We share the latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-900 exam dumps online Practice test to improve your skills! You can also choose AZ-900 PDF or AZ-900 YouTube to learn! Get the full AZ-900 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html (Q&As: 48 ) to pass the exam easily!
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services,as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services.Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.
This exam can be taken as an optional first step in learning about cloud services and how those concepts are exemplified by Microsoft Azure.
It can be taken as a precursor to Microsoft Azure or Microsoft cloud services exams. While it would be a beneficial first step,
validating foundational level knowledge, taking this exam is not a pre-requisite before taking any other Azure-based certifications
Latest effective Microsoft AZ-900 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You have an Azure environment that contains 10 virtual networks and 100 virtual machines. You need to limit the amount of inbound traffic to all the Azure virtual networks. What should you create? A. one network security group (NSG) B. 10 virtual network gateways C. 10 Azure ExpressRoute circuits D. one Azure firewall Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. dedicated hardware B. unsecured connections C. limited storage D. metered pricing E. self-service management Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Linux and has the Azure CLI tools installed. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. Solution: You modify a DDoS protection plan. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 To what should an application connect to retrieve security tokens? A. an Azure Storage account B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) C. a certificate store D. an Azure key vault Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. When you are implementing a software as a service (SaaS) solution, you are responsible for configuring high availability. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed. B. defining scalability rules C. installing the SaaS solution D. configuring the SaaS solution Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure and for implementing consistency across the Azure environment. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Resource groups provide C. Azure Resource Manager provides D. Management groups provide Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which Azure service should you use to correlate events from multiple resources into a centralized repository? A. Azure Event Hubs B. Azure Analysis Services C. Azure Monitor D. Azure Log Analytics Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to purchase Azure. The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 You have an on-premises network that contains several servers. You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure data center goes offline for an extended period. What should you include in the recommendation? A. fault tolerance B. elasticity C. scalability D. low latency Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to purchase Azure. The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Premier support plan. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/
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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
This exam measures your ability to understand the following concepts: cloud concepts; core Azure services; security, privacy, compliance, and trust; and Azure pricing and support.
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together? A. LISP B. OTV C. FabricPath D. vPC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true? A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport. B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info. C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS. D. It supports FCoE. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center? A. Hadoop clusters B. VDI C. vPC D. VSAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment? A. distributed load processing B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers C. reduced power and cooling requirements D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center? A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server. B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility. C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers. D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see? A. rack-mountable to blade servers B. physical to virtual machines C. Fibre Channel to FCoE D. iSCSI to NAS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Token Ring B. FDDI C. Ethernet D. MPLS E. Frame Relay F. APPN/APPI Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.) A. proprietary and secure B. fast route convergence C. support for ECMP D. support for LACP E. support for large hop limit Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9 Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.) A. OTV B. FabricPath C. BPDU D. vPC E. VDC F. MPLS Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.) A. port channel B. static pinning C. virtual port channel D. dynamic pinning E. Equal-Cost Multipath F. RPVST Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? A. port channel B. static pinning C. virtual port channel D. dynamic pinning E. Equal-Cost Multipath F. RPVST Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation. B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces. C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues. D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points. E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 3548 B. Cisco UCS 6248UP C. Cisco UCS 2208XP D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP E. Cisco UCS 6296UP Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14 What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Consolidate servers through virtualization. B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v. C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric. D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution. E. Stop using redundant power supplies. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15 Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.) A. VDC B. VSAN C. LUN D. L2 firewall E. GLBP F. ECMP Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16 What technology is necessary to support vPC+? A. MPLS B. OTV C. FabricPath D. vCenter E. RPVST F. MST Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down? A. BPDU B. weight C. interface priority D. object tracking E. local preference F. cost Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7010 B. Cisco Nexus 5548 C. Cisco Nexus 5596 D. Cisco Nexus 5020 E. Cisco Nexus 3016 F. Cisco Nexus 2248 Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 19 What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure? A. LACP B. OTV C. vPC D. vPC+ E. FabricPath Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20 Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.) A. OSPF B. HSRP C. VRRP D. GLBP E. OCSP F. EIGRP G. MPLS Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 21 Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions. Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing? A. Transparent B. One-Arm C. Routed D. Inline E. Clustered Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server? A. Transparent B. One-Arm C. Routed D. