Cisco, VPN and Security

Cisco 642-541 Dumps, First-hand Cisco 642-541 Questions And Answers Are Based On The Real Exam

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QUESTION 159
Which are the attack mitigation roles for the VPN Concentrator in the SAFE standard VPN WLAN design? Choose three.
A. authenticate remote users
B. two-factor authentication
C. terminate IPsec
D. RFC 2827 filtering
E. DHCP relay
F. VPN client auto-initiate

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 161
Which IDS guidelines should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use TCP shunning as opposed to TCP resets
B. use shunning no longer than 15 minutes
C. use shunning on only UDP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than TCP
D. use shunning on only TCP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than UDP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which three Cisco components encompass secure connectivity? Choose three.
A. Cisco IDS Sensors
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco VPN Concentrators
E. Cisco IOS IDS
F. Cisco IOS VPN

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
According to the SAFE Layer 2 security white paper, which is not a threat to switches?
A. CAM table overflow
B. DHCP starvation
C. IP address spoofing
D. VLAN hopping
E. Spanning-Tree Protocol manipulation

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What causes the default TCP intercept feature of the IOS Firewall to become more aggressive? Choose two.
A. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 1100
B. the number of connections arriving in the last 1 minute exceeds 1100
C. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 100
D. the number of connections arriving in the last 10 minutes exceeds 1000

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is true about the PIX Firewall in the remote site firewall option in the SAFE SMR remote user design environment?
A. ISAKMP is enabled when the ISAKMP policy is created
B. ISAKMP is enabled when the crypto map is applied to the interface
C. ISAKMP is disabled by default
D. ISAKMP is enabled by default

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR remote user network? Choose two.
A. firewall with VPN support
B. Layer 2 switch
C. broadband access device
D. NIDS
E. Layer 3 switch

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What is the function of a crypto map on a PIX Firewall?
A. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IKE peer address or host name
B. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IPSec peer address or host name
C. to specify which algorithms to use with the selected security protocol
D. to filter and classify the traffic to be protected

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 168
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 169
How are password attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
According to SAFE worm mitigation, which of the following is not a mitigation for MS Blaster?
A. private VLANs
B. NBAR
C. CAR
D. sink-hole routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which method will always compute the password if it is made up of the character set you selected to test?
A. brute force computation
B. strong password computation
C. password reassemble
D. brute force mechanism

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 173
What are the SAFE guidelines when routing information is exchanged with an outside routing domain? (Select two.)
A. Use exterior gateway protocols only
B. Use exterior gateway protocols that operate between routing domains and do not allow administrators to build and act on policies.
C. Use exterior gateway protocols because they allow administrators to build and act on policies rather than just on reachability information.
D. Do not use autonomous system path filters on every EBGP peering session in network
E. Use exterior gateway protocols or static routes.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. WAN router
B. VPN Concentrator
C. firewalls
D. NIDS host
E. corporate servers
F. layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
According to SAFE SMR, what type of VPN connectivity is typically used with the Cisco PIX Firewall?
A. remote access
B. site-to-site
C. mobile user
D. corporate

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Free Dowload, The Most Effective CheckPoint 156-215 Study Guide Are The Best Materials

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QUESTION 126
Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. Rule 4
B. Rule 3
C. Rule 5
D. Rule 6

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
If you experience unwanted traffic from a specific IP address, how can you stop it most quickly? ActualTests.com
A. Check anti-spoofing settings
B. Configure a rule to block the address
C. Create a SAM rule
D. Activate an IPS protection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 128
You are evaluating the configuration of a mesh VPN Community used to create a site-to-site VPN. This graphic displays the VPN properties in this mesh Community
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

Which of the following would be a valid conclusion?
A. The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security Gateway R71 supports.
B. Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3DES will increase the encryption overhead.
C. Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with 3DES to DES will enhance the VPN Community’s security, and reduce encryption overhead.
D. Change the data-integrity settings for this VPN CommunitybecauseMD5 is incompatible with AES.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

