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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You are starting with the text shown at the left side of the exhibit. How should you edit it so that the text follows the inside of the circle as shown at the right side of the exhibit?
A. Adjust the value for D to move the text inside the circle.
B. Adjust the value for C to move the text inside the circle.
C. Drag bracket B toward the center of the circle.
D. Drag bracket A toward the center of the circle.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
How would you navigate between multiple artboards using the Artboards panel?
A. Click the Artboard Options icon.
B. Click the arrows at the bottom of the panel.
C. Double-click the name of the artboard.
D. Double-click the number of the artboard.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You created area type but the container is too wide. How should you make it narrower without distorting the type?
A. With the Type tool, drag the right side of the container.
B. With the Scale tool, drag the right side of the container.
C. With the Selection tool, drag the middle square handle on the right side of the container.
D. With the Selection tool, drag the round blue handle on the right side of the container.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
After exporting an Illustrator file to PDF, you notice that some transparent objects were flattened. What are two reasons objects would have been flattened? (Choose two)
A. The document was saved with Compatibility set to Acrobat 4 (PDF 1.3).
B. The Illustrator file contained PSD files with transparent areas.
C. The PDF document was created by using File > Export instead of File > Save As.
D. The PDF document was saved with Standard set to PDF/X-4:2008.
E. The Illustrator file contained Illustrator artwork placed as EPS files.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 5
You have built a color illustration. Before printing, you want to see how each ink color plate will appear, individually. Which technique should you use?
A. Use the Flattener Preview Panel
B. Choose View > Overprint Preview
C. Choose View > Proof Colors
D. Use the Separations Preview Panel

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
How should you replace an existing global swatch with another swatch?
A. Delete the existing swatch, then rename the new swatch to match the deleted swatch.
B. Open the Swatch Options dialog box and change the new swatch name to match the existing swatch.
C. Command+drag (OS X) or Ctrl+drag (Windows) the new swatch over the existing swatch.
D. Option+drag (OS X) or Alt+drag (Windows) the new swatch over the existing swatch.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
Which of these goals is a reason to use point type instead of area type?
A. You want to add labels under city symbols on a map.
B. You want to convert type to editable outlines.
C. You want to enter text that wraps at a specific width.
D. You want to thread paragraphs of text from one shape to another.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
You are working on a document that contains objects on multiple layers. You want to edit several objects on a specific layer while still seeing artwork on other layers, but without the chance of accidentally modifying artwork on those other layers. What is the best way to do this?
A. Select the layer you want to edit and choose Enter Isolation Mode from the Layers panel menu.
B. Double click an object located on the layer that you want to edit.
C. Ctrl+Shift+click (Windows) or Option+Shift+dick (OS X) the lock icon next to the layer you want to edit.
D. Click the target icon on the layer that you want to edit.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 52
Which statement about a layer using the Preserve Underlying Transparency option is true?
A. It borrows the alpha channel from the layers below it.
B. It only works properly if the layer below it is NOT using the Silhouette Alpha transfer mode.
C. It preserves the transparency of a layer when using any effect that operates on its alpha channel.
D. It only works properly if there are NO other layers in the composition with the same option enabled.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
You import a logo that was saved as an Adobe Illustrator file. When you first place the logo in a composition, it appears to be high quality. After scaling the artwork by 400%, you notice the edges of the logo appear jagged and bitmapped. Which layer switch should you choose to correct this?
A. Quality
B. Motion Blur
C. Adjustment Layer
D. Collapse Transformations

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button.
The image in the exhibit represents four masks drawn on a single layer. The layer is a red solid layer.
Mask A was drawn first, followed by masks B, C, and D. You want masks C and D to have the same effect

on the layer as A and B.
What should you do?
A. select mask C, and then choose Layer > Mask > Mode > Subtract
B. select mask D, and then choose Layer > Mask > Mode > Subtract
C. select mask C, and then choose Layer > Mask > Mode > Intersect
D. select mask D, and then choose Layer > Mask > Mode > Intersect

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You create a mask shape around a person in a video layer with the Pen tool.
You want to animate the mask. To accomplish this, you navigate to the point in time to which you want to add a Mask Shape keyframe and _____.
A. redraw the mask
B. adjust vertices of the mask
C. ensure that the Pen tool is active and click on RotoBezier
D. choose Window > Smart Mask Interpolation and click Apply

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Which statement about masks is true?
A. Default temporal interpolation for Mask Shape keyframes is Bezier.
B. You CANNOT change the designation of the first vertex position on a mask.
C. You can copy a Mask Shape keyframe into an effect point property of an effect.
D. Mask Shape keyframes can all be selected at once by double clicking on the Layer Name.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
What are three requirements for creating track mattes? (Choose three.)
A. The video switch for the matte layer must be set to off.
B. The video switch for the matte layer must be set to on.
C. The Track Matte options must be set on the layer below the matte.
D. The Track Matte options must be set on the layer above the matte.
E. The Track Matte must be directly on top of the layer you want to be transparent.
F. The Track Matte layer must contain a partially or fully transparent area in its alpha channel.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 58
Which statement about transparency in After Effects is true?
A. If you import one layer from a Photoshop file, After Effects imports the layer mask as a straight alpha channel.
B. After Effects does NOT support Hue, Saturation, Color, or Exclusion blending modes applied to a Photoshop file.
C. If you import a layered Photoshop file as footage, After Effects merges the transparent areas and layer masks of all layers into one alpha channel premultiplied with black.
D. When you import a Photoshop file as a composition, vector masks are NOT converted to After Effects masks. You must copy and paste masks from Photoshop to After Effects to edit them.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
When should you use a Luma Inverted matte?
A. when you want to invert the luma levels of a layer being matted
B. when you have used the Channel > Invert effect on the layer below the matte
C. when you want to use the luma levels as transparency for the layer above a matte layer
D. when you want to use the lighter areas of an Image layer to create more transparency on the layer below a matte