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 24 Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25 Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP B. Cisco Nexus 4004 C. Cisco Nexus 3064 D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP E. Cisco Nexus 2248T Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26 Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 1010 B. VSM C. VEM D. host vPC E. MPIO Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 27 Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.) A. VM-FEX B. NPIV C. Adapter-FEX D. NIV E. host vPC F. NIC teaming Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28 Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC? A. VM-FEX B. NPIV C. Adapter-FEX D. NIV E. host vPC F. NIC teaming Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.) A. Cisco UCS 5108 B. Cisco UCS 2204XP C. Cisco UCS 6248UP D. Cisco UCS 5596UP E. Cisco UCS P81E F. Cisco UCS 2208XP G. Cisco UCS 6110XP H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280 Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 30 Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client’s data center with context-aware identity validation and Layer 2 port authentication? A. Cisco Security Manager B. Cisco NAC Profiler C. Cisco TrustSec D. Cisco Anti-X E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 Which two views from the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager provide a graphical view of Cisco devices? (Choose two.) A. Device B. Configuration C. Log D. Ports E. Summary Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 32 Which two platforms are supported by Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Catalyst switches B. Cisco Nexus switches C. Cisco ACE D. Cisco Aironet E. Cisco MDS switches Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. What four protocols are valid to mount vMedia? (Choose four.) A. NFS B. Fibre Channel C. SFTP D. CIFS E. HTTP F. SCP G. HTTPS Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 34For a Cisco UCS 2208XP with the number of links illustrated in Exhibit 3, which four options are valid in the Chassis/FEX Discovery global policy? (Choose four.) A. 1 Link B. 2 Link C. 3 Link D. 4 Link E. 8 Link F. Platform Min G. Platform Max Correct Answer: ABDG
QUESTION 35Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension update? A. Adds support for new management access protocols B. Adds support for new SAN protocols C. Adds support for new LAN protocols D. Adds support for new hardware Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. There are two interfaces in Port Channel. Assuming you are creating this Port Channel on a Cisco UCS 6248, how many additional interfaces can be added to the Port Channel? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 14 E. 18 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which item is a valid IPv6 Link Local address? A. 2001:4070:1:1408::2 B. fe80::41dc:79e1:5c7b:b270 C. d772:4f0b:aaec:e8f0:fde9::8dcd:a2ec D. 0718:564a:dc94::9a34:9fc6:5b3b Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which IPv6 destination address is scoped as globally routable? A. ff01::101 B. ff02:101 C. ff05::101 D. ff08::101 E. ff0e::101 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
What prefix in the IPv6 address does the Interface ID begin? A. /32 B. /48 C. /64 D. /96 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
How many bits are available for group IDs in an IPv6 Multicast IP address? A. 65 B. 96 C. 112 D. 128 Correct Answer: C
The latest updated Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 exam questions and answers help you improve your skills! Guaranteed to pass the 642-998 exam easily: https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html (Q&As: 182)
Welcome to Pass4cert! Share 40 of the latest valid Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 exam dumps and 642-997 pdf online download for free! Guaranteed Upgrade Skills! Easily pass the 642-997 exam to get 642-997 Certificate: https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-997.html (q&as:123)
Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Refer to the command below. When configuring an SVS connection on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which device is being referenced as the remote IP address? nexus5500-2(config-svs-conn)# remote ip address 10.10.1.15 port 80 vrf management A. ESX or ESXi host B. vCenter C. vPC peer switch D. Cisco IMC management Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: This command specifies the hostname or IP address for the vCenter Server. Optionally, specifies the port number and VRF. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/layer2/6x/b_5500 _Layer2_Config_6x/b_5500_Layer2_Config_602N12_chapter_010000.html
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.) A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC. B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity. C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity. D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set. E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC. Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco is introducing a new line card called as F3 Module which has rich feature set and offers high performance 40G/100G port density to the Nexus 7000 product family. Cisco also introduced a new feature in NX-OS 6.2(2) where the F2e line card can be in the same VDC as M1 or M2 Line Card. The objective of this session is to cover detailed steps and methodology of migrating Nexus 7000 with VDC types prior to NX-OS 6.2 to the newer F3 or M/F2e VDC types. The session also covers the effect of VDC migration with commonly used Network features, firewall and load balancer services. M-Series XL modules support larger forwarding tables. M-Series modules are frequently required at network core, peering, and aggregation points. When used with the F1-Series, the M-Series modules provide inter-VLAN services and form a pool of Layer 3 resources for the system. Reference: https://www.ciscolive2014.com/connect/sessionDetail.ww?SESSION_ID=2244 And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/2- 6/vmdctechwp.html
QUESTION 3 Which protocol is the foundation for unified fabric as implemented in Cisco NX-OS? A. Fibre Channel B. Data Center Bridging C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet D. N proxy virtualization E. N Port identifier virtualization Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is one of the major components of a Unified Fabric. FCoE is a new technology developed by Cisco that is standardized in the Fibre Channel Backbone 5 (FC-BB-5) working group of Technical Committee T11 of the International Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS). Most large data centers have huge installed bases of Fibre Channel and want a technology that maintains the Fibre Channel model. FCoE assumes a lossless Ethernet, in which frames are never dropped (as in Fibre Channel) and that therefore does not use IP and TCP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series- switches/white_paper_c11- 495142.html