“web_publicIP” is the node Object that represents the public IP address of the new Web server. “web_privateIP” is the node object that represents the new Web site’s private P address You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.
When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error ‘page cannot be displayed” Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of the Web server.
B. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
C. There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings Merge Manual proxy ARP and Automatic ARP configuration are enabled in Global Properties. The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.
D. There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 130
Which of the following SSL Network Extender server-side prerequisites is NOT correct?
A. The Gateway must be configured to work with Visitor Mode.
B. There are distinctly separate access rules required for SecureClient users vs. SSL Network Extender users.
C. To use Integrity Clientless Security (ICS), you must install the IC3 server or configuration tool.
D. The specific Security Gateway must be configured as a member of the Remote Access Community

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 131
You need to determine if your company’s Web servers are accessed an excessive number of times from the same host. How would you configure this in the IPS tab?
A. Successive multiple connections
B. Successive alerts
C. Successive DoS attacks
D. HTTP protocol inspection

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 132
What does it indicate when a Check Point product name includes the word “SMART”?
A. Stateful Management of all Routed Traffic.
B. This Check Point product is a GUI Client.
C. Security Management Architecture.
D. The Check Point product includes Artificial Intelligence.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 133
How many times is the firewall kernel invoked for a packet to be passed through a VPN connection?
A. Three times
B. Twice
C. Once
D. None The IPSO kernel handles it Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
When attempting to connect with SecureClient Mobile the following error message is received. The certificate provided is invalid. Please provide the username and password.
What is the probable cause of the error?
A. The certificate provided is invalid.
B. The user’s credentials are invalid.
C. The user attempting to connect is not configured to have an office mode IP address so the connection failed.
D. There is no connection to the server, and the client disconnected.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
The fw stat -l command includes all of the following except:
A. The number of packets that have been inspected
B. The date and time of the policy that is installed.
C. The number of times the policy has been installed ActualTests.com
D. The number of packets that have been dropped

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 136
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s side with the cpconfig command and put in the same activation key in the Gateway’s object on the Security Management Server Unfortunately SIC cannot be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The installed policy blocks the communication.
B. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.
C. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.
D. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
The TotallyCoolSecurity Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS Chicago_Profile for fw-chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing logs, Matt noticed that fw- chicago is not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and determine how can correct the problem.

A. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Activate protections manually Instead of ActualTests.com per the IPS Policy
B. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated
C. Matt should assign the fw-chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile
D. Matt should change the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode will not work.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.
B. Umit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R71 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key. You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy?
A. You first need to create a new UTM-1 Gateway object, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway’s topology.
B. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server.
C. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance Resolve by running the tw unloadlocal command on the local Security Gateway.
D. You first need to run the fw unloadlocal command on the R71 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 140
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. diag
B. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
C. netstat > date.netstat.txt
D. cpstat > date.cpatat.txt

Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA, CompTIA Network+

CompTIA N10-006 Exam Questions , Best CompTIA N10-006 Preparation Materials UP To 50% Off

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QUESTION 21
A company has a new offering to provide access to their product from a central location rather than clients internally hosting the product on the client network. The product contains sensitive corporate information that should not be accessible from one client to another. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Public SaaS
B. Private SaaS
C. Hybrid IaaS
D. Community IaaS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which of the following refers to a network that spans several buildings that are within walking distance of each other?
A. CAN
B. WAN

C. PAN
D. MAN
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
An administrator notices an unused cable behind a cabinet that is terminated with a DB-9 connector. Which of the following protocols was MOST likely used on this cable?
A. RS-232
B. 802.3

C. ATM
D. Token ring
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
A. Broadcast
B. Loopback
C. Classless
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
A SQL server needs several terabytes of disk space available to do an uncompressed backup of a database. Which of the following devices would be the MOST cost efficient to use for this backup?
A. iSCSI SAN
B. FCoE SAN

C. NAS
D. USB flash drive
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which of the following network elements enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?
A. Access switch
B. UC gateway
C. UC server
D. Edge router
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network Operations
QUESTION 1
A network technician receives the following alert from a network device: “High utilizations threshold exceeded on gi1/0/24 : current value 9413587.54” Which of the following is being monitored to trigger the alarm?
A. Speed and duplex mismatch
B. Wireless channel utilization
C. Network device CPU
D. Network device memory
E. Interface link status Correct Answer: E
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A technician is configuring a managed switch and needs to enable 802.3af. Which of the following should the technician enable?
A. PoE
B. Port bonding
C. VLAN
D. Trunking Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following protocols must be implemented in order for two switches to share VLAN information?
A. VTP
B. MPLS

