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Cisco 642-871 Exam Questions, Helpful Cisco 642-871 PDF 100% Pass With A High Score

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QUESTION 124
Which type of classification mechanism does the Cisco IP phone use?
A. ISL
B. Q.931
C. G.729a
D. 802.1p/Q
E. Spanning Tree

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Streaming video applications, such as IPTV video on demand (VoD) programs, are relatively high bandwidth applications with a high tolerance for loss, delay, and delay variation. As such, significant QoS tools are not required to meet the needs of these applications. However, in most enterprise environments, these types of applications are considered more important than regular background applications (such as e-mail and web browsing) and should be given preferential treatment. A Layer 2 classification of CoS 1 in 8021.Q/802.1p environments should be used for these applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-48
QUESTION 125
What problem does WFQ introduce when used in networks that have delay sensitive traffic like voice and video?
A. WFQ weights by giving preference to TCP-based flows whereas voice and video is UDP/RTP-based.
B. WFW weights by giving preference to UDP-based flows whereas voice and video is TCP/RTP-based.
C. WFQ becomes too fair in the presence of many flows so that an individual flow might not get enough bandwidth.
D. WFQ provides configuration settings that only permit data traffic, which is the root cause of WFQ’s inability to provide good service to voice and video traffic.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
WFQ is to fair.
WFQ classifies traffic into different flows based on such characteristics as source and destination address,
protocol, and port and socket of the session. WFQ is a default queueing discipline on links at and below

2.048 Mbps.
QUESTION 126
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS or TFP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 127
When working in a Cisco environment, which of the following models would be utilized when you connect to a PBX system that uses non-standard signaling?
A. Translate model
B. Cross over model
C. Interprete model
D. Transport model
E. Trans-cross model

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 128
Both incoming and outgoing calls for a voice system are governed by rules. Which set of rules governs the handling of voice system calls?
A. Voice plan
B. Route plan
C. Route pattern
D. Dial pattern
E. Call handler
F. Dial plan

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 129
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know in which of the following Frame Relay PVC configurations that are able to carry both voice and data, is the potential voice load better understood and partially isolated from the data load.
What would your reply be?
A. Simplex PVCs
B. Separate PVCs
C. Half Duplex PVCs
D. Duplex PVCs
E. Combined PVCs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which codec you would recommend for higher quality voice over a data network. What would your reply be?
A. G.711
B. G.714
C. G.723
D. G.726
E. Q.728
F. G.729

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 131
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 132
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 133
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 134
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. Transcoder
D. Coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression, compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).
QUESTION 135
What type of protocol is SIP?
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard.
The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability.
SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers.
The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 136
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. Be
D. CIR
E. LMI
F. DLCI

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 137
Your boss at Certkiller.com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast.
What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. Low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. High bandwidth web serving applications
C. Video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. Scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. Live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. High bandwidth, high volume transactional applications

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 138
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 139
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 140
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 141
You are the network administrator at Certkiller.Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?
A. The assigned IP address of the source host
B. A reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. A GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization
D. A source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 142
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees:
1) Uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source)
2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers
3) Minimizes delay

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20

QUESTION 143
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 144
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which VNP management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the
device.
Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17

QUESTION 146
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?
A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even repeated, thereby minimizing disruption to the communication. An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.
QUESTION 147
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links.
What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 149
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 150
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?
A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 151
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 154
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. Route list
B. Route group
C. Gateway list
D. Route keeper
E. Route pattern
F. First digit pattern

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 155
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
QUESTION 156
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content Engines to end-user desktops.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 157
You are a technician at Certkiller. You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network.
Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 142
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
A medium-sized network with a redundant topology that uses core and access switches is experiencing intermittent end-station accessibility. The root bridge is on one of the core switches. It is determined that the problem occurs during STP convergence and that accessibility issues depend on the STP state of the individual switch port. What is the best way to decrease STP convergence time in this situation?
A. Enable PortFast on the core switches to accelerate the choice of a new root port.
B. Enable UplinkFast on the VLAN that is having the most accessibility problems.
C. Enable UplinkFast on the wiring closet switches at the edge of the network.
D. Enable PortFast on all IOS based switches that have been configured for bridge priority.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Switch S1 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
C. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port.
E. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F.     DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to prevent VLAN attacks. Ports 0/20 – 24 are not currently used on switch Cat2. VLAN 50 is an unused VLAN. How does the configuration in the exhibit improve security on the switch Cat2?

