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Cisco 642-504 Vce & PDF, Sale Latest Cisco 642-504 Certificate Latest Version PDF&VCE

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New VCE and PDF– You can prepare Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-504.html exam in an easy way with Flydumps Cisco 642-504 questions and answers.By training our vce dumps with all Cisco 642-504 the latest questions,you can pass the exam in the first attempt.

QUESTION 45
The Company network is using an 802.IX implementation, in an 802.lx implementation the supplicant directly connects to, and obtains network access permission through which device?
A. Host
B. Authenticator
C. PC
D. Authentication server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
The Easy VPN Server feature allows Cisco IOS routers, Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Cisco PIX Security Appliances to act as head-end devices in site-to-site or remote- access VPNs The feature pushes security policies defined at the central site to the remote device during which of these phases?
A. IKE Phase 1 first message exchange
B. IKE Phase 2 first message exchange
C. IKE Phase 2 last message exchange
D. IKE mode configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 47
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company please point out two benefits of using an IPsec GRE tunnel. (Choose two,)
A. It requires a more restrictive crypto ACL to provide finer security control
B. It has less overhead than runningIPsec in tunnel mode.
C. It allows IP multicast traffic. ActualTests.com
D. It allows dynamic routing protocol to run over the tunnel interface.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which two capabilities are of the Cisco IOS Firewall Feature Set? (Choose two,)
A. protects against worms, malicious users, and denial of service
B. provides for secure connectivity between branch offices
C. provides intrusion protection capabilities
D. interoperates with Network Address Translation to conserve and simplify network address use “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 31 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 49
Which two are typical Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. Route poisoning
D. DHCP Starvation

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 50
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company.Which two commands would you use to only allow SSH traffic to the router EthO interface and deny other management traffic (BEEP, FTP, HTTP, HTTPS, SNMP, Telnet, TFTP) to the router interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. control-plane host
B. interfaceethO
C. policy-map type port-filter policy-name
D. management-interfaceethO allow ssh

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 51
You want to increase the security levels at layer 2 within the Company switched LAN. Which three are typical Layer 2 attack mitigation techniques? (Select three)
A. 802.lx authentication
B. Port security
C. ARP snooping
D. DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which alerting protocol is used by Cisco IOS IPS with a pull mechanism for getting IPS alerts to the network management application?
A. SNMP
B. syslog
C. SDEE
D. POP3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company.When you enter the switch(config)￡aaa authentication dotlx default group radius command on a Cisco Catalyst switch, You get the error message “invalid input detected”, What is the most likely reason?
A. Enable 802.lx.first
B. Define the RADIUS server IP address first, using theswitch(config)# radius-server host ip- address command.
C. Method-list name is missing
D. Enter theaaa new-model command first,

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 54
When configuring FPM, which is the next step after loading the PHDFs?
A. Define a stack of protocol headers. ActualTests.com
B. Define a class map of type “access-control” for classifying packets,
C. Reload the router.
D. Save the PHDFs to startup-config,

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 55
The Company security administrator is in charge of creating a security policy for the company. Which two statements about the creation of a security policy are true? (Choose two)
A. It helps Chief Information Officers determine the return on investment of network security at Company Inc.
B. It defines how to track down and prosecute policy offenders at Company Inc.
C. It provides a process to audit existing network security at Company Inc.
D. It defines which behavior is and is not allowed at Company Inc.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which secure group keying mechanism is used by GET VPN?
A. public and private keys
B. Diffle-Hellman
C. Group Domain of Interpretation
D. group key agreement

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
You are the network consultant from your company. Cisco IOS Zone-Based Firewall uses which of the following to identify a service or application from traffic flowing through the firewall?
A. Network Based Application Recognition
B. extended access list
C. deep packet inspection
D. PAM table ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which best practice is recommended while configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS?
A. Synchronize the router’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update,
B. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
C. Clear the router’s flash of unused signature files.
D. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
Router CK1 is configured with the IOS firewall feature set to prevent TCP based attacks. How many incomplete connections must this router have by default before TCP Intercept will start dropping incomplete connections?
A. 500
B. 1100
C. 700
D. 900

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which statement is correct about the GRE tunnel endpoints while configuring GRE over IPsec?
A. For high availability, the GRE tunnel interface should be configured with aprimaty and a backup tunnel destination IP address.
B. A mirror image of theIPsec crypto ACL needs to be configured to permit the interesting end- user traffic between the GRE endpoints.
C. The tunnel interface of both endpoints needs to be in the same IP subnet,
D. The tunnel interface of both endpoints should be configured to use the outside IP address of the router as the unnumbered IP address.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 61
Which of the following represents the behavior of the CBAC aggressive mode in a Cisco IOS firewall?
A. Delete all half-open session
B. Re-initiate half open session
C. Complete all half open sessions make the full open session
D. Delete half-open session as needed to accommodate new connection requests

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 62
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company Given that the faO/1 interface is the trusted interface, what could be a reason for users on the trusted inside networks not to be able to successfully establish outbound HTTP connections based on the following configuration?

A. access-list on the faO/1intetface is not set.
B. The RVRULE inspection policy is not inspecting HTTP traffic.
C. access-list 104 is denying the outbound HTTP traffic.
D. The outgoing inspection rule on the fa0/1 interface is not set, ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
The Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) feature allows users to better scale large and small IP Security (IPsec) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) by combining generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunnels, IPsec encryption, and Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP).Referring to a DMVPN hub router tunnel interface configuration, what will fail if the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is missing on the tunnel interface?
A. The NHRP request and response. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
B. The GRE tunnel
C. The IPsec peering
D. The dynamic routing protocol.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
What is the objective of the Cisco SDM IPS migration tool?
A. to migrate from promiscuous mode IPS to inline IPS
B. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS version 4.0 to Cisco IOS IPS version 5.0
C. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS to the Cisco AIM-IPS
D. to migrate from the Cisco NM-CIDS to the Cisco AIM-IPS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
What OSI layers can CBAC filter on? Select all that apply.
A. Layer 4
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 7

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 66
Which description is true about the Cisco IOS IPS configuration output shown in the following exhibit?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

A. The SDF will be loaded from the IPS directory in flash.
B. The built-in signatures will be used.
C. The router is using the advanced IPS signature set.
D. The SMEs are stored in the IPS directory in flash.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 67
Router CK1 has been upgraded with the Cisco firewall IOS. Which of the following cannot be configured on a router unless the IOS Firewall feature set is installed? (Select all that apply)
A. PAM
B. Authentication Proxy
C. IDS
D. CBAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
For the following Cisco IOS Firewall features, which one allows the firewall to function as a Layer 2 bridge on the network?
A. firewall ACL bypass
B. zone-based firewall
C. CBAC
D. transparent firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69
While logged into a Company router, which of the following commands specifies that the IOS Firewall IDS engine drops packets and resets TCP connections for information signatures?
A. ip audit name auditi info attack drop reset
B. ip audit name auditi info action drop reset
C. ip audit name auditi info sig action drop reset
D. ip audit name auditi sig info drop reset

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which statement best describes Cisco IOS Firewall URL-filtering services on Cisco IOS Release 12,4(15)T and later?
A. Enabling “allow mode” is required when using an external URL-filtering server.
B. Multiple URL lists and URL filter server lists can be configured on the router.
C. URL filtering with zone-based firewalls is configured using the type “inspect” parameter-map.
D. The services support Secure Computing server orWebsense server and the local URL list.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which command will would you use totrigger the router to request certificates from the CA for the router RSA key pair?
A. cryptopki enroll CA-Name
B. enrollmenturl http://CA-Name:SO
C. cryptopki trustpoint CA-Name
D. cryptopki authenticate CA-Name

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which tow statements are correct according to the CLI configuration displayed in the exhibit? (Choose tow.)