QUESTION 4 By default it will take 10 seconds for authentication to fail due to an unresponsive RADIUS server before a Cisco Nexus series switch reverts to another RADIUS server or local authentication. What is one efficient way to improve the reaction time to a RADIUS server failure? A. Decrease the global RADIUS retransmission count to 1. B. Decrease the global RADIUS timeout interval to 5 seconds. C. Configure the RADIUS retransmission count and timeout interval per server, versus globally. D. Configure per server a test idle timer, along with a username and password. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: You can monitor the availability of RADIUS servers. These parameters include the username and password to use for the server and an idle timer. The idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests before the Nexus 5000 Series switch sends out a test packet. You can configure this option to test servers periodically. The test idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests before the Nexus 5000 Series switch sends out a test packet. The default idle timer value is 0 minutes. When the idle time interval is 0 minutes, the Nexus 5000 Series switch does not perform periodic RADIUS server monitoring. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_radius.html
QUESTION 5 Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true? A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided. B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability. C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported. D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device can manage and support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2 and Layer 3. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html
QUESTION 6 Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true? A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed. C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence. D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: CFS does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. The keys are unique to the Cisco NX-OS device and are not shared with other Cisco NX- OS devices. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x_chapter_0101.html
QUESTION 7 Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.) A. port profile B. DVS C. data center D. folder E. vCenter IP address F. VM port group Correct Answer: BCD ExplanationExplanation/Reference: After associating an ESX host to a DVS, you can migrate existing VMs from the vSwitch to the DVS, and you can create VMs to use the DVS instead of the vSwitch. With the hardware-based VN-Link implementation, when a VM uses the DVS, all VM traffic passes through the DVS and ASIC-based switching is performed by the fabric interconnect. In Cisco UCS Manager, DVSes are organized in the following hierarchy: vCenter Folder (optional) Datacenter Folder (required) DVS At the top of the hierarchy is the vCenter, which represents a VMware vCenter instance. Each vCenter contains one or more datacenters, and optionally vCenter folders with which you can organize the datacenters. Each datacenter contains one or more required datacenter folders. Datacenter folders contain the DVSes. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3- 1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter28.html
QUESTION 8 Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true? A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4. B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC. C. SNMP is not VRF-aware. D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license. E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context (VDC). By default, Cisco NX-OS places you in the default VDC. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities. SNMP is also VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP notification host receiver. You can also configure SNMP to filter notifications to an SNMP host receiver based on the VRF where the notification occurred. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_9snmp.html
QUESTION 9 Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network? A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks. B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated. C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device. D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: In Cisco Unified Computing System environments, two Ethernet switching modes determine the way that the fabric interconnects behave as switching devices between the servers and the network. In end-host mode, the fabric interconnects appear to the upstream devices as end hosts with multiple links. In end-host mode, the switch does not run Spanning Tree Protocol and avoids loops by following a set of rules for traffic forwarding. In switch mode, the switch runs Spanning Tree Protocol to avoid loops, and broadcast and multicast packets are handled in the traditional way. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 10 Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address? A. vmac-weighted B. dedicated-vmac-mode C. shortest-path and weighting D. host-dependent Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Host dependent–GLBP uses the MAC address of the host to determine which virtual MAC address to direct the host to use. This algorithm guarantees that a host gets the same virtual MAC address if the number of virtual forwarders does not change. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_glbp.html
QUESTION 11 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true? A. When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported. B. HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers. C. HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times. D. The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: VRRP allows for transparent failover at the first-hop IP router by configuring a group of routers to share a virtual IP address. VRRP selects a master router in that group to handle all packets for the virtual IP address. The remaining routers are in standby and take over if the master router fails. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_vrrp.html
QUESTION 12 After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords? A. switch# key config-key ascii B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated D. switch# encryption decrypt type6 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: This command converts existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter_010101.html
QUESTION 13 Which statement about implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 5546 or 5548 switches are true? A. Cisco TrustSec support varies depending on Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch model. B. The hardware is not able to support MACsec switch-port-level encryption based on IEEE 802.1AE. C. The maximum number of RBACL TCAM user configurable entries is 128k. D. The SGT Exchange Protocol must use the management (mgmt 0) interface. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://scadahacker.com/library/Documents/Manuals/Cisco%20- %20TrustSec%20Solution%20Overview.pdf
QUESTION 14 How is a dynamic vNIC allocated? A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter. B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template. C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile. D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: The dynamic vNIC connection policy determines how the connectivity between VMs and dynamic vNICs is configured. This policy is required for Cisco UCS domains that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs andconfigured dynamic vNICs. Each dynamic vNIC connection policy includes an Ethernet adapter policy and designates the number of vNICs that can be configured for any server associated with a service profile that includes the policy. For VM-FEX that has all ports on a blade in standard mode, you need to use the VMware adapter policy. For VM-FEX that has at least one port on a blade in high-performance mode, use the VMwarePassThrough adapter policy or create a custom policy. If you need to create a custom policy, the resources provisioned need to equal the resource requirements of the guest OS that needs the most resources and for which you will be using high-performance mode. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM- FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html
