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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which configuration command is used to enable EIGRP unequal-cost path load balancing?
A. maximum-paths
B. distance
C. metric
D. variance
E. default-metric

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: EIGRP automatically load balances across links of equal cost. Whether the traffic is sent on a predestination or round-robin basis depends on the internal switching within the router. It is possible to configure EIGRP to load balance across unequal-cost paths using the variance command. The variance command allows the administrator to identify the metric scope for including additional paths by the use of a multiplier parameter. The command structure follows: Router(config-router)#variance multiplier The multiplier argument is the metric value used for load balancing. It can be a value from 1 to 128. The default is 1, which means equal-cost load balancing. Reference: CCNP Self-Study CCNP BSCI Exam certification guide p.485
QUESTION 2

Examine the EIGRP network diagram. All paths should be used for load balancing between Certkiller 4 and the Certkiller Corporate Network. Which value should be assigned to the variance command to accomplish this?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
E. 5
F. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. In this example, the worst route is 2.5 times worse than the best route. Since we can not use 2.5 for the variance (the value must be an integer) we must specify a minimum value of 3.

Assuming that the OSPF router ID was not explicitly defined on router CK2 , what would its router ID default to?
A. 10.5.0.2
B. 10.7.0.3
C. 10.9.0.1
D. 10.10.10.10
E. 0.0.0.0
F. None of the above Answer: D Explanation: The router ID is the tie-breaker for OSPF path selection. The path selection process uses a variety of metrics to select a route. If all other metrics (accessibility, administrative weight, local preference, etc.) are equal, OSPF determines the router ID using the following priority: Use the address configured by the ospf router-id command Use the address of the loopback 0 interface Use the highest IP address of any interface If no interface exists, set the router-ID to 0.0.0.0

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands ensures that permanently created static route entries are dynamically added into the routing process?
A. inject static
B. inject permanent
C. redistribute all
D. redistribute static

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If you define a static route to an interface that is not one of the networks defined in a network command, no dynamic routing protocols will advertise the route unless a redistribute static command is specified for these protocols. Incorrect Answers:
A: The inject static is used to configure legacy DECnet systems. It is not a valid IP routing command.

B: There is no such command.

C: The command is not valid.
Reference: Cisco, Configuring IP Routing Protocol-Independent Features
QUESTION 4
The Berlin and Nuremberg OSPF networks need to be established and configured in the following manner: The router is named Berlin. The clocking is provided on the Berlin router’s serial 0/0 interface. The secret password in the Berlin router is ” Certkiller “. You should use OSPF in a single area Area 0 should be used for the routing protocol. Use 1 for the process ID of the routing protocol. The IP addresses and subnet masks are listed in the chart. Berlin FA0/0 10.60.2.1/23 S0/0 10.60.4.1/30 Lo 0 10.90.20.10/32 Nuremberg FA0/0 10.60.6.1/24 S0/0 10.60.4.2/30 Lo 0 10.90.20.20/32

Please provide the complete configuration and also the prompt where the configuration is to be done. Start by clicking on host that is connected to the router you want to configure. Lab A Berlin
FA0/0 10.60.2.1/23 S0/0 10.60.4.1/30 Lo 0 10.90.20.10/32 Secret Password: Certkiller Lab B Nuremberg FA0/0 10.60.6.1/24 S0/0 10.60.4.2/30 Lo 0 10.90.20.20/32
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which command should you use to verify what networks are being routed by a given OSPF process?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocol
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The information displayed by the show ip protocols command is useful in debugging routing operations. Information in the Routing Information Sources field of the show ip protocols output can help you identify a router suspected of delivering bad routing information. For OSPF routers, this command will display the routed networks. Incorrect Answers:
A: To display general information about Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing processes, use the show ip ospf command in EXEC mode. This command will display the areas assigned and other useful information, but not the networks being routed. Example: CK1 # show ip ospf Routing Process “ospf 201” with ID 192.42.110.200 Supports only single TOS(TOS0) route It is an area border and autonomous system boundary router Redistributing External Routes from, igrp 200 with metric mapped to 2, includes subnets in redistribution rip with metric mapped to 2 igrp 2 with metric mapped to 100 igrp 32 with metric mapped to 1 Number of areas in this router is 3 Area 192.42.110.0 Number of interfaces in this area is 1 Area has simple password authentication SPF algorithm executed 6 times
B: This will display the active routing table, but not the networks that are being routed.
D: The OSPF database does not display the networks being routed.

