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QUESTION 101
Please match the description to the signaling type it corresponds to. (1)events that occur on the trunk, including seizure, wink, and answer (2)tones such as ringing or busy and announcements such as “no longer in service” (3)digits dialed or called party number that can be sstem-specific or variant-specific (I) Address Signaling (II)Supervisory Signaling (III)Informational Signaling
A. (I)-(3);(II)-(2);(III)-(1)
B. (I)-(1);(II)-(2);(III)-(3)
C. (I)-(3);(II)-(1);(III)-(2) PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
D. (I)-(1);(II)-(3);(III)-(2)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
Which ephone-dn type does the picture represent?

A. shared ephone-dn
B. overlaid ephone-dn
C. two ephone-dns with one number
D. single-line ephone-dn
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company has successfully installed the CUE module in its router’s chassis. Which two configuration items are necessary for the module to function properly?
A. You need assign a default gateway to the service module
B. You need use the ip numbered command to save the subnet PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
C. You need create a subnet that appears in all of the routing tables to make the module reachable.
D. The interface service engine needs to have an IP address that is on the same subnet as the service module.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 104
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company is trying to configure MoH for their Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. What are two possible problems with this configuration? HHTrenton(config)#telephony-service HHTrenton(config-telephony)#moh minuet.au HHTrenton(config-telephony)#multicast moh 224.10.16.4 port 2000 route 10.10.29.17 10.10.29.33 HHTrenton(config-telephony)#exit HHTrenton(config)#telephony-service HHTrenton(config-telephony)#moh.rockin.au HHTrenton(config-telephony)#multicast moh 224.10.16.4 port 2001 HHTrenton(config-telephony)#exit
A. The second multicast entry does not have a route listed.
B. The ip-source address command has not been configured
C. IP phones do not support multicast at 224.x.x.x addresses.
D. You must disable the use of the first moh file with the no moh command before configuring the second file
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 105
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company has a few slow links in its voice and data network. Which two techniques can be used to reduce delay in voice transmission?
A. Framerelay
B. buffering voice packets
C. fragmentation of large packets
D. compression of IP, RTP, and UDP headers
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 106
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. PassGuide is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. PassGuide uses 5-digit extensions and wants to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO’s home. The CEO’s telephone number is 877-666-3333. Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
A. SBB(config)#transfer-pattern .T
B. SBB(config-telephony-service)#transfer-pattern .T PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
C. SBB(config-telephony-service)#transfer-pattern 8776663333
D. SBB(config-ephone-dn)#transfer-pattern 8776663333
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
LAB This task requires you to access the cisco Unified Communication 500 Series GUI to configure it per the given requirements as stated in the scenario. From the choices on the left you may select Scenario, Cisco Unified Communication Server (CUC) Device, or Topology. The Scenario link provides the details of the task to be accomplished. The Topology link displays the network. To get access to UC500. click on the PC shown in the topology or you can click on the CUC Device button on the left. You have been asked to implement an SBCA solution for a stratup company that has two technical support staff. The IP Phone use 4 digit extensions starting with 5001. Using the information in tables 1 and 2, configure the following: 1.Configure the AA & Voicemail features 2.Add the two IP Phones with extensions/user given in table 2 including Voicemail. 3.Configure Hunt Group so that all incoming PSTN calls always go to extension 5001. If extension 5001 is not available, route the call to extension 5002. If both extensions are busy or unavailable then send the call to Voicemail. About this question, we do not have proper answer, if you have then please contact us.

A. Pending
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Exhibit
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?
A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
What protocol does a Cisco IP phone use to indicate to the switch how much power is needed?
A. PoE
B. CDP
C. VTP
D. cRTP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 111
What protocol is used to monitor and provide control information about the quality of an RTP session?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. NTP
D. RTCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
What device is responsible for converting analog voice packets from traditional voice formats to IP packets?
A. MGCP gateway
B. H.323 gateway
C. Media Termination Point
D. Digital signal processor
E. Transcoder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Exhibit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
LAB
Instructions:
To configure the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express click on the console host icon that is connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express by a serial console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line). You can click on the buttons below to view the different windows. Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar. The “Tab” key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system.
Scenario:
You are required to manually configure a Cisco Unified Unified Communications Manager
Express to support two IP phones with directory numbers starting with 5001.
The phones need to be configured as dual-line phones as per the following table:
The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express should be configured as a DHCP and TFTP server.
The IP phones should obtain their IP addresses via DHCP in the range 10.3.130.10 –

10.3.130.254. IP addresses in the range 10.3.130.1 to 10.3.130.9 should be excluded.
The IP phones are connected to an EtherSwitch module, interface GigabitEthernet1/0 on a Cisco 2811
router as per the topology diagram. The voice VLAN ID is 130 and default router for the IP phones is

10.3.130.1.
The EtherSwitch module has been preconfigured and is not configurable.
You are also required to configure a second directory number 5010 as a shared directory number on line 2
of each IP phone.

Topology:

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Cisco 640-460 Certification Material, Best Quality Cisco 640-460 Exam Sale

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QUESTION 85
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)
A. Usedejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Fragment data packets
D. Prioritize voice packets

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 86
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
B. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow
D. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2.)
A. Cisco 2600XM Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 3700 Series
D. Cisco 3800 Series

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 89
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 2500
B. 7500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. AAR
B. SRST
C. CAC

D. V3PN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
Which option cannot be configured using Cisco Configuration Assistant?
A. voice VLAN only
B. voice and data VLANs
C. script selection for theAutoAttendant
D. SIP trunk to an ITSP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models?
A. Single site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Clustering over the IP WAN
D. Multisite with distributed call processing

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 93
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2.)
A. Hold
B. DTMF relay
C. Transfer
D. Transcoding

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 94
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
did not have question?!?!?!?!
A. national destination code
B. station code
C. country code
D. subscriber number
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. MOS
B. PESQ
C. QRT
D. PSQM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.30
B. T.37
C. T.38
D. Cisco Fax Relay
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. G.729ab
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth. (Choose 3.)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
What is the Layer 2 overhead (in bytes) for Frame Relay traffic?
A. 3 bytes
B. 5 bytes
C. 6 bytes
D. 18 bytes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
What are the functions of an H.323 gateway?
A. Converts an alias address to an IP address
B. Responds to bandwidth requests and modifications
C. Transmits and receives G.711 PCM-encoded voice
D. Performs translation between audio, video, and data formats

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which call control model does MGCP use?
A. Distributed
B. Centralized
C. Ad hoc
D. Hybrid “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
Which command displays a count of successful and unsuccessful control commands?
A. showmgcp calls
B. showmgcp statistics
C. showmgcp
D. debugmgcp statistics

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 105
Identify four SIP servers. (Choose 4.)
A. Registrar
B. Gateway
C. Redirect
D. Location
E. Proxy

Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 106
The call leg and the dial peers are both logical connections used to complete an end-to-end call.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
A call leg is a virtual connection that is set up and torn down before the dial peer is established.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
The call leg and the dial peer are both physical connections used to complete an end-to-end call.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 109
Which of the following is not the function provided by a switching system in a traditional telephony network?
A. call setup
B. call supervision
C. customer IDs and telephone numbers
D. codec processing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Which two of the following signaling protocols are peer-to-peer protocols? (Choose two)
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 111
Case Study#1
Instructions:
This task requires you to access the Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series GUI to configure it per the
given requirements as stated in the scenario.