QUESTION 15 In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important? A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool. B. They enable hardware-based failover. C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs. D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Number of Dynamic vNICs ?This is the number of vNICs that will be available for dynamic assignment to VMs. Remember that the VIC has a limit to the number of vNICs that it can support and this is based on the number of uplinks between the IOM and the FI. At least this is the case with the 2104 IOM and the M81KR VIC, which supports ((# IOM Links * 15) ?2)). Also remember that your ESXi server will already have a number of vNICs used for other traffic such as Mgmt, vMotion, storage, etc, and that these count against the limit. Adapter Policy ?This determines the vNIC adapter config (HW queue config, TCP offload, etc) and you must select VMWarePassThru to support VM-FEX in High Performance mode. Protection ?This determines the initial placement of the vNICs, either all of them are placed on fabric A or Fabric B or they are alternated between the two fabrics if you just select the “Protected” option. Failover is always enabled on these vNICs and there is no way to disable the protection. Reference: http://infrastructureadventures.com/2011/10/09/deploying-cisco-ucs-vm-fex-for- vsphere-%E2%80%93-part-2-ucsm-config-and-vmware-integration/
QUESTION 16 Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true? A. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both roles (logical AND). B. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command. C. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrator (superuser). D. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces. E. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDCs. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute a combination of all the commands permitted by these roles. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command. For example, suppose a user has RoleA, which denied access to the configuration commands. However, the users also have RoleB, which has access to the configuration commands. In this case, the users have access to the configuration commands. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_rbac.html
QUESTION 17 Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true? A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec) support is available only on the M module. B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco TrustSec. C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server. D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: The M-Series modules on the Nexus 7000 support 802.1AE MACSEC on all ports, including the new M2-series modules. The F2e modules will have this feature enabled in the future. It is important to note that because 802.1AE MACSEC is a link-level encryption, the two MACSEC-enabled endpoints, Nexus 7000 devices in our case, must be directly L2 adjacent. This means we direct fiber connection or one facilitated with optical gear is required. MACSEC has integrity checks for the frames and intermediate devices, like another switch, even at L2, will cause the integrity checks to fail. In most cases, this means metro-Ethernet services or carrier-provided label switched services will not work for a MACSEC connection. Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2065720
QUESTION 18 Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.) A. IP source guard B. traffic storm control C. CoPP D. DHCP snooping E. Dynamic ARP Inspection F. NAC Correct Answer: BF Explanation Explanation/Reference: A traffic storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. You can use the traffic storm control feature to prevent disruptions on Layer 2 ports by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic storm on physical interfaces. Traffic storm control (also called traffic suppression) allows you to monitor the levels of the incoming broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic over a 10-millisecond interval. During this interval, the traffic level, which is a percentage of the total available bandwidth of the port, is compared with the traffic storm control level that you configured. When the ingress traffic reaches the traffic storm control level that is configured on the port, traffic storm control drops the traffic until the interval ends. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x_chapter17.html And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter1.html
QUESTION 19 When a local RBAC user account has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, what happens when a user with that name logs into a Cisco Nexus switch? A. The user roles from the remote AAA user account are applied, not the configured local user roles. B. All the roles are merged (logical OR). C. The user roles from the local user account are applied, not the remote AAA user roles. D. Only the roles that are defined on both accounts are merged (logical AND). Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: If you have a user account configured on the local Cisco NX-OS device that has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, the Cisco NX-OS software applies the user roles for the local user account to the remote user, not the user roles configured on the AAA server. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_rbac.html
QUESTION 20 Which statement is true if password-strength checking is enabled? A. Short, easy-to-decipher passwords will be rejected. B. The strength of existing passwords will be checked. C. Special characters, such as the dollar sign ($) or the percent sign (%), will not be allowed. D. Passwords become case-sensitive. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: If a password is trivial (such as a short, easy-to-decipher password), the cisco NX_OS software will reject your password configuration if password-strength checking is enabled. Be sure to configure a strong password. Passwords are case sensitive. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7- x/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_01000.pdf