C. STP
D. PPTP Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
After a recent breach, the security technician decides the company needs to analyze and aggregate its security logs. Which of the following systems should be used?
A. Event log
B. Syslog

C. SIEM
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A network technician is diligent about maintaining all system servers’ at the most current service pack level available. After performing upgrades, users experience issues with server-based applications. Which of the following should be used to prevent issues in the future?
A. Configure an automated patching server
B. Virtualize the servers and take daily snapshots
C. Configure a honeypot for application testing
D. Configure a test lab for updates
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A company has implemented the capability to send all log files to a central location by utilizing an encrypted channel. The log files are sent to this location in order to be reviewed. A recent exploit has caused the company’s encryption to become unsecure. Which of the following would be required to resolve the exploit?
A. Utilize a FTP service
B. Install recommended updates
C. Send all log files through SMTP
D. Configure the firewall to block port 22
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The RAID controller on a server failed and was replaced with a different brand. Which of the following will be needed after the server has been rebuilt and joined to the domain?
A. Vendor documentation
B. Recent backups
C. Physical IP address
D. Physical network diagram
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A network technician has been tasked with designing a WLAN for a small office. One of the requirements of this design is that it is capable of supporting HD video streaming to multiple devices. Which of the following would be the appropriate wireless technology for this design?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A company is experiencing accessibility issues reaching services on a cloud-based system. Which of the following monitoring tools should be used to locate possible outages?
A. Network analyzer
B. Packet analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Network sniffer
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A company is experiencing very slow network speeds of 54Mbps. A technician has been hired to perform an assessment on the existing wireless network. The technician has recommended an 802.11n network infrastructure. Which of the following allows 802.11n to reach higher speeds?
A. MU-MIMO
B. LWAPP
C. PoE

D. MIMO
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
It has been determined by network operations that there is a severe bottleneck on the company’s mesh topology network. The field technician has chosen to use log management and found that one router is making routing decisions slower than others on the network. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Network device power issues
B. Network device CPU issues
C. Storage area network issues
D. Delayed responses from RADIUS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12

The last segment is related to the basic inferential statistics that require your knowledge of chi-square, correlations, regression, samples, statistical errors, t-test and statistics. Command of these segments will help you in obtaining this certification. It will help you to understand the CompTIA N10-006 exam questions and answer them appropriately.

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Cisco, VPN and Security

Cisco 642-541 Exam Practice, Valid and updated Cisco 642-541 Real Testing On Our Store

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QUESTION 136
Which are the functional areas in SAFE Enterprise Network? Choose two.
A. Enterprise Network VPN/Remote Access
B. Enterprise Network Campus
C. Enterprise Network Distribution
D. Enterprise Network Corporate Internet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
How are packet sniffer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network campus module?
A. host based virus scanning
B. the latest security fixes
C. the use of HIDS and application access control
D. switched infrastructure
E. HIDS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What are private VLANs?
A. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
B. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
C. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments
D. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 139
Which IDS guideline should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof
B. use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof
C. use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes
D. use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
What IKE proposal should be chosen on the VPN Concentrator for the Unity Client?
A. any proposal that ends with DH7
B. any IKE proposal, except the IKE proposal that ends with DH7
C. any proposal that starts with Cisco VPN Client
D. any proposal that starts with DH7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which two Cisco components encompass secure management? Choose two.
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. CiscoWorks
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco PIX Firewalls
E. Web Device Managers

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
What Radio Frequency (RF) band does the Home RF Shared Wireless Access Protocol (SWAP) specification use
A. 900 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 5.7 GHz
D. 900 MHz

