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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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Question No : 116  Click the Exhibit button.
What type of power problem does the exhibit illustrate?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Impulsive transient
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 117 What is a measure of heat intensity?
A. Volume
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
Question No : 118  According to the Ideal Gas Law, as the pressure inside a balloon increases to a point that it
exceeds the pressure on the outside of the balloon, which property of the balloon also
A. Color Intensity
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Temperature
210-250 dump  Answer: C
Question No : 119  What is a property of heat transfer?
A. Heat is destroyed.
B. Heat is transferred in the direction from hot to cold.
C. Heat is transferred in the direction from cold to hot.
D. Heat is transferred in both directions (hot to cold and cold to hot).
Answer: B
Question No : 120  Which method transfers heat through a solid material?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
210-250 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 121 Which method of heat transfer occurs when stepping barefoot onto hot pavement?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: C
Question No : 122 Which substance transfers heat most efficiently?
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Vapor
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 123 Which method transfers heat through the movement of a liquid or gas?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Question No : 124 Which method transfers heat by electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 125 Which method of heat transfer causes electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 126 What percentage of electricity used to power IT equipment is typically converted into heat?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 127  What is the most common direction of airflow through a rack mount blade server assembly?
A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to front
D. Bottom to top
Answer: B
Question No : 128 The Ideal Gas Law governs the relationship of which three state variables? (Choose three.)
A. Volume
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure
D. Conductivity
E. Temperature
210-250 dump Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 129 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the pressure when the temperature is
increased and the volume is held constant?
A. The pressure does not change.
B. The pressure initially increases and then decreases.
C. The pressure increases.
D. The pressure decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 130 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the temperature and pressure inside an aerosol can that is being sprayed?
A. Temperature and pressure both increase.
B. Temperature and pressure are decreased.
C. Temperature and pressure are unchanged.
D. Temperature is unchanged and pressure is decreased.
210-250 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 131 Which temperature range is optimal for the proper function of a data center?
A. 62-65F (17-18C)
B. 72-75F (22-24C)
C. 82-85F (28-29C)
D. 92-95F (33-35C)
Answer: B
Question No : 132 What is the correct order of the refrigeration cycle datacenter precision cooling?
A. Condensation > evaporation > expansion > compression
B. Compression > condensation > evaporation > expansion
C. Evaporation > expansion > condensation > compression
D. Evaporation > compression > condensation > expansion
210-250  vce Answer: D
Question No : 133  What is the historical / traditional architecture of data center cooling?
A. Rack
B. Row
C. Room
D. Building
Answer: C
Question No : 134 Which is an example of a row-oriented cooling architecture?
A. Each cooling unit works to cool the load through a raised floor plenum.
B. Each cooling unit is ceiling mounted and targets cool air to the cold aisles.
C. Each cooling unit works directly to cool the heat load of a specific equipment rack.
D. Each cooling unit is placed along the data center wall and cools the general air space.
210-250  exam Answer: B
Question No : 135 What are three benefits of row-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Predictable cooling
B. Ease of deployment
C. No raised floor required
D. Reduced sensible heat ratio
E. Increased mixing of air streams
Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 136 What are three benefits of rack-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It reduces CRAC fan power required.
B. It utilizes the entire rated CRAC capacity.
C. It eliminates the need for humidity control.
D. It is easy to deploy for high density applications.
E. It reduces the number of air conditioning devices.
210-250 dump Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 137 What characteristic is common to all cooling architectures?
A. Deployable with on a raised floor
B. Top or bottom airflow configuration
C. Cooling equipment occupies white space
D. Easily adaptable with changes in infrastructure
Answer: A
Question No : 138 Which two cooling architectures are flexible enough to adapt to ever-changing data center requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B
Question No : 139  Which is an example of a rack-oriented cooling architecture?
A. A cooling unit is located in the ceiling plenum to cool the data center racks.
B. A cooling unit is located within the rack itself to cool the contents of that rack.
C. A cooling unit utilizes perforated raised floor tiles to deliver cool air to the rack.
D. A cooling unit is located along the perimeter wall of the data center to cool a specific
zone of racks.
Answer: B
Question No : 140 Which cooling architecture has the shortest air flow paths between the cooling unit and the IT equipment?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 141 Which cooling architecture attempts to eliminate hot spots within the data center by utilizing large volumes of air mixing throughout the space?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Ceiling
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Cisco CCIE Collaboration 400-051 Dumps Exam Real Questions Answers Youtube Study