QUESTION 21 Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?A. load-balancing host-dependent B. load-balancing mac-pinning C. load-balancing round-robin D. load-balancing weighted Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 22 Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.) A. AES-GMAC B. key C. salt D. AAA E. group Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 23 Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices? A. radius server radius-server-name B. aaa session-id common C. radius-server vsa send authentication D. aaa new-model Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 24 Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site? A. #feature lisp B. #ipv6 lisp itr C. #ip lisp database-mapping D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.) A. cleartext B. DES-SHA1 C. DES-CBC3-SHA D. Cisco Type 7 E. RC4-SHA F. 3DES Correct Answer: ADF Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the status of FCoE license on Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? A. FCoE license is not installed B. FCoE license is installed, but it is expired C. FCoE license is installed and status is enabled D. FCoE license does not need to be installed because it is part of ENTERPRISE_PKG Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 27 In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.) A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch. B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports. C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time. D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature. E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance. F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN. Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.) A. CiscoTAC-1 B. full-text-destination C. pager-xml-destination D. short-text-destination E. xml-text-destination F. pager-json-destination Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
QUESTION 29 What configuration is required when implementing FCoE? A. disable LAN traffic on the interface B. configure PortFast on the access port C. permit all VLANs on the interface D. permit all VSANs on the interface Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html
QUESTION 30 Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.) A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field. B. Devices can only belong to one zone. C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. D. A zone can only be a member one zone set. E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric. F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive. Correct Answer: CF Explanation Explanation/Reference: A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/ guide/qcg_zones.html
QUESTION 31 Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.) A. group-size B. deadtime C. timeout D. keep-alive E. retransmit Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover? A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding B. Cisco Stateful Switchover C. Cisco Express Forwarding D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 33 Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.) A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed. B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96. C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default. D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range. E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128. F. A reload is needed for changes to take place. G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place. Correct Answer: CEFG Explanation
QUESTION 34 Which two items are services that are provided by Cisco Fabric Services? (Choose two.) A. device alias distribution B. VLAN database distribution C. Kerberos proxy distribution D. RSA key pair distribution E. DPVM configuration distribution Correct Answer: AE Explanation Explanation/Reference: The device alias application uses the Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) infrastructure to enable efficient database management and distribution. Device aliases use the coordinated distribution mode and the fabric-wide distribution scope. DPVM can use CFS to distribute the database to all switches in the fabric. This allows devices to move anywhere and keep the same VSAN membership. You should enable CFS distribution on all switches in the fabric. Using the CFS infrastructure, each DPVM server learns the DPVM database from each of its neighboring switches during the ISL bring-up process. If you change the database locally, the DPVM server notifies its neighboring switches, and that database is updated by all switches in the fabric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/ddas.html and http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter4.html#concept_2B83E16506C845B39 BDF96F9CAFFAEC3
QUESTION 35 Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.) A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front. B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear. C. single power supply only D. multiple power supply option for redundancy E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches Correct Answer: ADF Explanation
QUESTION 36 Drag the network characteristics on the left to the most appropriate design layer on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37 Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate Nexus product on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38 Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39 Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40 VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router? A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area B. ASBR on NSSA C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area D. ABR on stubby OSPF area E. ABR on a normal OSPF area Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path? A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers. B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area. C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA. D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.) A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2. B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1. C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only. D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1. E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2. F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy? A. Level 1 only B. Level 2 only C. Level-1-2 only D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.) A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1. B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1. C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router. D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance. E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6. F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6 In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important? A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-ISC. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made? A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks. B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering. C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS. D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family. E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election? A. point-to-point networks B. mutli-access broadcast networks C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type D. All networks type Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose? A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP D. To indicate the status of the LSP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.) A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers C. to improve BGP convergence time D. to tune the BGP update interval E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate? A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer. B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer. C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer. D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.) A. peer-group B. af-group C. bgp-group D. session-group E. neighbor-group F. as-group Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 13 Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS? A. ip as-path access-list permit.