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
What is the primary function of the IOS firewall in the SAFE SMR small network design?
A. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
B. provide remote site connectivity and general filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
C. provide host DoS mitigation
D. authenticate IPSec tunnels
E. provide remote site authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
How are virus and Trojan Horse attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What threats are expected for the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose two.
A. IP spoofing
B. packets sniffers
C. denial of service
D. applications layer attacks

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which type of attack is usually implemented using packet sniffers?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. DoS
C. brute force
D. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR remote user network environment? Choose two.
A. trust exploitation
B. port redirection attacks
C. man in the middle attacks
D. network reconnaissance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which is a design alternative in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. A NIDS appliance can be placed in front of the firewall.
B. A URL filtering server can be placed on the public services segment to filter the types of Web pages employees can access.
C. A separate router and Layer 2 switch can be used for the core and distribution rather than the higher-performing Layer 3 switch.
D. The router between the firewall and the campus module can be eliminated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 150
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
According to SAFE SMR guidelines, where do you implement the Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator?
A. in front of the Internet access router
B. behind the PIX Firewall and parallel to the Internet access router
C. behind the Internet access router and parallel to the PIX Firewall
D. behind the corporate network module

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152
What services do extranet VPNs provide?
A. link corporate headquarters to remote offices
B. link telecommuters and mobile users to corporate network resources
C. link network resources with third-party vendors and business partners
D. link private networks to public networks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
According to SAFE, which statement is true about IPSec tunneling protocols?
A. L2TP supports data encryption and packet integrity.
B. GRE is better suited for site-to-site VPNs.
C. IPSec standard supports IP unicast and multicast traffic.
D. GRE is better suited for remote-access VPNs.
E. GRE supports data encryption and packet integrity.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. Syslog hosts
B. corporate servers
C. Layer 3 switches
D. firewalls
E. VPN Concentrator
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which routing protocol does not support the use of MD5 authentication?
A. BGP
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 158
What version of the Cisco PIX Firewall is required to use the VPN accelerator card?
A. version 2.3 or higher
B. version 3.3 or higher
C. version 4.3 or higher
D. version 5.3 or higher
E. version 6.3 or higher

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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ACMT, Apple

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QUESTION 51
Which THREE of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no power’ condition? SELECT THREE
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You cannot connect to the Internet.
C. You do not hear any fan or drive noise.
D. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.
E. The power button or power indicator does not light up at all.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 52
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. Remove the processor tray.
B. Remove the hard drive carriers.
C. Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board, and a secondary SMC on the processor board. What service issue should a technician be aware of when servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B. Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C. It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D. Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
A computer service technician says “I don’t use ESD precautions and have never had a problem.” What (if anything) is wrong with this statement?
A. Nothing is wrong with this statement.
B. ESD damage may not appear immediately.
C. ESD happens only to inexperienced technicians.
D. ESD damage is really not as bad as everyone thinks.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You want to follow ESD prevention rules, but your work area is too small for you to be tethered with a wired wrist strap. What is one acceptable alternative solution to this issue?
A. Use a wireless wrist strap.
B. Use a grounded ESD heel strap.
C. Do not practice ESD prevention.
D. Work on the floor instead of a table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
When you work at a customer site, you do not need to take any precautions to avoid ESD damage.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
ESD causes damage to circuits by ________.
A. slowing the circuit down
B. blasting a hole in the circuit
C. cooling the circuit too quickly
D. increasing the circuit’s clock speed

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
You are preparing to service a MacBook. To reduce the risk of damage from ESD, you clear the area of plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene, and have static-shielding storage bags available for ESD-sensitive components. While you are working you should also remember to ________________ and _______________. SELECT TWO
A. ground yourself and the equipment you are working on
B. always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces
C. discharge the display to protect the other ESD-sensitive components
D. handle any ESD-sensitive components by the connectors, rather than by the edges
E. ask other technicians to avoid touching you when you are working on ESD-sensitive components

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 59
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (13-inch, Late 2010) logic board. Which of the following is the most important step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the battery.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to use Apple Service Diagnostic?
A. You want to check a Mac for accidental damage.
B. You want to verify product functionality after a repair.
C. Your customer wants to run diagnostics on his Mac Pro.
D. You need to verify that all installed applications have been updated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
A customer asks if there is a diagnostic that he can use to help troubleshoot a hardware problem with his MacBook Pro. Which of the following solutions should you suggest?
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Terminal
D. Console

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Apple Service Toolkit uses ____ to check Macs with Mac Resource Inspector and other diagnostic utilities.
A. NetBoot
B. Open Firmware
C. Target Disk Mode
D. Apple Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Examine the exhibit.