A. SerialO/0/0 is the outside NAT interface.
B. access-list 1 defines the list of inside global IP addresses.
C. The overload option enables static PAT,
D. All HTTP connections to the SerialO/0/0 interface IP address will be translated to the 172.16.1.2 IP address port 8080,

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 73
The Company network is concerned about SPAM and wants to use IDS tools to prevent SPAM attacks. By default, how many message recipients must an email have for the IOS Firewall to consider it a spam attack?
A. 250
B. 500
C. 100
D. 25

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 74
Cisco Easy VPN greatly simplifies virtual private network (VPN) deployment for remote offices and teleworkers. While using Cisco Easy VPN, which three options are for entering the XAUTH username and password for establishing the VPN connection from the Cisco Easy VPN remote router? (Choose three.)
A. using an external AAA server
B. saving the XAUTH credentials to this router
C. entering the information from the router console or SDM
D. entering the information from the PC browser when browsing

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. You are configuring ACS 4.0 Network Access Profiles, which three things can be used to determine how an access request is classified and mapped to a profile? (Choose three)
A. Network Access Filters
B. RADIUS Authorization Components
C. the protocol types
D. advance filtering

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 76
For the following Cisco IOS IPS risk rating components, which one uses a law value of 75, a medium value of 100, a high value of 150, and a mission-critical value of 200?
A. Attack Relevancy Rating
B. Promiscuous Delta
C. Target Value Rating
D. Watch List Rating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 77
The security administrator at Company is seeing a large number of half opened TCP sessions, what are half open TCP sessions?
A. Sessions that were denied,
B. Sessions that have not reached the established state.
C. Sessions where the three-way handshake has been completed.
D. Sessions where the firewall detected return traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which item is true about the zone-based firewall policy while configuring the zone-based firewall feature on a Cisco router?
A. The policy is appliedunidirectionally between two security zones.
B. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and the “self zone is denied by default unless it is explicitly allowed by a used-defined policy.
C. Interfaces in the same zone require that a bidirectional traffic policy be applied to permit traffic flow,
D. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and an interface that is not a zone member is allowed to pass without the policy being applied to the traffic,

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company, what additional configuration is required for the Cisco IOS Firewall to reset the TCP connection if any peer-to-peer, tunneling, or instant messaging traffic is detected over HTTP based on the following configuration?
appfw policy-name my policy application http strict-http action reset alarm content-length maximum 1 action reset alarm content-type-verification match-req-rsp action reset alarm max-header-length request 1 response 1 action reset alarm max-url-length 1 laction reset alarm request-method rfc put action reset alarm transfer-encoding type default reset alarm !
ip inspect name firewall appfw mypolicy ip inspect name firewall http ! Interface FastEthernetO/0 ip inspect firewall in
A. class-map configuration
B. the PAM configuration
C. theip inspect name firewall im, ip inspect name firewall p2p, and ip inspect name firewall tunnel commands
D. the port-misuse default action reset alarm command in the HTTP application firewall policy configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
While adding NADs as AAA clients in the ACS, which three parameters are configured for each AAA client? (Choose three,)
A. the NAD IP address
B. theEAPtype
C. the shared secret key
D. the AAA protocol to use for communication with the NADs

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
What command configures the amount of time CBAC will wait for a TCP session to become ActualTests.com established before dropping the connection in the state table?
A. ip inspect global syn-establish (seconds)
B. ip inspect tcp global syn-time (seconds)
C. ip inspect global tcp syn (seconds)
D. ip inspect tcp synwait-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which one of the following Cisco IOS VPN features simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by use of on-demand virtual access interfaces cloned from a virtual template configuration?
A. DMVPN
B. dynamic VTI
C. GRE tunnels
D. GRE overIPsec tunnels

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. What can you determine based on the following configuration? Crypto ipsec transform-set MINE esp-des ! Crypto map MYMAP 10 ipsec-isakmp Set peer 172.30.5.2 Set transform-set MINE Match address 101
A. The authentication method used between theIPsec peers is pre-shared key.
B. ESP tunnel mode will not be used.
C. This is a dynamic crypto map.
D. ESP tunnel mode will be used.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which option is correct about the output of the Cisco IOS IPS configuration displayed in the ActualTests.com following exhibit?

A. Inline IPS is applied in the outbound direction on the interfaces.
B. The router will drop all packets if the IPS engine is unable to scan data,
C. The basic signatures set has been disabled,
D. The signature delta file is stored in the IPS directory in flash.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 85
You have been tasked with setting up a new router with CBAC. How do you configure the CBAC global UDP idle session timeout?
A. ip inspect udp-session-timeout (seconds)
B. ip inspect udp-idle (seconds)
C. ip inspect udp-timeout (seconds)
D. ip inspect udp idle-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 86
While deploying S02.1X authentication on Cisco Catalyst switches, which traffic can be passed between the client PC and the Cisco Catalyst switch over the uncontrolled port?
A. DHCP
B. TACACS+
C. HTTP
D. EAPoLAN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
You have been tasked with setting up a new Company router with CBAC. How do you set the threshold of half-open sessions CBAC will allow per minute before deleting them?
A. ip inspect one-minute incomplete (number)
B. ip inspect one-minute (number)
C. ip inspect one-minute high (number)
D. ip inspect one-minute high incomplete (number)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 88
According to the partial configuration displayed in the following exhibit, which additional ActualTests.com configuration parameter is required under the GET VPN group member GDOI configuration?

A. key server IP address
B. mapping of theIPsec transform set to the GDOI group
C. mapping of theIPsec profile to the IPsec SA
D. local priority

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which TCP port would you use to access the Cisco ACS web interface?
A. 22
B. SO
C. 127
D. 2002

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which action can be enabled by the interface configuration command switchport protected?
A. allows traffic on protected ports to be forwarded at Layer 2
B. configures the interface for the PVLAN edge
C. groups ports into an isolated community when configured on multiplepotts
D. provides isolation between two protected ports located on different switches

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
The Company security administrator is in charge of creating a security policy for the company. Which two statements about the creation of a security policy are true? (Choose two)
A. It helps Chief Information Officers determine the return on investment of network security at Company Inc.
B. It defines how to track down and prosecute policy offenders at Company Inc.
C. It provides a process to audit existing network security at Company Inc.
D. It defines which behavior is and is not allowed at Company Inc.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which secure group keying mechanism is used by GET VPN?
A. public and private keys
B. Diffle-Hellman
C. Group Domain of Interpretation
D. group key agreement

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
You are the network consultant from your company. Cisco IOS Zone-Based Firewall uses which of the following to identify a service or application from traffic flowing through the firewall?
A. Network Based Application Recognition
B. extended access list
C. deep packet inspection
D. PAM table ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which best practice is recommended while configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS?
A. Synchronize the router’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update,
B. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
C. Clear the router’s flash of unused signature files.
D. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
Router CK1 is configured with the IOS firewall feature set to prevent TCP based attacks. How many incomplete connections must this router have by default before TCP Intercept will start dropping incomplete connections?
A. 500
B. 1100
C. 700
D. 900

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which statement is correct about the GRE tunnel endpoints while configuring GRE over IPsec?
A. For high availability, the GRE tunnel interface should be configured with aprimaty and a backup tunnel destination IP address.
B. A mirror image of theIPsec crypto ACL needs to be configured to permit the interesting end- user traffic between the GRE endpoints.
C. The tunnel interface of both endpoints needs to be in the same IP subnet,
D. The tunnel interface of both endpoints should be configured to use the outside IP address of the router as the unnumbered IP address.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 61
Which of the following represents the behavior of the CBAC aggressive mode in a Cisco IOS firewall?
A. Delete all half-open session
B. Re-initiate half open session
C. Complete all half open sessions make the full open session
D. Delete half-open session as needed to accommodate new connection requests

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 62
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company Given that the faO/1 interface is the trusted interface, what could be a reason for users on the trusted inside networks not to be able to successfully establish outbound HTTP connections based on the following configuration?

A. access-list on the faO/1intetface is not set.
B. The RVRULE inspection policy is not inspecting HTTP traffic.
C. access-list 104 is denying the outbound HTTP traffic.
D. The outgoing inspection rule on the fa0/1 interface is not set, ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
The Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) feature allows users to better scale large and small IP Security (IPsec) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) by combining generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunnels, IPsec encryption, and Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP).Referring to a DMVPN hub router tunnel interface configuration, what will fail if the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is missing on the tunnel interface?
A. The NHRP request and response. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
B. The GRE tunnel
C. The IPsec peering
D. The dynamic routing protocol.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
What is the objective of the Cisco SDM IPS migration tool?
A. to migrate from promiscuous mode IPS to inline IPS
B. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS version 4.0 to Cisco IOS IPS version 5.0
C. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS to the Cisco AIM-IPS
D. to migrate from the Cisco NM-CIDS to the Cisco AIM-IPS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
What OSI layers can CBAC filter on? Select all that apply.
A. Layer 4
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 7

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 66
Which description is true about the Cisco IOS IPS configuration output shown in the following exhibit?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

A. The SDF will be loaded from the IPS directory in flash.
B. The built-in signatures will be used.
C. The router is using the advanced IPS signature set.
D. The SMEs are stored in the IPS directory in flash.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 67
Router CK1 has been upgraded with the Cisco firewall IOS. Which of the following cannot be configured on a router unless the IOS Firewall feature set is installed? (Select all that apply)
A. PAM
B. Authentication Proxy
C. IDS
D. CBAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
For the following Cisco IOS Firewall features, which one allows the firewall to function as a Layer 2 bridge on the network?
A. firewall ACL bypass
B. zone-based firewall
C. CBAC
D. transparent firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69
While logged into a Company router, which of the following commands specifies that the IOS Firewall IDS engine drops packets and resets TCP connections for information signatures?
A. ip audit name auditi info attack drop reset
B. ip audit name auditi info action drop reset
C. ip audit name auditi info sig action drop reset
D. ip audit name auditi sig info drop reset

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which statement best describes Cisco IOS Firewall URL-filtering services on Cisco IOS Release 12,4(15)T and later?
A. Enabling “allow mode” is required when using an external URL-filtering server.
B. Multiple URL lists and URL filter server lists can be configured on the router.
C. URL filtering with zone-based firewalls is configured using the type “inspect” parameter-map.
D. The services support Secure Computing server orWebsense server and the local URL list.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which command will would you use totrigger the router to request certificates from the CA for the router RSA key pair?
A. cryptopki enroll CA-Name
B. enrollmenturl http://CA-Name:SO
C. cryptopki trustpoint CA-Name
D. cryptopki authenticate CA-Name

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which tow statements are correct according to the CLI configuration displayed in the exhibit? (Choose tow.)

