keep VLAN design complexity to a minimum? (Choose one option.)
A. Use campus wide VLANs.
B. Use building distribution level VLANs.
C. Use VLANs in the campus backbone.
D. Use per-switch VLANs at the access layer.
E. Use VLANs in the core.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Under which of the following circumstances would you consider using OSPF to be a viable choice for use as a routing protocol. (Choose four.)
A. Authentication is required.
B. NBMA connections exist.
C. The network is non-hierarchical.
D. Only internal routes should be considered.
E. Load balancing between multiple routes is required.
F. Fast convergence is necessary.
G. External routes are not an issue.

Correct Answer: ABEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
OSPF offers these features: 1) With OSPF, there is no limitation on the hop count. The intelligent use of VLSM is very useful in IP address allocation. 2) OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Updates are only sent when routing changes occur rather than periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth. 3) OSPF offers fast convergence because routing changes are propagated instantaneously and not periodically (a characteristic of distance vector routing protocols). 4) OSPF allows for effective load balancing 5) OSPF allows for routing authentication by using different methods of password authentication 6) OSPF allows for the transfer and tagging of external routes injected into an autonomous system. This keeps track of external routes injected by exterior protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-49
QUESTION 82
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the objectives mentioned below meet the requirements for the Server Farm module.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. Provide availability with overall network design.
B. Provide medium switch port density.
C. Provide remote dial-up access.
D. Provide up to 100 Gbps of outbound capacity.
E. Provide scalability with switches and server load balancing.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 83
In which networks would it be the norm to use Static Routing? (Choose two.)
A. Dial-on-demand networks
B. Smaller expanding networks
C. Stub networks
D. Token ring networks.
E. Multi-homed networks
F. Not so stubby network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static routing is primarily use for:
1) Routing to and from stub networks. A stub network only carries traffic for local hosts, and typically has
only one entry/ exit point. Even if it has paths to more than one other network, it does not carry traffic for
other networks.
2) Smaller network that are noet expected to grow significantly.
3) Supporting special features such as dial-on-demand routing (DDR) and on-demand routing 4)
Specifying routes toward dialing peers in dial-in environments.

Reference: Arch student guide p.2-46.

QUESTION 84
When selecting a router for an Edge solution, which is the first step that you, the Certkiller technician, would use Cisco Product Advisor for?
A. To determine the environment in which the router will be used.
B. To select the number of WAN ports required.
C. To determine types of protocols to be supported.
D. To select the appropriate switches.
E. To select the number of LAN ports required.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which of the following are characteristic in defining a Campus Backbone submodule? (Choose Three.)
A. Partial mesh generally used to avoid redundant links.
B. Usually, no policy enforcement.
C. Provides high speed, low overhead of low latency switching.
D. Full mesh to allow redundancy.
E. Implements policy-based filtering.
F. Transports aggregate traffic from the other submodules and functional areas.
G. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 86
What are the design options that will allow network segmentation? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs
B. Token Ring
C. Ethernet Trunking
D. Separate, flat networks
E. Rapid Spanning Tree (RST)

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which of the following application characteristics are important to the Enterprise Edge design process? (Choose three.)
A. Data content
B. Bandwidth usage
C. Database size
D. Delay sensitivity
E. Loss tolerance

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 88
Which two routing protocols are more appropriate in an NBMA environment? (Choose two)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
D: Intitialy OSPF was designed for networks that consisted of point-to-point links, but later it was successfully adapted for operation in LAN and NBMA environments.
C: EIGRP is suitable for nonbroadcast multi-access (NBMA) environments where there are split horizon issues, such as with Frame Relay or ATM multipoint interfaces. Not B or A: Use of RIP and RIPv2 in NBMA networks is not appropriate because of large bandwidth requirements at the Network Management module of a campus network design
QUESTION 89
Cisco has various management tools aimed at various markets. Which of the following Cisco network management tools is targeted toward small to medium-size business?
A. Netsys
B. CiscoWorks Lite
C. CiscoWorks Standard
D. CiscoWorks Premium
E. CiscoWorks for Windows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Certkiller has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network.
LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application.