Why is it necessary to use this Service Fixture when replacing the left fan or heat sink in a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2009)?
A. This tool is used to avoid flexing the logic board.
B. This tool is used to avoid ESD damage to the logic board.
C. It is impossible to remove these components without this tool.
D. This tool is used to properly align the processor with its socket.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMac (27-inch, Mid 2010) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 driver with 5 inch shaft
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
Examine the exhibit.

This specialized tool is required for the removal of which component from the Mac mini (Mid 2010)?
A. Fan
B. Memory
C. Bottom Cover
D. Antenna Plate
E. Logic Board Assembly
Correct Answer: E

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Acpt, Apple

Apple 9L0-009 Cert Exam, Most Accurate Apple 9L0-009 exam questions Guaranteed Success

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QUESTION 55
Which safety issue applies to the iMac (Mid 2010)?
A. Liquid coolant spillage
B. Thermal grease toxicity
C. High voltage CRT discharge
D. Fragile glass panel breakage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
You are removing the main battery from a MacBook Pro (17-inch, Early 2009). Which of the following is a best practice when handling this battery?
A. Handle the battery with one hand, pressing between the soft side and the hard side.
B. Re-cover any punctures or tears in the soft mylar covering with Kapton tape.
C. Handle the battery any way; it does not matter.
D. Hold the battery carefully by its edges only.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
When discharging a CRT, what part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?
A. Anode aperture
B. High voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. Yoke connector/cable
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
Which of the following is NOT a valid power saving technique in recent Mac computers?
A. Disconnect all peripherals.
B. Activate automatic display sleep.
C. Activate automatic hard disk sleep.
D. Use wireless networks instead of wired networks.
E. Set up locations optimized for different environments.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
What is the proper way to calibrate the main battery in a MacBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box; no further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again.
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You can use a higher wattage power adapter with an Apple portable computer, but you cannot use one with less wattage without potential operating issues.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?
A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Examine the exhibit. What is the correct name for this type of pixel anomaly?

A. Dark dot defect
B. Stuck sub-pixel
C. Bright dot defect
D. Vertical TAB fault

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
Which of the following statements describes how CCFL backlighting is similar to LED backlighting when troubleshooting backlighting issues in Apple displays?
A. Both types of displays use fluorescent lights.
B. Both types of displays use light emitting diodes.
C. Both types of displays are diagnosed identically.
D. Both types of displays have components that are individually replaceable.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (Mid 2007) with an 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
Which piece of information is best used to determine any Mac’s correct AppleCare name?
A. the EMC number
B. the serial number
C. the MAC address
D. the model number

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her Mac’s serial number?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Examine the exhibit. What AirPort Extreme port does the number 3 identify?

A. USB
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. Power
E. FireWire

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
Which THREE of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting AirPort issues? SELECT THREE
A. Are wired computers affected as well?
B. Are just wireless computers affected?
C. How much RAM do you have installed?
D. What is the computer’s processor speed?
E. What is the resolution of the computer’s display?
F. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network?

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 72
If you are unable to find the password for an AirPort Extreme or Express Base Station, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
If an AirPort Extreme Base Station stopped responding, has network accessibility issues, or needs to be reverted back to default factory configuration, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which of the following is NOT a valid Bluetooth troubleshooting tip for Macs?
A. Check for signal interference.
B. Make sure Bluetooth is turned on.
C. Update Bluetooth software on the Mac.
D. Verify Bluetooth peripheral hardware batteries are charged.
E. Make sure the Bluetooth peripheral is at least 20 meters away from the Mac.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 75
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 76
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
The purpose of Apple’s business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
You must provide your identity when you use Apple’s Business Conduct Helpline. You may not contact the Helpline anonymously.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which of the following is NOT a valid example of the type of information that Apple collects from its customers?
A. Credit card information.
B. Discussion blog postings mentioning Apple.
C. Apple product serial number and date of purchase.
D. Name, mailing address, phone number, email address.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Ribbon cable
D. Deflection coil
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer
Correct Answer: ABC