QUESTION 6
OSPF is being configured over the Certkiller frame relay network as displayed in the diagram below:

Which three of the following commands would you enter on the Certkiller 1 serial 0 interface, if you wanted to implement OSPF on this network? (Select three)
A. ip ospf network point-to-point
B. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
C. frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 200
D. frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 300
E. frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 200 broadcast
F. frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 300 broadcast

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ip ospf network command, typed under the interface configuration mode, is used to specify the OSPF network configuration and sets the network mode to point-to-multipoint DLCI- Data-link connection identifier (DLCI) number. Broadcast – Forwards broadcasts to the specified IP address. This keyword is needed on the frame relay mappings in order to transmit the OSPF information across the frame relay network. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1830/products_feature_guide09186a00800 87b42.html

QUESTION 7
Router CK1 is configured as shown below: interface serial0 ip address 110.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 51 network 110.1.1.0 0.0.0255 area 0 Based on the information above, which two of the following statements are true? (Select two)
A. DB/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
E. The OSPF hello timers need to be adjusted manually.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In an OSPF Point-to-Multipoint environment, DB/BDR elections do not take place. The neighbor command became somewhat obsolete with the introduction of the capability to configure other network modes for the interface, regardless of the underlying physical topology. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 130 and 181 Point-to-Multipoint Network: Point-to-multipoint is a single interface that connects to multiple destinations. The underlying network treats the network as a series of point-to-point circuits. It replicates LSA packets for each circuit. OSPF traffic is sent as multicast. There is no DR or BDR election. This technology uses one IP subnet for all endpoints on the network. By default, the network is considered to be a series of point-to-point interfaces. There is no need
to specify neighbors, because the neighbors will see each other and simply become adjacent, with no need for the election of a DR or a BDR. Point-to-multipoint does not try to reduce adjacencies using a DR. Instead, it accepts the extra overhead of having a full set of adjacencies for the sake of stability. Point-to-multipoint forms an adjacency automatically along any PVC, which causes more overhead but is more resilient than NBMA.

QUESTION 8
On the Certkiller NBMA Frame Relay network, subinterfaces were configured. In routing OSPF over the frame relay network, what advantage does using subinterfaces provide?
A. To converse IP addressing space.
B. To avoid split-horizon issues with the routing protocol.
C. Because logical interfaces are more reliable than physical interfaces.
D. Subinterfaces remain up when the physical interface changes to a down state.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When configuring routers in a NBMA topology, subinterfaces are typically used. A physical interface can be split into multiple logical interfaces, called subinterfaces, with each subinterface being defined as point-to-multipoint interface. Subinterfaces originally were created to better handle issues caused by spilt horizon over NBMA and distance vector-based routing protocols. Incorrect Answers:
A: Using subinterfaces creates separate IP subnets for each frame relay link, so actually more IP addresses are used this way.
C: Using logical interfaces has no impact on the stability of any network link.
D: When the physical link goes down, all subinterfaces also go down. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 120.

QUESTION 9
You have been assigned the task of connecting two office networks together via a frame relay network, and running OSPF across this network. What kind of configuration structure would you use to accomplish this?
A. Point-to-point over sub-interfaces.
B. Point-to-multipoint star configuration.
C. Point-to-multipoint using a single subnet.
D. Point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast using a single subnet.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using point to point subinterfaces will eliminate the issues surrounding split horizons over

NBMA networks. Configuring the network in this way is the Cisco recommended solution. Reference:
RFC1586, Guidelines for Running OSPF over Frame Relay Network.

QUESTION 10
A Certkiller router is configured as shown below: interface serial 0 ip address 164.67.36.1
255.255.255.224 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network non-broadcast ! router ospf 1 network
164.67.36.0 0.0.0.31 area 0 neighbor 164.67.36.2 neighbor 164.67.36.3 Based on this configuration, which of the following statements are true? (Select two)
A. There can be no DR or BDR in this configuration.
B. This is a point-to-point configuration over Frame Relay.
C. The network mode is nonbroadcast multiaccess (NBMA).
D. The DR and BDR need a static list of neighbors due to non-broadcast.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The configuration printout shows an OSPF configuration across a frame relay network that is not configured for subinterfaces. With this setup you are required to specify neighbors so that a DR and BDR can be elected. In addition, all locations are part of the same IP subnet so the OSPF neighbors need to be explicitly assigned at the host location of an NBMA network. Note: Had subinterfaces been used, the network would be seen as a series of logical point to point links, so the OSPF neighbors would not need to be specified.
QUESTION 11
In a network running OSPF, what is the term used to describe the administrative process of dividing a large area into smaller areas?
A. interior areas
B. OSPF subarea
C. link-state protocol
D. hierarchical routing