A. SerialO/0/0 is the outside NAT interface.
B. access-list 1 defines the list of inside global IP addresses.
C. The overload option enables static PAT,
D. All HTTP connections to the SerialO/0/0 interface IP address will be translated to the 172.16.1.2 IP address port 8080,

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 73
The Company network is concerned about SPAM and wants to use IDS tools to prevent SPAM attacks. By default, how many message recipients must an email have for the IOS Firewall to consider it a spam attack?
A. 250
B. 500
C. 100
D. 25

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 74
Cisco Easy VPN greatly simplifies virtual private network (VPN) deployment for remote offices and teleworkers. While using Cisco Easy VPN, which three options are for entering the XAUTH username and password for establishing the VPN connection from the Cisco Easy VPN remote router? (Choose three.)
A. using an external AAA server
B. saving the XAUTH credentials to this router
C. entering the information from the router console or SDM
D. entering the information from the PC browser when browsing

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. You are configuring ACS 4.0 Network Access Profiles, which three things can be used to determine how an access request is classified and mapped to a profile? (Choose three)
A. Network Access Filters
B. RADIUS Authorization Components
C. the protocol types
D. advance filtering

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 76
For the following Cisco IOS IPS risk rating components, which one uses a law value of 75, a medium value of 100, a high value of 150, and a mission-critical value of 200?
A. Attack Relevancy Rating
B. Promiscuous Delta
C. Target Value Rating
D. Watch List Rating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 77
The security administrator at Company is seeing a large number of half opened TCP sessions, what are half open TCP sessions?
A. Sessions that were denied,
B. Sessions that have not reached the established state.
C. Sessions where the three-way handshake has been completed.
D. Sessions where the firewall detected return traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which item is true about the zone-based firewall policy while configuring the zone-based firewall feature on a Cisco router?
A. The policy is appliedunidirectionally between two security zones.
B. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and the “self zone is denied by default unless it is explicitly allowed by a used-defined policy.
C. Interfaces in the same zone require that a bidirectional traffic policy be applied to permit traffic flow,
D. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and an interface that is not a zone member is allowed to pass without the policy being applied to the traffic,

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company, what additional configuration is required for the Cisco IOS Firewall to reset the TCP connection if any peer-to-peer, tunneling, or instant messaging traffic is detected over HTTP based on the following configuration?
appfw policy-name my policy application http strict-http action reset alarm content-length maximum 1 action reset alarm content-type-verification match-req-rsp action reset alarm max-header-length request 1 response 1 action reset alarm max-url-length 1 laction reset alarm request-method rfc put action reset alarm transfer-encoding type default reset alarm !
ip inspect name firewall appfw mypolicy ip inspect name firewall http ! Interface FastEthernetO/0 ip inspect firewall in
A. class-map configuration
B. the PAM configuration
C. theip inspect name firewall im, ip inspect name firewall p2p, and ip inspect name firewall tunnel commands
D. the port-misuse default action reset alarm command in the HTTP application firewall policy configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
While adding NADs as AAA clients in the ACS, which three parameters are configured for each AAA client? (Choose three,)
A. the NAD IP address
B. theEAPtype
C. the shared secret key
D. the AAA protocol to use for communication with the NADs

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation

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CCSP, Cisco

Cisco 642-504 Exam Demo,Free Download Real Cisco 642-504 Preparation Materials Are The Best Materials

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QUESTION 40
Which action does the interface configuration command switchport protected enable?
A. groups ports into an isolated community when configured on multiple ports
B. configures the interface for the PVLAN edge
C. provides isolation between two protected ports located on different switches PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
D. allows traffic on protected ports to be forwarded at Layer 2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
What configuration task must you perform prior to configuring private VLANs?
A. enable port security on the interface
B. associate all isolated ports to the primary VLAN
C. set the VTP mode to transparent
D. configure PVLAN trunking

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
When deploying 802.1X authentication on Cisco Catalyst switches, what are two possible options for authenticating the clients that do not have an 802.1X supplicant? (Choose two.)
A. MAC Authentication Bypass
B. Active Directory Single Sign-On
C. authentication proxy
D. web authentication
E. Protected EAP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
When implementing EIGRP dynamic routing over DMVPN, what are three configuration tasks required at the hub router tunnel interface? (Choose three.)
A. disabling EIGRP ip next-hop-self
B. disabling EIGRP ip split-horizon
C. disabling EIGRP auto-summary
D. disabling EIGRP stub
E. enabling multipoint GRE
F. configuring the NHRP next-hop server IP address

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit.
What is wrong with the GRE over IPsec configuration shown?

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
PassGuide 642-504
A. The crypto map is not correctly configured.
B. The crypto ACL is not correctly configured.
C. The network 172.16.0.0 command is missing under router eigrp 1 .
D. ESP transport mode should be configured instead of using the default tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
When you configure Cisco IOS WebVPN, you can use the port-forward command to enable which function?
A. web-enabled applications
B. Cisco Secure Desktop
C. full-tunnel client
D. thin client
E. CIFS
F. OWA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Which three of these statements are correct regarding DMVPN configuration? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
A. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have “next hop self” enabled: ip next-hop-self eigrp AS-Number
B. If running EIGRP over DMVPN, the hub router tunnel interface must have split horizon disabled: no ip split-horizon eigrp AS-Number
C. The spoke routers must be configured as the NHRP servers: ip nhrp nhs spoke-tunnel-ip-address
D. At the spoke routers, static NHRP mapping to the hub router is required: ip nhrp map hub-tunnel-ip-address hub-physical-ip-address
E. The GRE tunnel mode must be set to point-to-point mode: tunnel mode gre point-to-point
F. The GRE tunnel must be associated with an IPsec profile: tunnel protection ipsec profile profile-name

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
What is wrong with the partial IPsec VPN high-availability configuration shown here?
A. A static crypto map should be used instead of a dynamic crypto map.
B. The crypto map CM interface configuration statement is missing the stateful option.
C. The crypto map interface configuration statement should reference the dynamic crypto map DM.
D. IPsec is not synchronized with HSRP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
You are an administrator configuring a Cisco router to enroll with a certificate authority. What is a recommended best practice to perform prior to configuring enrollment parameters?
A. Contact the registration authority to obtain the enrollment URL.
B. Manually verify the PKCS #10 certificate prior to enrollment.
C. Configure the certificate revocation list to ensure that you do not receive revoked CA certificates.
D. Configure Network Time Protocol.
E. If using SCEP, ensure that TCP port 22 traffic is permitted to the router.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
QUESTION 49
DMVPN configuration uses which tunnel mode type on the tunnel interface?
A. DVMRP
B. IPsec IPv4
C. NHRP
D. GRE multipoint

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.
What is true regarding the IKE security association?
A. The IPsec connection is in an idle state.
B. The IKE association is in the process of being set up.
C. The IKE status is authenticated.
D. The ISAKMP state is waiting for quick mode status to authenticate before IPsec parameters are passed between peers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
When configuring a Cisco Easy VPN server, what must be configured prior to entering VPN configuration parameters?
A. AAA
B. ISAKMP peer authentication method
C. XAuth
D. SSH
E. crypto ACL
F. NTP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which parameter is configured under the router(config-isakmp)# configuration mode?
A. use of digital certificates for authentication
B. the IPsec transform set
C. the reference to the crypto ACL PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
D. the IPsec peer IP address
E. the pre-shared key value

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which two statements are correct regarding Network Address Translation and IPsec interoperability? (Choose two.)
A. ESP does not work with NAT.
B. AH does not work with NAT.
C. ESP does not work with PAT.
D. NAT-T uses TCP port 4500.
E. NAT-T sends NAT discovery packets after IKE Phase 2 establishment.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
If the show crypto isakmp sa output shows a state of “QM_IDLE” with the “Active” status, what does that most likely indicate?
A. IKE Phase 1 quick mode negotiation has failed.
B. The security association is waiting for the timeout to expire before retrying the ISAKMP SA establishment.
C. An ISAKMP SA exists.
D. Peer authentication has failed during IKE Phase 1.
E. IKE Phase 1 is in the negotiation state.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which Cisco IOS IPS risk rating component uses a low value of 75, a medium value of 100, a high value of 150, and a mission-critical value of 200?
A. Signature Fidelity Rating
B. Attack Severity Rating
C. Target Value Rating
D. Attack Relevancy Rating
E. Promiscuous Delta
F. Watch List Rating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
In DMVPN, the NHRP process allows which requirement to be met?
A. dynamic physical interface IP address at the spoke routers
B. high-availability DMVPN designs PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
C. dynamic spoke-to-spoke on-demand tunnels
D. dynamic routing over the DMVPN
E. dual DMVPN hub designs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
When deploying 802.1X authentication on Cisco Catalyst switches, which traffic can be passed between the client PC and the Cisco Catalyst switch over the uncontrolled port?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
E. EAPoLAN
F. CDP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration commands are used to apply an inspect policy map for traffic traversing from the
E0 or E1 interface to the S3 interface? (Choose two.)
A. zone-pair security test source Z1 destination Z2
B. interface E0
C. policy-map myfwpolicy class class-default inspect
D. ip inspect myfwpolicy out
E. ip inspect myfwpolicy in
F. service-policy type inspect myfwpolicy