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EXIN, EXIN ITIL

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.
Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

2.
Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4:
Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.
1, 2 and 3 only

B.
1 and 2 only

C.
1, 2 and 4 only

D.
All of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1.
Local service desk

2.
Virtual service desk

3.
IT help desk

4.
Follow the sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1.
To automatically detect service-affecting events

2.
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

3.
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1.
Those planned to be delivered

2.
Those being delivered

3.
Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1.
At any time it would be useful to do so

2.
After a workaround has been found

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Correct Answer: B

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Extreme Networks, Extreme Networks Certifications

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QUESTION 30
How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
Within VRRP the election process of becoming the master switch takes place with the following precedence

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Extreme Networks, Extreme Networks Certifications

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QUESTION 31
When a port is added to a tagged VLAN, jumbo frame support must be enabled to compensate for the increased frame size.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
The modular BlackDiamond 6804 switch supports the following legacy WAN modules? (Choose all three that apply)
A. 2-port SONET/SDH OC-12c/STM-4 PoS
B. 4-port SONET/SDH OC-3c/STM-1 PoS
C. 4-port SONET/SDH OC-3/STM-1 ATM
D. 16-port SONET/SDH T3/E3 PoS/ATM

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 33
In an Extreme Switch, the routing function is disabled on all VLANs by default.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
The acronym TCP/IP stands for:
A. Transport Control Protocol/Internal Protocol
B. Transmission Control Protocol/ International Protocol
C. Transfer Control Policy/Interactive Protocol
D. None of these

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
In a Summit 5i switch, a MAC address must be configured for each physical port before routing can be configured.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Given the following diagram, how would you disable ports 3 through 8 on module 1 and all ports on modules 3 and 4?

A. disable ports slot 1 ports 3-8, slot 3 ports 1-8, slot 4, ports 1-8
B. unconfig ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8
C. config vlan <name> delete ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8
D. disable ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What information is not provided by the CLI command: show version?
A. The ExtremeWare software image version and the build date and time
B. The MAC address of the switch
C. The Switch Serial Number
D. The BootROM version

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that use the address-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired result?

A. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-basedSummit #2: enable sharing 8 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-based
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-basedSummit #2: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-based
C. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 address-based algorithmSummit #2: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 address-based algorithm
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which CLI command would you use to configure proxy ARP for IP address 10.0.0.1/24 with MAC address
00:11:22:33:44:55
so that it will respond regardless of the VLAN?

A.
config iparp add proxy 00:11:22:33:44:55 10.0.0.1/24 always

B.
config iparp add proxy 10.0.0.1/24 00:11:22:33:44:55 always

C.
config proxyarp add 10.0.0.1/24 00:11:22:33:44:55 always

D.
config proxyarp add 00:11:22:33:44:55 10.0.0.1/24 always

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
The IP ROUTING field indicates whether IP forwarding has been enabled or disabled when the CLI command: show ipconfig is entered.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
How can you tell by looking at the front panel of an Summit 1i switch, which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Solid amber light
D. Solid green light

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
What does the TFTP acronym stands for?
A. True File Transfer Protocol
B. Total File Transfer Protocol
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol
D. Transport File Trough Protocol

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
SNMP access to a Summit 48si switch can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile
C. Use the CLI command: disable snmp access
D. All of these

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
In addition to maintaining an internal log, ExtremeWare supports remote logging feature via the UNIX syslog facility.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
Passwords for login names on ExtremeWare CLI accounts are case-sensitive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Extreme switches learn source MAC addresses and perform bridging based on the destination MAC address of incoming Ethernet frames.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
The RFC 1918 describes the use and benefits of IP address space for private networks. The following IP address 10.10.60.254/23 can be considered as a valid private IP address.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
The Spanning Tree Protocol is designed to:
A. Calculate the shortest path route to a destination network.
B. Calculate the topology of a network for the RIP protocol.
C. Prevent bridging loops in a layer-2 network.
D. Better utilize multiple paths between VLANs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
The modular Alpine 3808 has a capacity of 64Gbps and can forward 48 million packets per second.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
Which CLI command will remove the IP address that has been assigned to the default VLAN?
A. config default unconfig ipaddress
B. config default delete ipaddress
C. unconfig default ipaddress
D. disable default ipaddress

