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QUESTION 35
. Which THREE of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no power’ condition? SELECT THREE
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You cannot connect to the Internet.
C. You do not hear any fan or drive noise.
D. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.
E. The power button or power indicator does not light up at all.

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 36
. Which TWO of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no video’ condition? SELECT TWO
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You may hear fan or drive noise.
C. You cannot connect to the Internet.
D. The power button or power indicator lights up.
E. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 37
.
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?

A. No video on display
B. Single beep at startup
C. No Internet connectivity
D. iPhoto quits when launched

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
.
To isolate a video problem as hardware or software on a Mac, which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Replace the built-in display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup volume.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
.
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that _____. SELECT THREE
A. third-party software is working
B. the original issue has been resolved
C. the computer falls under service warranty
D. the computer will continue to function after the repair
E. no new problems have been introduced during the repair

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 40
.
ESD causes damage to circuits by ________.
A. slowing the circuit down
B. blasting a hole in the circuit
C. cooling the circuit too quickly
D. increasing the circuit’s clock speed

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
.
You are preparing to service a MacBook. To reduce the risk of damage from ESD, you clear the area of plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene, and have static-shielding storage bags available for ESD- sensitive components. While you are working you should also remember to ________________ and _______________. SELECT TWO
A. ground yourself and the equipment you are working on
B. always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces
C. discharge the display to protect the other ESD-sensitive components
D. handle any ESD-sensitive components by the connectors, rather than by the edges
E. ask other technicians to avoid touching you when you are working on ESD-sensitive components

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 42
.
Before you leave your bench to take a logic board to a storage place, you should put the board _____.
A. on top of an ESD shielding bag
B. inside an ESD shielding bag
C. inside a cardboard box
D. on a metal table
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
.
You want to follow ESD prevention rules, but your work area is too small for you to be tethered with a wired wrist strap. What is one acceptable alternative solution to this issue?
A. Use a wireless wrist strap.
B. Use a grounded ESD heel strap.
C. Do not practice ESD prevention.
D. Work on the floor instead of a table.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
.
A computer service technician says “I don’t use ESD precautions and have never had a problem.” What (if anything) is wrong with this statement?
A. Nothing is wrong with this statement.
B. ESD damage may not appear immediately.
C. ESD happens only to inexperienced technicians.
D. ESD damage is really not as bad as everyone thinks.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
. Which THREE of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? SELECT THREE
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Wireless wrist strap
F. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDF QUESTION 46
.
You should periodically _____ your ESD mats.

A. clean
B. replace
C. turn over
D. disconnect

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
.
Which of the following is NOT a good step to take when working onsite on a computer?

A. Place parts on the floor.
B. Use a grounded ESD mat.
C. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.
D. Check the polarity of the grounded power outlet.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
.
When you work at a customer site, you do not need to take any precautions to avoid ESD damage.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
.
You are replacing a logic board in a Mac Pro. You should handle the board by its _____.
A. edges
B. heat sinks
C. connectors
D. components

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
.
Which part or parts of a CRT display should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Yoke assembly
B. Anode aperture
C. High voltage cable
D. Front of CRT display
E. Flyback transformer
F. Outer plastic housing

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 51
.
Which THREE of the following are valid CRT safety rules? SELECT THREE
A. Touch the computer’s metal chassis.
B. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.
C. Connect the AC power cord.
D. Remove any metal jewelry.
E. Wear safety goggles.
F. Don’t work alone.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 52
.
Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO
A. CRT displays may leak cooling fluid.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 53
.
Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when you begin working inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2010)?
A. Reset the SMC.
B. Remove the hard drive.
C. Disconnect the optical drive.
D. Disconnect the main battery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
.
Which safety issue applies to newer Apple portable models?

A. Fragile bottom case
B. High voltage display
C. Heavy internal frame
D. Soft battery enclosure
E. Sharp logic board edges

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
.
Which safety issue applies to the iMac (Mid 2010)?

A. Liquid coolant spillage
B. Thermal grease toxicity
C. High voltage CRT discharge
D. Fragile glass panel breakage

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
.
You are removing the main battery from a MacBook Pro (17-inch, Early 2009). Which of the following is a best practice when handling this battery?
A. Handle the battery with one hand, pressing between the soft side and the hard side.
B. Re-cover any punctures or tears in the soft mylar covering with Kapton tape.
C. Handle the battery any way; it does not matter.
D. Hold the battery carefully by its edges only.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
.
When discharging a CRT, what part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?

A. Anode aperture
B. High voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. Yoke connector/cable

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
.
What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?

A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
.
Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
.
Which of the following is NOT a valid power saving technique in recent Mac computers?

A. Disconnect all peripherals.
B. Activate automatic display sleep.
C. Activate automatic hard disk sleep.
D. Use wireless networks instead of wired networks.
E. Set up locations optimized for different environments.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
.
What is the proper way to calibrate the main battery in a MacBook?

A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box; no further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again.
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
.
You can use a higher wattage power adapter with an Apple portable computer, but you cannot use one with less wattage without potential operating issues.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
.
MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.

A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
.
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?

A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
.
Examine the exhibit. What is the correct name for this type of pixel anomaly?
A. Dark dot defect
B. Stuck sub-pixel
C. Bright dot defect
D. Vertical TAB fault

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (13-inch, Late 2010) logic board. Which of the following is the most important step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the battery.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Examine the exhibit. What is this message?

A. Kernel Panic
B. Software Update
C. Firmware Update
D. Power-On Self-Test

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is the indication that a Mac has completed a successful power-on self test (POST)?
A. Startup Chime.
B. A series of beeps.
C. The Login Window starts.
D. The Desktop, Dock, and menu bar load.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is the function of the SMC in an Intel Mac?
A. The SMC controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The SMC controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The SMC manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The SMC manages all communication with attached peripherals.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which THREE of the following symptoms would most likely be resolved by performing an SMC reset as a first step? SELECT THREE
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Cursor is unresponsive in Finder
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 17
Which THREE troubleshooting steps should be attempted if the SD card slot does not appear in System Profiler on MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2009)? SELECT THREE
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Reset the SMC.
C. Force the card into the slot.
D. Back up user data, then erase and reinstall Mac OS X.
E. Remove and reinsert the card with a third party SD card adapter.
F. Start up from the Mac OS X Installer DVD and check System Profiler.

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 18
Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product’s serial number into the Online Service Assistant section of the Apple Support web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
According to Apple Technician Guides, what should be completed before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Which section of any Apple Technician Guide is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his Mac. To which Apple support site resource should you refer this customer?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Specifications
D. Technician Guide

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to use Apple Service Diagnostic?
A. You want to check a Mac for accidental damage.
B. You want to verify product functionality after a repair.
C. Your customer wants to run diagnostics on his Mac Pro.
D. You need to verify that all installed applications have been updated.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
A customer asks if there is a diagnostic that he can use to help troubleshoot a hardware problem with his MacBook Pro. Which of the following solutions should you suggest?
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Terminal
D. Console

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Apple Service Toolkit uses ____ to check Macs with Mac Resource Inspector and other diagnostic utilities.
A. NetBoot
B. Open Firmware
C. Target Disk Mode
D. Apple Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
You are preparing to replace faulty RAM inside a Mac mini (Mid 2010). What should be used to open the bottom cover?
A. Putty knife
B. Philips #00 screwdriver
C. Mac mini (Mid 2010) Logic Board Removal Tool
D. Your hands, no tools are required for this procedure

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Examine the exhibit. This specialized tool is required for the removal of which component from the Mac mini (Mid 2010)?

A. Fan
B. Memory
C. Bottom Cover
D. Antenna Plate
E. Logic Board Assembly

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 27
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMac (27-inch, Mid 2010) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 driver with 5 inch shaft

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28
Examine the exhibit. Why is it necessary to use this Service Fixture when replacing the left fan or heat sink in a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2009)?