From the choices on the left you may select Scenario, Cisco Unified Communications Server (CUC)
Device, or Topology. The Scenario link provides the details of the task to be accomplished. The Topology
link displays the network. To get access to UC500, click on the PC shown in the Topology or you can click
on the CUC Device button on the left.

Scenario:
You have been asked to implement an SBCA solution for a startup company that has two technical support
staff. The lP Phones use 4 digit extensions starting with 5001. Using the information in tables 1 and 2,
configure the following

1.
Configure the AA & Voicemail features

2.
Add the two IP Phones with extensions/users given in table 2 including Voicemail.

3.
Configure Hunt Group so that all incoming PSTN calls always go to extension 5001. If extension 5001 is not available, route the call to extension 500: If both extensions are busy or unavailable then send the call to Voicemail

Table1
Username Cisco Password Cisco Voicemail 5111 Auto Attendant 5000 Hunt Group Pilot 5010
Table2

Phone Primary Ext. LastName FirstName UserID 00115C0E5EDA 5001 (Phone1I Doe John Jdoe 003094C3 D18C 5002 (Phone2) Brown Jane jbrown CUC Device: Topology:

A. Pending
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Case Study# 2 Instructions: To configure the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express click on the console host icon that is connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express by a serial console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line).
You can click on the buttons below to view the different windows. Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar. The “Tab” key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system.

Scenario:
You are required to manually configure a Cisco Unified Unified Communications Manager
Express to support two IP phones with directory numbers starting with 5001.
The phones need to be configured as dual-line phones as per the following table:
The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express should be configured as a DHCP and TFTP
server.

The IP phones should obtain their IP addresses via DHCP in the range 10.3.130.10 –
10.3.130.254. IP addresses in the range 10.3.130.1 to 10.3.130.9 should be excluded. The IP phones are connected to an EtherSwitch module, interface GigabitEthernet1/0 on a Cisco 2811 router as per the topology diagram. The voice VLAN ID is 130 and default router for the IP phones is 10.3.130.1.
The EtherSwitch module has been preconfigured and is not configurable.
You are also required to configure a second directory number 5010 as a shared directory number
on line 2 of each IP phone.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?
A. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
B. time slots 1 to 32
C. time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
D. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32
E. timeslots to 31
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?
A. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 960
B. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 768000 7680 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 fragment frfl2 960 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960

E. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 compress header ip rtp service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 640

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?
A. !
B. +
C. *
D. .
E. ?
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 82
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?
A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled.
D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?
A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?
A. Station Media Port List message
B. Station Set Ringer message
C. Station Stop Tone message
D. Station Start Media Transmission message
E. Station Open Receive Channel message
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C. VAD is disabled.
D. VAD is enabled.
E. NLP is disabled. F NLP is enabled.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86 PS：由于原CCIE语音群已满请大家转到新 CCIE-QQ(500人)群：53357075 —王Sir

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?
A. RSVP-based
B. gatekeeper-based
C. CUBE-based
D. locations-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?
A. show call active voice brief
B. show voip rtp connections
C. show voice dsp detailed
D. show voice call summary
E. show policy-map interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?
A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover
D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)
A. FXS
B. E&MTypel
C. E&MTypell
D. E&MTypelV
E. FXO

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 91
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?
A. The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0
B. The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C. The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D. The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?
A. server name
B. server IP address
C. DNS domain D. SIP proxy domain
E. enable presence

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours
E. 48 hours

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What will occur if a video bridge is not available during a video call setup on Cisco Unified Communications Manager using the Intelligent Bridge Selection feature?
A. The video call will fail, and the caller will receive a busy tone.
B. The video call will succeed, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use the default video image.
C. The video call will fail and will be forwarded to voice mail.
D. The video call will fall back to an audio-only call.
E. The video call will fail, and the caller will hear a message.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end-to- end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco RTP
B. H.245 signal
C. H.245 alphanumeric
D. RTP-NTE
E. H.225 Notify
F. in-band voice

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 96
What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages for a Cisco Unity Connection user?
A. 2 MB
B. 4MB
C. 10 MB
D. 14 MB
E. 20 MB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio streams?
A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.
C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
When a call is being established on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to inform the gateway where to send RTP traffic?
A. MDCX
B. RTPX
C. CRCX
D. NTFY
E. RQNT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99

Refer to the exhibit. When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of 2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, from highest to lowest priority?
A. II,III, IV
B. II,IV, III,I
C. III,IV,II,I
D. III, II, IV,I
E. II, III, IV, I

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission?
A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway with a voice ISDN PRI connection to the PSTN, which two PSTN signals are processed locally by the gateway? (Choose two.)
A. MGCP endpoint configuration
B. T1 framing and line code
C. ISDNQ.921
D. ISDNQ.931
E. ISDN call setup

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 102
A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 700
D. 1000
E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect? (Choose three)
A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both.
B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups.
C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL.
D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group.
E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines which MOH server is used to play music to the held device.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service
D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine
E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent
F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 105
Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct?
A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech
B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay.
C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay.
D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed.
E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS WAN.
B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.
C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resides must be enabled as a CE device.
D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.
E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement-based CAC.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 107
An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?
A. No Route To Destination
B. Normal Call Clearing
C. Subscriber Absent
D. User Busy
E. Network Busy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108
Which three statements are correct with regard to the Certificate Trust List file? (Choose three.)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. It is signed using the administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key, and role information.
D. It is created by the CTL client on the administrator workstation.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 109

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Cisco, VPN and Security

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QUESTION 176
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on source address
D. provides session state information based on destination address
E. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 177
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 179
As an alternative design in the SAFE SMR small network campus module, a small filtering router can be placed between the rest of the network and which devices?
A. Layer 2 switches
B. management stations
C. corporate users
D. routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What signature actions can be configured on an IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? Choose two.
A. UDP reassembly
B. none
C. IP log
D. total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Which of the following is not a SAFE guideline to proactively mitigate Code Red attacks?
A. host intrusion prevention system
B. network-based application recognition
C. antivirus
D. access control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections? Choose two.
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections
B. only frame relay connections
C. private WAN connections
D. ATM connections