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Q&As: 615

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Refer to the Exhibit.
400-051 dumps

An agent initiated a video call but was establish as audio only. The support engineer collected and analyzed the Cisco Unified CM traces. Which two options caused this problem? (Choose two)
A. A hardware MTP was assigned to the call.
B. SIP Notify DTMF was requested and negotiated.
C. MTP Required was checked on the SIP Trunks.
D. Use Trusted Relay Point is set on one of the phones.
E. MRGL assigned to phones with Trusted Relay Point.
400-051 exam 
Correct Answer: DE
An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-051 dumps

Correct Answer:
400-051 dumps

Multiple users report that when they try to login to Cisco Unified Communications Extension Mobility Manager this error is retrieved? “Error:-[26] Busy, please try again” Which description of the cause is true?
A. The intracluster Multiple Login Behaviour is set to Multiple Logins Not Allowed.
B. The Validate IP Address parameter is set to false, so the IP is not found in the trust list.
C. The number of concurrent log in and logout requests is higher than the Maximum Concurrent Requests service parameter.
D. The Extension Mobility Cache size has been lowered to 1000 and no more logins are allowed beyond this number.
400-051 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Which option describes how NVF, OpenStack and KVM relate to each other?
A. OpenStack and KVM can be used to provide NVF.
B. OpenStack and KVM are not related to NVF.
C. NVF and KVM are based on OpenStack.
D. OpenStack and NVF enable KVM.
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps

Site A and site B have a 3-hour time difference. An administrator has time-of-day routing configured at site A and site B for all incoming calls to the main phone number, DN 8000. Two hunt pilots with the same DN are configured with the time periods of site A and B. Which Statement about the incoming calls is true?
A. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Wednesday after 1500 PST are answered by the site B IP phone.
B. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday are answered by the site A IP phone.
C. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday after 17:00 PST are answered by the site A and site B IP phones.
D. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Sunday are answered by the site B IP phone.
400-051 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
A client wants to play and compose voice messages from Microsoft Outlook. What is required for this functionality?
A. single inbox synchronisation with send and draft messages
B. single inbox with ViewMail
C. single inbox with mailboxes larger than 2 GB
D. single inbox user message delivery with folder deletion
Correct Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?
B. 180 Ringing
C. 200 OK
E. RTP Media
400-051 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation: 200 OK Indicates the request was successful.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?
A. The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D. The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
E. The MGCP gateway is responding to a CRCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
Answer: D
See MGCP packet debugging examples and their meanings at the Reference link below. Reference: Sample of Debug MGCP Packets
Question No : 24 – (Topic 2)  Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?
A. Terminal Capability Set
B. Open Logical Channel
C. Master-Slave Determination
D. Call Setup
E. Call Progress
400-051 exam 
Answer: B
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round-trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

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Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)
Describe how Azure 70-695  dumps uses Global Foundation Services (GFS) datacenters
Understand Azure datacenter architecture, regional availability, and high availability
Design Azure virtual networks, networking services, DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration
Extend on-premises Active Directory, deploy Active Directory, define static IP reservations, understand ACLs and Network Security Groups
Design Azure Compute
Design Azure virtual machines (VMs) and VM architecture for IaaS and PaaS; understand availability sets, fault domains, and update domains in Azure; differentiate between machine classifications
Describe Azure virtual private network (VPN) and ExpressRoute architecture and design
Describe Azure point-to-site (P2S) and site-to-site (S2S) VPN, understand the architectural differences between Azure VPN and ExpressRoute
Describe Azure services
Understand, at a high level, Azure load balancing options, including Traffic Manager, Azure Media Services, CDN, Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), Azure Cache, Multi-Factor Authentication, and Service Bus
70-695 dumps
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Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BCD
Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
B. SAP Business All-In-One

D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D
You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B
You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: CE
Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE
You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
70-695 vce Correct Answer: BDE
Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BC
How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: A
You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC
Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction
principle? Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
70-742 exam Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also
composed by other service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be
Answer: D
As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service
compositions to become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-742 dumps Answer: A
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.