A. This tool is used to avoid flexing the logic board.
B. This tool is used to avoid ESD damage to the logic board.
C. It is impossible to remove these components without this tool.
D. This tool is used to properly align the processor with its socket.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a multimeter when troubleshooting a Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure high voltage going to a CRT.
C. Measure AC current going to an optical drive.
D. Measure digital signals on the main processor.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 56
There is a Web server behind your perimeter Security Gateway. You need to protect the server from network attackers, who creates scripts that force your Web server to send user credentials or identities to other Web servers. Which box do you check in the Web Intelligence tab in SmartDashboard?
A. Command Injection protection
B. SQL Injection protection
C. HTTP header format checking
D. HTTP protocol inspection protection
E. Cross Site Scripting protection

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 57
How do you control the maximum mail messages in a spool directory?
A. In the SMTP resource object
B. In the smtp.conf file on the SmartCenter Server
C. In the gateway object’s SMTP settings in the Advanced window
D. In SmartDefense SMTP settings
E. In the Security Server window in Global Properties

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Quinton is the Security Administrator for a chain of retail stores. In a recent security newsletter, Quinton read about an attack where a client fools a server into sending large amount of data, using small packets. Quinton is concerned that this company’s servers might be vulnerable to this type of attack. Which smartDefense option should Quinton use to protect the servers?
A. Application Intelligence > DNS > Cache poisoning
B. Network Security > Successive events > DoS
C. Network Security > TCP > Small PMTU
D. Application Intelligence > Microsoft Networks > File and Print Sharing
E. Network Security > Denial of Service > LAND
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A. Rule 999
B. Rule 0
C. Rule 1
D. Cleanup Rule
E. Stealth Rule

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Sonny is the Security Administrator for a company with a large call center. The management team in the center is concerned that employees may be installing and attempting to use peer-to-peer file-sharing utilities, during their lunch breaks. The call center’s network is protected by an internal Security Gateway, configured to drop peer-to-peer file-sharing traffic. The call-center management team wants to know if the Security Gateway protecting the call center drops more packets than other internal Security Gateways in the corporate network. Which application should Sonny use, determine the number of packets dropped by each Gateway?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartDashboad
D. SmartView Tracker
E. SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Katie is the Security Administrator for an insurance company. Her manager gives Katie the following requirements for controlling DNS traffic:
*
Required Result #1: Accept domain name-over-TCP traffic (zone-transfer traffic).

*
Required Result #2: Log domain name-over-TCP traffic (zone-transfer traffic).

*
Desired Result #1: Accept domain name-over-UDP traffic (queries traffic)

*
Desired Result #2: Do not log domain name-over-UDP traffic (queries traffic)

*
Desired Result #3: Do not clutter the Rule Base, by creating explicit rules for traffic that can be controlled using Global Properties. Katie makes the following configuration changes, and installs the Security Policy:
1.
She selects the box “Accept Domain Name over TCP (Zone transfer)” in Global Properties.

2.
She selects the box “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” in Global Properties.

3.
She selects the box “Log Implied Rules” in Global Properties Does Katie’s solution meet the required and desired results?
A. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results.
B. The solution does not meet the required results.
C. The solution meets all required and desired results.
D. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results.
E. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 62
David is a consultant for a software-deployment company. David is working at a customer’s site this week. David’s ask is to create a map of the customer’s VPN tunnels, including down and destroyed tunnels. Which SmartConsole application will provide David with the information needed to create this map?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartLSM
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Gail is the Security Administrator for a marketing firm. Gail is working with the networking team, to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks Gail to check he configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should Gail use to check the configuration settings?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
One of your remote Security Gateways suddenly stops sending logs, and you cannot install the Security Policy on the Gateway. All other remote Security Gateways are logging normally to the SmartCenter Server, and Policy installation is not affected. When you click the Test SIC status button in the problematic gateway object, you receive an error message “unknown”. What is the problem?
A. The time on the SmartCenter Server’s clock has changed, which invalidates the remote Gateway’s Certificate.
B. The remote Gateway’s IP address has changed, which invalidates the SIC Certificate.
C. The Security Gateway is NG with Application Intelligence, and the SmartCenter Server is NGX.
D. The Internal Certificate Authority for the SmartCenter object has been removed from objects_5_0.c.
E. There is no connection between the SmartCenter Server and the remote Gateway. Rules or routing may block the connection.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 65
Frank wants to know why users on the corporate network cannot receive multicast transmissions from the Internet. A VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway protects the corporate network from the Internet. Which of the following is a possible cause for the connection problem?
A. VPN-1 NGX does not support multicast routing protocols and streaming media through the Security Gateway.
B. The Multicast Rule is below the Stealth Rule. VPN-1 NGX can only pass multicast traffic, it the Multicast Rule is above the Stealth Rule.
C. Multicast restrictions are configured improperly on the external interface properties of the Security Gateway object.
D. Anti-spoofing is enabled. VPN-1 NGX cannot pass multicast traffic, if anti-spoofing is enabled.
E. Frank did not install the necessary multicast license with SmartUpdate, when upgrading the VPN-1 NGX.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
You are concerned that a message may have been intercepted and retransmitted, thus compromising the security of the communications. You attach a code to the electronically transmitted message that uniquely identifies the sender. This code is known as a:
A. Digital signature
B. Tag
C. Private key
D. AES flag
E. Diffie-Helman verification

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
A user attempts authentication using SecureClient. The user’s password is rejected, even though it is
correctly defined in the LDAP directory.
Which of the following is a valid cause?

A. The LDAP server has insufficient memory
B. The LDAP and Security Gateway databases are not synchronized.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot communicate with the LDAP server.
D. The user has defined the wrong encryption scheme.
E. The user is defined in both the NGX user database and the LDAP directory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
B. For the SmartCenter Server are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
C. Are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartView Tracker and an OPSEC device
D. Decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway
E. Uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as Authentication Certificates

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen as displayed in the
exhibit,
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HPPT connection to a Web site,
the user tries to FTP another site using the command line.
What happens to the user?
The…

A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter username and password for Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication bye the Security Gateway again.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 70
Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Adaptive
B. Asymmetric C. Symmetric
D. Static
E. Dynamic

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
Certkiller’s main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. Certkiller
also has a small network 10.10-.20.0/24 behind the internal router. Jack wants to configure the kernel to
translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP,
and FTP services.
Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access Internet?

A. Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
B. Manual Hide NAT rules for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
C. Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24,
D. Automatic Hide NAT for network 10.10.20.0/24.
E. No change is necessary.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
With SmartDashboard Smart Directory, you can create NGX user definitions on a(n) _____________ Server.
A. NT Domain
B. LDAP
C. Provider-1
D. SecureID
E. Radius

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Jens notices a large amount of traffic from a specific internal IP address. He needs to verify if it is a network attack, or a user’s system infected with a worm. He has enabled Sweep Scan Protection and Host port scan in SmartDefense. Will Jens get all the information he needs from these actions?
A. No. SmartDefense will only block the traffic, but it will not provide a detailed analysis of the traffic.
B. No. SmartDefense will not block the traffic. The logs and alert can provide a further level information, but determining whether the attack is intentional or a worm requires further research by Jens.
C. No. Jens also should set SmartDefense to quarantine the traffic from the suspicious IP address.
D. Yes. SmartDefense will limit the traffic impact from the scans, and identify if the pattern of the traffic matches any known worms.
E. No. To verify if this is a worm or an active attack, Jens should also enable TCP attack defenses.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which NGX feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. cpconfig
B. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
C. Database Revision Control
D. Dbexport/dbimport
E. Policy Package management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
How do you configure an NGX Security Gateway’s kernel memory settings, without manually modifying the configuration files in $FWDIR\lib? By configuring:
A. the settings on the Gateway object’s Capacity Optimization screen
B. the settings on the Global Properties Capacity Optimization screen
C. the Settings on the Gateway object’s Advanced screen
D. the settings on the SmartCenter Server object’s Advanced screen
E. SmartDefense Kernel Defender options