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for formatting data used by the application layer?
A. Session layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
When typing commands, the ExtremeWare CLI will auto-complete a command if followed with this keystroke:
A. Space bar
B. Escape key
C. Tab key
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
There can be only one frame transmitted at a time on a traditional CSMA-CD Ethernet network. What is the result when more frames are sent at the same time?
A. Runts
B. Jabbers
C. Collisions
D. Jumbo frames

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
It is highly recommended to change the SNMP community strings on an Extreme switch from the factory default. The following well-known community strings apply by default:
A. R/O extreme R/W networks
B. R/O public R/W private
C. R/O shared R/W secret
D. R/O nonblocking R/W wirespeed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
In normal IP unicast routing, all forwarding decisions are based on the ______________ of each packet.
A. destination MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source MAC address
D. destination IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
I/O modules for the BlackDiamond 6808 and Alpine 3804 switch products are interchangeable.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
The ExtremeWare feature that configures the switch to copy all traffic associated with one or more ports for traffic analyses purpose is:
A. IP Multinetting
B. Port-Mirroring
C. Port Load Sharing
D. None of these

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
The CLI Command ?7KH&/,&RPPDQGdisable learning ports 1?will do the following on an Extreme switch:
A. disable MAC address learning for port 1
B. disable link detection for port 1
C. disable STP learning on port 1
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Given the following diagram, which command would you use to send the switch active configuration file to the TFTP server?

A. download config 192.168.0.1 <filename>
B. upload config 192.168.0.254 <filename>
C. download config 192.168.0.254 <filename>
D. upload config 192.168.0.1 <filename>

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
What is the default STP max age value?
A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
Which CLI command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Upgrading the BootROM on a Summit 48i switch is done via the CLI command:
A. upload bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
B. enable bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
C. download bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
Classless routing and VLSM are supported by ExtremeWare.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
What is the broadcast address for 192.168.1.49/30?
A. 192.168.1.51

B. 192.168.1.255
C. 192.168.1.52
D. 192.168.1.48
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be tagged on a single link between Extreme Networks switches.
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4095

D. 6000
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which of the following sequences identifies a TCP three-way handshake?
A. SYN ?SYN ?ACK
B. SYN ACK ?ACK ?TCP SYN
C. TCP SYN ?ACK – SYN-ACK

D. TCP SYN ?SYN ACK – ACK
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
OSPF is a link-state type of routing protocol.

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Cisco 700-601 Free Dowload, Most Accurate Cisco 700-601 Questions And Answers With Low Price

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the ability that “Hyper Scale” provides to Cisco UCS Invicta?
A. Scale out either independently or together
B. Scale up only
C. Scale out only
D. Scale up and out but only at the same time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option is not a key target audience for the Cisco UCS Invicta solution?
A. IT managers/CIOs
B. Application owners
C. Business decision makers
D. Archival library managers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the (lash array, based on the Parity Research of TCO. are true? (Choose two.)
A. HDD used 2 times the power of flash array.
B. HDD used 5 times the power of flash array.
C. HDD used 10 times the power of flash array.
D. HDD used 50 times the power of flash array.
E. HDD took 8 times the physical space of flash array.
F. HDD took 15 times the physical space of Hash array
G. HDD took 2 times the physical space of flash array.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which two options are the two main products in the Invicta portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Stand-alone appliance
B. Stand-alone array
C. Scaling appliance
D. Scaling array
E. Latency appliance
F. Latency array
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which four customer characteristics indicate a good match for Cisco UCS Invicta? (Choose four.)
A. Space and power constraints due to scaling out
B. Those focused on large disk backup service
C. New or existing Cisco UCS customers
D. Application scaling issues
E. Those with large data archives infrequently accessed

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