What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Inventory Manager: Inventory Manager provides current inventory of all Cisco devices (routers, switches, firewalls) in the network, including support for Cisco CallManager, VPN concentrator, and WAN switches. Hardware and software summary information, includes detailed reports for groups of devices, memory, flash, software version, interface, and stack modules.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-19
QUESTION 92
According to good network design practices, what should be done to segment a physical network? (Choose three)
A. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of broadcast domains.
B. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of failure domains.
C. Use a Layer 2, switched domain to reduce the size of a collision domain.
D. Use Layer 2 switched domains to increase the size of a policy domain.
E. Use access control list to define policy domains.
F. Use access control lists to define failure domains.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which factors in a business environment will increase the need for remote access? (Choose Two.)
A. The ability to provide a more flexible work environment.
B. The need for authentication.
C. The rising costs of office space.
D. The need for a means of charging back leasing costs.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A. Having remote users will decrease the need for additional office space.
C. Allowing users to work from home provide a more flexible work environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B. The need for authentication would not suggest a need for remote access.
D. Irrelevant
QUESTION 94
What are the features that influence Redundancy requirements of a WAN from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose Two.)
A. Impact if the site is an aggregation point.
B. Impact of the site is non-existent or unavailable.
C. Routing and switching requirements
D. Critical importance of the site and the number of users.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The correct answers should be:
-criticality of the site – number of users According to Cisco.
Not A: The official Cisco course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2”
states on page 3-16 “Branch offices normally do not act as aggregation points. Redundancy depends on
the criticality of the site and the number of users”.

QUESTION 95
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which ATM service class will not allow delay or loss and is the most appropriate for traffic.
What would your reply be?
A. Real Time Variable Bit Rate (rt-VBR)
B. Constant Bit Rate (CBR)
C. Virtual Time Variable Bit Rate (vt-VBR)
D. Available Bit Rate (ABR)
E. Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)
F. Non-Real Time Bit Rate (nrt-VBR)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Constant bit rate (CBR): This traffic category has a bandwidth guarantee. Use it for traffic least tolerant of delay or loss.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-35.
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following application requirements would make DSL an inappropriate choice for a Layer 1 technology?
A. Low cost
B. High bandwidth
C. High link quality
D. Always on
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprises are increasingly turning to DSL to expand the use of telecommuting, reduce costs, and provide Internet-based services. DSL offers always-on access, allowing users to work at remote offices as if they were on site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-66
QUESTION 97
When designing a network for an online bookstore, the availability of which two Enterprise Edge modules would be the most critical issue? (Select two)
A. WAN module
B. Internet Connectivity module
C. Remote Access and VNP module
D. E-commerce module

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
For book store the most critical are E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity module.
E-Commerce: Enables enterprises to deploy e-commerce applications and take advantage of the Internet.
All e-commerce transactions pass through a series of intelligent services to provide performance,
scalability, and availability within the overall e-commerce network design.

Internet connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network (VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module.

Reference: Arch student guide p.3-5

QUESTION 98
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an ATM network.
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which method is used to prevent large data volumes from delaying voice packets on the Certkiller network.
What will your reply be?
A. CCS
B. FRF.11
C. Increased MTU
D. Separate VCs for data and voice

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
All other answers are wrong. With separate Vc you could easily assign different QOS parameters
QUESTION 99
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has a regional office in London and branch offices in Newcastle, Oxford, and Liverpool. You need to provide redundancy from Oxford office to the office in London.
What two choices can you make? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Dual Wan links to the regional office
C. Dual Wan links to another branch office
D. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another office

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
If the branch office requires redundant links, the design will use either dual WAN links to two different regions or connect to another branch that connects to a regional site. The link between two branch offices is generally the minimum amount of bandwidth to support each branch. In that case, oversize the link between the branch and regional site to support a fraction of the bandwidth (usually half) of the other branch site. A third method is to implement a dial-on-demand circuit through either ISDN or the PSTN.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-22.
QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are no longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other. Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirement of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
QUESTION 101

A network administrator is designing the routing schema to be used for the WAN connections between the corporate headquarters and the branch offices. Each of the branch offices has its own network server providing most of the local services needed. The branch offices need only periodic connectivity to the corporate headquarters, so ISDN BRI in a DDR configuration was chosen for WAN connectivity.
Which two routing protocols are most appropriate for this network? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPD
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because both these routing protocol have a feature call snapshot routing.