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: OSPF’s ability to separate a large internetwork into multiple areas is referred to as hierarchical routing. The backbone area, area 0, is considered to be at the top of the hierarchical chain, with the other areas lying below it.
QUESTION 12
Assuming that you are configuring an ABR in an OSPF area, which IOS command would you execute if your goal was to summarize the networks advertised out of the area?
A. summary-address address mask
B. area area-id range address mask
C. auto-summary address mask area area-id
D. network network-number wildcard mask area area-id

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The area area-id range address mask command consolidates IA (intra-area) routes on an ABR. This
command instructs the ABR to summarize routes for a specific area before injecting them into a different
area.
Incorrect Answers:

A: The summary-address address mask command consolidates external routes (inter-area) on an ASBR
C: Auto-summarization is not useful here.
D: The network command cannot be used for this purpose. This command is simply used to add a network to the OSPF routing process.
QUESTION 13
Which two of the following characteristics are defined by the network command? (Select two)
A. The OSPF area ID
B. The OSPF router ID
C. The OSPF process ID
D. Which interface belongs to which OSPF area

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The network command designates the OSPF area for an interface with the specified IP address.
Syntax: network address wildcard-mask area area-id

QUESTION 14
Router CK1 is configured for OSPF as shown below: router ospf 76 network 172.22.23.0 0.0.0.0 area 1 network 172.18.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 area 0 range 172.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 1 range 172.22.23.0
255.255.255.0 Which of the following statements are true regarding the above configuration? (Select three)
A. The OSPF router ID is 76.
B. This is an area border router.
C. The designated router priority is 76.
D. This router connects area 1 to the backbone area.
E. Any router interfaces with an address of 172.18.x.x are in area 0.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An interface may belong to only one area. If a router has multiple interfaces and if
any of those interfaces belong to different areas, the router is considered as an area border router.
The networks that follow the network command are connected to each other and Area O is
always the backbone area. Finally, the command “network 172.18.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0”
identifies that all interfaces with IP address of 172.18.0.0 area within area 0.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: The command router ospf 76 identifies the process ID as 76 and not the router ID nor the
router priority.

QUESTION 15
When configuring a multi-area OSPF network to summarize routes, what additional command is required by ASBR’s that is not needed by ABR’s?
A. area range command
B. ospf summarize command
C. aggregate-route command
D. summary-address command
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using this command for OSPF causes an OSPF autonomous system boundary router (ASBR) to advertise one external route as an aggregate for all redistributed routes that are covered by the address. For OSPF, this command summarizes only routes from other routing protocols that are being redistributed into OSPF. Incorrect Answers:
A: The area range command is used only with area border routers (ABRs). It is used to consolidate or summarize routes for an area. The result is that a single summary route is advertised to other areas by the ABR. B, C: There are no such commands for OSPF. Reference: OSPF Commands
QUESTION 16
When designing OSPF networks, maintaining stability in an area is important. Which of the following describes a reason for this?
A. Instability causes more LSAs to be sent, requiring more CPU to recalculate routes.
B. Convergence cannot happen until holddown timers expire, so routing loops can occur.
C. Flooding the area topological database instances consumes excessive bandwidth.
D. Summary link LSAs cannot be sent until all routers in the OSPF area have the same topological database.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Instability of routes (links) would force sending of LSAs (Link State Advertisements), and CPU time would
be required to recalculate the routes.
Incorrect Answers:

B: OSPF does not use hold down timers. Holddown timers are used by distance vector protocols, such as RIP.
C: The topological database is not distributed, only link changes.
D: Summary-link LSAs are not sent to all routers. Summary-link LSAs originate from area border routers, and flood throughout the LSA’s associated area. Each summary-LSA describes a route to a destination outside the area but within the AS. Reference: http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc2328.html
QUESTION 17
A Certkiller OSPF router is configured in the following manner: router ospf 200 network 203.42.67.0
0.0.0.255 area 7 network 203.42.68.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 area 7 stub no-summary area 7 default-cost 30 Which of the following statements are true regarding this configuration? (Select two)
A. Area 7 is a totally stubby area.
B. If the backbone becomes discontiguous, traffic can be routed through area 7.
C. Redistribution of other routing protocols takes place at the area designated router.
D. Area 7 non-ABR routers contain only intra-area routing information and a default route.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An extension to stub areas is what is called “totally stubby areas”. Cisco indicates this by adding
a “no-summary” keyword to the stub area configuration. A totally stubby area is one that blocks external
routes and summary routes (inter-area routes) from going into the area.
Note: The area stub command is used to define an area as a stub area.