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which of the following is NOT a feature or quality of a hash function?
A. Encrypted with the sender’s RSA private key, the hash function forms the digital signature.
B. It is mathematically infeasible to derive the original message from the message digest.
C. The hash function forms a two-way, secure communication.
D. The hash function is irreversible.
E. It is mathematically infeasible for two different messages to produce the same message digest.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
You are a Security Administrator configuring Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box “Translate destination on client side”, accessed from Global Properties > NAT settings > Automatic NAT. Assuming all other Global Properties NAT settings are selected, what else must be configured for automatic Static NAT to work?
A. The NAT IP address must be added to the anti-spoofing group of the external Gateway interface
B. Two address-translation rules in the Rule Base
C. No extra configuring needed
D. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway’s external interface
E. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway’s internal interface
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Which encryption scheme provides “In-place” encryption?
A. IKE
B. Manual IPSec
C. DES
D. SKIP
E. AES
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
After importing the NGX schema into an LDAP server, what should you enable?
A. Schema checking
B. Encryption
C. UserAuthority
D. ConnectControl
E. Secure Internal Communications

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Which ldif file must you modify to extend the schema of a Windows 2000 domain?
A. In NGX you do not need to modify any .ldif file
B. The appropriate .ldif file is located in the Security Gateway: $FWDIR/conf/ldif/Microsoft_ad_schema.ldif
C. The appropriate .ldif file is located in the SmartCenter Server: $FWDIR/lib/ldap/schema_microsoft_ad.ldif
D. The appropriate .ldif file is located in the Security Gateway: $FWDIR/lib/ldif/Microsoft_ad_schema.ldif
E. The appropriate .ldif file is located in the SmartCenter Server: $FWDIR/conf/ldif/Microsoft_ad_schema.ldif
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
What is the reason for the Critical Problem notification in this SmartView Monitor example?

A. Active real memory shortage on the Gateway
B. No Security Policy installed on the Security Gateway
C. Version mismatch between the SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway
D. Time not synchronized between the SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway
E. No Secure Internal Communications established between the SmartCenter Server and Security
Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Your standby SmartCenter Server’s status is collision. What does that mean, and how do you synchronize the Server and its peer?
A. The standby and active Servers have two Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) Certificates. Uninstall and reinstall the standby Server.
B. The active Server detected a keep-alive packet from the standby Server.
C. The peer Server has not been properly synchronized. Manually synchronize both Servers again.
D. The peer Server is more up-to-date. Manually synchronize both Servers again.
E. The active SmartCenter Server and its peer have different Security Policies and databases. Manually synchronize the Servers, and decide which Server’s configuration to overwrite.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
Sarah is the Security Administrator for Certkiller . Sarah has configured SmartDefense to block the CWD and FIND commands. Sarah installs the Security Policy, but the Security Gateway continues to pass the commands. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem?
A. The Rule Base includes a rule accepting FTP to any source, from any destination.
B. The SmartDefense > Application Intelligence > FTP Security Server screen does not have the radio button set to “Configurations apply to all connections”.
C. The FTP Service Object > Advanced > Blocked FTP Commands list does not include CWD and FIND.
D. The Web Intelligence > Application Layer > FTP Settings list is configured to allow, rather than exlude, CW and FIND commands.
E. The Global Properties > Security Server > “Control FTP Commands” box is not checked.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Your NGX enterprise SmartCenter Server is working normally. However, you must reinstall the SmartCenter Server, but keep the SmartCenter Server configuration (for example, all Security Policies, databases, etc.) How would you reinstall the Server and keep its configuration?
A. 1. Run the latest upgrade_export utility to export the configuration.
2.
Keep the exported file in the same location.

3.
Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the SmartCenter Server.

4.
Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
B. 1. Run the latest upgrade_export utility to export the configuration.
2.
Leave the exported .tgz file in $FWDIR.

3.
Install the priCertkiller SmartCenter Server on top of the current installation.

4.
Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
C. 1. Insert the NGX CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration into a .tgz file.
2.
Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine.

3.
Uninstall all NGX packages, and reboot.

4.
Use the NGX CD-ROM to select the upgrade_import option to import the configuration.
D. 1. Download the latest upgrade_export utility, and run it from $FWDIR\bin to export the configuration into a .tgz file.
2.
Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine.

3.
Uninstall all NGX packages, and reboot.

4.
Install a new priCertkiller SmartCenter Server.

5.
Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the activation key. Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key> <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key> <IP Address of Security Gateway>.
E. Reinstall the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
You have locked yourself out of SmartDashoard with the rules you just installed on your stand alone Security Gateway. Now you cannot access the SmartCenter Server or any SmartConsole tools via SmartDashboard. How can you reconnect to SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpstop on the SmartCenter Server.
B. Run fw unlocklocal on the SmartCenter Server.
C. Run fw unloadlocal on the Security Gatewawy.
D. Delete the $fwdir/database/manage.lock file and run cprestart.
E. Run fw uninstall localhost on the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
Ellen is performing penetration tests against SmartDefense for her Web server farm. She needs to verify that the Web servers are secure against traffic hijacks. She has activated the Cross-Site Scripting property. What other settings would be appropriate? Ellen:
A. should also enable the Web intelligence > SQL injection setting.
B. must select the “Products > Web Server” box on each of the node objects.
C. should enable all settings in Web Intelligence.
D. needs to configure TCP defenses such as “Small PMTU” size.
E. needs to create resource objects for the web farm servers and configure rules for the web farm.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
William is a Security Administrator who has added address translation for his internal Web server to be accessible by external clients. Due to poor network design by his predecessor, William sets up manual NAT rules for this server, while his FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from his FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. “Allow bi-directional NAT” is not checked in Global Properties.
B. “Translate destination on client side” is not checked in Global Properties under “Manual NAT Rules”.
C. “Translate destination on client side” is not checked in Global Properties > Automatic NAT Rules.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.
E. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
You are a security consultant for a hospital. You are asked to create some type of authentication rule on the NGX Security Gateway, to allow doctors to update patients’ records via HTTP from various workstations. Which authentication method should you use?
A. Client Authentication
B. LDAP Authentication
C. SecureID Authentication
D. TACAS Authentication
E. User Authentication

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 90
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for an online bookstore. Customers connect to a variety of Web servers to place orders, change orders, and check status of their orders. Mrs. Bill checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab, and installed the Security Policy, She ran penetration test through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected from cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration test indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. Which of the following might correct the problem?
A. The penetration software Certkiller is using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
B. Certkiller must create resource objects, and use them in the rule allowing HTTP traffic to the Web servers.
C. Certkiller needs to check the “Products > Web Server” box on the host node objects representing his Web servers.
D. Certkiller needs to check the “Web Intelligence” box in the SmartDefense > HTTP Properties.
E. Certkiller needs to configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 45

Administering, maintaining, and evolving the services and service inventories that you build and own can be broadly referred to as:
A. federated SOA ownership
B. SOA standardization
C. SOA governance
D. SOA enforcement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
.
“A primary focus of service modeling is the encapsulation and abstraction of business logic in support of defining business service candidates.” What is wrong with this statement?
A. Service modeling is a phase dedicated to defining non-business service logic only.
B. There is no such thing as a business service when creating service-oriented solutions.
C. The service modeling process results in the implementation of services, not the definition of service candidates.
D. There is nothing wrong with this statement.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Integration is the effort required to enable interoperability. A goal of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic integration, thereby reducing the need for interoperability.
B. Interoperability is the effort required to enable integration. A goal of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic integration, thereby reducing the need for interoperability.
C. Integration is the effort required to enable interoperability. A goal of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic interoperability, thereby reducing the need for integration.
D. Interoperability is the effort required to enable integration. A goal of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic interoperability, thereby reducing the need for integration.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
.
Project Team Alpha delivers Service A for Solution 1. Project Team Beta delivers Service B for Solution 2. Some time later, Project Team Omega wants to reuse Service A and Service B for its new Solution 3. How would Services A and B need to have been designed in order for Project Team Omega to successfully reuse these services without having to resort to a major integration project?
A. Services always require the use of transformation technologies in order to communicate. Therefore, major integration effort is unavoidable in this scenario.
B. Services A and B need to reside on the same physical server or workstation, thereby allowing them to be reused without the need for major integration effort.
C. Services A and B need to be standardized and designed with an emphasis on intrinsic interoperability so that they are compatible regardless of when or by which project team they are delivered.
D. Service A needs to be designed using a different vendor platform than ServiceB. This enables vendor diversity, thereby guaranteeing interoperability.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
.
A fundamental means of achieving business and technology alignment in support of service-oriented computing is:
A. through the use of a service registry because this allows business and technology-centric services to be located in the same place
B. through the creation of business services because this enables services to encapsulate and express business logic
C. through the use of a business registry because this allows for the centralized registration of business analysts
D. through the creation of a vendor-specific architecture because this supports both the vendor- neutral and business-driven SOA characteristics