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which statement about OpenGL Previews is true?
A. OpenGL works with 8 and 16 bpc projects only.
B. OpenGL supports layers up to 4096×4096 in size.
C. If your OpenGL hardware does NOT support a feature in a composition, After Effects will disable OpenGL Previews.
D. You must have your composition’s 3D rendering plug-in under Composition Settings set to OpenGL in order to use the OpenGL Preview options.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which statement about working with custom 3D views is true?
A. You can use the shortcut F10, F11, or F12 to switch between custom views .
B. To adjust a custom view, you click on one of the three axis modes located above the Composition panel.
C. You can view both 2D and 3D layers from a number of angles and distances using layers called Cameras without having to add an effect to the layers themselves.
D. The active camera is the topmost camera in the Timeline panel at the current time. You CANNOT create a custom view without first creating a custom Camera layer in your composition.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which statement about the Camera Zoom setting is true?
A. The Camera Zoom setting cannot be animated.
B. The Camera Zoom setting controls the Z position of a 2-point camera.
C. If the Camera Zoom setting is 400 when created, the camera will be placed 400 units away from 0 on the Z-Axis.
D. If the Camera Zoom setting is 400 and Depth of Field is enabled, then any layer more than 400 units rom the camera will be blurry.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
What is ambient light?
A. unconstrained omnidirectional light
B. light from a source that is constrained by a cone
C. directional, unconstrained light from an infinitely distant source
D. light that contributes to the overall brightness of a scene and casts no shadows

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
Click the Exhibit button.
Which should you click to convert keyframes selected in the Graph Editor to Hold?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
You have a layer moving along a motion path defined by several keyframes.
You want to move the entire motion path slightly to the right while keeping the animation exactly the same proportionally.
How can you move all of the Spatial keyframes of the layer at the same time and NOT change the shape of the path?
A. in the Timeline, select all position keyframes and move them to the right
B. in the Composition window select the first and last position keyframe; hold the Shift key and drag them to their new position
C. in the Timeline, move to any frame without a keyframe; click on the Position property; in the Composition window, move the layer
D. in the Timeline, move to any Position keyframe; select all of the Position keyframes; in the Composition window, drag the layer to the new position

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
What is the function of the Show Reference Graph command in the Graph Editor?
A. It allows you to see another property’s graph.
B. It shows you a previous version of the graph you are currently editing for comparison.
C. It allows you to see the same property’s speed graph while working with its value graph.
D. It allows you to save and view a selected graph as a reference for other layers or properties.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
You add a wiggle expression of (10,50) to both the X and Y position values of a layer. After 3 seconds of wiggle, you want to taper the wiggle magnitude from 50 to 0 over 1 second, restoring the default position of the layer. What should you do?
A. click the position stopwatch at 3 seconds to add a keyframe; scrub to 4 seconds; change the Position values from 50, 50 to 0,0
B. add a Null Object and keyframe its position from 50,50 to 0,0 between 3 and 4 seconds; pickwhip the Magnitude value of the expression to the Position value of the Null Object
C. highlight the Magnitude value in the expression; add a Slider Control effect to the layer; pickwhip the Magnitude value to the Slider property in the Effect Controls Palette, setting the Slider value to 0,0
D. add a Slider Control effect to the layer; pickwhip the Magnitude value in the expression to the Slider property in the Effect Controls palette; add keyframes between 3 and 4 seconds for the Slider value from 50 to 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Click the Exhibit button.
For the graphic shown in the exhibit, you want each letter to remain on screen for a full second. You select the Mask Shape keyframes and choose Animation > Keyframe Interpolation to open the Keyframe Interpolation dialog box.
Which should you choose next?

A. Lock To Time from the Roving pop-up menu
B. Current Settings from the Roving pop-up menu
C. Hold from the Spatial Interpolation pop-up menu
D. Hold from the Temporal Interpolation pop-up menu