Syntax: area area-id stub [no-summary]
The no-summary optional parameter prevents an ABR from sending summary link
advertisements into the stub area.
Reference: OSPF Design Guide
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/104/3.html

QUESTION 18
Router CK1 is an ABR in the Certkiller OSPF network. What does an ABR connect to?
A. Multiple OSPF areas
B. OSPF and RIP networks
C. Multiple designated routers
D. Multiple OSPF autonomous systems
E. Multiple redistributed networks.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An ABR (Area Border Router) shares an interface with at least one other OSPF area. A router
that contains network/area statements for two or more different areas is an ABR.

QUESTION 19
You are a systems administrator of a large multi-area OSPF network, and you’ve just created a new area for an upcoming remote network. Ordinarily OSPF areas are be connected to the backbone, area 0. However, circumstances dictate you to connect it to the existing area 2 at this time. Which conditions have to be met in order to make this configuration work? (Select three)
A. There must be a virtual link.
B. Area 2 must be a stub area.
C. Area 2 cannot be a stub area.
D. Area 2 must attach directly to area 0.
E. Network summary link LSAs must be disabled.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: There must be a virtual link from the new area to the backbone, area 0. The virtual link provides the disconnected area a logical path to the backbone.
C: The area through which you configure the virtual link, known as a transit area (here area 2), must have full routing information. It cannot be a stub area.
D: The transit area, area 2, must attach directly to area 0. Reference: OSPF Virtual Link http:// www.cisco.com/warp/public/104/ospfdb7.html Incorrect Answers:
B: The transit area, area 2, cannot be a stub area.
E: This is not a requirement.
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an OSPF configuration parameter that is used on an ABR, but not on an internal router?
A. A virtual link to area 0.
B. OSPF summarization command.

C. default-cost extension to the area command.
D. no-summary extension to the area stub command.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The no-summary extension of the area stub command is used only for ABRs connected to
totally stubby areas. It prevents an ABR from sending summary link advertisements into the stub area.
This option is used for creating a totally stubby area.
Incorrect Answers:

A: For a virtual link to work both ends need to be configured. B, C: These commands are not specific to an ABR only.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A packet that needs to be forwarded arrives on an interface of a router. In order for a router to route data, what must that router determine? (Select the best answer)
A. The route age of the next-hop device
B. The subnet mask of the source network
C. The cost metric of the path of the destination
D. The outbound interface of the best path to the destination
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In order to route the data to the correct destination the router must know the outbound interface that provides the best destination. When a receives a packet that needs to be forwarded, the router determines the destination network, looks up the best path to that destination in the routing table, and then forwards the packet out the correct interface. Incorrect Answers:
A. The age of the next-hop router is not consulted before forwarding information.
B. The destination subnet mask is used by the router to determine the best path (most specific network match rule), but not the source subnet mask.
C. The cost metric is used by routing protocols to determine the best route to a destination. This best route is then installed into the routing table. The router uses the routing table to forward packets, but does not use the metrics for that specific route before forwarding each packet.

QUESTION 2
A new router is being installed into an existing network, and the routing table is being built for the first time on this network. Which of the following statements is true regarding the routing tables on a Cisco router?
A. Entries are listed in the order of the route cost metric.
B. Only the active link is shown for load-balanced routers.
C. Privileged EXEC mode is reuired to view the routing table.
D. The clear ip route * command refreshes the entire routing table.
E. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The show ip route command is used to display IP routing table entries. It can only be run in
privileged (enable) mode.
Incorrect Answers:

A. Entries are not listed in route cost order. Entries are ordered by destination IP address.
B. The other links in the load balanced bundle are also shown.
D. The clear ip route command is used the clear delete IP routing table entries. In particular the clear ip route * (or clear ip route all) command deletes IP routing table entries. This is not a refresh. Static routes will not be recreated.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following phrases is the correct term for what happens to a network when a topology change causes all the routers to synchronize their routing tables?
A. Flooding
B. Broadcasting
C. Convergence
D. Summarization
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A topology change forces a convergence of the routers to a new routing state.
Convergence is the time that it takes for all routers to agree on the network topology after a
change.
Incorrect Answers:

A. Flooding is the process of sending out routing topology information used by link state protocols.
B. Broadcasting is used on LAN level communications. By default, routers do not forward broadcasts.
D. Summarization is the act of taking multiple routes within the routing table, and advertising them as one less specific route.

