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QUESTION 86
You have created an image map in Adobe ImageReady. When the user click on the link in their browser, you want the link to display in a new window. Which option in the Image Map palette should you choose from the Target Pull-down menu?
A. _top
B. _self
C. _blank
D. _parent

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Exhibit:

You have selected the shape tool, and want to draw a shape as a raster image. Which icon (designated by the red arrows) in the options bar should you select?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
You must commit changes to a type layer before you can perform other operations. Which keyboard stroke commits you changes.
A. pressing Shigt+Enter
B. pressing the Enter key
C. pressing the Enter key on the numeric keypad
D. pressing Option+Enter (Mac OS) or ALT+Enter (Windows)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Which two file formats support annotations? (Choose two.)
A. TIF
B. PSD
C. EPS
D. PDF

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 90
Which tool should you use to reposition a point on an existing path?
A. pen
B. move
C. direct-selection
D. path component selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
You have created point type consisting of one word. You want the first character to be lower than the other characters in the word. After selecting the first character, what should you do?
A. increase the value for leading
B. increase the value for leading
C. enter a positive value for baseline shift
D. enter a negative value for baseline shift

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
You want to modify the lossiness setting to vary the compression of different areas on a Web graphic. What must be created before you can apply the settings?
A. a matte
B. a layer mask
C. a clipping path
D. an alpha channel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
Which aspect of paragraph type do the Every-line composer and single-line composer control?
A. leading
B. font size
C. breakpoints
D. character height

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
Which varies JPEG quality settings across a selected slice?
A. a matte
B. an ICC profile
C. an image map
D. an alpha channel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You have created a simple graphic with flat color and type that will be used on a Web site.
Which file format should you use to save the documents?
A. TIF
B. GIF
C. EPS
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
You use the pen tool to create a new shape layer. You want to export the path you created so you can use it in a drawing program. What should you do?
A. choose Save Path form the Paths palette menu.
B. choose Clipping Path from the Paths palette menu.
C. select the shape layer and choose File>Export>Paths to Illustrator
D. select the background layer and choose File>Export>Paths to Illustrator

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
You have created a multichannel file with two spot color channels. There are no other channels inn the file. Which file format should you use when saving the file?
A. OBG
B. TIFF
C. JPEG
D. Adobe Photoshop DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
You have created a banner for your Web page that includes fully transparent areas. Which two file formats preserve transparency when you save the file? (Choose two.)
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. EPS
D. PND
E. BMD

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 100
You make a selection by using the rectangular marquee. How do you modify the selection marquee without effecting the image?
A. choose Edit>Free Transform
B. choose Select>Transform Selection
C. choose Filter>Distort and select an option
D. choose Edit>Transform and select and option

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 101
You want to save an image with file size compression but NO loss in image quality. Which file format should you select?
A. TUFF
B. JPEG
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshop DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
You want a color correction to be applied to images as their data is sent to a printer. Which option on the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box should you use?
A. Bleed
B. Screen
C. Transfer
D. Background

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You have created a quadtone image and need to print separations. It is important that the screen angle of each color is _______.
A. 53 lpi
B. different
C. the same
D. diamond shaped

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
You have created a Photoshop document that contains two spot channels. You need to place the graphic din a page layout application. Which file format should you use to save the document?
A. PNG
B. Scitex CT
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshoe DCS 2.0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
Which option is available when you save file in EPS format?
A. Matte
B. Transparency
C. Baseline Optimized
D. Include Halftone Screen
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
For duotone images, what has an impact to how the color in the image will appear in print?
A. the order in which the colors are printed.
B. the order in which the layer in file were created.
C. the Preview selected in the Save As DCS 2.0 dialog box.
D. the amount of bleed specified in the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
With which format can you save a document and maintain all alpha channels and layers?
A. EPS
B. PNG
C. PDF
D. BMP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which three file format allow you to save layer information in the File? (Choose three.)
A. PSD
B. PDF
C. EPS
D. JPEG
E. TIFF

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 109
Which option is available when saving an image as Photoshop EPS?
A. Interlaced
B. Matte Color
C. LZW Compression
D. Include Halftone Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
You are printing a 72 ppi image and choose to scale the image to 50% in the Print Options dialog box. To which resolution will the image be printed?
A. 36 ppi
B. 72 ppi
C. 144 ppi
D. 360 ppi

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
On PostScript Level 2 or higher printers that have interpolation capability, what occurs when you select Interpolation in the Print Options dialog box?
A. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
B. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled down.
C. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
D. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled down.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
Exhibit: You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)

A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 114
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115

What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
Exhibit:

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 117
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 118
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 170
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 171
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 173
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C

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