A. The native VLAN is different from any data VLAN.
B. Trunking is negotiated rather than on.
C. DTP is turned off.
D. The ports have been configured as a primary PVLAN.
E. The ports have been configured as a secondary PVLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 169.254.23.59
B. 223.254.255.254
C. 225.1.1.1
D. 227.43.34.2
E. 238.3.3.3
F. 249.1.2.3

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Switch C is configured with UplinkFast. How much time will expire after a failure in L2 before switch C activates the port connected to L3?

A. 1-5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. It must be used with the PortFast feature enabled.
B. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F.     The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F.     process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F.     protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F.     An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?

A. On External_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
C. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
D. On External_B remove the command standby 1 preempt

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two statements characterize VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same broadcast domain.
B. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same collision domain.
C. VLAN membership is based upon port membership or assigned dynamically based on MAC.
D. It is a physical network segment.
E. They must be created in the vlan database mode on all IOS and Cat OS based Catalyst Switches.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which statement about VTP is false?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) operation? (Choose two.)
A. CEF supports per packet load balancing.
B. The CEF switching process can perform packet fragmentation.
C. CEF processed packets forwarded to a tunnel interface create separate lookup table entries.
D. access control lists should be avoided when utilizing CEF because they cause the forwarding decision to bypass CEF and use process switching.
E. CEF can be used to forward packets when an ACL is involved since CEF tables include access control list information.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Which statement correctly describes the extended system ID?
A. It is the 2-bit number of the MSTP instance.
B. It is the VLAN identifier value and allows for 4096 BIDs to be uniquely identified.
C. It is a bridge MAC address which is allocated from a pool of MAC addresses that are factory assigned.
D. It is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Frames from Workstation 1 are given the proper priority through Switch A, but Switch B handles Workstation 1 frames as if they have no precedence. Which of the following actions will allow traffic from Workstation 1 to be given the proper priority?

A. configure qos all command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
B. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
C. configure mls qos trust cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
D. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
E. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
F. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch A fa0/1 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F.     Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F.     ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

e
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2,
and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement
can be derived from the exhibit?

A. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
B. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which two statements are true about CEF switching? (Choose two.)
A. The CEF data plane is responsible for the fragmentation of outgoing packets.
B. The CEF control plane builds the FIB table. The data plane builds the adjacency table and forwards traffic.
C. The CEF control plane builds the FIB and adjacency tables. The data plane forwards IP unicast traffic.
D. IP packets with the IP header options set are process switched.
E. Packets with the TCP header options set are process switched.
F. The adjacency table is derived from next hop IP addresses in the routing table.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
A switch sends BPDUs with which destination address upon initial bootup?
A. a well-known STP multicast address
B. the IP address of its default gateway
C. the MAC addresses stored in the CAM table
D. the MAC address of neighbors discovered via CDP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is initially the root bridge. Switch D with bridge priority of 0 is added to the network. Which port should the Root Guard feature be configured on to prevent Switch D from becoming the root?

A. Switch A fa0/2
B. Switch C fa0/1
C. Switch C fa0/3
D. Switch D fa0/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Cisco 700-260 Exam Demos, First-hand Cisco 700-260 Online Exam With Accurate Answers

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QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco 646-365 Cert Exam, Sale Latest Cisco 646-365 Exam Collection Is Your Best Choice

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QUESTION 1
Which three are major trends that fuel the demand for routing and switching? (Choose three.)
A. Mobility
B. Video
C. Bandwidth optimization
D. Cloud
E. IT standardization

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
Which two statements best describe the challenges that customers have to face when providing services in a borderless world? (Choose two.)
A. How do you control energy consumption of devices that are owned by employees?
B. How can you support video in the whole network?
C. How can you integrate cloud services seamlessly in your network?
D. Which type of firewall should you deploy?