* B. ip as-path access-list permit^$ C. ip as-path access-list permit _$ D. ip as-path access-list permit _^ E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny * F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit * Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work? A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP. B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP. C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP. D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP. E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number? A. AS 65001 to 65535 B. AS 65512 to 65535 C. AS 12345 D. AS 23456 E. AS 64001 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16 Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers? A. AS path B. MED C. weight D. communities E. route tags Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers. B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric. C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider. D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.) A. using the neighbor router BGP command B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software C. using route redistribution into BGP D. using the network router BGP command E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500? A. 192.168.101.11 B. 192.168.101.10 C. 10.1.1.1 D. 10.0.1.1 E. 10.1.10.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default? A. IPv4 unicast B. IPv6 unicast C. VPNv4 D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4 F. No address-family is enabled by default. Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 21 An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1? A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 route-map PBR permit 20 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 route-map PBR permit 20 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100? A. ^100$ B. ^$ C. _100$ D. ^[0-9]*$ Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other? A. ORF B. ACL C. prefix list D. route map Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal? A. router eigrp 100address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1 B. router eigrp 100 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155 C. router eigrp 100 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155 D. router eigrp 100 default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500 redistribute ospf 1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP? A. metric B. bandwidth C. delay D. MTU E. reliability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24? A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN” D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process? A. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets B. router ospf 1 redistribute static C. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets default-information originate always D. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 area 0 redistribute static subnets Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit.
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reachability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.) A. Router B: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 tag 20 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2 B. Router B: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 router bgp 200address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute ospf 200 C. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 D. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 match external 2 E. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200 Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29 Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.) A. NSF B. NSR C. BFD D. fast hellos E. sham-links Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30 Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.) A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported. B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported. C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported. D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported. E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only. F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only. Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 31 Which two mandatory tasks must an IS-IS NSF-capable router perform for RP switchover? (Choose two.) A. Relearn the available IS-IS neighbors. B. Reacquire the contents of the LSD. C. Reset peering with the available IS-IS neighbors. D. Keep the existing contents of the LSD. E. Rediscover DIS for each link segment. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32 Which option is where BGP graceful restart is negotiated between peers? A. open message B. keep-alive message C. notification message D. update message Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 A Cisco IOS XR router must be configured with BFD for OSPF. Which configuration is correct? A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 ip ospf bfd B. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 bfd fast-detect C. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 bfd fast-detect ipv4 D. router ospf 1 bfd all-interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 A network engineer is configuring IS-IS in Cisco IOS XR. Where is BFD configured? A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-isis-if)# B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config)# C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-bfd)# D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-isis-if-af)# Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Drag the BGP attributes on the left to match the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 36 Drag the regular expression special character used in AS-Path access-list configuration on the left to match the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 37 Drag the list of OSPF route type on the left to match the correct OSPF area type on the right. Not all options on the left are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 38 Drag the router on the left to match the most optimal IS-IS router type it should use on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 39 Drag the prefix list configuration on the left to match the correct description on the right. Not all options on the left are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 40 Drag the BGP attributes on the left to the boxes on the right in the correct order. The attribute that is used first during the BGP route selection process should be the top box on the right, and attribute that is used last should be the bottom box on the right. Select and Place:
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We offer Cisco 700-551 Practice Test Questions (1-20) free, including free download of 700-551 PDF.Pass4itsure frequently updates exam questions and answers, and our exam questions come from Cisco experts who review each
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QUESTION 1
What are two major opportunities of selling security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. There is less competition in the security industry
B. The number of unsecuredevices is estimated to be over 75 billion by 2020
C. The security market is estimated to grow to S106B by 2020
D. Partner security services make up 63% of the total market
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
What are three options that Cisco provides tocustomers for Visibility & Control’ against today’s threats?