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement about the keyframes shown in the exhibit is true?
A. The default temporal interpolation is Bezier.
B. The shape of the keyframe at 3 seconds indicates that it is Auto Bezier.
C. The shape of the keyframe at 4 seconds indicates that it is Auto Bezier.
D. To add a position keyframe at 1 second without changing the value, you navigate to 1 second and click the stopwatch.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 70
You are working with keyframes that are 2-toned. The keyframes are (dark gray on one side, and light gray on the other. What does the dark gray side indicate?
A. The Keyframe Velocity is not continuous.
B. There is NO interpolation taking place on that side.
C. There is NO keyframe within 10 frames of that side.
D. The spatial interpolation method is different from the temporal interpolation method.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Which statement about Animation Presets is true?
A. You can only apply one animation preset to any layer.
B. You CANNOT apply them to Lights, Cameras or Null Objects.
C. You can apply all or some of an animation preset’s components to a layer.
D. They can include effects and expressions, but NOT transformation data or masks.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
By default, which color space setting does After Effects use?
A. None
B. SDTV
C. Adobe RGB
D. sRGB IEC61966-2.1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
Which statement about the HDR Compander effect is true?
A. The HDR Compander works with both 8bpc and 16bpc footage.
B. The HDR Compander effect does NOT affect the range of values in the footage.
C. The HDR Compander effect gives you a way to work with effects that do not support HDR without sacrificing the high dynamic range of your image.
D. The HDR Compander effect works by first expanding the shadow values in the HDR image. When you are finished, the effect is applied to adjust the dynamic range back to the original value.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
You are working with HDR footage and want to adjust the exposure of the footage. The exposure control is not available. What should you do?
A. choose File > Project Settings; under the Depth pulldown menu, select 32 bits per channel
B. choose File > Project Settings; under the Depth pulldown menu, select 16 bits per channel
C. choose Composition > Composition Settings; under the Preset pulldown menu, select either Film (2K) or Film (4K)
D. choose Composition > Composition Settings; under the Preset pulldown menu, select either Cineon Half or Cineon Full

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
Which statement about OpenGL Previews is true?
A. OpenGL works with 8 and 16 bpc projects only.
B. OpenGL supports layers up to 4096×4096 in size.
C. If your OpenGL hardware does NOT support a feature in a composition, After Effects will disable OpenGL Previews.
D. You must have your composition’s 3D rendering plug-in under Composition Settings set to OpenGL in order to use the OpenGL Preview options.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What is ambient light?
A. unconstrained omnidirectional light
B. light from a source that is constrained by a cone
C. directional, unconstrained light from an infinitely distant source
D. light that contributes to the overall brightness of a scene and casts no shadows

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Which statement about working with custom 3D views is true?
A. You can use the shortcut F10, F11, or F12 to switch between custom views .
B. To adjust a custom view, you click on one of the three axis modes located above the Composition panel.
C. You can view both 2D and 3D layers from a number of angles and distances using layers called Cameras without having to add an effect to the layers themselves.
D. The active camera is the topmost camera in the Timeline panel at the current time. You CANNOT create a custom view without first creating a custom Camera layer in your composition.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
Which statement about the Camera Zoom setting is true?
A. The Camera Zoom setting cannot be animated.
B. The Camera Zoom setting controls the Z position of a 2-point camera.
C. If the Camera Zoom setting is 400 when created, the camera will be placed 400 units away from 0 on the Z-Axis.
D. If the Camera Zoom setting is 400 and Depth of Field is enabled, then any layer more than 400 units rom the camera will be blurry.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
You add a wiggle expression of (10,50) to both the X and Y position values of a layer. After 3 seconds of wiggle, you want to taper the wiggle magnitude from 50 to 0 over 1 second, restoring the default position of the layer. What should you do?
A. click the position stopwatch at 3 seconds to add a keyframe; scrub to 4 seconds; change the Position values from 50, 50 to 0,0
B. add a Null Object and keyframe its position from 50,50 to 0,0 between 3 and 4 seconds; pickwhip the Magnitude value of the expression to the Position value of the Null Object
C. highlight the Magnitude value in the expression; add a Slider Control effect to the layer; pickwhip the Magnitude value to the Slider property in the Effect Controls Palette, setting the Slider value to 0,0
D. add a Slider Control effect to the layer; pickwhip the Magnitude value in the expression to the Slider
property in the Effect Controls palette; add keyframes between 3 and 4 seconds for the Slider value from 50 to 0 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
Which three effects can be saved as an Animation Preset? (Choose three.)
A. Masks
B. Position
C. Motion Blur
D. Track Mattes
E. Audio Effects
F. Transfer Controls (layer modes)

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 81
You have a layer moving along a motion path defined by several keyframes.
You want to move the entire motion path slightly to the right while keeping the animation exactly the same proportionally. How can you move all of the Spatial keyframes of the layer at the same time and NOT change the shape of the path?
A. in the Timeline, select all position keyframes and move them to the right
B. in the Composition window select the first and last position keyframe; hold the Shift key and drag them to their new position
C. in the Timeline, move to any frame without a keyframe; click on the Position property; in the Composition window, move the layer
D. in the Timeline, move to any Position keyframe; select all of the Position keyframes; in the Composition window, drag the layer to the new position

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
Which is a method of temporal interpolation, but NOT a method of spatial interpolation?
A. Hold
B. Linear
C. Bezier
D. Continuous Bezier

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You animate the position of a footage layer that must be visible for the entire length of a composition. The position animation contains several keyframes, and lasts 10 seconds.
You want the animation to last only 5 seconds. You do NOT want to change the relative time between the keyframes. What should you do?
A. select all keyframes and Alt+Drag the last keyframe to the 5 second mark
B. select the keyframes and then use the Exponential Scale keyframe assistant
C. convert all keyframes to roving keyframes, and move the last keyframe to the 5 second mark
D. select the keyframes, and then use the Time Stretch command to set the stretch factor to 50% Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
Which is a feature of the Graph Editor?
A. a button for converting expressions to keyframes
B. the ability to separate the timing of animation on the XYZ axes
C. the ability to see several animated properties displayed at once
D. a button for quickly converting Temporal keyframes into Roving keyframes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
You add keyframes to a layer and animate its position over time. You choose Animation > Keyframe Assistant > Easy Ease. You want to further refine the easing effect. You open the Graph Editor and click on the Graph Options button. Which option should you choose?
A. Edit Value Graph
B. Edit Speed Graph
C. Show Reference Graph
D. Show Expression Editor