A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and
its underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering “loose state” in
support of runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an
agnostic abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship
between the service contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details,
whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in
relation to the service implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of
the other depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms
and practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical
(short- term) requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service
orientation is required.
70-742 pdf Answer: A, B, C
The decoupling of a service contract from the service’s underlying implementation results in
a(n) in the service’s level of abstraction because service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly
couple to the underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding

D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A
Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle:
“Services are supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively
and .” Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
70-742 vce Answer: B
Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract
principle is not followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the
purchase of legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the
Service Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.

70-742 exam Answer: C
Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the
initial delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a
constant emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather
than strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure
that may introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A, B, D
Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of
applying the Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
70-742 dumps Answer: D
The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or
contract of a service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract

Answer: D
A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract
receives a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract
content to only what is deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service’s Service
Level Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be
easily located by those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles
directly supports these design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
70-742 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 112

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You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD). What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).

Correct Answer: AC
Your company uses 70-243 dumps System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC
In an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. The AS ABAP message server
B. The AS Java central service instance
C. The AS Java message server
D. Both the AS ABAP and the AS Java message server
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
Who participates in SAP Ramp-Up programs?
A. Customers who applied and were accepted for participation
B. All SAP partners and internal SAP departments
C. Only internal SAP departments
D. All customers with SAP Enterprise Support
Correct Answer: A
For which purposes can property variants in CCMS monitoring be used? (Choose three)
A. To enable cross-system monitoring
B. To transport sets of threshold values from one SAP system to another SAP system
C. To allow users to use different sets of threshold values at the same time
D. To switch between different sets of threshold values triggered by a switch of the operation mode
E. As containers for threshold values
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BDE
SAP provides a vast range of software for companies of all sizes. Which of the following are SAP offerings?
(Choose three)
A. SAP Business ByDesign
B. SAP Business ByEvolution
C. SAP Business Suite
D. SAP Business All-in-One
E. SAP Business End-to-End
Correct Answer: ACD
What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a background job
in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
70-243 exam Correct Answer: ADE
An SAP system’s Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs.
Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next online
redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
What does SAP recommend when importing transport requests? (Choose three)
A. Transport requests should only be imported if the software component vector of the transport requests
fit to the software components and their Support Package level of the target system.
B. Transport requests should be imported into the productive system one by one in the order of their
sequence in the import queue.
C. Transport requests should always be imported into the productive system in the sequence of their export
from the development system.
D. In general importing transport requests into the productive systems requires a maintenance window
(downtime window).
E. Transport requests should be imported project wise into the productive system.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
You want to reduce the fragmentation of a tablespace by using BR*TOOLS. Which methods can you use to
achieve this? (Choose two)
A. Online shrinking of tables
B. Update statistics
C. Online backup
D. Online redefinition of tables
E. Coalesce tables
Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address, and RouterB, IP address Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-135 pdf Answer: B
Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-135 vce Answer: C, E
Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-135 exam Correct Answer: BC
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: BCE
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: CV0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 389

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Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public cloud
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
CV0-001 exam Answer: B
Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company’s existing
network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C
An administrator is creating a new VM template CV0-001 dump and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company’s servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A
An administrator needs to provide Internet access to all internal systems using a single IP
address. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
B. Virtual switching
C. VLAN tagging
CV0-001 pdf Answer: A
Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
A. Type II
B. Type I
Answer: A

In which of the following cloud services will the customer be responsible for securing provisioned
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
CV0-001 vce Answer: B
Which of the following should an administrator perform to harden a VM that has been provisioned
in a public cloud environment before deploying the system?
A. Defrag system
B. Update drivers
C. Disable firewall
D. Patch system
Answer: D
Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
CV0-001 exam Answer: A

An administrator is tasked to reduce the company’s datacenter power utilization. Currently there
are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator
needs the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system.
Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this CV0-001 dump task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
Answer: C
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s
existing network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Answer: D

Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
CV0-001 pdf Answer: D
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Answer: A
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that
the server vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
CV0-001 vce Answer: A
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual
environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the
administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Answer: B
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud
CV0-001 exam Answer: D
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented
a data encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the
administrator implement NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
D. Zoning
Answer: A
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior
administrator notices that these ten VMs are not using their CV0-001 dump resources efficiently. Which of the
following is MOST likely the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Answer: C
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?
Answer: D