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of configuring a router with the “IP Helper address” command?
A. IP Helper is used to direct BOOTP clients to a BOOTP server.
B. IP Helper is used to prevent the router form forwarding IP broadcasts.
C. IP Helper is used to allow IPX clients to communicate with IP-based servers.
D. IP Helper is used to accommodate compatibility routers using different IP routing protocols.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ip helper-address command is used to have the Cisco IOS software forward User Datagram Protocol (UDP) broadcasts, including BOOTP, received on an interface. DHCP protocol information is carried inside of BOOTP packets. To enable BOOTP broadcast forwarding for a set of clients, configure a helper address on the router interface closest to the client. The helper address should specify the address of the DHCP server. Note: A DHCP server can be considered to be a BOOTP server, even though a DHCP server is more advanced. Incorrect Answers:
B. Combined with the ip forward-protocol global configuration command, the ip hel peraddress command allows you to control which broadcast packets and which protocols are forwarded. However, the main purpose of the IP helper feature is not to prevent the router from forwarding IP broadcasts.
C. IP helper does not use IPX.
D. This is false.

QUESTION 5
On router CK1 the command “ip helper address” is already configured. Which of the following commands would you use if you wanted to send SNMP broadcast packets off to a specific server?
A. ip server udp 161
B. ip helper-protocol 161
C. ip forward-protocol 161
D. ip directed-broadcast 161
E. ip forward snmp

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: SNMP requests are typically sent to UDP port 161.
The ip forward-protocol command is used to specify which protocols and ports the router
forwards when forwarding broadcast packets. If an IP helper address is defined, UDP forwarding is
enabled on default ports.
Note: Syntax: ip forward-protocol {udp [port] | nd | sdns}
Incorrect Answers:

A: The use of ip server udp is not correct.
B: There is no such command.
D: The ip directed-broadcast command is used to enable the translation of directed broadcast to physical broadcasts. It does not apply in this scenario. Furthermore, an access-list with number 161 has to be configured. Syntax: ip directed-broadcast [access-list-number] | [extended access-list-number]

QUESTION 6
When you execute the “ip helper-address” command on a router, which three UDP ports get enabled automatically by default? (Select three)
A. 53 (DNS)
B. 69 (TFTP)
C. 515 (LPR)
D. 161 (SNMP)
E. 49 (TACACS) Answer: A, B, E Explanation: To forward the BootP/DHCP reuest from the client to the DHCP server, the ip helper-address interface command is used. The IP helper-address can be configured to forward any UDP broadcast based on UDP port number. By default, the IP helper-address will forward the following UDP broadcasts: DNS (port 53), time service (port 37) Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) (port 69) Terminal Access Control Access Control System (TACACS) service (port 49) NetBIOS name server (port 137) NetBIOS datagram server (port 138) Boot Protocol (DHCP/BootP) client and server datagrams (ports 67 and 68) IEN-116 name service (port 42) Reference: Understanding and Troubleshooting DHCP in Catalyst Switch or Enterprise Networks http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/100.html

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which administrative distance is given to EIGRP summary routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 90
E. 95
F. 150

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The following table displays the default AD for all routing protocols:

QUESTION 8
If there is a route to the subnet 190.10.1.0/25 learned via RIP and a route to the subnet 190.10.1.0/24 learned via STATIC, which route would be preferred to reach the destination address 190.10.1.125?
A. The 190.10.1.0/25 route learned via RIP will be used because its prefix has the longest match.
B. RIP has an administrative distance of 120, and static routes have an administrative distance of 1, so the static route would be preferred.
C. The static route to 190.10.1.0/24 will be preferred because static routes have an administrative distance of 0 and the static route looks as though it is directly connected.
D. A show ip route to the destination will show that the destination is learned from both RIP and the static route, so the traffic to 190.10.1.1.125 will be load balanced between the two paths.
E. The information given is not sufficient to determine this.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The longest match rule always takes precedence over any other routing information. The administrative distance (AD) values are only compared for destinations with subnet masks of eual length.

QUESTION 9
You are determining the routing protocol to use throughout your network. In doing this you compare the advantages of classless and classful protocols. Which of the following statements are true regarding classless routing protocols?
A. A default gateway is reuired.
B. Variable-length subnet masks are not supported.
C. Routers are automatically summarized to class boundaries.
D. Networks with different subnet masks can exist in the same address class.
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Classless routing protocols understand that different routes within a major network can have different
masks. They include VLSM information in the routing updates, enabling the use of different subnet mask

lengths.
Incorrect Answers:

A. There is no reuirement for a default gateway.
B. Classless routing protocols advertise the routing mask for each route. This enables VLSM (variable length subnet masks) support.
C. With classless routing the summarization process can manually controlled and can be invoked at any point within the network. It is not limited to class boundaries.