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 58
You create four text boxes, however, you realize you only need four text fields. What is the quickest way to replace the static text boxes with text fields?
A. delete the text boxes and recreate with text fields
B. select all text boxes, then choose Insert > Standard > Text Field
C. select all text boxes and in the Draw tab of the Object palette change the Type: to Text Field
D. select the text boxes one at a time and in the Draw tab of the Object palette change the Type: to Text Field

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
What should you do to copy a form field into the Library palette?
A. drag the field and drop it into the Library
B. copy the field, right-click in the Library, and choose Paste from the pulldown
C. right-click on the field in the form and choose Paste Into Library from the options
D. copy the field, and click on the More button at the top right corner of the Library palette

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which changes when you choose Layout > Make Same Size > Both?
A. the X: and Y: values
B. the Left: and Right: margins
C. the Width: and Height: values
D. the Top: and Bottom: margins

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
When selecting multiple objects, a large bounding box appears around the selected objects. What happens when you grab a corner to resize the group?
A. All objects resize.
B. The object at the top is resized.
C. The object at the bottom is resized.
D. All objects are repositioned on the page; their size does not change.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
How do you lock all text objects on the form design?
A. choose Edit > Lock Text
B. choose Edit > Lock Fields
C. choose Edit > Lock Static Objects
D. choose Edit > Select All and then right-click on the selection and choose Lock Static Objects
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You want to initiate a browser-based review. What must you configure before you can upload your file?
A. a security policy
B. the review Tracker
C. an Online Comments Repository
D. an Adobe LiveCycle Policy Sewer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
How should you enable a PDF document so that it has commenting rights in Adobe Reader 7.0?
A. send for an email-based review using Acrobat 7.0 Standard
B. upload for a browser-based review using Acrobat 7.0 Standard
C. send for an email-based review using Acrobat 7.0 Professional
D. upload for a browser-based review using Acrobat 7.0 Professional
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
You have changed the color of a note comment that you have added to a PDF document. What should you do to make all new notes that you create use the same color?
A. Nothing. The new color automatically becomes the default.
B. click on the Options menu in the pop-up window and choose Properties
C. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the note icon and choose Properties
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the note icon and choose Make Current Properties Default

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which do you need in order to produce in-RIP separations?
A. a Postscript level I output device
B. a PostScript level II output device
C. a Postscript level III output device
D. a Postscript level III output device and a PPD that supports in-RIP separations

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
You want to change the order in which your inks are printed. Which option on the Print Production toolbar allows you to change the trapping sequence for the document?
A. Preflight
B. Ink Manager
C. Trap Presets
D. Transparency Flattening

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which statement about the color management engine in Adobe Acrobat 7.0 Professional is true?
A. The color management engine specifies the compression and resampling options for color images.
B. The color management engine describes the final destination device you will use to reproduce the color of your PDF document.
C. The color management engine specifies the system and color-matching method used to convert colors between color spaces.
D. The color management engine characterizes and calibrates your monitor, allowing you bring it into compliance with a predefined standard.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
Which is required to encrypt a PDF document so that only specific individuals have permissions to access the PDF document?
A. your own certificate only
B. the individuals’ public key certificates only
C. access to an Adobe LiveCycle Policy Server
D. the individuals’ public key certificates and your own certificate
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
You want to set the security on a PDF document to enable plaintext metadata. Which Compatibility setting should you use?
A. Low (40-bit RC4)
B. High (128-bit RC4)
C. Acrobat 5.0 and later
D. Acrobat 6.0 and later

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
You want to edit an existing security policy. Which should you choose?
A. Advanced > Security Settings
B. File > Document Properties > Security
C. Document > Security > Secure this Document
D. Document > Security > Manage Security Policies

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Where can you change the color of custom guidelines?
A. in the Border palette
B. in the Drawing Aids palette next to Show Object Boundaries
C. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Guideline Definitions section
D. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Grid and Ruler Settings section

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
Where can you change the color or object boundaries such as text boxes, subforms, image fields, etc?
A. in the Border palette
B. in the Drawing Aids palette next to Show Object Boundaries
C. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Guideline Definitions section
D. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Grid and Ruler Settings section

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
You want to control the number of times a Master Page repeats by restricting its PageSet occurrence. What should you do?
A. Nothing. You CANNOT control the number of times a Master Page repeats.
B. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Master Page icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Layout Menu.
C. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Content area icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Layout Menu.
D. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Master Page icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Object palette.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
You have a group of form objects that comprise a personal information section. You plan on using this same grouping of objects in future form designs. What should you do to make this task easier to perform?
A. select the objects; then, choose Edit > Copy Multiple
B. select the objects, Copy and Paste them into the different forms
C. select the objects; then, add them to the Custom tab of the Library
D. select the objects; then, choose Layout > Group, then Copy and Paste them into the different forms