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which statement does not correctly describe the impact of business video applications to the network?
A. Video applications rapidly increase the traffic within the network.
B. In order to ensure business quality video, video traffic needs to be prioritized.
C. Various devices with different capabilities need to be able to join video conferences.
D. Video conferences reduce the network load by eliminating the need to exchange files over the network in order to share information.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the strategic importance of the network?
A. The network is most important for internal applications.
B. The network is most important for providing customers with access to company services.
C. The network supports business processes by integrating people and devices with applications.
D. The network integrates internal and external users and their devices.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two other architectures is the Cisco Borderless Network Architecture linked to? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MediaNet Architecture
B. Cisco Security Architecture
C. Cisco TrustSec Architecture
D. Cisco Collaboration Architecture
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding IPv6?
A. IPv6 support on network devices eliminates the need for additional security devices and applications in the network.
B. IPv6 is applicable in service provider networks but is an overhead item in smaller networks.
C. All devices currently support IPv6 and IPv4.
D. The Cisco Transformative Networking initiative provides an analysis of the network regarding the capabilities of devices to support IPv6.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which statement correctly describes the importance and role of business processes?
A. Business processes are built on company operations.
B. Operations and, consequently, business processes define the company strategy.
C. Changes in company strategy cause changes in business processes and, consequently, in operations.
D. Tasks in business processes require interaction of various users using the same type of device.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two statements accurately describe the evolution of the workplace and the importance of the network? (Choose two.)
A. Mobility causes location borders to shift.
B. Cloud services cause end-user locations to shift.
C. Cloud services cause application borders to shift.
D. IT consumerization causes location borders to shift.
E. Mobility causes devices to become centralized.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which statement accurately describes the evolution of the workplace and its impact on security?
A. Mobility causes location borders to shift.
B. Cloud services cause end-user locations to shift.
C. Mobility causes devices to become centralized.
D. IT consumerization causes location borders to shift.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are the two business benefits of a BYOD solution? (Choose two.)
A. reduced OpEx
B. less IT effort to support and secure different devices
C. less IT effort to support and secure different operating systems
D. reduced network complexity
E. increased productivity using own devices
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
Which statement accurately describes the impact of BYOD to the network?
A. TCO is reduced because employees use their privately owned devices.
B. BYOD decreases productivity, and IT must find ways to integrate the utilized devices seamlessly with

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

Cisco 642-980 Question Description, 50% OFF Cisco 642-980 Study Material Are Based On The Real Exam

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QUESTION 1
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding LACP configuration?
A. With LACP, you can bundle up to 16 interfaces in a channel group.
B. LACP configuration is global and can be only configured by admin.
C. After removing LACP configuration, you need to reboot the device.
D. You can disable LACP while any LACP configurations are present.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding vPC configuration? (Choose two.)
A. With vPC, there are no blocked ports.
B. vPC uses hash-based EtherChannel load balancing.
C. There are STP-blocked redundant links.
D. There is VLAN-based load balancing.
E. There is higher oversubscription.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Refer to exhibit.