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Cisco IOS SSL VPN thin-client mode has which two characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. uses a Java applet
B. supports TCP and UDP applications that use static port(s) PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-504
C. provides full tunnel access like the IPsec VPN software client
D. requires the use of browser plug-ins
E. provides TCP port forwarding capabilities

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.
Which optional AAA or RADIUS configuration command is used to support 802.1X guest VLAN
functionality?
A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
B. aaa authorization network default group radius
C. aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius
E. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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APC Certification

APC PB0-200 Certification Material,100% Pass APC PB0-200 Answers For Download

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QUESTION 35
You have successfully configured an InfraStruxure solution. Th Detailed Quote Report lists a 30 kw three-
phase UPS which you know is oversized based on the project’s requirements.
Which two fields in the Build Out Tool can be adjusted to reduce the size of the UPS?

A. SYSTEM voltage and system KVA
B. Watts per rack and number of racks
C. Battery runtime and number of whips
D. System redundancy and battery runtime

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
You are configuring an Infrastruxure solution using the Build Out Tool. You have sized the area specific to
the total number of enclosure that required including UPS and PDU. You enter 60 minutes of battery
runtime and the following message appears.
“You must increase the maximum number of racks in the room or decrease the number of racks you wish
to install.
How do you correct the problem without changing the runtime power or rack requirements?

A. change the size of the area
B. select a different type of rack
C. add APC Baying Kits to rack enclosures
D. move the racks within the Organize Area

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
After your configuration is approved, your client requests changes that require you to modify the solution. Which BuildOut Tool option allows you to make changes to the approved solution and assigns a new solution ID?
A. save
B. Save As
C. Email solution
D. Submit solution review
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Exhibit: In the exhibit, how do you move the UPS/PDU from row 1 to row 2?

A. You revert back to the original page of the solution lebeled sizing area and re-label any two-rack positions “UPS” and “PDU” in row 2.
B. Using your computer mouse you place the pointer on the UPS/PDU, hold the left mouse button and drag the UPS/PDU from row 1 to row 2.
C. The BuildOut Tool does not allows you to move the UPS and PDU within solution. This can only be done by an authorized APC Fiels Service Engineer on-site.
D. You click “DetailsOn” within the floor layout. This allows you to rename any rack position to “UPS” and “PDU”. The BuildOut Tool will automatically re-calculate the length of whips from the PDU to racks.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
After replacing Certkiller .com’s tower servers with new 1 U servers, the processing capacity has increased but so have the number of hot sports. The air conditioning capacity is sufficient, and the facility has a raised-floor plenum. How can the hot spots be eliminated without increasing the flow-rate from the computer room air conditioner?
A. Install a rack-top fan
B. Install a Rack Air Distribution Unit
C. Install an up-flow air conditioner
D. Change the air entrance to the front of the racks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Certkiller .com wants to install a three-rack solution in a small closet with a load requirement of 3.7 KW for all three racks. The room is in a non-secure environment and the existing air conditioning system is prone to failures. The IT manager wants to monitor the temperature rise in the room and install a redundant UPS solution that can expand to add three more racks with the same load requirements in the future. Which solution would you recommend?
A. one Symmetra Rack Mount 12kva UPS, 4-post open racks, and an Environmental Monitoring Unit for monitoring
B. one Symmetra Rack Mount 6kva N+1UPS, 4-post open racks, and an Environmental Monitoring Unit for monitoring
C. one Symmetra Rack Mount 12kva N+1 UPS,Netshelter VX racks, and an Environmental Monitoring Unit for monitoring
D. one Symmetra Rack Mount 6kva N+1 UPS, Netshelter VX racks, and an Environmental Monitoring Unit for monitoring

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
A small company is breaking ground on a new building that will have a computer room. They will start with
30kw of load and double that capacity over the next five years.
What is the most available and flexible power solution?

A. a single-module 80KW three-phase UPS
B. two 80KW single-module three-phase UPSs operating in a parallel redundant configuration
C. an Infrastruxure solution with a symmetra 80kw N+1 UPS, initially populated with 4 power modules to provide 30kw N+1 redundancy
D. a single-module three-phase 40kw with a bypass panel that has room for two 40kw UPSs, which will allow for expansion in the future

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which two solutions prevent air from mixing and will therefore improve air conditioning performance?
A. hot-aisle containment
B. blanking panel on rack enclosures
C. all of the rows of racks in a room face the same direction
D. an up flow air conditioner in a non-raised-floor environment

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 43
What are two reasons for over sizing a medium-size to large data center?
A. Large three-phase UPSs must be over sized to handle stepped loads
B. Traditionally, it is difficult to expand large UPSs system after they are online.
C. Electrical infrastructure items run more efficiently at light loads.
D. It is very difficult to predict future loads for the lifetime of a data center so various designers over size to add a safty margin

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 44
What is the primary advantage of using an APC Automatic Transfer Switch over a centralized Static Transfer Switch feeding a distribution transformer?
A. It can be managed easily
B. It allows two input sources
C. It is able to transfer make-before-break
D. It can be fed by two unsynchronized sources without impact to the load.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Besides cost saving what is the most important benefit of a scalable infrastructure?
A. ability to achieve higher quality
B. ability to achieve higher availability
C. ability to meet changing demand
D. ability to improve manageability

Correct Answer: C

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Alcatel-Lucent, Alcatel-Lucent Certifications

Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 Exam Test Questions,Latest Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 PDF Download With Accurate Answers

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QUESTION 11
True of False. There is a default network policy applied to all router interfaces?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP. Choose 3 answers?
A. Part of the layer 3 header
B. A 6-bit field of which the first 3 bits indicate the IP Precedence bits
C. Specifies 8 different priorities
D. Specifies 3 precedence levels
E. Part of the layer 2 header
F. Specifies 64 different per hop behaviors

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 13
Which of the following QoS policies does not have a default policy?
ActualTests.com
A. Scheduler policies
B. Service ingress
C. Service egress
D. Network queue
E. Network
F. Slope

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is not one of the ingress matching criteria for a network policy? Choose all that apply.
A. TCP port numbers
B. LSP EXP
C. DSCP
D. Source and destination IP addresses
E. Dot1P priority
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
On the Alcatel-Lucent 7×50 SR, on what port is classification performed?
A. Access ports
B. Network ports
C. Access ports with q-in-q encapsulation
D. Both access and network ports
E. Neither access or network ports

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the Alcatel-Lucent 7×50 SR? Choose all that apply.
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header
B. The packet source and destination IP addresses
C. The packet DSCP bits
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header ActualTests.com
E. The ID of the SDP transporting the packet

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 17
A partial SAP-ingress policy configuration is shown below. A udp video stream is sent to a PC with IP address 192.168.1.100. Given the SAP-ingress policy, to which Forwarding Class is the traffic matched?

ActualTests.com
A. AF
B. EF
C. H2 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7 Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107: Practice Exam
D. H1
E. BE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
Fill in the blank. On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, sap-ingress policies can consist of up to ___ queues per forwarding class for multipoint traffic.
A. 64
B. 8
C. 3
D. 16
E. 1

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements are false regarding buffer pool allocation? Choose 2.
A. Each network egress port receives its own buffer pool
B. Each SAP-egress port receives its own buffer pool
C. All SAP-ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool
D. All the network ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool
E. Each network ingress ports on the same MDA receives its own buffer pool

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 20
Fill in the blanks with the correct entity. To manage the shared buffer space at network ports, slope policies are applied on _____ for the ingress direction and on ____ or _____ for the egress direction.
A. Interfaces, ports, SAPs
B. Ports, ports, MDAs
C. MDAs, MDAs, ports
D. Interfaces, interfaces, MDAs
E. MDAs, ports, interfaces

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
True or False. By configuring queue 5 with a high-priority-only value of 0, in the network-queue policy, it means that all Out-of-Profile packets will be dropped?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
A service provider has applied the sap-ingress policy configuration below on their customer’s SAP. The service provider notices that all of the customer’s traffic is being dropped at the SAP ingress. Which of the following actions would resolve the problem if applied on its own? Choose 2.
ActualTests.com

A. Set the CIR of queue 3 to a non-zero value corresponding to the customer’s expected bandwidth requirements
B. Set the queue 3 to use Priority mode ActualTests.com
C. Set the traffic classification of packets to be In-profile
D. Set the High-priority-only value to 0
E. Map AF traffic to queue 1

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
Given that the slope-policy below has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are true? Choose 3 answers.