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
.
Complete the following statement with the correct text: “The objective of organizational agility is to dramatically reduce the time and effort required to fulfill new or changed business requirements…
A. …as long as the business requirements don’t change too often.”
B. …once legacy integration has been broadly achieved.”
C. …once a collection of mature agnostic services is available.”
D. …as long as the organization can continually outsource its IT projects.”
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
.
Service composition is important to the success of SOA initiatives because:
A. You can only create service-oriented solutions as service compositions.
B. Services that compose multiple legacy systems can be designed to leverage only the parts of each system that are relevant to the functional context of the service.
C. Service compositions enable the service-oriented computing goal of Increased Federation by guaranteeing that service endpoints are consistently designed and developed.
D. Services that can be composed and recomposed support several service-oriented computing goals, including Increased ROI and Increased Organizational Agility.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
.
A software program that invokes and interacts with a service is referred to as a:

A. service contract
B. service inventory
C. service container
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
.
The ability of one service to __________ another service forms the basis of service __________.

A. divert, diversification
B. register, registries
C. consume, composition
D. integrate, integration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. For a service consumer to interact with a service it must comply to the requirements of the service contract.
B. The service contract is used to express meta data about a service for human consumption only, and compliance to the service contract by service consumers is therefore not required.
C. Service contracts are only used to access a service when the service consumer itself is not a service.
D. All of these statements are true.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Intrinsic Interoperability.
B. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Governance Integration.
C. The standardization of service contracts is supported by service-orientation.
D. The standardization of service contracts supports the strategic goal of Increased Federation.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 36
Which keyboard shortcut allows you to view the entire edited sequence in the Timeline?(Select the best answer.)
A. Command-Z
B. Control-Z
C. Option-Z
D. Shift-Z

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
Your sequence contains a video gap of 00:00:12;11 that you need to fill with B-Roll footage. Which method completes the edit without overwriting existing video clips?(Select all that apply.)

A. In the Viewer, set an In point on the B-Roll clip at 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s last frame and set an Out point. Perform an Overwrite edit.
B. In the Viewer, set the duration of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s last frame and set an Out point. Perform an Overwrite edit.
C. In the Viewer, set the duration of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s first frame. Perform an Overwrite edit.
D. In the Viewer, set the In point of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s first frame. Perform an Overwrite edit.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 38
Where in the file system does Final Cut Pro save custom window layouts?(Select the best answer.)
A. Macintosh HD > Library > Application Support > Apple > Final Cut Pro Data
B. Macintosh HD > Library > Application Support > Window Layouts
C. Macintosh HD > Users > [user name] > Library > Preferences > Final Cut Pro User Data > Window Layouts
D. Macintosh HD > Users > [user name] > Library > Application Support > Window Layouts

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Click the image to add the Shot/Take field contents to the Name of the clip.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 40
What is the correct keyboard/mouse order that lets you create a copy of a clip in the Timeline?(Select the best answer.)
A. Command-Click-Drag
B. Click-Drag-Command
C. Option-Click-Drag
D. Click-Drag-Option

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What is the default for levels of undo?(Select the best answer.)
A. 10
B. 24
C. 32
D. 99

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Click the item that limits the setup options by frames per second.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 43
Which overlay indicates the maximum luma values for a clip are between 90-100 percent?(Select the best answer.)

A. C Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
Which display option(s) would be needed to manipulate a clip’s position in the Canvas?(Select all that apply.)
A. Image
B. Image + Wireframe
C. Wireframe

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 45
You want to edit an imported narration clip at the playhead without erasing or moving the existing audio clips shown in the image. Click the destination patch panel control that will let you do this.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 46
Click the pop-up menu to sync the Viewer and Timeline playheads for real-time multiclip editing.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 47
In the Timeline shown above, you press the M key once. What type of marker is created?(Select the best answer.)

A. Clip
B. Sequence
C. Chapter
D. Compression

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Click the clip whose playback speed has been adjusted.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 49
Click the icon that allows you to save a transition as a favorite via dragging.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 50
Which QuickTime movie file type copies all media files required to play the movie into one media file? (Select the best answer.)
A. Alias
B. Duplicate
C. Reference
D. Self-Contained

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which menu allows you to open and close projects?(Select the best answer.)
A. File
B. Edit
C. Tools
D. Window

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which modifier key allows you to drag a clip from V1 to V2 without moving the clip left or right?(Select the best answer.)
A. Control
B. Option
C. Command
D. Shift
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
This clip resides in a conformed sequence. Which parameters have been adjusted on this clip?(Select all that apply.)

A. Scale
B. Rotation
C. Center
D. Anchor Point
E. Crop

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 54
Click the button that will hide the A3 track in the current Audio Mixer view.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55
Click the Solo control for track A1.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 56
Click the Generator pop-up menu.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Which tool is being used in the edit shown above?(Select the best answer.)

A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which action allows you to feather an Edge Wipe applied to a Timeline edit point?(Select all that apply.)
A. Double-click the Edge Wipe in the Effects tab.
B. Double-click the Edge Wipe in the Timeline.
C. Choose Edge Wipe from the Effects menu.
D. Control-click the Edge Wipe in the Timeline and choose Open ‘Edge Wipe’.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 59
Which button performs an Insert edit?(Select the best answer.)

A. A

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which tool will let you perform the edit shown above with a single mouse drag?(Select the best answer.)

A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which modifier key lets you modify the arrangement of multiclip angles in the Viewer?(Select the best answer.)
A. Control
B. Option
C. Command
D. Shift

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which icon represents a freeze frame?(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 63
Which image represents the above sequence after clicking with the razor blade?(Select the best answer.)

A. A Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Click the location that allows you to trim the outgoing clip with the Selection Tool.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
What does the visual indicator (overlay) along the right side of the Canvas represent?(Select the best answer.)

A. The first frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
B. The last frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
C. The end of a sequence.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 35
You want to assign several network users to a group and give them Apple Remote Desktop access authorization to observe and control computers, but not to generate reports. What name should you assign to this group in Workgroup Manager in order to automatically give its members this level of ARD access privileges?
A. ard_admin
B. ard_control
C. ard_manage
D. ard_interact

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
You are configuring accounts in Workgroup Manager. For which type of account can you set a custom login shell?
A. User account
B. Group account
C. Computer account
D. Computer List account

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
You want to use Apple Remote Desktop to manage a group of networked computers. Instead of configuring local user accounts on each machine, you want to use accounts stored on a directory server to specify ARD access privileges. Which of these is a key that you can add to the MCXSettings attribute in a Computers List record to accomplish this goal?
A. ard_list
B. ard_view
C. ard_control
D. ard_interact

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Review the chart above showing the managed Dock preference identifying the Dock’s position on screen for a user, computer list, and workgroup, then answer the question below.