Customer has a pair of Cisco Nexus7010s switches and connected to a single Cisco Nexus5548 switch via vPC. Customer has a combination of M1 and F1 I/O Modules in Cisco Nexus7010s.
Why is the design described not supported?
A. Mixing I/O Modules on the Same Side of a Peer Link is not supported
B. vPC does not support split control plane
C. You can not configure a vPC peer link to configure two devices as vPCs
D. Need to add another Cisco Nexus5548 switch to the topology to make this work. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Your customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concerns are focused on using up the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP addresses, and IP address management. Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP addresses
D. use PVLANs, which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
C. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
On the secondary vPC switch, under which circumstance does the vPC autorecovery feature not bring up the vPC member ports?
A. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the peer-keepalive link fails.
B. Peer link is up, and the peer-keepalive link fails.
C. Both vPC peers are reloaded, and the primary does not come back up.
D. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the primary switch fails.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying FCoE in its networ and has found that the connected host does not support FIP. Which command will be useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. show platform fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
B. show platform fcoe_mgr info software interface vfc id
C. show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
D. show platform software interface fcoe_mgr info vfc id

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When configuring LLDP on Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, what is the purpose of LLDP hold time global configuration command?
A. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in milliseconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
B. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in seconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
C. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in milliseconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface
D. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in seconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network and sees pause counters increasing when it runs the command show interface eth1/5. What is the cause of this?
A. The CNA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
B. The HBA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
C. Pause counters increase regularly; there is nothing to be concerned about.
D. A firmware upgrade on the Fibre Channel adapter that is connected to the switch will fix this issue.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
On a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch, the VFC is stuck in the initializing state. Which QoS statements must be configured for FCoE to operate?
A. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
B. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
C. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
D. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
One of your Cisco Nexus Series interfaces has become errdisabled with the error message “DCX-No ACK in 100 PDUs”. How often are these acknowledgements exchanged?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

What command should you execute next in resolving a lock failure?
A. ntp execute
B. ntp commit
C. ntp lock
D. ntp help
E. ntp detail
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having difficulty getting NPV working. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core NPV device is not enabled.
B. The core NPV device is not a switch.
C. The core NPV device is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV device is not configured on the upstream port.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem getting NPV to work. What is causing the problem?
A. The core NPV switch port is not an F port.
B. The core NPV switch port is in a shutdown state.
C. The core NPV switch port is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV switch port is not configured on the other end.
E. The core NPV switch ports are in the wrong domain.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having problems with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
D. VSANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.
E. VLANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

During a VSAN outage, you come across this configuration. Please select two possible causes? (Choose two)
A. no common VSANs on both switches
B. no common trunks
C. no common VSAN members in the same trunk
D. VSANs in trunk are the same, but the trunk is not up

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.

Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 642-887 Cert Exam, Most Important Cisco 642-887 Practice Test With High Quality

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Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure sk0-003 VCE dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-003.html

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal class-map FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp exit policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit

B. configure terminal class-map FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp exit policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS bandwidth 2000000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy input POLICY_1 end commit
C. configure terminal access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21 policy-map POLICY_1 match ip access-list 100 bandwidth 2000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy output POLICY_1 end commit
D. configure terminal policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp bandwidth 2000000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy input POLICY_1 end commit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,
classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
B. mpls ldp graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
C. mpls ldp nsr graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
D. mpls ldp nsr graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 10000 exceed-action drop exit priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit

B. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS priority percent 10 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
C. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 1000 exceed-action drop exit priority level 1 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
D. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 10 Mbps exceed-action shape exit priority level 1 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
On the Cisco IOS XR, when using the match protocol command within a class-map to classify traffic, you noticed that the match protocol option on the Cisco IOS XR shows much fewer protocol options than on the Cisco IOS or IOS XE, like there is no option such as the match protocol yahoo-messenger command on the Cisco IOS XR. Why is this?
A. because the Cisco IOS XR router does not have the correct software packages installed
B. because when defining the class-map, the class-map type should be set to type inspect: class-map type inspect class-map-name command
C. because NBAR is not supported on the Cisco IOS XR

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Cisco 200-120 Exam Certification, Welcome To Buy Cisco 200-120 Practice Test On Our Store

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QUESTION 21
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.
QUESTION 23
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP

D. ISL
E. 802.3u Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.
QUESTION 24
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005 Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed. VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 25
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question is to check the spanning tree election problem.
1.
First, select the root bridge, which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the smallest will be selected. Bridge-id= bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that SwitchB is the root bridge.