A. All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped
B. The Time Average Factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool
C. When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51% in-profile packets may be dropped
D. The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%
E. When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is just at 69% the packet will ActualTests.com have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 24
Fill in the blank. The high-slope and low-slope are not activated in the default slope policy. Which of the following commands must be executed in order to activate them?
A. Activate
B. Apply
C. Enable
D. No disable
E. No shutdown
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
True or False. WRED should not be used to avoid TCP Slow-Start synch problem?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A queue is configured with the following attributes and it is assumed that there is no CBS overbooking, and that the slope-policy is disabled.
Queue attributes:
MBS = 10KB CBS = 5KB High-Priority-Only = 20%
If the current queue depth is 3KB what will happen to an out-of-profile packet arriving in the queue?
A. It will be discarded because the High-priority-only threshold is exceeded ActualTests.com
B. It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool if there are no in-profile packets already in the queue
C. It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool, and will remain out-of-profile
D. It will be queue in the shared portion of the buffer pool, but will contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues
E. It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool, but may be dropped if the buffer utilization has exceeded the low slope start-average value
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
If a service provider does not want packets to make use of the shared buffer space when they are queued, what should be done?
A. Set the CBS to 0
B. Set the MBS equal to the CBS
C. Set the high-priority-only equal to MBS
D. Set MBS equal to 0
E. Set high-priority-only equal to 0

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
True or False. Shaping prevents excessive traffic from congesting the network and assuring that classified traffic conforms to SLAs, whereas Policing improves bandwidth utilization and minimizes packet loss.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
What is the term used for the default method of scheduling queues in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. Single-tier
B. Hierarchical
C. Multi-tier ActualTests.com
D. Simple
E. Dynamic

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
To implement Hierarchical QoS (Multi-tiered scheduling) which of the following actions are needed. Choose 3 answers.
A. H-QoS capabilities must be enabled globally on the router
B. A scheduler policy must be configured
C. The queues in the sap-ingress and sap-egress policies require additional configuration attributes to make use of the hierarchical schedulers
D. The network queue policy must be configured to make use of the scheduler policy
E. The scheduler policy must be referenced in the sap-ingress and sap-egress policies using it
F. The scheduler policy must be applied on the service SAP

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 31
Scheduler policies are applied to the which of the following entities? Choose all that apply.
A. Network ingress port
B. ePipe ingress SAP
C. IES egress SAP
D. Ingress MDA
E. VPRN ingress interface
F. Shared buffer space

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 32
Fill in the blank. With hierarchical scheduling up to ___ tiers are supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
A. 8
B. 3
C. 4 ActualTests.com
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which QoS related policy is used to enable queue rates to be dynamic?
A. Slope-policy
B. Sap-ingress policy
C. Network-queue policy
D. Scheduler-policy
E. Network policy

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Fill in the blank. Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues and the contents of the queues are output in a controlled manner using ____________.
A. WRED
B. Shapers
C. Schedulers
D. Markers
E. Weighted Fair Queues (WFQ)

Correct Answer: C

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Alcatel-Lucent, Alcatel-Lucent Certifications

Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Exam Dumps,100% Pass Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Questions For Download

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You can pass Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 exam if you get a complete hold of Alcatel-Lucent https://www.pass4itsure.com/4a0-100.html dumps in Lead2pass .what’s more, all the Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Certification exams Q and A provided by Flydumps is the latest.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.
C. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.
D. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A. Secure transmission of information.
B. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C. Allowing remote logins.
D. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A. INWG
B. ALOHANET
C. IETF
D. NSFNET
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys adoption of TCP/ IP in 1983.
B. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.
D. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A. IEEE
B. IETF
C. NSFNET
D. ITU-T
E. APNIC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers
A. A large corporation.
B. An ISP.
C. A home based business.
D. A content provider.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The IANA is responsible for:
A. Intra-city ISP traffic.
B. Allocation of the global IP address space.
C. Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.
D. Allocating North American IP addresses .
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A. Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B. Simplifies protocol functionality.
C. Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D. Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E. Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer.
A. Application Layer.
B. Transport Layer.
C. IP Layer.
D. Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. X.500
D. IS-IS
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model?
A. OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model.
B. OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed.
C. OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP.
D. OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have :
A. An application and session layer.
B. A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.
C. A transport layer with two protocols.
D. An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
How many of the front access card slots of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 10

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is not supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7450 ESS?
A. Support for IPv6.
B. Support for POS.
C. Upgrade path to the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
D. Support for IS-IS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:
A. Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS.
B. Loads the router configuration.
C. Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.
D. Loads the router software image.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
When entering a command on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR from the Command Line Interface (CLI), what would you use to list all the options for the command?
A. ?
B. tab character
C. space character
D. info

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following describes the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?
A. Small optical module available in a variety of formats.
B. Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.
C. Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.
D. Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
A typical Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:
A. A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.
B. The Central Processing Unit (CPU).
C. The Control Plane.
D. The Switch Fabric.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?
A. The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.
B. Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.
C. The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.
D. The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
What is NOT a function of the IOM ?
A. It forwards the data to the switch fabric.
B. It discards excess data packets.
C. It converts the incoming data to an internal format.
D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?
A. CF 1
B. CF 2
C. CF 3
D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to: A. Specify authorization information to control access to the router.
B. Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.
C. Initialize the hardware.
D. Set the date/time for the system.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?
A. Graphic User Interface (GUI).
B. Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).
C. Command Line Interface (CLI).
D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view this information?
A. view tree
B. tree
C. info detail
D. info

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Service Router?
A. Type the first letters of the command, then press Ctrl C
B. Type the first letters of the command, then press Esc
C. Type the first letters of the command, then press Tab
D. Type the first letters of the command, then type ?
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)?
A. time-display
B. type
C. terminal
D. help
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What must occur for a LAG to become operational?
A. There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.
B. All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.
C. Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.
D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of ‘port-threshold 2’ and ‘action down’ what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?
A. If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF. x
B. If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.
C. The LAG will be changed to an operational state of ‘down’.
D. The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram below: How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

A. 9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.
B. 3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.
C. 3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.
D. 1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?
A. Host A and B will generate a jam signal.
B. Listening hosts will request retransmission.
C. Host A or B will retry the transmission.
D. A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41

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QUESTION 11
Where are variables that are loaded via a LoadVars object Referenced?
A. Directly into a TextField Object
B. On the timeline where they are loaded
C. Within an array
D. In properties of the LoadVars object where they are loaded

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
How are specific frames designated as printable from the Macromedia Flash Player?
A. Set Formats in the publish settings
B. Assign each frame the label “#P”
C. Set Page setup in the Macromedia Flash program
D. Place an onPrint action on each frame

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the default theme for version 2 components?
A. FlashDefault Theme
B. Ice Theme
C. Sample Theme
D. Halo Theme

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What property of myMC is referenced to rotate a MovieClip instance named myMC using ActionScript?
A. myMC._rotation
B. myMC._degrees
C. myMC.rotate
D. myMC.offset

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
How is Both the fill and stroke of an object selected using the Selection tool?
A. Single-Click the fill
B. Single-Click the Stroke
C. Double Click the stroke
D. Double-Click the fill

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
What is the most highly processor intensive animation technique?
A. Motion tween
B. Onion Skinning
C. Alpha effects
D. Brightness Effects

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
What is the correct ActionScript Syntax of animating a MovieClip instance, my_mc, horizontally across the stage?
A. my_mc.onEnterFrame = function() { if(_x <= 550) {_x+1;}}
B. my_mc.onEnterFrame = function() { if(this._x <= 550) {this._x++;}}
C. my_mc.onEnterFrame = function() { if(this._y <= 550) {this._y++;}}
D. my_mc.onEnterFrame = function() { if(_y <= 550) {_y+1;}}

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What are the three main ways to presenting video using Flash?
A. Embedded, Progressive and stand-alone
B. Embedded, Progressive and Soresson Spark
C. Embedded, Progressive, filtered
D. Embedded, On2 Vp6, Streaming
E. Embedded, Progressive, streaming

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
What is performed to distort text using the Envelope modifier?
A. Convert the text characters to shape objects
B. Embed font outlines used in the selected text
C. Create a font symbol in the Library Panel
D. Convert the selected text to a Movie clip or graphic symbol

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What appears in the output window after executing this ActionScript on the first frame of a movie?
X=1;
Trace(++X+X);

A. 11
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
What ensures all implementing classes will have a particular set of methods?
A. Interfaces
B. Polymorphism
C. MovieClips
D. Behaviors
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What options are applicable for use as a Motion guide? (Choose two.)
A. Filled Shape
B. MovieClip Object
C. Connected Line
D. Grid
E. Graphic Symbol