QUESTION 10
Which two of the following describe advantages of implementing a classless routing protocol, when compared to a classful routing protocol?
A. Support for VLSM.
B. Support for FLSM.
C. Summarization of discontinuous subnets.
D. Auto-summarization across network boundaries.
E. The ip classless command improves convergence time.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Classless routing protocols support VLSM, and that, in turn, leads to more efficient
allocation of subnet masks to meet different host reuirements on different subnetworks,
resulting in better utilization of host addresses.

C. Because subnets routes are propagated throughout the routing domain, summarization is
often reuired to keep the routing tables at a manageable size.
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Fixed Length Subnet Masks (FLSM) and auto-summarized routes across network
boundaries are functions of classful routing protocols, not classless.

E. The convergence time of a network is due to numerous factors, including the timers of the routing
protocol, as well as support for triggered updates. The “ip classless” command has no impact on the
convergence time of any network.
Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 19-20.

QUESTION 11
You wish to use a classless IP routing protocol within your network. Which of the following classless routing protocols could you use? (Select all that apply)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. RIPv1
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A. D, E
Explanation:
Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS), Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and
Enhanced IGRP are all classless routing protocols.
Note: RIPv2 and BGP are also classless routing protocols.
Incorrect Answers:

B, C: IGRP and RIPv1 are not classless. Both of these protocols do not support VLSM networks.
QUESTION 12
The Certkiller network administrator is considering using a link state routing protocol to replace their existing distance vector protocol. Which if the following are true regarding link state routing protocols?
A. Link-state protocols do not support summarization.
B. Static routes must be used to accommodate link redundancy.
C. All routers in the area know when another router joins the area.
D. Link-state protocols utilize spanning tree to propagate routing changes.
E. The spanning tree protocol must be enabled for link state protocols to work.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All routers within an area will have the same view of the area, meaning they will all have the same topology
table. All of them will know when another router joins the area, since the routing topology table of all
routers in any area must remain identical.

Incorrect Answers

A: Link state protocols support route summarization, as well as variable length subnet masking.
B: Link redundancy does not reuire the use of static routes. Redundant links can be used with link state protocols, and load balancing over redundant links is also supported. D, E: The spanning tree is not to propagate routing changes. Instead it used to find the shortest path to the destinations. The spanning tree protocol is used at layer 2 to determine bridging and switching loops, not routing loops.
QUESTION 13
IS-IS and OSPF are two examples of link state routing protocols. Regarding the operation of link state protocols, which of the following are true?
A. Link state protocols periodically multicast the Link State Advertisements at 90 second intervals.
B. Link state routing protocols use Hello packets to build the link state database.
C. Link state routing protocols use poison reverse and holddown timer to prevent routing loops.
D. Link state routing protocols use Link State Advertisements to announce route changes.
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LSA – Link State Announcement. Used by OSPF, an LSA is used to announce changes in network topology to adjacent routers Each router periodically sends an LSA to provide information on a router’s adjacencies or to inform others when a router’s state changes. By comparing established adjacencies to link states, failed routers can be detected quickly and the network’s topology altered appropriately. From the topological database generated from LSAs, each router calculates a shortest-path tree, with itself as root. The shortest-path tree, in turn, yields a routing table.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Although link state protocols use multicasts for routing updates, they are sent using hellos. OSPF uses multicast IP addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6. LSAs are not sent every 90 seconds.
B: The Hello Protocol is responsible for establishing and maintaining neighbor relationships. It is used to build the neighbor table, not the link state database.
C: These are loop avoidance mechanisms used by distance vector routing protocols, not link state.
QUESTION 14
One of the serial links in an OSPF network is experiencing problems and continuously changes from up to down. In a link-state environment, what does the router do when a route flaps?
A. It enters the exstart state with its neighbors.
B. It floods the area with new routing information.
C. It generates a routing exchange using the hello protocol.
D. It waits for the holdown timers to expire and then sends an update.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: One of the drawbacks of using OSPF is that it can be prone to issues resulting in flapping routes. OSPF is a very strong protocol in terms of convergence time-each router is aware of the entire topology in the area. This results in fast convergence. However, if a link flaps, or changes between up and down status uickly, a flood of LSAs may be generated. This may prevent the routers in the network from converging. Administrators may use the “spf holdtime” command to force OSPF into a waiting state before computing a new route.
QUESTION 15
You are an administrator of a network segment that uses RIP v2 as the routing protocol. How would the core router react if it were to detect a flapping link to a neighboring router?
A. It recalculates the network topology.
B. It purges that link from its routing table.
C. It places a hold-down on the routes from that link.
D. It sends a LSA to other router reuesting an RIP update.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, which utilizes hold down timers and the rule of split horizons.
The purpose of the hold-down state is to ensure the validity of any new routes for the same destination.
Incorrect Answers:

A: RIP does not calculate a network topology.
B: This would not serve any practical purpose, since the purged link would then reappear. The link would be placed in a held state, but not purged.
D: OSPF utilizes link state advertisements (LSAs), but RIP routers do not.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following routing protocols listed below use the Class D address of 224.0.0.9 to multicast its routing updates?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IGRP
D. RIPv2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Class D addresses are multicast addresses used by many routing protocols for updating all neighbors on a link. Some of the Class D multicast addresses used by routing protocols are as follows: OSPF – 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 Routing Information Protocol version 2 (RIPSv2) – 224.0.0.9 EIGRP – 224.0.0.10 Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press)
QUESTION 17
When comparing and contrasting the differences between classless and classful routing protocols, which of the following is true?
A. In a classful system, a router uses a bit mask to determine the network and host portions of an address and there is no class restriction.
B. In a classless system, a router determines the class of an address and then identifies the network and host octets based on that class.
C. In a classful system, subnet mask information is maintained and passed along with each routing update.
D. In a classless system, when a routing update is received about a different major network as configured on the receiving interface, the default subnet mask is applied.
E. In a classful system, when a routing update is received about the same major network as configured on the receiving interface, the router applies the subnet mask configured on the receiving interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Routing protocols can be divided into various categories, such as classful or classless, and distance-vector or link-state. A classful routing protocol is one that exchanges routing information based on the classful IP boundaries. A router running a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1 or IGRP that receives an update for a network to which it is not physically connected will summarize that network at the default classful boundary. If the router received a route to network 10.1.2.0, for instance, it would summarize the route to 10.0.0.0 in its routing table, because an 8-bit (255.0.0.0) subnet mask is the default classful boundary for Class A addresses. A classless routing protocol, such as RIPv2, OSPF or EIGRP, exchanges the subnet mask with the subnet information. So if the aforementioned router was running OSPF, it would receive a route to network 10.1.2.0 with a 24-bit (255.255.255.0) subnet mask included, and would not summarize the route to 10.0.0.0.
QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true with regard to RIPv1 and OSPF? (Choose two)
A. RIPv1 uses the Dijkstra algorithm while OSPF uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm for calculating best path.
B. RIPv1 uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm, OSPF uses the Dijkstra algorithm for calculating best path.
C. RIP forwards the entire routing table incrementally, OSPF link-state advertisements are sent out when a change occurs and every thirty minutes if no change occurs.
D. RIPv1 maintains a 15 hop count limit while OSPF maintains a 255 hop count limit.
E. Both RIPv1 and OSPF carry subnet mask information and therefore support VLSM.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, which uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm for calculating the best path to a destination. OSPF is a link state routing protocol, which means that it uses the Dijkstra algorithm to determine the best path. RIP also periodically advertises the entire routing protocol to all neighbors, while OSPF uses LSA information to flood the area with routing information, but only after a topology change has occurred. To maintain stability, OSPF also floods out the entire OSPF table every thirty minutes if no change has occurred. Incorrect Answers:
A: The reverse is true.
D: RIP maintains a hop limit of 15 (16 means it is unreachable) but OSPF does not have any hop limitations.
E: RIPv1 does not carry the subnet mask information in the routing updates, and so it does not support VLSM. RIPv2 does, however.
QUESTION 19
The Certkiller IGRP network is displayed in the diagram below:

Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are running IGRP. Certkiller 1 receives an update on its Fa0/0 interface from Certkiller 2 about the 199.10.50.64/26 network. Which mask will be applied to the update?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ability to specify a different subnet mask for the same network number on different subnets is called Variable-Length Subnet Mask (VLSM). RIPv1 and IGRP are classful protocols and are incapable of carrying subnet mask information in their updates. Before RIPv1 or IGRP sends out an update, it performs a check against the subnet mask of the network that is about to be advertised and, in case of VLSM, the subnet gets dropped. In this example, first router Certkiller 2 checks to see whether 199.10.50.64/26 is part of the same major net as 10.10.0.0/16, which is the network assigned to the interface that will be sourcing the update. It is not, and so Certkiller 2 will summarize at the network boundary, which is 199.10.50.0/24 since this is a class C network.
QUESTION 20
You’re a systems administrator who’s just chosen OSPF over RIP version 1. Your junior administrator Britney is confused and asks you why you didn’t choose RIP. What would you tell her? (Choose all that apply)
A. OSPF maintains smaller routing tables than RIP
B. OSPF cost metric is based on number of hops.
C. OSPF only sends routing updates only when necessary.
D. OSPF supports VLSM and allows more efficient use of IP addresses.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: C: RIP use periodic broadcast of the entire routing table, while OSPF use event-triggered announcements. OSPF uses
D: RIP Version 1 does not support VLSM, while OSPF does. Incorrect Answers:
A: The size of the routing table depends on the number of routes. Since RIP version 1 automatically summarizes at the network boundary, the routing tables of RIP networks are generally smaller than OSPF networks.
B: RIP uses hop as cost metric. OSPF uses a metric based on the bandwidth of the links to the destination.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers are OSPF neighbors over the Ethernet 0/0 connection. Based on the show ip ospf neighbor output from the Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers, which statement is true?

A. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
B. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
C. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
D. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
E. Both Dev-1 and Dev-3 are using the default OSPF router priority.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA is not able to ping the loopback Lo0 on router RB. What could the problem be?

A. The loopback addresses have different subnet masks.
B. Router RA is using RIP version 1 while Router RB is using RIP version 2.
C. Router RA is using plain text authentication while Router RB is using encrypted authentication.
D. MD5 authentication is not possible with RIP.
E. The key strings do not match.
F. The key chains do not match.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When the BGP path selection process is being performed on a Cisco router, which BGP attribute is used first when determining the best path?
A. local preference
B. MED
C. weight
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the psuedo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What are two routing protocols defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer? (Choose two.)
A. End System-to-End System
B. Routing Information Protocol
C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
D. End System-to-Intermediate System
E. Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to exhibit. BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and none of the default attributes have been changed except the local preference attribute on R4. Which path will be preferred by R2 to reach the network 100.100.100.0/24?
A. R2 – R3 – R4 – R5 because it has a lower admin distance
B. R2 – R3 – R4 – R5 because it has a higher local preference
C. R2 – R1 because it has the shortest AS-path
D. R2 – R1 because it has a lower local preference
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Router E is configured with the EIGRP variance 2 command. What path will Router E take to reach Router A?

A. only E-D-A
B. only E-B-A
C. only E-C-A
D. both E-B-A and E-C-A
E. both E-B-A and E-D-A
F. all available paths.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 10
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 11
Router RTA is configured as follows:RTA (config)#router ripRTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exitRTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255RTA(config)#access-list 44 permit anyWhat are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)

A. no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
B. router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
C. the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D. user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
E. the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which three statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. L1 routers have no knowledge about routes outside their area.
B. L1/L2 routers maintain a separate Level 1 link-state database and a Level 2 link-state database; they do not advertise L2 routes to L1 routers.
C. To route packets to another area, L1 routers must forward the packets to the L2 router of the destination area.
D. To route packets to another area, L1 routers must forward the packets to an L1/L2 router within their area.
E. L2 routers form adjacencies with L1 and L1/L2 neighbors.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three types of OSPF route entries can be found in the routing table of an internal OSPF router within an OSPF stubby area? (Choose three.)
A. O
B. O IA
C. O* IA
D. O E1
E. O E2
F. O N1
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You have an address range of 172.16.20.192 to 172.16.20.223. Which two configuration commands are used in configuring the area 3 border router for network summarization? (Choose two.)
A. network 172.16.20.192 0.0.0.31 area 3
B. area 3 range 172.16.20.192 172.16.20.223
C. area 3 range 172.16.20.192 255.255.255.224
D. network 172.16.20.192 255.255.255.224 area 3
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct configuration to enable router P4 to exchange RIP routing updates with router P1 but not with router P3?

A. P4(config)# interface fa0/0P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-if)# passive-interface fa0/0
B. P4(config)# router ripP4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0
C. P4(config)# interface fa0/0P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-if)# passive-interface
192.168.10.34
D. P4(config)# router ripP4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.34 no broadcastP4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which address type does the IPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A. unspecified
B. aggregable global unicast
C. link local
D. site local unicast
E. multicast
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
LAB Correct Answers: Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start
Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 19
Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address?
A. 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00
B. 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00
C. 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00
D. 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true concerning IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile IP is built into IPv6 by default.
B. The leading zeros in an address format are mandatory.
C. Like IPv4, IPv6 broadcasts are sent to all nodes on a LAN segment.
D. IPSec is mandatory and built into IPv6.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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