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
How does Java applet filtering distinguish between trusted and untrusted applets?
A. examines the applet for suspicious code
B. relies on a list of applets that you designate as hostile
C. relies on a list of applets that you designate as friendly
D. relies on a list of external sites that you designate as friendly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which two are design alternatives in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module? Choose two.
A. place a URL filtering server on the public services segment
B. eliminate the router between the firewall and the campus module
C. set up a small filtering router between the management stations and the rest of the network
D. eliminate HIDS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Dumps, Download Latest CheckPoint 156-215 Exam Cost Download Online Store

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QUESTION 224
VPN routing provides a way of controlling how VPN traffic is directed. There are two methods for doing this. Which of these two methods will Route VPN traffic based on the encryption domain behind each Gateway in the community?
A. Dynamic Based VPN
B. Domain Based VPN
C. Static Based VPN
D. Route Based VPN
E. Routing Based VPN

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 225
Study the diagram and answer the question below. What rule would allow access from your local ActualTests.com network using FTP service with User Authentication as a method of authentication?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 119 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. 5
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
E. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 226
Which of the following is true regarding SmartDirectory (LDAP) Groups? Select all the correct answers.
ActualTests.com
A. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be grouped logically
B. SmartDirectory (LDAP) groups are created in order classify users within certain group types
C. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be created with SmartView Monitor GUI
D. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be grouped dynamically according to a dynamic filter
E. Once SmartDirectory (LDAP) groups are created, they can be applied in various policy rules
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 227
What will be the consequence of disabling TCP state check in the IPS tab?

ActualTests.com
A. This will boost your overall Firewall performance
B. This will disable your IPS
C. This will disable your firewall
D. This will have adverse effect on your Firewall performance
E. This will degrade your overall Firewall performance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 228
You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp’s Firewall you need to allow two NA rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the best answer
A. Yes it is possible to have the NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using manual NAT (bidirectional NAT)
B. No, it is not possible to have more one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it against the first rule in the rule base, and then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.
C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.
D. Yes it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (Bidirectional NAT)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 229
A third shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning when you arrive he tells you that he has been Receiving complaints that Internet very slow. You suspect the security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which smart console component would you use to verify this?
ActualTests.com
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Monitor
C. This information can only be viewed with fw ctl pstat command from the CLI
D. Eventia Analyzer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 230
Which of the following is NOT true for Clientless VPN?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 123 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN
B. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP
C. User Authentication is supported
D. The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 231
A rule_______ is designed to log and drop nil other communication that does not match another rule.
A. Stealth
B. Cleanup
C. Reject
D. Ann-Spoor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 232
You currently do not have a Check Point software subscription for one of your products. What will happen if you attempt to upgrade the license for this product?
A. The license will be upgraded with a warning
B. It is deleted ActualTests.com
C. It is upgraded with new available features, but cannot be activated
D. The license is not upgraded

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 233
Which could be an appropriate solution for assigning a unique office mode IP address to secure client users?
A. Configure a DHCP server with IP reservation using the information gathered by the utility vpn macutil.
B. Edit $ PWDIA/conf/SCM_ assignment. conf on the management server with the correct user name and office mode ip address
C. Create a DHCP resource with the fixed IP address to use name mapping.
D. Fixed office mode IP can be configured as a user property in smart dash board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 234
How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R71 Security Gateway?
A. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw f etchldap
B. By using the Clear User Cache button in Smart Dashboard
C. Usernames and password only clear from memory after they time out
D. By installing a Security Policy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 235
When you use the Global Properties default settings on R71. Which type of traffic will be dropped?
A. RIP traffic
B. Smart Update connections
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 236
URL Filtering Policy ran make exceptions for specific sites by being enforced?
A. Only for specific sources and destinations
B. For all traffic, except on specific sources and destinations
C. For all traffic, except blocked sites
D. For all traffic, There are no exceptions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 237
You are the Security Administrate for university The University’s FTP servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP command causes the FTP servers to malfunction Upgrading the FTP servers is not an optional this time. Where you can define blocked FTP commands passing through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. IPS > Protections > By Protocol > IPS Software Blade > Application Intelligence > FTP > FTP advanced protections>FTP Commands
B. FTP Service Object > Advanced > Blocked FTP Commands
C. Global Properties > Firewall > Security Server > Allowed FTP Commands
D. Rule Base > Service Field > Edit Properties

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 238
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
B. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through port address Translation.
C. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address
D. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 239
You plan to migrate a Windows NG with Application Intelligence (Ai) R55 SmartCener server to R71. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 pro Gateways at remote offices and one local VPN-1 pro gateway at your company’s head quarter to R71. The management server configuration must be migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. Upgrade the remote gateway via smartUpdate.
2. upgrade the security management server, using the R71 CD
B. 1. From the R71 CD-ROM on the security management server, select Upgrade
2.
Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate

3.
Reinstall all gateways using R 70 and install a policy
C. 1. Copy the $PWDIR\ conf directory from the security management server
2.
Save directory contents to another file server

3.
Uninstall the security management server, and install anew security management server

4.
Move the saved directory contents to $ PWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files

5.
Reinstall all gateways using R71 and install a security policy
D. 1. From the R71 CD- ROM in the security management server, select export
2.
Install R 70 on a new PC using the option installation using imported configuration

3.
Reboot after installation and update all licenses via smartUpdate

4.
Upgrade software on all five remote Gateway via SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 240
When john first installed the system, he forgets to configure DNS servers on the security Gateway. How could John configure DNS servers now that his security gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, than select domain name servers
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwn, than select system configuration and domain name servers.
C. Login to the smart dashboard, edit the firewall gate object, select the tab interface, than domain name servers
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select domain name servers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 241
You have an NGX R65 have gateway running on Security platform. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add CD from security Gateway R71 CD-ROM. what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only the R71 Security Gateway
B. Only the patch utility is upgraded using this command
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. Both the operating system and all Check Point products
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 242
Which of the following explanations best describes the command fw logswitch {-h taeget} {+ 1 -} {oldlog}
A. Display a remote machine’s log-file list.
B. Control Kernel
C. Display protocol Hosts
D. Create a new Log file. The old log has moved
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 243
Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Dynamic encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 244
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Domain network
B. Host network
C. Host user
D. Network, Dynamic Object