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 23
What method of the Color object is used to change the Alpha property of a Movie Clip with ActionScript?
A. setRGB
B. setProperty
C. _alpha
D. setTransform

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
How is declining image quality prevented when publishing to a SWF, if bitmap images are optimized prior to importing them into flash?
A. No nothing. Bitmaps aren’t compressed when the SWF is published
B. Convert bitmaps to symbols so that they are not compressed by flash
C. Re-import the bitmaps in an uncompressed format
D. In publish settings, under the flash tab, set the JPEG Quality slider to 100.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What native allows a developer to save data to a client computer, assuming the user has given permission?
A. LocalObject
B. SharedObject
C. LocalCookie
D. SharedCookie
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What statements are correct about shape tweens? (Choose two.)
A. There must be at least 2 keyFrames in order to create shape tween
B. Each keyFrame must contain symbols
C. Only 1 keyFrame is needed
D. Each keyFrame must not contain symbols
E. A light blue arrow in the timeline denotes a shape tween
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27
What does the Sound object allow?( Choose two.)
A. Set the left/right balance of a sound
B. Control the Volume of a sound
C. Alter the sampling rate of a sound
D. Delete portions of a sound clip

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 28
Where must ActionScript classes be located?
A. External Files
B. Top layer of timeline
C. Components
D. Frame1 of root

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
What must occur for Flash to read variables using a LoadVars object from a server-side application (i.e. ColdFusion, ASP,PHP or similar)?
A. Be in a row/column data format delimited by commas
B. Be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by ampersands
C. Be URL-encoded name/value pairs delimited by commas
D. Be from a database (Oracle,Access,SQL server or similar)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
What is an example of relative targeting?
A. _level0.item._x
B. _parent.item._x
C. _root.item._x
D. _level1.item._x

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
When two path segments meet, what is NOT a join option?
A. Square
B. Round
C. Bevel
D. Miter

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
What is used to create frame rate independent script-based animations?
A. OnEnterFrame
B. GotoAndPlay
C. SetInterval
D. While

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33
What is NOT an advantage of using Publishing Profiles?
A. Ensures file sizes are kept as small as possible
B. Creates an in-house use that differs from the way files are published for a client
C. Ensures a consistent standard that ensures files are published uniformly
D. Publishes in several media formats

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
What transition is NOT one of the default types available via the Tween or TransitionManager Classes?
A. Wipe
B. Checkerboard
C. Fade
D. Zoom

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What command removes an interval created with setInterval?
A. deleteInt()
B. removeInterval()
C. clearInerval()
D. interval.cancel()

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What audio format is NOT supported?
A. .AIFF
B. .WAV
C. WMA
D. .MP3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the function of trace()?
A. Determine what objects are present on the stage at any one time
B. Send string values to the output Panel
C. Discover who has downloaded your movie
D. Automatically output the value of key depressions
E. Determine which function the code will run next
F. Initiate the automatic debugging procedure
G. Determine which symbols have been clicked or selected in run mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
What correctly defines a getter method that retrieves a property named “Count”?
A. function getCount():Number { return _nCount;}
B. function get count():Number { return _nCount;}
C. function getter count():Number { return _nCount;}
D. function count():Number { return _nCount;}

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
What are benefits of Flash Remoting? (Choose two.)
A. Automatically parses custom XML
B. Integrates external data sources directly with Flash UI components
C. Provides access to user webcams and microphones
D. Provides access to client hard disk
E. Access server-side methods as if they are local

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 40
What method loads external JPG images into a MovieClip instance?
A. loadMovie();
B. LoadImage();
C. LoadMovieNum();
D. getURL();

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
What line of ActionScript sets an instance of the stand-alone Flash Player to full screen?
A. _fullscreen=true;
B. fscommand(“fullscreen”,”true”);
C. stage.size(“fullscreen”);
D. _root.fullscreen=true

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42

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QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the relationship between the two classes in the UML diagram?
A. Shape extends Circle
B. Circle extends Shape
C. Shape implements Circle
D. Circle implements Shape

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You want to send custom data with an event object that has been generated by the framework. What should you do?
A. Add custom properties to the target property.
B. Subclass the Event class and add properties to it.
C. Subclass the DisplayObject class and add properties to it.
D. Add custom properties to the Flash.events.Event class.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which is contained in a .jar file?
A. XML data files in an archived format
B. the Java Virtual Machine used in a J2EE server
C. a set of pre-compiled Java classes in an archived format
D. all configuration and application files in a J2EE web application in an archived format

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which attribute prevents a class method from being visible within a sub-class?
A. public
B. internal
C. private
D. protected

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
You have used a WebService object to call a public method of a SOAP-based web service. The remote web service is written in Java. The signature of the Java method being called is:
public List getData()
You have declared an ActionScript method named resultHandler() with this signature: private function
resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void

When the resultHandler() method is called from the HTTPService object result event, you want to save the
returned data to a previously declared ArrayCollection named myCollection.
Which is the correct syntax?

A. myCollection = event.result;
B. myCollection = event.result as ArrayCollection;
C. myCollection = new ArrayCollection(event.result as Array);
D. myCollection = event.getData.lastResult as ArrayCollection;

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which Data Management Service method will reset an item to its previous state?
A. undo()
B. rollBack()
C. noCommit()
D. revertChanges()

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You have used an HTTPService object to retrieve this HTML file:
<?xml version=1.0?> <employees> <employee><name>Joe</name><job>President</job> </employee> <employee><name>Mary</name><job>CEO</job> </employee></employees>
The resultFormat property of the HTTPService object is set to object, and the id property is set to myService. You want to use a DataGrid control to display the list of employees.
Which is the correct syntax for a binding expression to pass the employee objects to the dataProvider property of the DataGrid?
A. dataProvider={myService.lastResult}
B. dataProvider={myService.lastResult.employees}
C. dataProvider={myService.result.employees.employee}
D. dataProvider={myService.lastResult.employees.employee}

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which object is the returned XML data placed into after a Web service operation executes?
A. result
B. collection
C. firstResult
D. lastResult

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Which property of the HTTPService class references the data returned from a request?
A. result
B. lastResult
C. destination
D. resultFormat

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
Which protocol supports the use of server-pushed messaging with the Flex Message Service and the Data Management Service?
A. AMF
B. HTTP
C. SOAP
D. RTMP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
Which HTTPService method call will invoke a service request?
A. get()
B. load()
C. send()
D. getService()

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have used a RemoteObject object to call a public method of a Java class that is hosted by Flex Data
Services. The signature of the Java method being called is:
public List getData()
You have declared an ActionScript method named resultHandler() with this signature:
private function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void

When the resultHandler() method is called from the RemoteObject result event, you want to save the returned data to a previously declared ArrayCollection named myCollection.
Which is the correct syntax?
A. myCollection = event.result;
B. myCollection = event.result as ArrayCollection;
C. myCollection = new ArrayCollection(event.result as Array);
D. myCollection = event.getData.lastResult as ArrayCollection;

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which Flex Data Services component allows a Flex client to access back-end data by invoking remote methods of Java objects and ColdFusion components?
A. Flex Charting
B. Proxy Service
C. RPC Services
D. Message Service

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
You have configured the proxy service with this destination:
<destination id=”DefaultHTTP”> <properties><dynamic-url>http://127.0.0.1/flex/assets/*</dynamic-url></properties></destination> Which HTTPService object will successfully use the proxy service to retrieve data?
A. <mx:HTTPService id=myServiceurl=http://127.0.0.1/flex/assets/mydata.xml/>
B. <mx:HTTPService id=myServiceurl=http://127.0.0.1/flex/assets/mydata.xmluseProxy=true/>
C. <mx:HTTPService id=myServicedestination=DefaultHTTP useProxy=true/>
D. <mx:HTTPService id=myServiceurl=http://localhost/flex/mydata.xmluseProxy=true/>

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Which two metatags should be added to an ActionScript class definition to make it compatible with the Data Management Service (Choose two)?
A. [Event]
B. [Embed]
C. [Bindable]
D. [Managed]
E. [RemoteClass]

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 26
Which metadata tag marks a particular ActionScript data transfer object to be watched by the Data Management Service?
A. Watch
B. Bindable
C. Managed
D. RemoteClass

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Which property of the HTTPService component allows you to use parameter binding to pass query parameters to an HTTP Service?
A. id
B. request
C. method
D. concurrency

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Given this XML variable:
var myData:XML =<employees>
<dept name=Marketing><employee>Joe</employee><employee>Mary</employee> </dept> <dept
name=Shipping><employee>Alice</employee><employee>Harry</employee> </dept></employees>

And this ActionScript statement:
returnedXML = myData.dept.(@name == Marketing)

What is the value of returnedXML?