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 72
You want to set the security on a PDF document to enable plaintext metadata. Which Compatibility setting should you use?
A. Low (40-bit RC4)
B. High (128-bit RC4)
C. Acrobat 5.0 and later
D. Acrobat 6.0 and later
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
You want to edit an existing security policy. Which should you choose?
A. Advanced > Security Settings
B. File > Document Properties > Security
C. Document > Security > Secure this Document
D. Document > Security> Manage Security Policies

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
Your company is providing organizational security policies via an Adobe LiveCycle Policy Server. Which should you choose to configure Acrobat to access the Adobe LiveCycle Policy Server?
A. Advanced > Security Settings
B. Advanced > Trusted Identities
C. Document > Security > Synchronize for Offline
D. Document > Security > Use APS Web Console

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
What is the purpose of the permissions password in a PDF document?
A. It unlocks the document for viewing.
B. It sets the document so that it can be printed.
C. It ensures that the file is accessible to the visually impaired.
D. It enables a user with the password to reset the permissions in a protected file.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
You are creating a form template in Adobe Designer and you want to preview how the form will look when the form fields are populated. What should you do?
A. choose File > Publish to Repository
B. choose Window > Font and specify the font to use
C. click on the Master Pages tab, fill in the necessary information to preview it
D. choose File > Form Properties > Defaults and specify an XML data file to be used

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
You are creating a form in Adobe Designer that takes advantage of Dynamic Forms features. Which statement is true?
A. You must choose File > Publish to Repository.
B. You must save the file as an Acrobat 6 Compatible PDF Form File.
C. You are not be able to use Dynamic Forms in versions of Acrobat 6.0 and earlier.
D. You must enable the Dynamic Forms for Acrobat Reader with the Reader Extensions Server.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
You are creating a form in Adobe Designer and want to ensure that the preview type is for a print form rather than an interactive form. What should you do?
A. choose Tools > Options
B. choose File > Form Properties > Info
C. choose File > Form Properties > Defaults
D. click the Show pulldown menu and choose the prePrint option

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 79
You are creating a file in Adobe Designer upon which future form designs will be based. In which file format should you save the document?
A. .FDF
B. .XDP
C. .PDF
D. .TDS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
How should you change the grid in the Drawing Aids palette, so that you have a gridline every two inches down the page?
A. under Grid and Ruler Settings, change the Y: Origin: to 2
B. under Grid and Ruler Settings, change the Y: Interval: to 2
C. click in the white box under Vertical Guideline Definitions and type 2
D. click on the green plus sign under Vertical Guideline Definitions and type 2

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 81
Your font information is missing from the toolbar at the top of the screen. What should you do?
A. choose select Window > Font.
B. choose select Tools > Customize and check the Font option
C. choose select Window > Manage Palettes > Reset Palette Locations
D. choose select Tools > Customize and check the Font and Paragraph options

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Where can you change the color of custom guidelines?
A. in the Border palette
B. in the Drawing Aids palette next to Show Object Boundaries
C. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Guideline Definitions section
D. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Grid and Ruler Settings section

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
Where can you change the color of object boundaries such as text boxes, subforms, image fields, etc?
A. in the Border palette
B. in the Drawing Aids palette next to Show Object Boundaries
C. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Guideline Definitions section
D. in the Drawing Aids palette in the Grid and Ruler Settings section

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
You want to change the units of measure for a form design from inches to points. Where or how should you make this change?
A. in the Layout palette
B. in the Data View palette
C. in the Drawing Aids palette
D. by choosing File > Form Properties

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
You have opened a PDF document and all of the toolbars are hidden from view. The menu bar is still visible. You want the toolbars to be visible. Which should you do?
A. choose View > Menu Bar
B. choose View > Full Screen
C. choose View > Toolbars > Show Toolbars
D. choose View > Task Buttons> Show All Task Buttons

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
You want all PDF documents to open at a specific zoom percentage. What should you do?
A. with no file open, choose View > Full Screen View
B. set the desired magnification level in an open document and then quit Acrobat
C. set a Default Zoom value in the Page Display panel of the Preferences dialog box
D. set a magnification percentage in the Initial View panel of the Document Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
You are creating a text field and want the text describing the field to align with the right of the box. What should you do to change the alignment of text in a text field?
A. in the Layout palette change the Anchor position
B. in the Layout palette change the Caption position
C. in the Field tab of the Object palette change the Locale option
D. in the Field tab of the Object palette change the Appearance option

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
You want to control the number of times a Master Page repeats by restricting its PageSet occurrence. What should you do?
A. Nothing. You CANNOT control the number of times a Master Page repeats.
B. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Master Page icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Layout Menu.
C. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Content area icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Layout Menu.
D. In the Hierarchy palette, you click on the Master Page icon, and choose Restrict PageSet Occurrence from the Object palette.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You have a group of form objects that comprise a personal information section. You plan on using this same grouping of objects in future form designs. What should you do to make this task easier to perorm?
A. select the objects; then, choose Edit > Copy Multiple
B. select the objects, Copy and Paste them into the different forms
C. select the objects; then, add them to the Custom tab of the Library
D. select the objects; then, choose Layout > Group, then Copy and Paste them into the different forms

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
You have a radio button selected and want to move it two inches to the left. Which measurement should you change?
A. the X: value
B. the Y: value
C. the Left: Margin
D. the Right: Margin