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Which site offer Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps? “Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution” is the name of Citrix 1Y0-A16 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. 100% success rate Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps vce for Citrix certification on Youtube covers all key points. Pass4itsure Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps exam questions answers are updated (226 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A16
Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 77

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Testlet 1
Executive Summary
Healthy Helping Hands is a multi-national health care equipment company with operations in 10 countries. The organization manufactures and distributes a variety of health care products ranging from its unique baby breathing devices to diabetes supplies to wheelchairs. Based on current projections, Health Helping Hands expects to expand the company primarily through small, targeted acquisitions, as well as a modest amount of organic growth. The organization has been affected by numerous technical challenges, specifically with delivering applications to its users-4.000 employees,
approximately 500 of which are contractors In addition, because the timing and size of 1Y0-A16 exam acquisitions is unpredictable, the IT staff must have the ability to adjust the technical integration of newly acquired companies to accommodate unpredictable timing: for example, while a period of several weeks or months may have been planned, the integration may need to be completed in several days. These challenges caused the company to investigate the Citrix Delivery Center offerings, leading to the CIO’s decision to move forward with those Citrix Delivery Center products and features that address IT and user needs. With users spread throughout numerous offices, some with and some without IT staff, it is imperative that supportability, administration and security are factored into the new solution. However, for the 4,000 employees and contractors within the organization, the CIO has mandated that users should be provided with a
highly available virtualization solution that best suits their job function.
1.1 Current Citrix Environment
Healthy Helping Hands currently runs a Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps Presentation Server 4.0 farm based on Windows Server 2000 that services the Human Resources (HR) applications. Because this product has reached end-of-life’ and is no longer supported, and this farm has had numerous growth issues, the CIO has designated that the new design will incorporate XenApp. XenDesktop. And/or XenServer as appropriate to address present and future application and access requirements
However, before moving into the design phase, the current Presentation Server environment, as well as infrastructure, user requirements applications and related areas have been assessed to determine current status, issues and considerations fort he new design. The Consulting project team worked on-site at Healthy Helping Hands during the week of February.1.-5, 2010, conducting this Infrastructure Assessment as defined in the Statement of Work, dated January 20, 201.0. This document represents the deliverable for the Infrastructure Assessment phase of the project.
1.2 Key Project Findings
During the week of February 1, 2010, an assessment of Healthy Helping Hands’ Application Delivery environment was conducted and the project team determined
several key findings:
The current environment is built on 1Y0-A16 pdf 32-bit architecture, although some hardware may support 64-bit architecture. The CIO wants to migrate all IT platforms to 64-bit during upgrade/replacement programs only.
1.3 Next Steps
After thoroughly reviewing this document Healthy Helping Hands should take the following actions within the short term (one-to-two weeks) and long term (several
weeks or longer):
Long-Term Activities:
Migrate all IT platforms to 64-bit for compatibility and support
1.4 Issue Status and Resolution
The following 1Y0-A16 vce issues were also addressed during the course of this assessment:
1Y0-A16 dumps

Currently, only the Human Resources group accesses applications hosted on Citnx Presentation Server 4.0. HR users typically log onto the HR applications suite as needed, approximately two or three times throughout the day and then log off when finished due to security requirements. When a new Human Resources employee joins the company, he/she is added to this group and thus gains access to the HR applications suite. In general, this group reports overall satisfaction with application access through 1Y0-A16 exam Presentation Server However, some users have reported printing issues as
described in Section 1.4. With the exception of the San Francisco and New York locations where the majority of the IT staff is located, users are generally frustrated with the IT staff because of hardware and application access issues associated with traditional application delivery. In formal and informal settings, the CIO has presented the concept of virtualizing applications and desktops, and users have responded favorably. Thus, the CIO has decided that Healthy Helping Hands will virtualize all applications and desktops, making the delineation based on job requirements. 
Client Devices All of the HR users currently accessing the Presentation Server-based applications do so by means of Windows XP or Windows Vista laptop or desktop computers. With the exception of Customer Service, most office users have computers that run Windows XP or Vista. The manufacturing employees have access to locked down antiquated computers on the manufacturing floor and common areas For several years, the Manufacturing Department has reported numerous problems related to frequent equipment failures. This has normally been blamed on the environmental conditions, such as dust, dirt and vibration, found on the
manufacturing floor. The Customer Service employees also have antiquated computers. Both the manufacturing and customer service devices will be replaced with new thin client devices as part of this initiative. Some employees have purchased their own handheld devices, such as iPhone. HP iPAQ with Windows Mobile and Blackberry. As part of an earlier initiative. Microsoft ActiveSync 1Y0-A16 dumps is installed on the Citrix servers to facilitate Windows-based PDA sync for a small group of users. This feature is still available but should be disabled for security reasons. These devices are not officially supported by the IT department at Healthy Helping Hands; only “best effort’1 support is provided. Current breakdown of computer devices at Healthy Helping Hands:

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The HR applications suite, named PositivelyPeople, is based on a front-end application that provides access to various modules, including payroll, time sheets, vacation requests, new hires and former employees. The sensitive data in the PositivelyPeople application must be treated with strict confidentiality and must only be accessible to members of the HR user group; distribution of the data must be prevented. The output of the modules can be in either Microsoft Word or Excel file formats, so these applications are co-located with PositivelyPeople on the same Presentation Servers and likewise presented as published applications Thus, users are presented with three applications, PositivelyPeople, Word and Excel, and within these applications each user creates his/her own customized view. Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process, and Installation Manager 1Y0-A16 pdf is used to deploy Word and Excel. Because only these three applications are published, there is no process for testing and integrating new applications. All applications are published with consistent
In addition, all users require access to office productivity applications including e-mail
Several months ago, Healthy Helping Hands explored hosting the CAD application on XenApp 5.0 Platinum for Windows Server 2003 (x86), but only a maximum of five concurrent user sessions could successfully be hosted on each server due to heavy resource requirements even with CPU and memory optimization enabled. The vendor for PositivelyPeople has tested and certified the application to run on Windows Server 2008. The vendor has also found that leveraging High Availability for XenApp applications would be beneficial. Breakdown of all user groups and their application 1Y0-A16 vce requirements:

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Application Access
Users access applications by means of the Web Interface The internal Web Interface site, , is accessible to all employees but only presents applications to the Human Resources group at this time If the Web Interface will be used in the future environment, this URL should be used because this employee group is already familiar with it. Most of the HR users access their application suite internally, however, the IT staff recently created a Secure Gateway/Web Interface server in the DMZ so that users could access their applications while traveling. However, this server is based on older hardware and has had intermittent issues over the past few weeks. Thus, most HR users can no longer rely on having remote access to their applications. In the new environment, all employees should have remote access to their applications and/or desktops, with the 1Y0-A16 exam exception of manufacturing floor employees and contractors.
XenApp Farm
TheXenApp farm is based on the following:
•One dedicated data collector
•One internal Web Interface server
•One Citrix’Microsoft Terminal Services license server
•One SQL Server 2005 server hosting the Data Store and EdgeSight databases
•One web server hosting EdgeSight web server and SQL Reporting Services
•One antiquated file server hosting old user profiles
•One Secure Gateway/Web Interface server located in the DMZ
•Eight Presentation Server 4 0 servers

Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade their Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all the current and future staff, including contractors around the world. Which two issues present a risk to the project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. Print jobs intermittently fail
B. A dispersed user community
C. Wide range of device types in use
D. Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E. External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Correct Answer: BD
Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to ensure that the project meets the business and technical
requirements of Healthy Helping Hands? (Choose three.)
A. Risk Log
B. Stage Plan
C. Project Scope
D. Detailed Design
E. Resource Requirements
Correct Answer: ACE

Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge works, which two user groups would be classified as task workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Engineers
C. Marketing
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: DE
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers, and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be
classified as knowledge workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Marketing
C. Engineers
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: BC
Based on the assessment document, for which user group may an administrator need to use ICA session policies to control session bandwidth?
A. Sales
B. Finance
C. Marketing
D. Customer Service
E. Human Resources
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: B
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be
classified as mobile workers? (Choose two.)
A. IT staff
B. Sales staff
C. HR employees
D. Marketing personnel
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: BC
Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demands placed on the current 1Y0-A16 dumps solution will increase significantly. As such, an architect must assess the current hardware to identify constraints against the company’s future growth. Which statement best describes a current hardware constraint?
A. Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B. Existing server processors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C. The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D. Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Correct Answer: D

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