A. All <dept> elements
B. The first <dept> element
C. The entire <employees> element
D. Only the <employee> elements within the first <dept> element

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which is a characteristic of the ArrayCollection class?
A. It can only implement the IList interface
B. The class does NOT need to be imported
C. Elements used in bindings will continue to be monitored
D. Monitored data in an ArrayCollection needs to be stored in the Array class

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which two methods of the String class support the use of regular expressions by accepting a RegExp object as an argument? (Choose two.)
A. substr()
B. charAt()
C. search()
D. replace()
E. indexOf()

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 31
You have created an instance of the Cursor class by using the ArrayCollection.getCursor() method. You have assigned an id of myCursor. At runtime, the expression myCursor.afterLast returns true. What does the expression myCursor.current return?
A. null
B. A reference to the last item in the ArrayCollection
C. A reference to the first item in the ArrayCollection
D. A reference to a random item in the ArrayCollection

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
You have a created a custom component in a file named MyComponent.mxml. The file is stored in a subdirectory of the project root named components. You want to create an instance of the component in MXML. Which is the correct syntax?
A. <components.MyComponent/>
B. <components/MyComponent/>
C. <comp:MyComponent xmlns=components.*/>
D. <comp:MyComponent xmlns:comp=components.*/>

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
You want improve the performance of the following simple component while maintaining the functionality of
the component. What should you do?

<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<mx:VBox xmlns:mx=”http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml”>
<mx:HBox>
<mx:Label text=First Name/>
<mx:TextInput/>
<mx:Label text=Last Name>
<mx:TextInput/>
</mx:HBox>
</mx:VBox>

A. Do NOT make this a separate MXML component.
B. Make the <mx:TextInput> the root of the component.
C. Replace the <mx:HBox> tag with a <mx:Canvas> tag.
D. Make the <mx:HBox> tag the root tag of the component.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which statement about standard validators in the mx.validators package is NOT true?
A. The PhoneNumberValidator class is used to validate the length of international phone numbers.
B. The StringValidator class is used to validate the content of strings.
C. The CurrencyValidator class is used to check the validity of currency expressions represented as strings.
D. The CreditCardValidator class can be used to validate the expiration date of credit cards.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which UIComponent Event is dispatched when the component has finished its construction, property processing, measuring, layout and drawing?
A. load
B. initalize
C. preinitalize
D. creationComplete

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
You are declaring a method within a class. Which two keywords can be used? (Choose two.)
A. static
B. method
C. function
D. dynamic
E. package

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 37
You are creating a method named myFunction, that is designed to be used with the filterFunction property of an ArrayCollection. Which method signature should you use?
A. myFunction():Boolean { }
B. myFunction(item:Object):Boolean { }
C. myFunction(isFiltered:Boolean):Object { }
D. myFunction(item:Object, column:DataGridColumn):String

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Given this custom component definition:
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?><mx:VBox xmlns:mx=”http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml”>
</mx:VBox>
What is the relationship between the component and the ActionScript VBox class?

A. The component is a child of a VBox container.
B. The component is an instance of a VBox class.
C. The component is extended from the VBox class.
D. The component replaces the VBox class in the Flex Framework and will always be used wherever <mx:VBox/> is declared.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
You have created a Button inside a VBox container, which is a child of the application. The Application
start tag has this click event handler:
<mx:Application click=clickHandler(event)>
What is the value for the currentTarget property of the event object?

A. A reference to the VBox
B. A reference to the Button
C. A reference to the application
D. A reference to the event object Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which line of code correctly calls a changeHandler function when the text in a TextInput component is changed?
A. <mx:TextInput change=changeHandler() />
B. <mx:TextInput change=changeHandler() />
C. <mx:TextInput onChange=changeHandler() />
D. <mx:TextInput onChange=changeHander() />

Correct Answer: B

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Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-092 Self Study,Prompt Updates Adobe 9A0-092 Practise Questions Latest Version PDF&VCE

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QUESTION 7
You want to deploy a Flash movie for a CD-ROM. Your movie must also be cross platform compatible. Which file format should you select from the Publish Settings dialog box?
A. Macintosh Projector and SWF
B. Windows Projector (EXE) and SWF
C. Macintosh Projector, Windows Projector (EXE) and SWF
D. Macintosh Projector and Windows Projector (EXE) Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You want to import a resolution-independent image asset directly into Flash CS4. Which image asset type should you use?
A. AI
B. JPG
C. SVG
D. PSD
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
You want to use the same static graphic multiple times in an animation. Which image asset type should you use to optimize the animation?
A. Vector
B. Bitmap
C. SVG
D. Tween
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which image asset should be imported to keep good image quality when enlarging or reducing the asset within Flash?
A. Bitmap. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. Vector.
C. PNG.
D. SVG.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
You want to re-skin a Button component. The new skin needs to be lightweight and should scale. Which type of image assets best fits these criteria?
A. Bitmap.
B. Vector.dd
C. Video.
D. ASCII.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which Flash player version should be used to incorporate AIR, drop shadows, and accessibility features?
A. Flash Player 10.
B. Flash Player 9.
C. Flash Player 8.
D. Flash Player 7.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which is the earliest version of Flash Player that supports Unicode?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
You want to create a desktop application that contains a local embedded SQL database.
Which technology should you use?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. Flash Player 10 swf application
B. Flash Player 10 projector application
C. AIR 1.1 application
D. Any version of the Flash Player will meet this requirement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
You want to distribute a component that you have built. Which library option allows you to do this?
A. Convert to Compiled Clip
B. Export SWC File
C. Export Flash Movie
D. Component Definition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which command can be selected in the Library panel menu?
A. Cut
B. Paste
C. Duplicate
D. Save Symbol

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
You want to change the property of a symbol from a graphic to a movie clip using the Library panel. What should you do?
A. Right-click (Ctrl-click) on the symbol within the Library’s preview window and choose Properties.
B. Click on the New Symbol icon found at the bottom of the Library panel.
C. Click on the Properties icon found at the bottom of the Library panel.
D. Click on the Options submenu and select Rename.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
You want to duplicate a symbol using the Library panel.
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What should you do?
A. Right-click (Ctrl-click) on the symbol within the Library’s preview window and select Duplicate.
B. Click on the Options submenu and select Duplicate.
C. Click and drag the symbol to the New Symbol icon while holding down the Option/Alt key.
D. Double-click the symbol in the Library.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Which tool should you use to create a dotted grid within your document?
A. Paint Bucket tool.
B. Rectangle tool.
C. Rectangle Primitive tool.
D. Deco tool.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Which tool should you use to create a sporadic dotted fill within your document?
A. Paint Bucket tool.
B. Brush tool.
C. Spray Bush tool.
D. Pen tool.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
You want to use a MovieClip in the Library to create a symmetrical pattern on the stage. Which tool can be used to create this pattern?
A. Deco Tool
B. Spray Brush
C. 3D Translation Tool
D. Bone Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which tool uses a symbol in the Library to create a pattern?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. Rectangle Tool
B. Spray Brush
C. Selection Tool
D. Pen Tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Click the Exhibit button.

You have selected the current shape with the Free Transform tool.
What will happen if you click and drag at the current position with the Free Transform tool?

A. The shape will move.
B. The shape will be copied.
C. The shape’s transformation point will be moved.
D. The shape will be scaled around the transformation point.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
You want to scale an object on the Stage proportionately. What should you do?
A. Using the Gradient Transform tool, hold down your Shift key and click and drag on any of the four corner anchor points.
B. Using the Free Transform tool, hold down your Option/Alt key and click and drag on any of the four corner anchor points.
C. Using the Free Transform tool, hold down your Shift key and click and drag on any of the four corner anchor points.
D. Using the Free Transform tool, click and drag on any of the four corner anchor points.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which two options will allow you to rotate an object on the Stage? (Choose two)
A. Properties panel
B. Transform panel
C. Rotation tool
D. Free Transform tool

E. Info panel Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 26
You want to select a point within a line segment on the Stage. Which tool should you use?
A. Pen tool
B. Line tool
C. Subselection tool
D. Selection tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Which anti-alias option should you use to remove anti-aliasing from a TextField?
A. Anti-alias for readability
B. Bitmap text
C. Use Device Fonts
D. Anti-alias none

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
You want to display more than one line of text with word wrap in a dynamic TextField. Which TextField option should you use?
A. Multirow
B. Continuous
C. Multiline
D. Scrolling

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which two file formats can be imported into an SWF file at runtime? (Choose Two)
A. JPG
B. PNG
C. PSD
D. AI
E. EPS
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 30
Which file format supports vector based art that can be brought into Flash?
A. .GIF
B. .EPS
C. .JPG
D. .BMP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which TextField type automatically embeds font outlines?
A. Input
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Editable

Correct Answer: C

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Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-044 Self Study,Buy Best Adobe 9A0-044 Real Exam Questions And Answers With New Discount

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QUESTION 31
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit button.
You are using a levels adjustment layer to adjust the tonal range of an image. Which statement is true?
A. The adjustment layer affects all layers above it.
B. The adjustment layer permanently modifies all pixels affected by it.
C. All input levels to the left of the black point slider are adjusted to solid white.
D. All input levels to the right of the white point slider are adjusted to solid white.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Click the Exhibit button.
Which gradient style was used to make the gradient shown in the exhibit?