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which object should you use to have images dynamically load into a form?
A. Image
B. Rectangle
C. Image Field
D. Content Area

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 92
Which should you use for entering a name for a field in the Binding tab of the Object palette?
A. stateTaxPercent
B. state Tax Percent
C. state.Tax.Percent
D. state/Tax/Percent

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
Which type of form design in Adobe Designer works in conjunction with Form Server, and allows the form to grow or shrink according to the amount of data merging into it?
A. Blank Form
B. Static Form
C. Dynamic Form
D. Interactive Form

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
In a dynamic form, you want to present specific read-only text that you expect to change each time the form is rendered. Which object should you use?
A. Text object
B. Subform object
C. Text Field object
D. Content Area object

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
You want to ensure that elements, such as page numbering appear in the same position on all pages of your form design. Where should you place these elements?
A. in the Body Page
B. on a Master Page
C. in the Data View palette
D. in the Custom tab of the Library palette Correct Answer: B

 

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QUESTION 71
Which is an advantage of using a vector drawing tool over a raster painting tool?
A. Vector shapes use layers.
B. Vector shapes use 16-bit/channel color rendering.
C. Vector shapes can have filters applied to them repeatedly.
D. Vector shapes can be repeatedly transformed without degrading their edges.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Which mask does a shape layer use by default?
A. vector
B. raster
C. clipping
D. transparency

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
You have created a path by using the Pen tool. You want to transform the path using Perspective. What should you do?
A. select the path using the Path Selection tool, then choose Edit > Transform Path > Perspective
B. select the path using the Direct Selection tool, then choose Edit > Transform Path > Perspective
C. select the path using the Path Selection tool, then choose Select > Transform Selection > Perspective
D. select the path using the Direct Selection tool, then choose Select > Transform Selection > Perspective

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
You have created a line of text. You want to reduce the amount of space between every character in the line. What should you do?
A. decrease the leading
B. decrease the baseline shift
C. choose a negative value for kerning
D. choose a negative value for tracking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
Click the Exhibit button.
Which adjustment has the greatest effect on lightening the shadows in an image with the Curves dialog box shown in the exhibit?

A. moving curve point 1 up
B. moving curve point 2 up
C. moving curve point 1 down
D. moving curve point 2 down

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before your last several edits. Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to make the gradient in the exhibit transition from black to white more quickly. What should you

do?

A. add an opacity stop between points 1 and 2
B. add an opacity stop between points 2 and 3
C. add a white color stop between points 1 and 2
D. add a white color stop between points 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
You are using a Brush tool. Which blending mode always results in a darker color?
A. Behind
B. Normal
C. Screen
D. Multiply

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
Your foreground swatch is red, your background swatch is orange.
Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values. Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image. What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which statement about creating custom brushes is true?
A. Feathering must be set to 0.
B. The pixels used to define a brush must be grayscale.
C. A brush can be created from any selection up to 2500×2500 pixels.
D. The selection you use to create the brush must contain a variety of color values.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
You are using the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image. Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A. Flow
B. Aligned
C. Impressionist
D. Protect Texture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to the PostScript printer. What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers’ vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer > Rasterize > All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. select Include Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You enable color management in your printer driver dialog box. You want to print an RGB image. Which color handling method should you choose in the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
You measure a laser printer’s resolution in _____ per inch and you measure an image’s resolution in _____ per inch.
A. dots; dots
B. dots; pixels
C. pixels; dots
D. pixels; pixels

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
What should you do to apply a keyword to a selected image being viewed in Adobe Bridge?
A. double-click the keyword in the Keywords panel
B. select the check box next to the keyword in the Keywords panel
C. drag the keyword from the Keywords panel to the image being viewed
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) the image and choose the keyword from the resulting menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
You have a folder of images. You want to rename each image with new text, a sequence number, and the current extension, and copy the renamed file to another folder. What should you do?
A. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
B. from Photoshop, choose File > Scripts > Image Processor
C. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Version Cue > Make Alternates
D. from Photoshop, choose File > Automate > Batch, then choose Rename from the Actions pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
You are using Adobe Bridge to view metadata. You want to limit the information in each category to the information you use. What should you do?
A. choose View > Compact Mode
B. from the Metadata panel, click the triangle to the left of the items you want to hide
C. from the Preferences dialog box, click on Metadata, then uncheck items you want to hide
D. from the Metadata panel, select the items you want to view, then choose Window > Workspace > Save Workspace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You assign a color to an action while creating the action. When is this color used?
A. to fill a selection when the action is played
B. when a Function key has been assigned to the Action
C. when actions are displayed in Button mode in the Actions palette
D. to highlight the Action name when Playback Options are set to Step by Step

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
You play a default action located in the Actions palette. How do you undo the entire action?
A. choose Edit > Undo
B. choose Clear All Actions from the Action palette menu
C. drag the action to the Trash Can at the bottom of the Action palette
D. select a snapshot in the History palette showing the image before the Action was played

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
What happens when you choose the command File > Automate > Fit Image?
A. it resamples an image to within specified dimensions
B. it resamples an image to match another open document
C. it resizes an image to within specified dimensions without resampling
D. it resizes an image to match another open document without resampling