Where will the Dock be displayed when a user logs in on a managed computer, as a member of this managed workgroup?
A. at the bottom of the screen
B. at the right side of the screen
C. at the left side of the screen

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
How can you designate an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Open the Apple Task Server application, click Start Service, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
B. Open Remote Desktop, run the Task Server utility from the Task Server menu, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
C. Open Remote Desktop, select Use Task Server in the Remote Desktop pane of System Preferences, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
D. Open Remote Desktop, then select “Use Task Server on this computer” and “Allow remote connections to this server” in the Task Server pane of Remote Desktop preferences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40
You want to prevent a list of user names from being displayed in the login window. Using the
managed Login Window preferences in Workgroup Manager, how can you require that people type a user name and password to log in?
A. Select the “Secure Login” option.
B. Deselect the “Show all users” option.
C. Select the “Kerberos authentication” option.
D. Select the “Name and password text fields” option.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which option can you set in Workgroup Manager for an SMB share point?
A. Mount path
B. Network mounting
C. Access Control Lists
D. Default file permissions

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
The managed Dock Display preference for Mary’s user account is set to Never. This means that no managed Dock Display preference
A. will apply at Mary’s next login
B. will ever apply when Mary logs in
C. that depends upon precedence will apply when Mary logs in
D. that is managed at the user account level will apply at Mary’s next login

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which of these is a feature of an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Reviewing reports about a client.
B. Scanning the local network for ARD computers.
C. Scheduling tasks for clients that are currently offline.
D. Turning on powered-down clients using the Lights Out Management protocol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
You would like to give instructors the ability to perform the Apple Remote Desktop functions of locking and unlocking the screens on computers in a classroom, but you do not want to have the instructors learn to use the Remote Desktop utility. Which of these steps could help you accomplish this goal?
A. Distribute an ARD installation package that includes the tasks and is configured with “sudo” as the default user.
B. Create a Computer List in Remote Desktop and provide an Automator application that contains an ARD workflow to perform the tasks.
C. Use Workgroup Manager to manage the preferences of Remote Desktop for the instructor’s user account, so that only Lock and Unlock are available.
D. Use the Create Admin Installer function in Remote Desktop to create a package that installs on the instructor’s computer a simplified version of Remote Desktop that only performs the Lock and Unlock functions.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
You are configuring security policies in Mac OS X Server for your Windows user accounts. What password type must you set in Workgroup Manager for these accounts?
A. SASL
B. Crypt
C. clear text
D. Open Directory
E. Active Directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
In Workgroup Manager, views in the Views pane of managed Finder preferences are organized under what three headings?
A. Disk View, File View, Folder View
B. User View, Group View, Computer View
C. Finder View, Window View, Network View
D. Desktop View, Default View, Computer View

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
For which account type(s) can you manage the Login Window behavior and message using Workgroup Manager?
A. for user accounts only
B. for group accounts only
C. for computer list accounts only
D. for user and group accounts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which statement describes a difference between parental controls and preference manifests?
A. Preference manifests can be applied by any user, but parental controls can be assigned only by an administrative user.
B. Preference manifests can be applied to any file on the computer, but parental controls cannot be assigned to all applications.
C. Preference manifests can be applied to any managed account, but parental controls are assigned only to local accounts.
D. Preference manifests can be applied to any group1 but parental controls can be assigned only to the user’s group and the “Everyone” group on your server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
You want a further measure of control over when user management settings apply. Which setting is available only from the Details pane of Preferences in Workgroup Manager?
A. Once
B. Often
C. Always
D. Never

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
In Workgroup Manager, which pane of the Login preferences has settings that can be managed for users, groups, and computer lists?
A. Scripts
B. Options
C. Login Items
D. Login Window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
You want to manage users’ access to the Restart and Shut Down commands in the Apple menu. Which preferences pane in Workgroup Manager lets you control this feature?
A. Dock
B. Login
C. Finder
D. Media Access
E. System Preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
You have automated the creation of an “Assignments” folder in each of your students home folders. Before you can manage your students’ Docks so they include this Assignments folder, you must _________
A. use hdiutil to bless the folders
B. enable synchronization for ~/Assignments
C. create an “Assignments” folder in your own home folder
D. configure the Mobility preference to Always apply for each of the students

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
What statement is true of the Default network view?
A. The Default network view allows administrators to add FTP servers to users’ /Network.
B. The Default network view is seen by all computers that are not bound to a directory server.
C. If you install Mac OS X in the directory where the Default network view resides, client computers can NetBoot from E
D. You can use the Default network view to assign managed preferences to computers on your network that have no managed preferences, such as guest computers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
In Workgroup Manager, which managed preference pane includes a setting that allows UNIX tools to run?
A. Login
B. Mobility
C. Applications
D. System Preferences

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Exhibit:

What is the module shown in the exhibit?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Wrist strap and cord
D. Static-shielding bags
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 79
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode?
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 82
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disk to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) fails to start up completely due to a video issue. Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power MacG5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
A Macintosh can startup from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of Mac OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM
B. Try to startup from a bootable CD or DVD
C. Reinitialize the hard disk rein stall the Mac OS
D. Replace the internet hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You are replacing the logical board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). Which of the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Torque screwdriver
B. Nylon probe tool
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
A customer reports that her PowerBook G4 (DVI) shuts down intermittently – sometime immediately after startup. Which of the following is the FIRST step you should take to correct the issue?
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Rest the PMU.
C. Disconnect all external peripherals.
D. Check battery connection to the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBook and iBook?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his iBook G4 using a dialup modem connection. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the iBook’s modem port.
B. The customer’s iBook is not configured with a modem.
C. The iBook is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
You are attempting to share between your iBook (Early 2004) and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend still cannot access files on your iBook. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The file on your iBook must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your iBook and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the iBook and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary screen of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? (Select three)
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave, oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 96
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? (Select two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with.
A. tow wires (one pair) present.
B. four wires (two pairs) present.
C. six wires (three pairs) present.
D. all eight wires (four pairs) present.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly install AirPort Extreme Card?
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 99
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires ________.
A. two or more AirPort clients
B. two ore more AirPort Base Stations
C. version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software
D. an AirPort Base Station and AirPort client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSLor Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 45
What does recalibrating a Lithium Ion battery inside a PowerBook or iBook actually do?
A. Reconditions the battery to overcome the memory effect.
B. Keeps the onscreen battery time and percent display accurate.
C. Extends the number of full discharge cycles available in the battery.
D. Readjusts the Energy Saver preferences to correspond to the battery’s performance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
How often should you calibrate a PowerBook G4’s Lithium Ion battery?
A. Never
B. Just once when you first use the PowerBook
C. Whenever the PowerBook is forced into sleep mode
D. When you first use the PowerBook and then every couple of months thereafter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his iBook G4 (Late 2004). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s manual
D. Service manual

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s iBook G4.
Which one of the following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?

A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Which section of the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5 GHz) Service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a DC-In board?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Where is the BEST place to look for information regarding special take-apart tools for an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service News
C. User’s manual
D. Service manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?
A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Identify the correct procedure to reset the Power Manager on a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5GHz).
A. Press the PMU Reset button on the main logic board.
B. Shut the computer down and press the reset button for 10 to 15 seconds.
C. Shut the computer down and press Shift-Control-Option-Power on the keyboard.
D. Remove the AC power adapter and battery, and let the computer sit for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook’s security features have been activated.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which THREE of the following symptoms would be best resolved by performing a PMU reset as a first step?
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Fans run too loudly after startup
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 56
What is the function of the PMU in an Apple portable computer?
A. The PMU controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The PMU controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The PMU manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The PMU manages all communication with attached peripherals.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 57
An iBook G4 is running from the AC adapter, and has a battery installed which is charging. Which TWO of the following indicate that the battery is fully charged?
A. The iBook backlight will return to full intensity.
B. All lights on the battery will illuminate when the button on the battery is pressed.
C. The sleep light will blink three times, indicating that the iBook is no longer charging.
D. The lighted ring on the power adapter connector will change from amber to green.
E. The sleep light will solidly illuminate, indicating that the iBook can be powered on or awakened from sleep.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 58
Which THREE of the following actions can put a PowerBook to sleep?
A. Close the PowerBook lid.
B. Press Command-Option-S.
C. Select Sleep from the Apple menu.
D. Select Sleep from the Location Manager.
E. Select Sleep in the Energy Saver pane of System Preferences.
F. Press the Power button and select Sleep from the dialog box.