A. angle
B. radial
C. diamond
D. reflected

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which tool allows you to paint over a targeted color with a corrective color?
A. Brush
B. Clone Stamp
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
You are painting in your image with the Brush tool. You have enabled the airbrush capabilities. Which setting determines how quickly paint is applied?
A. Flow
B. Opacity
C. Scattering
D. Color Dynamics

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
Click the Exhibit button.
What happens if the curve adjustment shown in the exhibit is applied to an image?
A. The highlights are lightened, the shadows are darkened, and the contrast is increased.
B. The highlights are darkened, the shadows are lightened, and the contrast is increased.
C. The highlights are lightened, the shadows are darkened, and the contrast is decreased.
D. The highlights are darkened, the shadows are lightened, and the contrast is decreased.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
You are using a Brush tool. Which blending mode always results in a darker color?
A. Behind
B. Normal
C. Screen
D. Multiply

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
The Aligned checkbox for the Pattern Stamp tool in the Options Bar ensures that _____.
A. all areas painted with the tool are continuations of the same underlying pattern
B. you are sampling from the same pixels in the pattern with which you are painting
C. you are sampling from the same relative point in the pattern with which you are painting
D. the upper left corner of the pattern with which you are painting is aligned with the beginning of each brush stroke

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Click the Exhibit button.
You have an image open in Photoshop and you move the Exposure slider to the left from the position shown in the exhibit. What happens to the image?

A. The image gets lighter.
B. The image gets darker.
C. The image gets blurrier.
D. The image gets sharper.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
You are creating an image for use solely on a computer monitor. Which pixel aspect ratio setting you should use?
A. Square
B. DV NTSC
C. Anamorphic
D. DV NTSC Widescreen

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
You create an image with square pixels that you want to preview on a standard NTSC 4:3 monitor. When you activate the Video Preview feature, Photoshop warns you that the document pixel settings do not match the device settings. What should you do to get an accurate preview?
A. select Do Not Scale
B. select Scale to Fit in Frame
C. select Apply Pixel Ratio to Preview
D. deselect Apply Pixel Ratio to Preview
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Click the Exhibit button.
You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?

A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
Which statement about Camera Raw images is true?
A. There is less degradation upsampling a Camera Raw image than other file formats.
B. You can correct for pincushion and barrel distortions while applying Camera Raw settings.
C. Each time the White Balance of the image is changed, there is degradation to the original image.
D. You can change Camera Raw settings to a Raw image numerous times without degradation to the original image.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You are processing a Camera Raw image using the Adobe Camera Raw dialog box. You want the settings you have created to be updated and applied to the image without opening it. What should you do?
A. configure the settings, then click Done
B. configure the settings, then click Open
C. configure the settings, then click Alt-click (Windows) or Option-Click (Mac OS) Done
D. configure the settings, then click Alt-click (Windows) or Option-Click (Mac OS) Open

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
What is the Adobe Digital Negative (DNG) Format?
A. a file format specially tailored for creating photographic negatives
B. a file format specially tailored for scanned photographic negatives
C. a proprietary format for the raw files generated by certain digital cameras
D. a publicly documented archival format for the raw files generated by digital cameras

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
What should you do to ensure that an image’s History log is part of the image’s metadata?
A. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as metadata, and use File Info to view the log
B. in the History palette’s History Options, select Create New Snapshot When Saving, and use File Info to view the log
C. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as a text file, and use File Info to append the log to the metadata
D. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as a text file, and use Adobe Bridge to append the log to the metadata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which color mode should you use when the color image is to be printed, but the printing requirements are uncertain?
A. RGB
B. Bitmap
C. Indexed
D. Multichannel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What is the purpose of HDR images?
A. to simplify blending computations
B. to increase the luminance data in an image
C. to increase the bit depth of images from 8-bit to 16-bit
D. to combine multiple exposures of a scene into a panoramic image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
Which is an advantage of working with 16-bit images rather than 8-bit images?
A. 16-bit images have a smaller file size.
B. 16-bit images provide finer distinctions in color.
C. Some filters can only be used on 16-bit images.
D. 16-bit images can be saved in a wider variety of file formats.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
You are using Adobe Bridge to view metadata. You want to limit the information in each category to the information you use. What should you do?
A. choose View > Compact Mode
B. from the Metadata panel, click the triangle to the left of the items you want to hide
C. from the Preferences dialog box, click on Metadata, then uncheck items you want to hide
D. from the Metadata panel, select the items you want to view, then choose Window > Workspace > Save Workspace

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
You have a folder of images. You want to rename each image with new text, a sequence number, and the current extension, and copy the renamed file to another folder. What should you do?
A. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
B. from Photoshop, choose File > Scripts > Image Processor
C. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Version Cue > Make Alternates
D. from Photoshop, choose File > Automate > Batch, then choose Rename from the Actions pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
What should you do to apply a keyword to a selected image being viewed in Adobe Bridge?
A. double-click the keyword in the Keywords panel
B. select the check box next to the keyword in the Keywords panel
C. drag the keyword from the Keywords panel to the image being viewed
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) the image and choose the keyword from the resulting menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which items are saved as part of a workspace?
A. tool settings and palette positions
B. tool settings and keyboard shortcuts
C. palette positions and keyboard shortcuts
D. the positions of all open palettes and the toolbox

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
The palettes you use most often when working with images for print differ from the palettes you use for images for the Web. You want to quickly switch from one set of palettes to another. What should you do for each arrangement of palettes?
A. create an action
B. create a tool preset
C. create a workspace
D. create a keyboard shortcut

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
You want to create several colors to use in a number of projects. You want to save the new colors independent of the defaults so that you can load them at any time. What should you do?
A. add the new colors to the Color palette, then choose Save Colors from the Colors palette menu
B. add the new colors to the Swatches palette, then choose Save Swatches from the Swatches palette menu
C. add the new colors to the Color palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new colors and click Save Set
D. add the new colors to the Swatches palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new swatches and click Save Set

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to highlight frequently-used menu items by assigning a color to them.
What should you do?
A. click and drag a swatch from the Swatches palette onto the menu item
B. choose Edit > Preferences > Guides, Grids and Slices, then select a color for Guides
C. choose Edit > Menus, select the menu item from the list, then select a color from the Color column
D. choose Edit > Preset Manager, choose Menus from the pop-up list, select the menu item, then choose a color from the Palette menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which filter allows you to apply different sharpening settings to shadows, highlights, and midtones?
A. Sharpen
B. Sharpen More
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Smart Sharpen

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
You take a picture with a digital camera using a long exposure time. You did NOT use a tripod. Which Smart Sharpen filter setting should you choose to help eliminate blurriness in the image?
A. Remove Lens Blur
B. Remove Radial Blur
C. Remove Motion Blur
D. Remove Gaussian Blur
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which filter command should you use to remove JPEG artifacts from an image?
A. Blur > Smart Blur
B. Noise > Add Noise
C. Blur > Surface Blur
D. Noise > Reduce Noise

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
Which statement about the Filter Gallery is true?
A. Filter effects can be temporarily hidden in the list of applied filters.
B. Filters that are hidden are still applied when click OK to apply filters.
C. All filters listed under the Filter menu are available in the Filter Gallery.
D. You get the same effect regardless of the order the filters appear in the list of applied filters.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You want to apply a number of filters to your image to achieve a special effect. You want to apply some filters more than once, and you may need to rearrange the order in which the filters are applied or change the settings of the filters. What should you do?
A. choose Filter > Stylize
B. choose Filter > Artistic
C. choose Filter > Filter Gallery
D. choose Filter > Pattern Maker

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You are printing an image to your desktop inkjet printer. You want to use a custom ICC profile for the paper to which you are printing. In the Print with Preview dialog box, you have specified the custom ICC profile as the Printer Profile. Which color handling method should you use?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You enable color management in your printer driver dialog box. You want to print an RGB image. Which color handling method should you choose in the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
You want to print a file without displaying a dialog box. Which command should you use?
A. File > Print
B. File > Print Online
C. File > Print One Copy
D. File > Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
You measure a laser printer’s resolution in _____ per inch and you measure an image’s resolution in _____ per inch.
A. dots; dots
B. dots; pixels
C. pixels; dots
D. pixels; pixels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
Which is an advantage of using vector drawing tools rather than raster drawing tools?
A. Vector shapes can be resized directly with a selection tool.
B. You can create multiple vector shapes on the same layer in ImageReady.
C. Vector shapes maintain crisp edges in a PDF file or when printed to a PostScript printer.
D. You can create vector shapes, but not rasterized shapes, in both Photoshop and ImageReady.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
You want to create several vector shapes on the same layer. You want the shapes to mask one another where they overlap. Which Vector tool option should you select?
A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
Click the Exhibit button.
Which text property was used for the letter d?
A. Kerning
B. Leading
C. Tracking
D. Baseline Shift

Correct Answer: D

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