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 245
Which security servers can perform authentication task, but CANNOT perform content security tasks?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 246
Central license management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions? 1) Check for expired licenses. 2) Sort licenses and view license properties 3) Attach both R71 Central and Local licenses to a remote module 4) Delete both R71 Local licenses and Central licenses from a remote module 5) Add or remove a license to or from the license repository 6) Attach and/or delete only R71 Central licenses to a remote module (not local licenses)
A. 2.5.&6
B. 2.3.4.&5
C. L 2. 5.& 6
D. 1.2.3.4.&5

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 247
Which smear view tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a security policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network?
A. Custom filter
B. Network and Endpoint tab
C. Management Tab
D. Active tab

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 248
Identify the ports to which the Client authentication daemon listens default?
A. 256, 600
B. 80, 256
C. 8080, 529
D. 259, 900

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 249
Select the correct statement about secure internal communication (S|C) certificates, S|C certificates?
A. Increase network security by securing administrative communication with a two factor challenge response authentication.
B. Uniquely identify the machines installed with check point software only. They have the same function as RSA authentication certificates.
C. Are for security Gateways created during the security management server installation. ActualTests.com
D. Can be used for securing internal network communication between the security gateway and an OPSEC device.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 250
What is the syntax for uninstalling a package using newpkg?
A. -s (pathname of package)
B. -u (pathname of package)
C. Newpkg CANNOT be used to install
D. -i (full pathname of package)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 251

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

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QUESTION 141
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a chain of grocery stores. Each grocery store is protected by a Security Gateway. Certkiller is generating a report for the information-technology audit department. The report must include the name of the Security Policy installed on each remote Security Gateway, the date and time the Security Policy was installed, and general performance statistics (CPU Use, average CPU time, active real memory, etc.). Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use to gather this information?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartLSM
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 142
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security-Gateway from SmartDashboard
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the actrvation key Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>-.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of security Gateway>-.
E. Re-install the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
B. Policy Package management
C. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
D. cpconfig
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com’s large geographically distributed network. The internet connection at one of her remote sites failed during the weekend, and the Security Gateway logged locally for over 48 hours. Certkiller is concerned that the logs may have consumed most of the free space on the Gateway’s hard disk. Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use, to view the percent of free hard-disk space on the remote Security Gateway?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for a public relations company. Certkiller’s manager has asked her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware Required Result #2: Use configuration changes that do not reduce security Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance Proposed Solution: Certkiller recommends the following changes to the Gateway’s configuration:
1.
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

2.
Stop logging Domain Name over UDP (queries)

3.
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP. VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired result s?
A. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results
B. The solution does not meet the required results
C. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results
D. The solution meets all required and desired results
E. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 146
What is a Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and SmartDefense Policies
B. The specific Policy used by Eventia Reporter to configure log-management practices
C. The state of the Policy once installed on a Security Gateway
D. A Policy created by Eventia Reporter to generate logs
E. The collective name of the logs generated by Eventia Reporter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
To change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode, what configuration change must be made?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object Reinstall the Security Policy
B. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to reenable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig
D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster-member object
E. Switch the internal network’s default Security Gateway to the pivot machine’s IP address

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 148
Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A. fw stat
B. fw ver
C. fw cog
D. fw print
E. fw ctl
F. fw printlic
G. fw ctl pstat

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
When logging into SmartDashboard for the second time, what information is no longer requested?
A. User Name
B. Password
C. Finger verification
D. SmartCenter Server IP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
B. Place a static route on the router from the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Place a static route on the router from the valid IP address to the internal web server.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the router from the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 151
When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX?
A. Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B. User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C. Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D. User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 152
Your current security scenario gives you the option to choose between a stand-alone installation or a
distributed installation.
Which of the following factors would cause you to decide in favour of the stand-alone installation?

A. You are required to use Clientless VPN.
B. You are required to use Windows as operating system.
C. You are required to install HFA’s on the Security Gateway via SmartUpdate.
D. You are required to use few hardware resources as possible.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 153
You are a Security Administrator configuring Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box “Translate destination on client side”, accessed from Global Properties > NAT settings > Automatic NAT. Assuming all other Global Properties NAT settings are selected, what else must be configured for automatic Static NAT to work?
A. The NAT IP address must be added to the anti-spoofing group of the internal Gateway interface
B. Two address-translation rules in the Rule Base
C. No extra configuring needed
D. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway’s external interface
E. A dynamic route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway’s internal interface

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 154
You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows: Source: Any Destination: web_public_IP Service: Any Translated Source: original Translated Destination: web_private_IP Service: original “web_public_IP” is the node object that represents the public IP address of the new Web server. “web_private_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web site’s private IP address. You enable all settings from the Global Properties > NAT. When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error “page cannot be displayed”. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
B. There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server.
C. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of the Web server.
D. There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings “Merge Manual proxy ARP” and “Automatic APR configuration” are enabled in Global Properties. The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 155
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. may be used for securing internal network communications between the Security Gateway and an OPSEC device.
B. for the SmartView Tracker are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
C. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
D. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 156
What settings in the “Track” field of your rules would you use to configure what types of information are
sent to Dshield.org?
Depending on how:

A. the Logs and Masters settings for the SmartCenter Server object, rules with tracking set to Log or None.
B. SmartDefense > DShield Storm Center is configured, rules with tracking set to Alerts or User Defined Alerts.
C. Web Intelligence > Information Disclosure is configured, rules with tracking set to User Defined Alerts or SNMP trap.
D. The Global Properties is configured, in the Log and Alerts section, rules with tracking set to Account or SNMP trap.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 157
VPN-1 NGX uses ____________ to retrieve the Interface Name, IP Address, and Network Mask when an administrator clicks the GET button in the Interfaces tab of an Externally Managed VPN Gateway object.
A. URI
B. Ioctl
C. SNMP
D. Control Connection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Certkiller .com has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server working as
SmartConsole and a second server running SPLAT working as both SmartCenter server and the Security
Gateway.
This is an example of:

A. Hybrid Installation
B. StandAlone Installation
C. Unsupported Configuration
D. Distribution Installation
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 171
During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time verification?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 172
What’s the difference between the SmartView Tracker Tool section in R71 and NGX R65?
A. Tools section in R71 is exactly the same as the tools section in R65
B. Using R71. You can choose a program to view captured packets.
C. Enable Warning Dialogs option is not available in R71
D. R71 adds a new option to send ICMP packets to the source/destination address of the log event

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 173
Your organization has many Edge Gateways at various branch offices allowing users to access company resources. For security reasons, your organization’s Security Policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the Edge Gateways first be inspected by your headquarters’ R71 Security Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
ActualTests.com
A. To Internet and other targets only
B. To center or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
C. To center and other satellites, through center
D. To center only

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 174
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy > Policy Installation > Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 175
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?

ActualTests.com
A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source 01 Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 176
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 71 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 177
What information is provided from the options in this screenshot?