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 59
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.67 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook fails to start up completely due to a video issue.
Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive from the PowerBook and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook and Power Mac G5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
What is the first step to take if you have an iBook G4 that constantly ejects any CD / DVD that is inserted?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the optical drive.
C. Replace the optical drive cable.
D. Disconnect all peripheral devices, especially the mouse.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
You are replacing the logic board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5 GHz). Which of the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Torque screwdriver
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBooks and iBooks?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Try to start up from a bootable CD or DVD.
C. Reinitialize the hard disk and reinstall the Mac OS.
D. Replace the internal hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You can start up a Macintosh from either Software Restore or Software Install discs.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
A customer brings her iBook G4 (Late 2004) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known-good disc to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
What is the purpose of Sudden Motion Sensor technology used in the newer PowerBook G4 models?
A. It physically locks the PowerBook down while it is activated.
B. It helps prevent hard drive failures if the computer is dropped.
C. It helps conserve energy by sensing when the hard disk spins up too often.
D. It Changes all Mac OS X location settings based upon your current GPS location.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
A customer’s iBook G4 (Late 2004) will not charge when the AC adapter is plugged in.
You test the iBook with a known good battery and known good A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. DC board
B. Logic board
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Exhibit:

What is the module shown in the exhibit?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Wrist strap and cord
D. Static-shielding bags
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 79
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode?
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 82
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disk to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) fails to start up completely due to a video issue. Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power MacG5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
A Macintosh can startup from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of Mac OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM
B. Try to startup from a bootable CD or DVD
C. Reinitialize the hard disk rein stall the Mac OS
D. Replace the internet hard drive with a known-good hard drive.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You are replacing the logical board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). Which of
the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Torque screwdriver
B. Nylon probe tool
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
A customer reports that her PowerBook G4 (DVI) shuts down intermittently – sometime immediately after startup. Which of the following is the FIRST step you should take to correct the issue?
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Rest the PMU.
C. Disconnect all external peripherals.
D. Check battery connection to the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBook and iBook?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his iBook G4 using a dialup modem connection. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the iBook’s modem port.
B. The customer’s iBook is not configured with a modem.
C. The iBook is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
You are attempting to share between your iBook (Early 2004) and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend still cannot access files on your iBook. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The file on your iBook must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your iBook and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the iBook and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary screen of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? (Select three)
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave, oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 96
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? (Select two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with.
A. tow wires (one pair) present.
B. four wires (two pairs) present.
C. six wires (three pairs) present.
D. all eight wires (four pairs) present.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly install AirPort Extreme Card?
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 99
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires ________.
A. two or more AirPort clients
B. two ore more AirPort Base Stations
C. version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software
D. an AirPort Base Station and AirPort client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSLor Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Exhibit

What is the module shown in this picture?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
A customer brings her iBook (32 VRAM) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known- – good CD to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet after connecting his new PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1GHz) to his cable modem via Ethernet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the computer’s Ethernet port.
B. The computer is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
C. A faulty cable was used to connect the computer and the cable modem.
D. The cable modem’s Ethernet port is not computer with the computer ‘s Ethernet port.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which THREE of the following iBook or PowerBook can accept a 144-pin DDR266PC2100 SDRAM SO-DIMM?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook (Early 2003)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
E. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
F. PowerBook G4 (12-inch DVI)
Correct Answer: BDF

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QUESTION 45
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when HSRP is not supported by the design
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
F. when the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode? (Choose two.)

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
E. Traffic switched between VLANs is subject to state tracking and other firewall configurable options.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)
A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
E. Bridge mode passive
F. Combo Bridge router mode

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type.
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated.
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE wireless standard will allow backward compatibility with 802.11b.
What would your reply be?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.1g
E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11g standard operates in the same unlicensed portion of the 2.4-GHz spectrum as 802.11b. Both the IEEE 802.11g and 802.11a standards provide a 54-Mbps data rate. IEEE 802.11g provides the benefit of backward compatibility with IEEE 802.11b equipment, preserving users investment in their existing WLAN infrastructure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-10
QUESTION 61
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of wireless IP phones that can register with an Access point is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
E. 33
F. 35
G. 40
H. 57

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum data rate of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 2.4 Mbps data
B. 54 Mbps data
C. 1.44 Mbps data
D. 11 Mbps data
E. 2.4 Mbps data

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11b Standard Long established, the 802.11b standard is used today by the majority of installed
wireless LANs.
General Features:

Has a maximum transmission rate per channel of 11Mbps (actual throughput is about 6 to 7Mbps).
Operates in the 2.4GHz radio band.
Supports three channels at distances up to 350 feet.

QUESTION 63
With regard to wireless enterprise networks, which of the following is true?
A. Routing protocols is the most important consideration
B. Power of the transmitter is the most important consideration
C. RF interference is the most important consideration
D. STP domains is the most important consideration
E. Geological environment is the most important consideration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
It is very important, since the performance of the network depends of it.
You can use RF design to minimize the RF radiation in coverage areas or directions not required. For
example, if WLAN coverage is required only in the buildings, then you can minimize the amount of RF
coverage outside the building through access-point placement and direction antennas.
The performance of the WLAN and its equipment depends upon its RF environment.

Reference: Arch student guide p.10-23.

QUESTION 64
Your Certkiller.com trainee Sandra is curios about Cisco wireless LAN.
What should you tell Sandra? (Select two.)
A. Only IP can be transmitted over a wireless LAN
B. All stations in a wireless cell share the bandwidth
C. Wireless LANs use CSMA/CD access method
D. Only one station can send at one time
E. Wireless LANs use a token sharing access method.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A WLAN consists of an access point communicating over radio frequency to wireless clietnts. The data rate, power level, and antenna choice affect the size of the coverage area of a single wireless cell, which in turn affects how many access points are required in a specific implementation. This topic describes the wireless communication architecture. Only one station in a wireless cell, including the access point, can send data at any one time (D). The bandwidth is shared among all stations (B). If a station wishes to send, it listens and waits for an available slot. WLANs use carrier sense multiple access collision avoidance (CSMA/CA).
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-6.
QUESTION 65
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an IEEE 802.11b wireless environment. What is the maximum recommended number of calls using G.711 per access point?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The maximum recommended number of phones per access point is seven. This limitation is due to the number of packets that can be forwarded per second over an 802.11 link and minimizing transmission delays, rather than a bandwidth limitation of the link.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.10-35
QUESTION 66
What can be done to ensure connections to workstations that are placed on the edge of a wireless access point’s coverage area?
A. Lower data rates
B. Increase data rates
C. Group access point frequency channels together for increased range
D. Enable multicasting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Data rates affect cell size. Lower data rates (such as 1 Mbps) can extend farther from the access point than can higher data rates (such as 11 Mbps). Therefore, the data rate (and power level) affects cell coverage and consequently the number of access points required.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-21
QUESTION 67
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the frequency of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 5 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 1.4 GHz
D. 11 MHz

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Both 802.11b and 802.11g use frequency 2.4GHz. 802.11b is rated at 11Mbps while 802.11g is rated at 54 Mpbs. 802.11g is backwards capable with 802.11b.
Incorrect:
A. 5 GHz – 802.11A
QUESTION 68
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

