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QUESTION 21
You have an RGB image. The presence of ______ in parts of the channel indicates the presence of red in the image that location.
A. blue
B. blak
C. white
D. green

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have an existing selection. You click on the option bar. How will a new selection interact with the existing selection?
A. The new selection will be added to the existing selection.
B. The new selection will be intersected with the existing selection.
C. The new selection will be subtracted form the existing selection.

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How isan ATM connection identified?

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QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
Which of the following isnot an OSPF packet type?

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QUESTION 35
Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. OSPF
B. PIM Dense Mode
C. RIP 2
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is a key Link Aggregation (LA) Switch 7700/8800 configuration consideration?
A. Member links can be mixed media, speed and duplex mode
B. The Switch 7700/Switch 8800 supports non-sequential LA port assignment on a single module
C. A member link port can only belong to one aggregated link
D. You must remove the specific LA group before disabling its member link ports
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Using 3Com’s

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QUESTION 35
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
D. Distributed Device Management (DDM)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Cut-through switching
B. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
C. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
F. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 37
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?

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QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which two are features of the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. Describes network edge access between a supplicant and a network access device
B. Defines tunnel encapsulation to transmit data across a Virtual Private Network
C. Identifies RADIUS as a generic means of performing supplicant access validity inspection
D. Identifies proxy servers as means of intercepting and filtering requests to the main server
E. Defines packet filtering as a means to control network access by analyzing each incoming and outgoing packet and rejecting or accepting it based on user-defined rules

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which two cabling options should you choose for a customer who wants to upgrade the building and the campus backbones to Giabit Ethernet?Note: The campus backbone requires a 1,000-meter run, and the building backbone runs are from 300-500 meters in length. All new cabling is required. (Choose two)
A. 1000BASE -TX copper for the building backbones
B. 1000BASE -SX 50 micron multimode fiber for the campus backbones
C. 1000BASE – LX 9 micron single-mode fiber for the campus backbones
D. 1000BASE -LX 62.5 micron multimode fiber for the building backbones

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 33
How does a 3Com switch 7700, with RSTP disabled, handle the flooding process for a frame with the following attributes: A VLAN existsfor the frame’s

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
How would you define a fault tolerant device?
A. A backup path exists for every link between the client and the server.
B. Key components can be hot-swapped.
C. A backup device exists for every device between the client and the server.
D. Devices in the network can be hot-swapped without interrupting the network operation.
E. The device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Device fault tolerance and redundancy: This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-tolerant devices provide a high level of reliability. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?

A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for
Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You have the following commands on your Cisco Router:
ip ftp username admin ip ftp password backup
You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?

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