ActualTests.com (i)Whether a SIC certificate was generated for the Gateway (ii)Whether the operating system is SecurePlatform or SecurePlatform Pro (iii)Whether this is a standalone or distributed installation
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 178
Which type of R71 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A. FTP Security Server
B. SMTP Security Server
C. HTTP Security Server
D. HTTPS Security Server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 179
Which of the following is true regarding configuration of clustering nodes?
A. Cluster nodes do not have to run exactly the same version of CheckPoint package
B. Each node must have exactly the same set of packages as all the other nodes
C. Each cluster node must run exactly the same version of R71
D. You must enable state synchronization
E. You must install R71 as an enforcement module (only) on each node

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 180
Using the Backup and Restore operation on R71, it is possible to: A. Link the all cluster members for failover
B. Upgrade the SmartDashboard
C. Maintain a backup of the SmartCenter Management Server to be used in case of failover
D. Replace the original SmartCenter Management Server with another clone SmartCenter Management Server, while the original is being serviced
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter Management Server

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 181
What directory in R71 contains all of the Rule Bases, objects, and the user database files?

A. $FWDIR/bin directory
B. Winnt/Config directory
C. $FWDIR/etc directory
D. $FWDIR/conf directory
E. $FWDIR/bin/etc directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 182
Platforms IP290, IP390 and IP560 are flash-based, diskless platforms. And what do you have to do prior to upgrading their images to R71?
A. Backup old images ActualTests.com
B. Do nothing
C. Delete old images
D. Backup their images
E. Restore old images

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 183
You have not performed software upgrade to NGX R71. You have upgraded your license and every time you try to run commands such as cplic print; cpstop, you receive all sort of errors. In
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam order to resolve this you will have to:
A. Remove the software
B. Do nothing. The error will go away with time
C. Remove the upgraded license
D. Upgrade the software to version NGX
E. Re-upgrade the license to the version before the upgrade
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 184
What two conditions must be met when you are manually adding CheckPoint appliances to an existing cluster?
A. You must configure interfaces with IP addresses in each of the networks the cluster will connect to
B. R71 is not running on the system you are adding
C. The IP address should be the real IP address of a cluster interface
D. R71 is running on the system you are adding
E. The existing nodes must be running R71 and firewall monitoring is enabled on them

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 185
ActualTests.com
When carrying out a backup operation on R71, you will have to backup which of the following files?

A. $FWDIR/conf/objects_5_0.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/rule.fws
C. $FWDIR/database/fwauth.NDB*
D. $FWDIR/conf/rulebases_5_0.fws
E. $FWDIR/database/control.map

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 186
Which tool will you use prior to installation to reduce the risk of incompatibility with the deployment to R71?
A. Compatibility Tool
B. cpconfig
C. Post-Upgrade Verification Tool
D. Pre-Upgrade Verification Tool
E. cpinfo

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 187
In the RuleBase, which element determines what Firewall should do with a packet?
A. Destination
B. Source
C. Action
D. No
E. Service

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 188
To distribute or upgrade a package, you must first add it to the Package Repository. You can add packages to the Package Repository from which of the following three locations?
A. User Center
B. Certificate Key
C. Check Point CD
D. Download Center
E. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 189
How will you install a rule base? Choose the best answer.
A. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose install from File menu
B. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from Policy menu
C. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose Install from View menu
D. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from View menu
E. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose Install from Policy menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 190
How would you disable a rule?

ActualTests.com
A. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Topology menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
B. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in SmartView Tracker
C. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
D. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from File menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
E. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in SmartView Status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Which of the options below best describes the difference between the Drop action and Reject action? ( assume TCP is specified in the service column of your rulebase)
A. Drop action is the same as Reject action
B. With Drop action, the sender is not notified but with Reject action, the user is notified
C. Reject action is the same as Drop action
D. With Drop action, the sender is authenticated but with Reject action, the user is not authenticated
E. With Drop action, the sender is notified but with Reject action, the user is not Notified

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
Your company has headquarters in two countries: Toronto (Canada) and Washington (USA). Each headquarter has a number of branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarter in their country, not with each other i.e. no branch office should communicate with another branch office.
ActualTests.com

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. You need to define two stars and a mesh
B. You need to define a star and two meshes
C. You need to define two stars and two mesh
D. You need to define three stars and two meshes
E. You need to define a star and a mesh

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 193
The negotiation prior to the establishment of a VPN tunnel might result in the production of large packets. Some NAT devices may not fragment large packets correctly making the connection impossible. Which of the following is true as to the resolving this issue?
A. IKE over TCP can be used to solve the problem, though this problem is resolved during IKE phase 2
B. If using NAT-T, you can use Aggressive Mode
C. UDP Encapsulation method uses port number 2746 to resolve this problem
D. If using NAT-T, port 4500 must be enabled
E. IKE over TCP can be used to solve the problem, though this problem is resolved during IKE phase I

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 194
ActualTests.com
How can you delete an automatic NAT rule? See the diagram if you choose wrong answer.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 79
Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. By highlighting the rule, click on Rules menu and select delete
B. By highlighting the rule and hit Delete button on your keyboard
C. By highlighting the rule, right-click and select Delete option from the emerging menu
D. By highlighting the rule, click on Edit menu and select delete
E. By modifying the object’s configuration

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 195
The SmartUpdate command line “cprinstall get” will:
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“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 95 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. Install Check Point products on remote Check Point gateways
B. Verify if a specific product can be installed on the remote Check Point gateway
C. Obtain details of the products and the Operating System installed on the specified Check Point gateway, and to update the database
D. Verify that the Operating System and currently installed products are appropriate for the package
E. Delete Check Point products on remote Check Point gateways

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 196
ActualTests.com
You ran a certain SmartUpdate command line in order to find out the location of the product repository, and the result was “Current repository root is set to : /var/suroot/”. What is the command likely to be?
A. cppkg delete
B. cppkg getroot
C. cppkg setroot
D. cppkg add
E. cppkg print

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
You use the cplic db_rm command to remove a license from the license repository on the Security Management server and receive an error message stating that only detached licenses can be removed. How will you go about this in order to get license removed?
A. Go to License Tree in the SmartView Monitor, highlight the license to be removed and then detach it, then re- run cplic db_rm command
B. Run cplic db_rm twice to solve the problem
C. Manually detach the license by using the control panel and the re-run the cplic db_rm command
D. Go to License Tree in the SmartDashboard, highlight the license to be removed and then detach it, then re- run cplic db_rm command
E. Firstly, use cplic del command to detach the license then re-run the cplic db_rm Command