2.
Select the root port on the non-root bridge, which can be completed through comparing root path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port.

3.
Next, select the Designated Port. First, compare the path cost, if the costs happen to be the same, then compare the BID, still the smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the exhibit above, we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is SwitchA’Fa0/1, because it has the smallest MAC address.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a trunk. The “switchport mode trunk” command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not be listed over that trunk interface.
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.
QUESTION 29
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network. To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50 seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure. RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. RSTP bridge port roles:
*
Root port ?A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost

*
Designated port ?A forwarding port for every LAN segment

*
Alternate port ?A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.

*
Backup port ?A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.

*
Disabled port ?Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port
QUESTION 30
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operates at Layer 2 Data Link layer -> .
QUESTION 31
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the interface if it is in its MAC address table. If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all interfaces except the one it was received on.
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not the root bridge ->
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> 0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC
address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1 Alternative port so it is
not the root bridge.

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A VLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. Security: VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate with them LAN Segmentation
VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2 broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN, switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.
QUESTION 34
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be no router hops involved.
QUESTION 35
Based on the network shown in the graphic Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.
QUESTION 37
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames. Correct Answer: BE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked and non-marked. Non- marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports. Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports.. Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:

SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself) with an initial value of 0. Now let’s have a look at the topology again

SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port -> Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

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Cisco 642-165 Practice Exam, Most Accurate Cisco 642-165 Free Dowload With High Quality

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QUESTION 1
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium with high availability only
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two tasks must an administrator perform on Cisco Desktop Administrator to support presence integration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a contact list to a CSQ.
B. Assign a contact list to a workflow group.
C. Assign an SME to a contact list.
D. Assign a contact list to a skill.
E. Assign an SME to a CSQ.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 6
Agent Email is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium and Standard
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
If you have not configured the database subsystem, what is the status of the database subsystem on the Control Center page of AppAdmin?
A. partial service
B. out of service
C. shutdown
D. not configured

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
With which product is Cisco Unified CCX integrated in order to allow an agent to chat with an SME using CAD?
A. Cisco Unified Presence
B. IP Phone Messenger
C. Webex Connect
D. Microsoft Office Communicator

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 7.0 deployment requires support for 20 concurrently logged-in agents. The agents are split across two remote sites, and the high-availability Cisco Unified CCX Engine, Database, VoIP Monitoring, and Recording server processes run at a central data center. The agents will be using CAD with Cisco Unified IP Phone 7960G and end- point monitoring. Very little recording and silent monitoring will be performed, and no historical reporting will be done during call center open hours.
What is the minimum number of Cisco Unified Contact Center Express hardware servers required for this Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment?
A. 1 server
B. 2 servers
C. 3 servers
D. 4 servers
E. 5 servers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. trace configuration
C. system parameters
D. Control Center

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer
B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer
C. the personal line of the agent to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:
250 configured agents 150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls 20 agents able to answer emails
How many premium seats should be purchased?
A. 150 seats
B. 180 seats
C. 200 seats
D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Work Flow Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which criterion can be used to control supervisor workflows?
A. length of time an agent is in the NotReady state
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, which feature is disabled on the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. recording
B. monitoring
C. embedded browser
D. call-control buttons

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Where are Cisco Unified CCX users managed and their data stored when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Service Queue
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which three fields are used in defining a CSQ in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Name
B. WrapUp Time
C. Service Level
D. Overflow CSQ
E. Automatic Work
F. CCX Application
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 20
Which type of information is available from the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Control Center?
A. database replication status
B. system parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express platform set supports the use of an embedded Internet browser within the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. Premium only
B. Enhanced and Premium only
C. Standard, Enhanced, and Premium
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express does not support an embedded Internet browser

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D. two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)
A. Delete a resource group.
B. Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E. Create a resource.
F. Delete a skill.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 25
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)
A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field.