(Choose three)
A. Comprehensive policy enforcement
B. Access to an online attack catalog
C. Granular device visibility and management
D. Unparalleled network and endpoint visibility
E. Fast device policy updates
F. 18-month device release cycle
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
What are three main services Cisco offers through partners? (Choose three)
A. Internet services
B. Application services
C. Advisory services
D. Managed Services
E. Integration services
F. IoT Platform services
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
What are three main customer software buying models? (Choose three)
A. Security ELA Program
B. Security Software Volume Purchasing Program
C. Cisco360
D. Not for Resale Program
E. CiscoONE
F. TechnologyMigration Program
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 5
Which are three key solutions and features of the Datacenter threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. Global ThreatIntelligence
B. Data center defense policy enforcement
C. Constant threat protection at all levels
D. Enhanced visibility of data, user, and device behaviorE. Enabled scalability and capability across the business
F. File Reputation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6
Which three options are Web and E-mail Security products? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cloudlock
C. Web Security Appliance (WSA)
D. Meraki
E. Investigate
F. NGFW
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Next Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Talos Security
D. Identity Services Engine
E. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are attack vectors protected by Identity & Access Control? (Choose three.)
A. Voicemail
B. Data Center
C. Campus andBranch
D. Endpoints
E. Remote and Mobile
F. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors protected by Cyber Threat Defense and Network Analytics? (Choose two )
A. Web
B. E-mail
C. Campus and Branch
D. Voicemail
E. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What are three of the main areas of the Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Comprehensive policy enforcement
B. Advanced Threat ProtectionC. Cloud Security
D. SaaS and Cloud Platform
E. Web and E-mail Security
F. Patchworked applications
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
What NGIPS appliance would you use if your customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular
architecture that is scalable?
A. Cisco 4000 series ISR
B. FirePOWER 8000 series
C. ASA 7000 series
D. Cisco 800 series ISR
E. FirePOWER 2100 series
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
What is a great option for new customers within Platform Selling?
A. Platform sale
B. License sale
C. Platform subscription sale
D. Appliance sale
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which are two key solutions and features of the Campus & Branch threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
A. Behavioral Indication of Compromise
B. File Retrospection and Trajectory
C. Network Analytics
D. Enabled and protected investments
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
Which are three key security vectors customers need to monitor to overcome security challenges?
(Choose three)
A. Campus & Branch
B. Cloud Apps
C. Hackers Device
D. SaaS and Cloud Platform
E. Data Center
F. Malware Protection
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 15
After achieving the Cisco Security Express Specialization what is the next level of security specialization a
partner may attain?
A. Advanced Security Architecture SpecializationB. Master Threat Response Specialization
C. Advanced Threat Analytic Specialization
D. Express Security Architecture Specialization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which are three key solutions and features of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. Identity and Access Control
B. Data loss prevention
C. Web threat defense
D. URL Filtering
E. E-mail Security
F. CTDand Network Analytics
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 17
What ISR appliance would you use if your customer is a small business thatrequires integrated switching
and routing and WAN redundancy?
A. Cisco 4000 series ISR
B. FirePOWER 7000 series
C. Cisco 800 series ISR
D. FirePOWER 2100 series
E. FirePOWER 8000 series
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which are three Cisco Advanced Threat solutions? (Choose three.)
A. AMP
B. Identity and Access Control
C. Remote Access VPN
D. Stealthwatch
E. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cognitive Threat Analytics
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 19
Which are two key solutions and features of the mobilethreat-centric solution?(Choose two)
A. E-mail Security
B. Simplified policy enforcement and management
C. DNS-Layer Security
D. Fuzzy Fingerprinting
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
Which are three major threat areas? (Choose three)
A. Social MediaB. Campus and Physical
C. Instant Messaging
D. Endpoints
E. Data Center
F. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: DEF
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QUESTION 1
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing
business models?
A. business model visualization
B. business model framework
C. business model canvas
D. business model agenda
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are proposing a solution to a group that conflicts with a competing intiative of one of the group
members.
Which audience type does this group member belong to?
A. Critical
B. Hostile
C. Uninformed
D. Sympathetic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which purpose is the business architecture domain used for tithing the open group architecture
framework?A. To describe the logical software and hardware capabilities to support the deployment of business
services.
B. To describe the business strategy, governance, organization, and business processes.
C. To identify stakeholders, create the architecture vision, and obtain initial approvals.
D. To create the blueprint for the application system to be deployed to the core business processes.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Stakeholder architecture
B. Digitization
C. Enterprise architecture
D. Business engagement
E. Business acumen
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
You are an account manager and your customer asks whether Cisco can become a strategic partner to
assist solving the business problems your customer is facing. Which two description best describes the
value of the Cisco Business Architecture Methodology? (Choose two.)