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 198
What is the difference between the commands cplic db_print and cplic print?
A. cplic print will print licenses on local machine and cplic db_print will display details of licenses in repository on the Security Management server
B. Both commands do the same job
C. cplic db_print will print licenses on local machine and cplic print will display details of licenses in ActualTests.com repository on the Security Gateway
D. cplic print will print licenses on local machine and cplic db_print will print details of licenses in repository on any components
E. cplic db_print will display licenses on local machine and cplic print will display details of licenses in repository on the SmartConsole
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 199
The SmartUpdate command line ” cprinstall transfer” will:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 97 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. Transfers a package from the repository to a Check Point Security Gateway without installing the package
B. Verify that the Operating System and currently installed products are appropriate for the package
C. Transfers a package from the repository to a Check Point Security Gateway and install the package
D. Obtain details of the products and the Operating System installed on the specified Check Point gateway, and to update the database
E. Verify if a specific product can be installed on the remote Check Point gateway
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 200
What command prints the details of the Check Point licenses?
A. Pkgadd -d
B. Setup
C. Print
D. fw print
E. cplic print

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 201
ActualTests.com What will the command “d:\winnt\fw1\ng\bin] cppkg add C:\CPsuite-R71” achieve? Where d:\winnt\fw1\ng\bin is package-full-path?
A. It will purge a product package to the product repository
B. It will kill a product package to the product repository
C. It will add a product package to the product repository
D. It will print a product package to the product repository
E. It will delete a product package to the product repository

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 202
Anti-Spam status is monitored using which of the following tool?
A. Cpconfig
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Eventia Reporter
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 203
User Monitor details window is shown in the diagram 1 of the SmartView Monitor. Which of the following information you would not get in the window?

ActualTests.com
A. Internal IP
B. User DN
C. VPN Tunnel
D. Security Gateway
E. Connect Time

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 204
The rule below shows the Encrypt rule in a Traditional Mode Rule Base. What is likely to be Simplified Mode equivalent if the if the connections originates at X and its destination is Y, within any Site-to-Site Community (i.e. All_GW _to_GW).

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 100 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. Rule C
B. Rule E
C. Rule A
D. Rule B
E. Rule D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 205
SmartDirectory (LDAP) new features include which of the following? Select the all correct answers.
A. The use of authentication algorithm
B. Support of Multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) Vendors using Profiles
C. Support of multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers
D. High Availability
E. The use of encrypted or non-encrypted SmartDirectory (LDAP) Connections
Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 206
You are configuring IPS, Denial of Service – Teardrop section. Which of the following is true of Teardrop?

A. A denial of service vulnerability has been reported in the Linux Kernel. The vulnerability is due to an error in the Linux Kernel IPv6 over IPv4 tunneling driverthat fails to properly handle crafted network packets. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability ActualTests.com
B. Some implementations of TCP/IP contain fragmentation re-assembly code that does not properly handle overlapping IP fragments. Sending two IP fragments, the latter entirely contained inside the former, causes the server to allocate too much memory and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
C. JPEG is a very popular image file format. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability Specially crafted JPEG files may be used to create a DoS condition and in some cases, arbitrary code execution
D. Some implementations of TCP/IP are vulnerable to packets that are crafted in a particular way (a SYN packet in which the source address and port are the same as the destination, i.e., spoofed). Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
E. The attacker sends a fragmented PING request that exceeds the maximum IP packet size (64KB). Some operating systems are unable to handle such requests and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 207
Which of the following command will you use to export users from the NGX user database?
A. fwm dbexports
B. fw export
C. fwm export
D. fw dbexport
E. fwm dbexport

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 208
The diagrams show your network and the encrypt rule. If the source and destination are inside the VPN
Domain of the same gateway i.e. Source X is in Net_A and Destination Y is in Net_B. The connection
originates at X and reaches the gateway, which forwards the response back to Y.
Which of the following is true?

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 103 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will be authenticated
B. The gateway 1 will need authentication
C. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will not be encrypted ActualTests.com
D. The gateway 1 will drops the connection from Net_A to Net_B
E. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will be encrypted

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 209
The main drawback to tunneling-mode encryption is:
A. The security of the packet size
B. The decrease in the packet size
C. The increase in the packet size D. The de-cryption of the packet size
E. The quickness of the packet size

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 210
259 or connect via HTTP at If SecureClient cannot download a new policy from any Policy Server, it will try again after a fixed interval. If the fixed interval is set to default, then the default time is:
A. 8 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes
E. 10 minutes ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 211
Which of the following Security servers can perform authentication tasks but will not be able perform content security tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 212
Which of the following commands would you use to clear an IP- to- physical address translation table when using SecurePlatform?
A. hosts
B. arp
C. ipconfig
D. traceroute
E. vconfig ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 213
You are in SecurePlatform and want to configure a new virtual LAN. If the name of NIC card that host is 3C579 and the Vlan identifier is 10, what command would you use to achieve this? Note: If wrong answer
(s)
is/are chosen, see the diagram for correct answer(s) and explanation.

A.
vconfig [interface-name] [vlan_id]

B.
vconfig add 3C579 10

C.
vconfigure add [3C579] [10]

D.
config add 3C579 10

E.
config add [3C579] [10]

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 214
What command will you use to configure network interfaces settings?
A. configure
B. config
C. ipconfig
D. arp
E. ifconfig

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 215
A user was initiating client authentication session by beginning a TELNET session on port 900. What do you think might be wrong?
ActualTests.com
A. Nothing is wrong.
B. The authentication type should be changed to session authentication.
C. The user was TELNET- ing at wrong port. The user should use port 295.
D. The user was TELNET- ing at the wrong port. The user should use port 259.
E. The authentication type should be changed to user authentication.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 216
Study the diagram and answer the question below. What type of client GUI is shown in the
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 114 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam diagram?