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CCNA Data Center, Cisco

Cisco 640-916 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-916 Dump Test Online Store

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QUESTION 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F QUESTION 6

Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre
Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?
A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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CCNP Voice, Cisco

Cisco 642-427 Cert, First-hand Cisco 642-427 Study Material For Download

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information.

QUESTION 1
Where does an IP phone obtain the extension number and speed-dial settings from?
A. the settings that are configured on the physical phone
B. the registration file that the phone receives from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. the device and line configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, during the registration process
D. the default device profile that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications, Manager

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which web-based application that is accessed via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration GUI generates reports for troubleshooting or inspecting cluster data?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability alarms
B. Cisco Unified RTMT Trace and Log Central
C. Cisco Unified RTMT Monitor
D. Cisco Unified Reporting tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which statement about device mobility is true?
A. When local route groups are used, there is no need to configure device mobility groups or phone device CSSs as long as phone line CSSs are used.
B. When local route groups are used, you must configure device mobility groups and phone device CSSs.
C. When the device mobility group at the home device pool and roaming device pool are not the same, the Phone will keep the home region.
D. When device mobility groups at the home device pool and roaming device pool are the same, the phone will keep the home MRGL setting. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Refer to the SDI trace in the exhibit A PSTN call arrived at the MGCP gateway that is shown in the SDI trace. If the caller ID that is displayed on the IP phone is 087071 222 and the HQ_clng pty_CSS contains the HQ_cing_pty_Pt partition, which exhibit shows the correct gateway digit manipulation”?

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
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When a Cisco IP Communicator phone roams from San Jose (SJ) to RTP, the Cisco IP Communicator physical location and the device mobility group change from SJ to RTP All route patterns are assigned a route list that points to the local route group All device pools are configured to use the local route group Which statement is true when the roaming phone places an AAR call?
A. Since globalized call routing is not configured, then the SJ gateway will be used in this case
B. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ gateway
C. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ gateway
D. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the RTP gateway.
E. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition The call will egress at the RTP gateway

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibits.

Low latency queuing has been implemented on the HO and BR1 routers to allow five G.729 calls. Callers are still experiencing poor audio, in particular choppy and
delayed audio during traffic congestion. This problem occurs even with just one active call.
Which two actions will solve the issue?

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100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
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A. Change the codec type to G 711. J
B. Configure RSVP call admission control
C. Configure L ink Fragmentation and Interleave on the WAN links
D. Configure RTP header compression on the WAN links
E. Increase the priority queue bandwidth to 80 Kb/s
F. Configure location settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to 1 20 Kb/s
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

When calling 911, which gateway/route list is defined in the route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and used to route matched digits to the PSTN?
A. SEP002290BA361B
B. standardLocalRG
C. RouteListCdrc
D. LRG_RL
E. nodeld = 1
F. BRANCH
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Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to look at detailed specific events, such as dial plan digit analysis, as they die happening?
A. traceroutes
B. RTMT real-time trace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
D. Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
E. RTMT performance log viewer
F. syslog output
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibits.

MOH has been configured to run from flash at the BR1 site. The HQ phones and MOH server are placed in the Default region through the Default device pool. The
BR1 phones are placed in the BR1 region through the BR1
device pool. The region configuration between Default and BR1 only permits 729 codec.
When an IP phone user at the HQ site places a BR1 caller on hold, the BR1 caller hears tone on hold.
Which of the following can cause this issue?