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
You have created an action to open Camera Raw images. You access the action by using the Batch command. In the Source area, you have selected Suppress File Open Options Dialogs. What does this setting do?
A. opens all images in the same color space
B. ignores color profile warnings when opening the files
C. prevents the automatic creation of the first snapshot
D. prevents the Camera Raw dialog box from opening for each image

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Which statement about the Filter Gallery is true?
A. Filter effects can be temporarily hidden in the list of applied filters.
B. Filters that are hidden are still applied when click OK to apply filters.
C. All filters listed under the Filter menu are available in the Filter Gallery.
D. You get the same effect regardless of the order the filters appear in the list of applied filters.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
Which filter allows you to apply different sharpening settings to shadows, highlights, and midtones?
A. Sharpen
B. Sharpen More
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Smart Sharpen

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 48
You are preparing an Illustrator file for color separation. Which color mode should your document be using?
A. RGB color
B. LAB color
C. HSB color
D. CMYK color

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
To which image can you apply a spot color?
A. an embedded color GIF image
B. an embedded color TIFF image
C. an embedded grayscale GIF image
D. an embedded grayscale TIFF image

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which category of print options enables you to create color separations?
A. Setup
B. Output
C. Advanced
D. Color Management

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You create a new Transparency Flattener Preset. Where do you select that preset so that it is used when you print your document?
A. Transparency palette
B. Flattener Preview palette
C. General Settings in the Print dialog box
D. Advanced Settings in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You are converting several vector objects to raster. Which should you select in the Rasterize dialog box so that you can control the resolution globally?
A. Screen (72 ppi)
B. High (300 ppi)
C. Anti-aliasing: None
D. Use Document Raster Effects Resolution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which Web graphic format is resolution-independent?
A. PNG
B. SVG
C. JPEG
D. WBMB
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which format supports transparency on small devices, such as mobile phones?
A. SVG 1.1
B. SVG Tiny 1.1
C. SVG Basic 1.1
D. SVG Tiny 1.1 Plus
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
You are creating a graphic that will be used on the Web. You want to ensure maximum compatibility with the largest number of users, the smallest possible file size, and the highest fidelity to the original graphic. The graphic uses few colors. Which file format should you use?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
You want to make your image interactive when it is viewed in a Web browser. You want to add a JavaScript that will be triggered when the user moves the mouse into a certain area of the image. Which should you choose from the SVG Interactivity palette?
A. onmouseup
B. onmouseout
C. onmouseover
D. onmousedown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
You are creating artwork for animation and will export the artwork as a SWF file. Which type of object should you use to greatly reduce the output size of the SWF file?
A. Mesh
B. Patterns
C. Symbols

D. Gradients Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
You are configuring your Color Settings. You want to utilize color management but want CMYK values to be preserved when opening untagged documents. You also want to use an RGB working color space that is well suited for documents that will be converted to CMYK.
Which default setting should you choose?
A. Monitor Color
B. North America Prepress 2
C. Emulate Adobe Illustrator 6.0
D. North America General Purpose 2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which field in the Color Settings dialog box allows you to choose profiles that will act as the source profiles for newly created documents, which use an associated color model?
A. Settings
B. Advanced Mode
C. Working Spaces
D. Color Management Policies

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
When making default color management decisions, to what does a color management policy compare profiles?
A. the RGB working space
B. the CMYK working space
C. the current working space
D. the rendering intent that is currently selected
E. the color management engine that is currently selected
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which is part of a color managed workflow in Adobe Illustrator?
A. color profiles
B. color swatches
C. symbol libraries
D. graphic style libraries
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Click the Exhibit button. You are browsing files by using Adobe Bridge. What does the icon at the bottom right of the image thumbnail signify?

A. The file is a template.
B. The file is currently open.
C. The file contains alternate versions.
D. The file is an Adobe Stock Photo comp.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You do NOT want Adobe Bridge to show document creation dates in the Metadata pane. What should you do?
A. in Adobe Bridge, be sure that View>Sort>Date Created is NOT checked
B. in the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, select the Date Created line and press the delete key
C. use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, deselect Date Created
D. delete the date and time in the Date Created data field, use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, select Hide Empty Fields

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
You want to have Adobe Bridge act as a floating palette to easily drag assets into your Illustrator document. Which mode should you toggle?
A. Compact mode
B. Thumbnail mode
C. Details View mode
D. Ultra-compact mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
What does Adobe Bridge allow you to do?
A. browse files of all Adobe file formats
B. convert from one Adobe file format to another
C. edit metadata of any file format, Adobe or other
D. convert non-Adobe files to the most closely related Adobe file format
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 53
Which is part of a color managed workflow in Adobe Illustrator?
A. color profiles
B. color swatches
C. symbol libraries
D. graphic style libraries

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
You have been using paragraph styles in your text. You click in a paragraph and notice that there’s a plus
sign next to the style name in the Paragraph Styles palette.
What does the plus sign indicate?