A. Rule Base GUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Security Status GUI
D. Security SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 217
SmartUpdate is the primary tool used for upgrading Check Point gateways. When upgrading your gateway, what feature will you choose if want to upgrade all packages installed on your gateway?
ActualTests.com
A. Minimal Effort Upgrade
B. Add Package to Repository
C. Upgrading the Gateway
D. Upgrade All Packages
E. Zero Effort

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 218
The allowed Sources in the Location tab of the User Properties window specify that the user to
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 115 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam whom a User Authentication rule is being applied is not allowed access from the source address, while the rule itself allows access. To resolve this conflict, you will have to:

A. Create an administrator account in place of the user account
B. Install your rule base
C. Re-create the user object
D. Select Allowed Destinations field in the Network Object Properties
E. Configure User Authentication Action Properties screen

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 219
What services are supported by client authentication?
A. All services
B. FTP
C. RLOGIN D. HTTP and FTP
E. TELNET, HTTP and FTP
F. HTTPS, HTTP and FTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 220
In what situation will you consider and deploy policy management conventions?
A. No available answer
B. In some situations
C. In some rear situations
D. In all situations
E. Not in any situation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 221
On the Anti-Spam & Mail tab of the SmartDashboard, you can configure which of the following:

ActualTests.com
A. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Virus checking
B. Enable automatic updates
C. View settings and logs
D. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Spam protection
E. View alerts

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 222
Which of the following is true of Symmetric Encryption?
A. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use different keys for encryption and decryption
B. The material used to build these keys must be exchanged in a secure manner
C. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use the same key for encryption and decryption
D. The material used to build these keys does not have to be exchanged in a secure manner
E. Information can be securely exchanged only if the key belongs exclusively to the communicating parties

Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 126
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an PowerBookG4 (17-inch
1.5 GHz). Which of the following is the most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Replace the Display the Assembly inside the PowerBook.
D. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a hardware-related problem?
A. No video at startup
B. Error beep at startup
C. Distorted video at startup
D. Blinking question mark at startup

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
You are troubleshooting a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) that shuts down intermittently. Rank the following possible causes from FIRST to LAST, in the order you should check for them: <1> Faulty DC-In Board <2> Faulty Logic Board <3> Blowers faulty or blower cables disconnected <4> Faulty battery or battery connector <5> Missing feet on bottom case
A. 1,3,4,5,2
B. 2,1,4,3,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 4,3,5,1,2
E. 5,1,2,4,3

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
A customer’s PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz) is freezing intermittently. Which of the following steps should you try FIRST to identify the problem?
A. Try quick fixes.
B. Repair the PowerBook.
C. Perform a split-half search.
D. Run appropriate diagnostics
E. Escalate the problem to Apple.
F. Gather information about the problem.

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 130
A PowerBook G4 has no video, but power on with a normal startup chime, and normal startup sounds from the hard drive. Which of the following steps should you try next?
A. Update the PowerBook G4’s firmware.
B. Replace the PowerBook G4 logic board.
C. Replace the PowerBook G4 LCD display.
D. Connect a known-good external display.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 131
Which of the following are true statements about screws inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. All screws are interchangeable.
B. It is not necessary to replace all screws after a repair.
C. Screws should always be only comfortably tightened.
D. Screws should always be tightened as much as possible.
E. Screws should always be replaced exactly where they came from.
F. Torx and hex (Allen) screws can both be driven by either type of driver.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 132
What tool does the service manual recommend you use to separate plastics and lift components of PowerBook and iBook computers?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Jeweler screwdriver
C. Flatblade screwdriver
D. Precision needle nose pliers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 133
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to _______.
A. boot the system into Mac OS 9
B. boot the system into Mac OS X
C. boot the system into Open firmware diagnostics
D. hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of _______
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 136
Which of the following components routes power between the AC adapter, main battery, and all other main modules inside an iBook (Dual USB)?
A. PMU
B. DC board
C. Logic Board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 137
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by ______.
A. visually inspecting them for damage
B. replacing them with known-good parts in any order
C. adding more known-good parts in a specified order
D. replacing them with known-good parts in a specified order

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
How often should you calibrate a PowerBook G4, s Lithium Ion battery?
A. Never
B. Just once when you first use the PowerBook
C. Whenever the PowerBook is forced in to sleep mode
D. When you first use the PowerBook and then every couple of months thereafter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139
What does recalibrating a Lithium Ion battery inside a PowerBook or iBook actually do?
A. Reconditions the battery to overcome the memory effect.
B. Keeps the onscreen battery time and percent display accurate.
C. Extends the, number of full discharge cycles available in battery.
D. Readjusts the Energy Saver preferences to the battery’ s performance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 140
If you need to store a PowerBook or iBook battery without using it for a few weeks or more, at what change level does Apple recommend you store the battery?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 50%

D. 100%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 141
What is the proper way to calibrate a lithium Ion battery used in a PowerBook G4 or iBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the battery calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box, on further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery fully. Run computer on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.
D. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
Which of the following steps are recommended to maximize battery life in a PowerBook G4? (choose all that apply)
A. Reduce brightness settings
B. Turn AirPort card off if installed
C. Disconnect any bus-powered USB peripherals
D. Remove any PC (PCMCIA) card from the pc card expansion slot.
E. Choose ‘Highest performance’ in the Energy Saver System preferences

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 143
Which THREE of the following have an effect on the lifespan of Lithium Ion batteries used in PowerBooks and iBook?
A. Memory effect
B. Humidity extremes
C. Energy Saver settings
D. Temperature extremes
E. Number of discharge cycles

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 144
Which THREE of the following actions can put a PowerBook to sleep?
A. Close the PowerBook lid.
B. Press Command-Option-S.
C. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
D. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
E. Select Sleep in the Energy Saver pane of System Preferences.
F. Press the Power button and select Sleep from the dialog box.

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 145
An iBook G4 is running from the AC adapter, and has a battery installed which is charging. Which TWO of the following are valid visual cues indicating when the battery is fully charged?
A. The iBook backlight will return to full intensity.
B. All lights on the battery will illuminate when the button on the battery is pressed.
C. The sleep light will blink three times, indicating that the iBook is no longer charging.
D. The lighted ring on the power adapter connector will change from amber to green.
E. The sleep light will solidly illuminate, indicating that the iBook can be power on or awakened from sleep.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 146
Identify the correct procedure to reset the Power Manager on a PowerBook G4 (12-inch)?
A. Press the PMU Reset button on the main logic board.
B. Shut the computer down and press the reset button for 10 to 15 seconds.
C. Shut the computer down and press Shift-Control-Option-Power on the keyboard.
D. Remove the AC power adapter and battery, and let the computer sit for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 147
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’ s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook, s security features have been activated.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 148
What function does a PMU reset perform?
A. Recalibrates the main battery
B. Starts the battery charging cycle over
C. Returns the hardware to default settings
D. Removes all user preferences related to power

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 149
Where is the PMU reset button for the PowerBook G4 (DVI) located?
A. Behind the I/O panel between the modem and the S-video port
B. On the upper right side of the logic board near the power button
C. The button has been removed. Holding down Command-Shift-Fn-control resets the PMU.
D. The button has been removed. Holding down the power ,button for several seconds resets the PMU.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 151
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 152
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 154
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5GHz)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter
Correct Answer: C

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-600 Preparation Materials, Money Back Guarantee 3Com 3M0-600 Exam Questions Sale