What is the Certkiller VPN topology as shown in the illustration?
A. Full-mesh VPN
B. Hub-and-spoke VPN
C. Hierarchical VPN
D. Token Ring
E. Private WAN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which of the following types of VNP technology is needed when multicast, broadcast and non-IP packets needs to be tunneled?
A. IPSec
B. GRE
C. Triple-DES
D. IKE
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In site-to-site VPNs, the principal tunneling is generic routing encapsulation (GRE). If only IP-unicast packets are being tunneled, simple encapsulation provided by IPSec is suffiecient. GRE is used when multicast, broadcast, and no-IP packets need to be tunneld.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-7
QUESTION 70
Which of the following will cause Egress Blocking?
A. Packet flooding.
B. Re-transmission of packets blocking all traffic.
C. Large data packets blocking voice packets.
D. Large voice packets blocking data packets.
E. Excessive data fragmentation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
Certkiller Ltd. is a medium-sized company with 12 stationary offices and one head office, where every office is several hundred miles away from the next. You are the network administrator and the CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a VNP. Considering the scenario, what type of VNP would you design?
A. Enterprise remote access VPN
B. Wireless VPN
C. Remote access VPN
D. Site to site VPN
E. Wide area wireless VNP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Since the company is not big the solution may be cost effective. The offices are very far so the internet connection may be used. The best solution here would be site-to-site VPN. Site-to-Site VPNs are an alternative WAN infrastructure used to connect branch offices, home offices, or business partners sites to all or portions of an enterprise’s network. VPNs do not inherently change private WAN requirements, such as support for multiple protocols, high reliablility, and extensive scalability, but instead meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility. Site-to-site VPNs utilize the most pervasive transport technologies available today, such as the public Internet or service provider IP networks, by employing tunneling and encryption for data privacy and QoS for transport reliability.
QUESTION 72
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. You have designed a high availability network based on a redundant network topology. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the advantages of this design are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. It reduces the cost of the network.
B. It can guarantee Quality of Service.
C. Redundant topologies are easier to configure.
D. It allows the secondary path to automatically take over for the primary path.
E. It reduces the impact of individual network device failure.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Loss of IP connectivity can be caused by local-link failure, full-loss connectivity by the service provider, or device failure. For a typical remote site, an alternate path (dedicated or dial-on-demand) to the head-end site can protect against local-link failure or loss of service provider connectivity. Protection against a local-device failure at a remote site I is not usually provided unless the importance of connectivity for the remote site warrants the cost. For a typical head-end site, you can achieve redundancy by implementing multiple provider connections and by deploying multiple head-end routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-34
QUESTION 73
You work as a network administrator at the small real estate company Certkiller.com located in Toronto area. Certkiller.com has two locations 100 miles apart. Each site has 10 computers attached to a LAN with high speed Internet access. There is a need to securely transmit large amounts of customer data from one office location to the other.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual remote access VPN
B. Leased point-to-point connections
C. ISDN dial-up access
D. Site-to-site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which IP NAT implementation allows IPSec peers to establish a connection through a NAT device?
A. PAT
B. PAT-T
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IPSec ESP NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
NAT Traversal (NAT-T) lets IPSec peers establish a connection through a NAT device.
It does this by encapsulating IPSec traffic in UDP datagrams, using port 4500, thereby providing NAT
devices with port information. NAT-T autodetects any NAT devices, and only encapsulates IPSec traffic
when necessary.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-64

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of choosing a site-to-site VPN instead of a private WAN? (Choose two)
A. Usually less expensive.
B. Guaranteed bandwidth.
C. Globally available.
D. Increased reliability.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Site-to-site VPNs are primarily deployed to connect office locations of an enterprise. They provide an alternative to the WAN infrastructure, while offering significant cost benefits. They enable new infrastructure applications such as extrantet, and extend and enhance network connectivity. Enterprise WAN requirements for traditional private WAN services, such as multiprotocol support, high -availability, scalability, and security, are also requirements for VPNs. VPNs can often meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility than private WAN services using leased lines or virtual circuit technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-27,9-28.
QUESTION 76
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications and that data flows within the required time frames?
A. Availability
B. Performance
C. Functionality
D. Manageability
E. Scalability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which of the following characteristics determines the choice of Layer 1 technology for WAN, remote, or Internet access at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose Two.)
A. Scalability.
B. Transportability
C. Loss
D. Layer 2 technology
E. Layer 1 media
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following application characteristics are significant and must be taken into account in the Enterprise Edge design process.
What would your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Database magnitude
B. Delay sensitivity
C. Data content
D. Bandwidth usage
E. Loss tolerance
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
You are contracted as a network administrator for a small newly established company, Certkiller.com. The network consists of three buildings that 150 hundred feet apart that are connected via fast Ethernet single-mode fiber. 10Mbps hubs with 100Mbps Ethernet uplinks over multi-mode fibers to a switch in each building provide access to the network. Category 5 wiring connects over 200 users to the hubs.
The CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a new network that will take scalability, performance, manageability, security and availability into account, while still keeping costs low as the company is still relatively new.
What recommendation regarding wiring infrastructure would you include in your network design?
A. Install Category 5e copper to the desktop from the wiring closets.
B. Replace the copper wiring with fiber optic cables will save costs over a longer period.
C. Maintain the current wiring structure.
D. Install multi-mode fiber to the desktop from the wiring closets.
E. Replace the multi-mode fiber within the buildings with single-mode fiber.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following would you select to keep VLAN design complexity to a minimum? (Choose one option.)
A. Use campus wide VLANs.
B. Use building distribution level VLANs.
C. Use VLANs in the campus backbone.
D. Use per-switch VLANs at the access layer.
E. Use VLANs in the core.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Under which of the following circumstances would you consider using OSPF to be a viable choice for use as a routing protocol. (Choose four.)
A. Authentication is required.
B. NBMA connections exist.
C. The network is non-hierarchical.
D. Only internal routes should be considered.
E. Load balancing between multiple routes is required.
F. Fast convergence is necessary.
G. External routes are not an issue.

Correct Answer: ABEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
OSPF offers these features: 1) With OSPF, there is no limitation on the hop count. The intelligent use of VLSM is very useful in IP address allocation. 2) OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Updates are only sent when routing changes occur rather than periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth. 3) OSPF offers fast convergence because routing changes are propagated instantaneously and not periodically (a characteristic of distance vector routing protocols). 4) OSPF allows for effective load balancing 5) OSPF allows for routing authentication by using different methods of password authentication 6) OSPF allows for the transfer and tagging of external routes injected into an autonomous system. This keeps track of external routes injected by exterior protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-49
QUESTION 82
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the objectives mentioned below meet the requirements for the Server Farm module.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. Provide availability with overall network design.
B. Provide medium switch port density.
C. Provide remote dial-up access.
D. Provide up to 100 Gbps of outbound capacity.
E. Provide scalability with switches and server load balancing.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 83
In which networks would it be the norm to use Static Routing? (Choose two.)
A. Dial-on-demand networks
B. Smaller expanding networks
C. Stub networks
D. Token ring networks.
E. Multi-homed networks
F. Not so stubby network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static routing is primarily use for:
1) Routing to and from stub networks. A stub network only carries traffic for local hosts, and typically has
only one entry/ exit point. Even if it has paths to more than one other network, it does not carry traffic for
other networks.
2) Smaller network that are noet expected to grow significantly.
3) Supporting special features such as dial-on-demand routing (DDR) and on-demand routing 4)
Specifying routes toward dialing peers in dial-in environments.

Reference: Arch student guide p.2-46.

QUESTION 84
When selecting a router for an Edge solution, which is the first step that you, the Certkiller technician, would use Cisco Product Advisor for?
A. To determine the environment in which the router will be used.
B. To select the number of WAN ports required.
C. To determine types of protocols to be supported.
D. To select the appropriate switches.
E. To select the number of LAN ports required.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which of the following are characteristic in defining a Campus Backbone submodule? (Choose Three.)
A. Partial mesh generally used to avoid redundant links.
B. Usually, no policy enforcement.
C. Provides high speed, low overhead of low latency switching.
D. Full mesh to allow redundancy.
E. Implements policy-based filtering.
F. Transports aggregate traffic from the other submodules and functional areas.
G. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 86
What are the design options that will allow network segmentation? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs
B. Token Ring
C. Ethernet Trunking
D. Separate, flat networks
E. Rapid Spanning Tree (RST)

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which of the following application characteristics are important to the Enterprise Edge design process? (Choose three.)
A. Data content
B. Bandwidth usage
C. Database size
D. Delay sensitivity
E. Loss tolerance

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 88
Which two routing protocols are more appropriate in an NBMA environment? (Choose two)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
D: Intitialy OSPF was designed for networks that consisted of point-to-point links, but later it was successfully adapted for operation in LAN and NBMA environments.
C: EIGRP is suitable for nonbroadcast multi-access (NBMA) environments where there are split horizon issues, such as with Frame Relay or ATM multipoint interfaces. Not B or A: Use of RIP and RIPv2 in NBMA networks is not appropriate because of large bandwidth requirements at the Network Management module of a campus network design
QUESTION 89
Cisco has various management tools aimed at various markets. Which of the following Cisco network management tools is targeted toward small to medium-size business?
A. Netsys
B. CiscoWorks Lite
C. CiscoWorks Standard
D. CiscoWorks Premium
E. CiscoWorks for Windows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Certkiller has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network.
LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application.