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100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
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A. Multicast routing is not enabled on the BR1 router.
B. The command ip pim separate-dense-mode is missing from interface VLAN 120 at the SRST router in BR1.
C. The MOH server is unable to stream MOH using G.711 codec because of the regions configuration.
D. The command route 10.1.120.1 must be added to the multicast moh 239.1.1.1 port 16384 command at the SRST router in BR1.
E. The Max Hops is too small in the MOH configuration
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which step in the problem-solving model is important to accurately interview end users to get all the pertinent details of the problem?
A. Implement Action Plan
B. Define the Problem
C. Consider the Possibilities
D. Create Action Plan
E. Gather Facts
F. Observe Results
G. Restart Problem-Solving Process
H. Problem Resolved
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the output of debug isdn q931. An inbound PSTN call was received by a SIP gateway that is reachable via a SIP trunk that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The call failed to ring extension 3001. If the phone at extension 3001 is registered and reachable through the gateway inbound CSS, which three actions can resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Change the significant digits for inbound calls to 4 on the SIP trunk configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Configure the digit strip 4 on the SIP trunk under Incoming Called Party Settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Configure a translation pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that can be accessed by the trunk CSS to truncate the called number to four digits.
D. Configure a called-party transformation CSS on the gateway in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that includes a pattern that transforms the number from ten digits to four digits.
E. Configure a voice translation profile in the SIP Cisco IOS gateway with a voice translation rule that truncates the number from ten digits to four digits.
F. Configure the Cisco IOS command num-exp 2288223001 3001 on the gateway ISDN interface.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Which of these is used by the Cisco IP phone to relay to the switch the information regarding how much power is needed?
A. the Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. IEEE 802.10 protocol
C. Cisco IP phones always use a fixed power consumption hased on the resistor, which is specific to the model
D. The switch model determines how much power is consumed by the different phone models
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
Assume a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology with the headquarters at RTP and remote located at the U.K.
All route patterns are assigned a route list that contains a route group pointing to the local gateway. RTP route patterns use the RTP
gateway, and U.K. route patterns use the K. gateway.
When a U.K. user logs into an RTP phone using the Cisco Extension Mobility feature and places an emergency call to 0000, which statement about the
emergency call is true?

A. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
B. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K. gateway.
C. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
D. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K. gateway.
E. The call will fail.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-13 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibits.

The HG_MRG that is shown in the exhibit is assigned to an MRGL, which is configured at the HQ phones.
A call exists between two HQ phones that use G.711 codec. When one of the HQ users attempts to conference a BR phone across the WAN, the conference fails.
The SDI trace shows an error “No transcoder device configured.”
Which statement indicates the correct resolution or reason for the issue?

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D:\job\TestKing\Cisco\642-427\HYPERLINK
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A. The BR phone does not have access to the HO_Conf bridge
B. The BR phone does not have access to the CFB_2 bridge
C. The BR phone does not have access to a transcoder
D. The CFB_2 bridge should be removed from the HQ_MRG and assigned to an MRG that is not assigned to an MRGL
E. The CFB_2 bridge should be listed last in the HO_MRG
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibits.

When a remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager learns the advertised patterns that are shown in the exhibit, which patterns would be shown in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool?
A. 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:+498950555
B. 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0+498953121
C. +4989505552XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:
D. +498953121 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:
E. Both +4989505552XXX and +4989531 21 2XXX will be advertised with ToDID of 0:
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibits.
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When the IP phone 2001 places a call to 9011 49403021 56001, the call is sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element as 40302156001 which is what the ITSP expects to receive. The ITSP support personnel claim that they never saw the call. Issuing the debug CCSIP message command on the Cisco Unified Border Element results in the message “SIP/2 0 404 Not Found”.
Refer to the Cisco Unified Border Element configuration, debug voice dial and ccsip messages exhibits. Which situation can cause this issued?
A. The Cisco Unified Bolder Element is configured as an MGCP gateway also so that the call is attempted via the PSTN
B. The command allow-connections sip to h323 is missing
C. SIP error 404 means that a codec mismatch occurred Cisco Unified Communications Manager is sending the call as an early offer with G.711 codec.
D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is rnisconfigured. The SIP invite should be sent to the ITSP at 10.1.2.1.2. The debug ccsip message shows the SIP invite being sent to 10.12.1.2.

Correct Answer: B

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