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QUESTION 142
Why should you use PortFast on the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller?
A. It enables Jumbo Frames on the port, providing higher data throughput on the link
B. It configures all the ports for 1,000 Mbps full duplex, providing maximum throughput
C. It immediately puts a port into the STP forwarding state, preventing an application from possibly timing out
D. Like Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), PortFast provides faster convergence for wireless devices when a bridge port goes up or down on the networ

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 143
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Each WX must have a system IP address
B. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
C. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
D. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
E. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 144
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 145
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com wireless component with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 146
Click the Task button.
Match each Wireless LAN Mobility term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 147
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 148
Which IP route service can be configured on 3Com Wireless Switch/Controller (WXs)?
A. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
B. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
C. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
D. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 151
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Site survey
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Network discovery
D. Facility walk-through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 152
Which three are concerns facing companies deploying Voice Wi-Fi (VoWi-Fi) network solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Low level of security
B. Quality of Service (QoS)
C. Multi-building campus environments
D. Roaming from access point (AP) to AP
E. Bandwidth capacity of access points (APs)

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 153
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) model to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 155
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Outdoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Weatherproof enclosure
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Built-in 18dBi directional antenna
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 157
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Fresnel zone obstructions
B. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 158
Which 3Com Web Configuration Management System Advanced Settings software screen allows the network administrator to configure the authentication, encryption and key management parameters for an access point (AP)?
A. WEP settings
B. Wi-Fi settings
C. Radio settings
D. Security settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 159
What is the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager?
A. Configure, deploy and manage any wireless product
B. Configure, deploy and manage any 3Com wireless product
C. Configure, deploy and manage 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility Systems, i.e., Wireless LAN Controller WX4400

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 160
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
B. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
D. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 161
Which command in Windows XP would you use to begin the setup process for a wireless NIC?
A. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Load
B. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Install
C. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Configure
D. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 162
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
Correct Answer: B

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Free Dumps, Latest Updated CheckPoint 156-215 Exam Collection With Accurate Answers

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UESTION 111
When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A. Create a Suspicious Activity rule in SmartView Tracker.
B. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
C. Create an “FW SAM” rule in SmartView Monitor.
D. Select “block intruder” from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
Your internal network is using 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter NGX VPN-1 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?
A. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use manual Static NAT on the client side for network 10.1.1.0/24
D. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
E. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
Which of these changes to a Security Policy optimizes Security Gateway performance?
A. Using domain objects in rules when possible
B. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
C. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
D. Logging rules as much as possible
E. Removing old or unused Security Policies from Policy Packages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
Nelson is a consultant. He is at a customer’s site reviewing configuration and logs as a part of a security audit. Nelson sees logs accepting POP3 traffic, but he does not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause? The POP3:
A. service is a VPN-1 Control Connection.
B. rule is hidden.
C. service is accepted in Global Properties.
D. service cannot be controlled by NGX.
E. rule is disabled.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Open the Rule Menu, and select Hide and View hidden rules. Select the rule, right-click, and select Disable.
B. Uninstall the Security Policy, and the disable the rule.
C. When a rule is hidden, it is automatically disabled. You do not need to disable the rule again.
D. Run cpstop and cpstart on the SmartCenter Server, then disable the rule.
E. Clear Hide from Rules drop-down menu, then right-click and select “Disable Rule(s)”.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 116
Certkiller is the IT auditor for a bank. One of her responsibilities is reviewing the Security Administrators activity and comparing it to the change log. Which application should Certkiller use to view Security Administrator activity?
A. NGX cannot display Security Administrator activity
B. SmartView Tracker in Real-Time Mode
C. SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
D. SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
E. SmartView Tracker in Activity Mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Andrea has created a new gateway object that she will be managing at a remote location. She attempts to install the Security Policy to the new gateway object, but the object does not appear in the “install on” box. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Andrea has created the object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Edge Embedded Gateway”
B. Andrea created the gateway object using the “New Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway” option from the Network Objects dialog box.
C. Andrea has not configured anti-spoofing on the interfaces on the gateway object.
D. Andrea has not configure Secure Internal Communications (SIC) for the oject.
E. Andrea created the Object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Pro/Express Security Gateway” option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com. Jack Bill’s manager has asked
her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller
must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results:
Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware. Required Result #2: Use configuration changes the
do not reduce security. Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base.
Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs.
Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance.
Proposed solution:

*
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

*
Check “Log implied rules” and “Accept ICMP requests” in Global Properties.

*
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP, VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired results?

A.
The solution meets all required and desired results.

B.
The solution meets all required, and one of the desired results.

C.
The solution meets all required, and two of the desired results.

D.
The solution meets all required, and none of the desired results.

E.
The solution does not meet the required results.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object “internal-networks” include networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume “Accept ICMP requests” is enabled as before last in the Global Properties.

Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet, by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule
C. accepted by rule 1
D. dropped by the last implicit rule
E. accepted by the implicit rule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
What does schema checking do?
A. Authenticates users attempting to access resources protected by an NGX Security Gateway.
B. Verifies that every object class, and its associated attributes, is defined in the directory schema.
C. Maps LDAP objects to objects in the NGX objects_5_0.c files.
D. Verifies the Certificate Revocation List for Certificate Validity.
E. Provides topology downloads for SecuRemote and SecureClient users authenticated by an LDAP

server. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Certkiller is about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an NGX newsgroup. Which backup and restore solution should Certkiller use, to ensure she can most easily restore her Security Policy to its previous configuration, after testing the changes?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. Upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. Policy Package management
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 122
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 123
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit.

After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site
the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user?
The….

A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username nad password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 125
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia’s requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgrade_export command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member:

Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway’s status, including CPU use, amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 133
Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Secure lnternal Cornrnunicalions(SIC)
B. VPN tunneling
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. NGX connectivity
E. VPN Load Balancing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
Which operating system is not supported byVPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPS0 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 7 0
E. MacOS X

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which Check Point QoS feature issued to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queueing
E. Low Latency Queueinq

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
You are running a VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R54 SecurePlatform VPN-1 Pro Gateway. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add cd from the NGX CD, what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway
B. Both the operating system (OS) and all Check Point products
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. On~ the patch utility is upgraded using this command
E. Only the OS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 139
Amanda is compiling traffic statistics for Certkiller .com’s Internet activity during production hours. How could she use SmartView Monitor to find this information? By
A. using the “Traffic Counters” settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day
B. -monitoring each specific user’s Web traffic use.
C. Viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
D. selecting the “Tunnels” view, and generating a report on the statistics
E. configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a software-development company. To isolate the corporate network from the developer’s network, Certkiller installs an internal Security Gateway. Jack wants to optimize the performance of this Gateway. Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway’s performance?
A. Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages
B. Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules
C. Use groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base
E. Use domain objects in rules, where possible

Correct Answer: D

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