A. Additional text exists but is not visible.
B. The text has been converted to outline.
C. A character style has been applied to the text.
D. The text formatting does not match the paragraph style definition.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.
In the Control palette shown in the exhibit, what is the function of the highlighted icon?
Exhibit:
A. groups objects
B. shows center point
C. aligns objects vertically
D. isolates selected group

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shape mode in the Pathfinder palette was applied to all the objects in Exhibit A to create the image
in Exhibit B?
Exhibit:
A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You have made a text selection. Where can you access the strikethrough text attribute?
A. Type menu
B. Character palette
C. OpenType palette
D. Character palette menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
You want to assign an identical set of stroke, fill, and effects attributes to objects as you create them. Which method should you choose?
A. Fill and Stroke
B. Filter > Stylize
C. Graphic Styles
D. Effects > Stylize

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You have imported text with substituted fonts, which are highlighted. Where do you find the option to turn off the highlighting?
A. File > Place
B. Window > Type > Glyphs
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
When exporting an Adobe Illustrator document, which two formats will export vector graphics data? (Choose two.)
A. TIFF
B. PNG
C. Flash
D. Targa
E. Enhanced Metafile
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 61
Which format supports transparency on small devices, such as mobile phones?
A. SVG 1.1
B. SVG Tiny 1.1
C. SVG Basic 1.1
D. SVG Tiny 1.1 Plus

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You create an object to use as an envelope for a text object. What should you do to the object to ensure that the object distorts the text object?
A. group the object to the text object
B. place the object at the top of the stacking order
C. place the object at the bottom of the stacking order
D. select Distort Appearance from the Envelope Options dialog box Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
You want to define a Pantone ink spot color and place it in the Swatches palette. Which action displays a list of ink brands in order to select Pantone swatches?
A. select Spot Colors from the Swatches palette menu
B. select Create New Swatch from the Color palette menu
C. select Swatch Options from the Swatches palette menu
D. select Open Swatch Library from the Swatches palette menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
When you export an Illustrator file as a PSD and you check the Maximum Editability option, objects will be preserved as vectors and not rasterized if they _____.
A. are grouped
B. are Live Paint groups
C. are compound shapes
D. do NOT have transparency applied

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
What happens when you click on blue underlined text in the Control palette?
A. All palettes show or hide.
B. You are taken to a Help file.
C. You are taken to a Web site.
D. A palette appears under the Control palette.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You are repositioning palettes on your screen. You grab a palette by its tab and drag it so your cursor touches the bottom of another palette on your screen. What happens to the palette you are dragging?
A. It replaces the existing palette.
B. It snaps back to its original position.
C. It becomes docked to the existing palette.
D. It becomes clustered with the existing palette.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
You do NOT want Adobe Bridge to show document creation dates in the Metadata pane. What should you do?
A. in Adobe Bridge, be sure that View>Sort>Date Created is NOT checked
B. in the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, select the Date Created line and press the delete key
C. use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, deselect Date Created
D. delete the date and time in the Date Created data field, use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, selectHide Empty Fields
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
You have made a selection that you want to save as an alpha channel to be used in another image. What should you do?
A. with the selection active, choose Edit>Copy; open the other document and choose Edit>Paste
B. choose Select>Save Selection and select the other file as the destination image in the Document pull-down menu
C. choose File>Save and select As a Copy in the Save menu, and choose the other file as the destination image.
D. Press and hold the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows); click Save Selection as Channel on the Channel palette, and choose the other document as the destination image in the Document menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
An image will be printed using a screen frequency of 150 lpi. Which resolution should you use to produce a high-quality halfone image?
A. 75 ppi
B. 150 ppi
C. 300 ppi
D. 600 ppi

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
You want to scan line art in Bitmap mode and print the image. At which resolution should you scan the line art?
A. the value of the line screen
B. the resolution of the printer
C. the resolution of the scanner
D. two times the value of the line screen

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You create a complex selection that will use many times while working with a document. You choose Select>Save Select. The Selection is stored in the ______ palette.
A. Paths
B. Layers
C. Navigator
D. Channels
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which defect can occur when scanning a photo from a printed document?
A. dithering
B. color fringing
C. downsampling

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
You are correcting images that will be incorporated into a Web site. You primary audience will be viewing
the images on Windows-based computers. You want to simulate how the images will appear on the
majority of their monitors.
Which value should you enter for the Gamma setting in the Adobe Gamma dialog box?

A. 1.0
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
Which painting tool allows only hard-edged brushstrokes?
A. eraser
B. pencil
C. sharpen
D. pattern stamp

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
Which feature or command should you use to save a custom set of styles?
A. the Action palette
B. the Preset Manager
C. choose New Style from the Styles palette menu
D. choose New Style from the Layer Style dialog box.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
You have seamed an image into Adobe Photoshop. You have a profile for your scanner. Which command should you use to ensue that the image is properly color managed?
A. View>Proof Setup
B. View>Proof Colors
C. Image>Mode>Assign Profile
D. Image>Mode>Convert to Profile

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which painting tool builds up color if you hof the mouse button WITHOUT dragging?
A. pencil
B. airbrush
C. paintbrush
D. paint bucker

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
What is controlled by the Preset Manager?
A. tool preferences
B. application preferences
C. default palette locations
D. libraries of brushes, swatches, and styles

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
What is the purpose of the Adobe Gamma utility?
A. to set the midtones of an image
B. to change the color settings of you monitor
C. to calibrate and define the RGB space of your monitor
D. to calibrate and define the color space of your scanner

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
You want to use the Lighting Effects filter. The option is grayed out. What should you do?
A. make a selection
B. switch to RGM mode
C. deselect the selection
D. switch to CMYK mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
What can you display in the status bar?
A. filter
B. image mode
C. gamut warning
D. document profile

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 51
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F

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