What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Inventory Manager: Inventory Manager provides current inventory of all Cisco devices (routers, switches, firewalls) in the network, including support for Cisco CallManager, VPN concentrator, and WAN switches. Hardware and software summary information, includes detailed reports for groups of devices, memory, flash, software version, interface, and stack modules.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-19
QUESTION 92
According to good network design practices, what should be done to segment a physical network? (Choose three)
A. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of broadcast domains.
B. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of failure domains.
C. Use a Layer 2, switched domain to reduce the size of a collision domain.
D. Use Layer 2 switched domains to increase the size of a policy domain.
E. Use access control list to define policy domains.
F. Use access control lists to define failure domains.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which factors in a business environment will increase the need for remote access? (Choose Two.)
A. The ability to provide a more flexible work environment.
B. The need for authentication.
C. The rising costs of office space.
D. The need for a means of charging back leasing costs.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A. Having remote users will decrease the need for additional office space.
C. Allowing users to work from home provide a more flexible work environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B. The need for authentication would not suggest a need for remote access.
D. Irrelevant
QUESTION 94
What are the features that influence Redundancy requirements of a WAN from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose Two.)
A. Impact if the site is an aggregation point.
B. Impact of the site is non-existent or unavailable.
C. Routing and switching requirements
D. Critical importance of the site and the number of users.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The correct answers should be:
-criticality of the site – number of users According to Cisco.
Not A: The official Cisco course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2”
states on page 3-16 “Branch offices normally do not act as aggregation points. Redundancy depends on
the criticality of the site and the number of users”.

QUESTION 95
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which ATM service class will not allow delay or loss and is the most appropriate for traffic.
What would your reply be?
A. Real Time Variable Bit Rate (rt-VBR)
B. Constant Bit Rate (CBR)
C. Virtual Time Variable Bit Rate (vt-VBR)
D. Available Bit Rate (ABR)
E. Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)
F. Non-Real Time Bit Rate (nrt-VBR)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Constant bit rate (CBR): This traffic category has a bandwidth guarantee. Use it for traffic least tolerant of delay or loss.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-35.
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following application requirements would make DSL an inappropriate choice for a Layer 1 technology?
A. Low cost
B. High bandwidth
C. High link quality
D. Always on
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprises are increasingly turning to DSL to expand the use of telecommuting, reduce costs, and provide Internet-based services. DSL offers always-on access, allowing users to work at remote offices as if they were on site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-66
QUESTION 97
When designing a network for an online bookstore, the availability of which two Enterprise Edge modules would be the most critical issue? (Select two)
A. WAN module
B. Internet Connectivity module
C. Remote Access and VNP module
D. E-commerce module

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
For book store the most critical are E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity module.
E-Commerce: Enables enterprises to deploy e-commerce applications and take advantage of the Internet.
All e-commerce transactions pass through a series of intelligent services to provide performance,
scalability, and availability within the overall e-commerce network design.

Internet connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network (VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module.

Reference: Arch student guide p.3-5

QUESTION 98
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an ATM network.
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which method is used to prevent large data volumes from delaying voice packets on the Certkiller network.
What will your reply be?
A. CCS
B. FRF.11
C. Increased MTU
D. Separate VCs for data and voice

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
All other answers are wrong. With separate Vc you could easily assign different QOS parameters
QUESTION 99
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has a regional office in London and branch offices in Newcastle, Oxford, and Liverpool. You need to provide redundancy from Oxford office to the office in London.
What two choices can you make? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Dual Wan links to the regional office
C. Dual Wan links to another branch office
D. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another office

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
If the branch office requires redundant links, the design will use either dual WAN links to two different regions or connect to another branch that connects to a regional site. The link between two branch offices is generally the minimum amount of bandwidth to support each branch. In that case, oversize the link between the branch and regional site to support a fraction of the bandwidth (usually half) of the other branch site. A third method is to implement a dial-on-demand circuit through either ISDN or the PSTN.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-22.
QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are no longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other. Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirement of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
QUESTION 101

A network administrator is designing the routing schema to be used for the WAN connections between the corporate headquarters and the branch offices. Each of the branch offices has its own network server providing most of the local services needed. The branch offices need only periodic connectivity to the corporate headquarters, so ISDN BRI in a DDR configuration was chosen for WAN connectivity.
Which two routing protocols are most appropriate for this network? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPD
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because both these routing protocol have a feature call snapshot routing.

The following routing protocols are supported for snapshot routing :

1 – RTMP.
2 – RTP.
3 – RIPv2.
4 – IGRP.
5 – Novel IPX – RIP and SAP

QUESTION 102
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has been issued a portion of a Class C address from their ISP. There are 320 users that will need access to the Internet. The CEO now wants you to design a network that requires private internal addressing for the users within the company and also requires a website for external users.
Which types of Network Address Translation would you propose? (Choose two.)
A. Static
B. Overlapping
C. Persistent
D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static NAT would be good for the Web server. Dynamic NAT should be used for the 320 users of the
company.
Static NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT
is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network.
Dynamic NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP
addresses.

QUESTION 103
Certkiller has obtained a block of public Internet addresses to provide addresses for their publicly accessed services. Part of the Certkiller.com corporate network is illustrated in the network topology exhibit.

Which one of the following statements is the best design for the Internet connectivity solution?
A. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, static routing should be used on the Internet routers, with static routes on each Internet router pointing to the networks hosted by the ISP connected to the router.
B. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made to ISP A, and floating static routes should be installed to direct traffic to ISP B.
C. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made both ISP A and ISP B.
D. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, the Internet routers should be configured to run HSRP.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Certkiller.com, an insurance company, has a single link to the Internet through a local ISP. The ISP provides web hosting for Certkiller.com. E-mail is the main application for 175 users at Certkiller.com’s single office. The remaining 750 employees at Certkiller.com are involved in the manufacturing process and do not have network access. Fifteen host devices, available in kiosks to all employees, are used for internal human resource applications.
You are now required to recommend a suitable routing mechanism for the Certkiller.com enterprise edge.
A. RIP V2
B. BGP
C. Default route
D. IBGP
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When Implementing a single-homed system, the routing decision is to use default routes pointing to the network that connects the site to the ISP. The default route is then advertised throughout the corporate site, so that any packets with an unknown destination are forwarded to the ISP.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-57.
QUESTION 105
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity.
What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89
QUESTION 106
In an Internet e-commerce, browser-based application, which method can have the greatest impact on optimizing WAN bandwidth usage?
A. Multiplexing
B. Compression
C. Content networking
D. Secure sockets layer (SSL)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Content networking with its WCCP mechanism provides cashing of web pages and pictures which user already loaded so if he want to load the webpage again it loads from the local cash, not from the Internet.
This optimizes WAN bandwidth usage.
QUESTION 107
The SAFE medium network design suggest which of the following modules?
A. Campus infrastructure and Internet connectivity.
B. Campus infrastructure, Internet connectivity, and network management.
C. Corporate Internet, campus, and WAN.
D. Frame/ATM and ISP edge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.6-82
QUESTION 108
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. Host security
B. Perimeter security
C. Security monitoring
D. Policy management

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Intrusion protection: To ensure that a network remains secure, it is important to regularly test and monitor the state of security preparation. Network vulnerability scanners can proactively identify areas of weakness, and intrusion detection systems can monitor and respond to security events as the occur. Using security monitoring solutions, organizations can obtain unprecedented visibility into both the network data stream and the security posture of the network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-22
QUESTION 109
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode.
B. IPSec in transport mode.
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode.
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.9-40, 9-41.
QUESTION 110
Which of the following IOS queuing features are recommended at present to use as queuing method when sending voice traffic?
A. WFQ
B. IO RTP Priority
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. Codec
F. LLQ
G. ARQ
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
In choosing from among the many available prioritization sc hemes, the major factors to consider include the type of traffic involved and the type of media on the WAN. For multiservice traffic over an IP WAN, Cisco recommends low-latency queuing (LLQ) for low-speed links. LLQ allows up to 64 traffic classes with the ability to specify, for example, strict priority queuing behavior for voice and interactive video. A minimum bandwidth for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) data and market data feeds, and weighted fair queuing for other traffic types.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-77.

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