The following routing protocols are supported for snapshot routing :

1 – RTMP.
2 – RTP.
3 – RIPv2.
4 – IGRP.
5 – Novel IPX – RIP and SAP

QUESTION 102
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has been issued a portion of a Class C address from their ISP. There are 320 users that will need access to the Internet. The CEO now wants you to design a network that requires private internal addressing for the users within the company and also requires a website for external users.
Which types of Network Address Translation would you propose? (Choose two.)
A. Static
B. Overlapping
C. Persistent
D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static NAT would be good for the Web server. Dynamic NAT should be used for the 320 users of the
company.
Static NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT
is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network.
Dynamic NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP
addresses.

QUESTION 103
Certkiller has obtained a block of public Internet addresses to provide addresses for their publicly accessed services. Part of the Certkiller.com corporate network is illustrated in the network topology exhibit.

Which one of the following statements is the best design for the Internet connectivity solution?
A. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, static routing should be used on the Internet routers, with static routes on each Internet router pointing to the networks hosted by the ISP connected to the router.
B. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made to ISP A, and floating static routes should be installed to direct traffic to ISP B.
C. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made both ISP A and ISP B.
D. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, the Internet routers should be configured to run HSRP.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Certkiller.com, an insurance company, has a single link to the Internet through a local ISP. The ISP provides web hosting for Certkiller.com. E-mail is the main application for 175 users at Certkiller.com’s single office. The remaining 750 employees at Certkiller.com are involved in the manufacturing process and do not have network access. Fifteen host devices, available in kiosks to all employees, are used for internal human resource applications.
You are now required to recommend a suitable routing mechanism for the Certkiller.com enterprise edge.
A. RIP V2
B. BGP
C. Default route
D. IBGP
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When Implementing a single-homed system, the routing decision is to use default routes pointing to the network that connects the site to the ISP. The default route is then advertised throughout the corporate site, so that any packets with an unknown destination are forwarded to the ISP.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-57.
QUESTION 105
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity.
What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89
QUESTION 106
In an Internet e-commerce, browser-based application, which method can have the greatest impact on optimizing WAN bandwidth usage?
A. Multiplexing
B. Compression
C. Content networking
D. Secure sockets layer (SSL)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Content networking with its WCCP mechanism provides cashing of web pages and pictures which user already loaded so if he want to load the webpage again it loads from the local cash, not from the Internet.
This optimizes WAN bandwidth usage.
QUESTION 107
The SAFE medium network design suggest which of the following modules?
A. Campus infrastructure and Internet connectivity.
B. Campus infrastructure, Internet connectivity, and network management.
C. Corporate Internet, campus, and WAN.
D. Frame/ATM and ISP edge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.6-82
QUESTION 108
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. Host security
B. Perimeter security
C. Security monitoring
D. Policy management

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Intrusion protection: To ensure that a network remains secure, it is important to regularly test and monitor the state of security preparation. Network vulnerability scanners can proactively identify areas of weakness, and intrusion detection systems can monitor and respond to security events as the occur. Using security monitoring solutions, organizations can obtain unprecedented visibility into both the network data stream and the security posture of the network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-22
QUESTION 109
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode.
B. IPSec in transport mode.
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode.
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.9-40, 9-41.
QUESTION 110
Which of the following IOS queuing features are recommended at present to use as queuing method when sending voice traffic?
A. WFQ
B. IO RTP Priority
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. Codec
F. LLQ
G. ARQ
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
In choosing from among the many available prioritization sc hemes, the major factors to consider include the type of traffic involved and the type of media on the WAN. For multiservice traffic over an IP WAN, Cisco recommends low-latency queuing (LLQ) for low-speed links. LLQ allows up to 64 traffic classes with the ability to specify, for example, strict priority queuing behavior for voice and interactive video. A minimum bandwidth for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) data and market data feeds, and weighted fair queuing for other traffic types.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-77.

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