A. clearly illustrate product outcomes via a technology roadmap aligned to high level business outcomes
B. ensure that business capabilities and solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term
strategy
C. captures and realizes value from defined business outcomes
D. ensures that product outcomes are aligned to business drivers
E. ensure that business capabilities are identified in product briefing sessions, clearly highlighting the
outcomes the product benefits deliver
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which two options are characteristics of communities leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It involves of high level of communities.
B. A trained and qualifies team lead efforts.
C. The leader provides reward and incentives
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open
group architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint is the perspective of an individual user.
B. A view can be generic and stored in libraries for later reuse.
C. Some views do not have associated viewpoints.
D. A view is perspective of an individual user.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which goal of the business architect in a business architecture engagement is true?
A. Lead post-sales technical support.
B. Provide Cisco specific technology solutions.
C. Become a trusted advisor to the customer.
D. Gain experience in developing low-level designs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which value of enterprise architecture frameworks is true?
A. They describe the arrangement of products to deliver a business outcome.
B. They describe how business outcomes are defined.
C. They provide an overall view of a given problem.
D. They outline how business priorities are reached.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which SWSS offer allows customers to choose the right level of service for on-premises, cloud, and hybrid
environments?
A. Enhanced SWSS
B. Unified Communications SWSS
C. Lifecycle SWSS
D. Cisco Spark and WebEx SWSS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 2
For on-premises deployments, which option does Cisco recommend for a consistent one meeting
experience and full interoperability’?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Cisco Expressway
D. Cisco Conductor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Meeting Server provides a consistent one-meeting experience for every meeting attendee, as well
as open interoperability, all based on a highly scalable software architecture supporting business-quality
meetings from mobile through immersive via audio, video, and web. The software has two major elements:
the server software and an extension of the server in the form of an app/client that Knowledge Workers
use to access and control their meetings. Cisco Meeting Server supports standards-based video
endpoints, including the Cisco portfolio of telepresence endpoints as well as third-party solutions such as
Skype for Business. It includes Personal Multiparty (PMP) and Shared Multiparty (SMP) licenses,
Multibrand license, and Recording port licenses
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/spark-flex-plan/datasheet-c78-
740394.pdf
QUESTION 3
Which option do you need to apply a customer budget to products?
A. knowledge of who the decision makers are
B. clear understanding of the end goal
C. if the customer has any flexibility in their budget to buy additional products as needed
D. what licenses apply to each product
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 4
How can you drive modernization within your customer’s existing environment?
A. Hire an external consultant to convince the customer to modernize.
B. Provide support to end of sale products.
C. Remind customers that their competitors are modernizing.
D. Remind customers that they reduce operational risk by keeping current products with current supportCorrect Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which option is the average cost to hire an employee in the United States?
A. 5 thousand dollars
B. 10 thousand dollars
C. 25 thousand dollars
D. 20 thousand dollars
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which option do all aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration system rely on?
A. licensing that is purchased
B. administrator security rights
C. proper design and deployment of the system architecture
D. proper delegation of tasks during the sales cycle and deployment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration System, including call routing, call control,
applications and services, and operations and serviceability, rely heavily on proper design and deployment
of the system architecture.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/ovarchit.pdf
QUESTION 7
Which sales step identifies products that you think benefit the customer needs the most?
A. education
B. qualification
C. introduction
D. rapport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which option must you consider when closing a sale?
A. customer budget
B. customer lifecycle
C. recurring revenue
D. transactional revenue
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 9
How is recurring revenue procured?
A. through a time-building model
B. through a one-time transaction
C. through a subscription-based model
D. through massive marketing campaigns
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco platform provides all of the applications and integrations that other vendors have built?
A. Hybrid Media Services
B. Cisco API and Bot Plan
C. Spark Depot Marketplace
D. Cisco Spark Flex Plan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/collaboration/discover-cisco-spark-depot
QUESTION 11
Which way to handle objections is the best?
A. Refuse to listen to objections.
B. Communicate value and benefits
C. Agree with objections to get the customer to trust you
D. Provide documentation on why their objections are invalid.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/web/partners/services/training/accelerate/downloads/objection_handling_sg.pdf
QUESTION 12
Which option lists steps to every sale?
A. qualification and rapport
B. rapport and awareness
C. introduction and qualification
D. awareness and education
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which option lists the messaging and meeting packages of Cisco Spark?
A. S1,S2, and S3
B. M1, M2, andM3
C. Flex1, Flex2, and Flex3D. C1, C2, and C3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which Cisco product is a premised-based, cloud-managed telephone platform that targets the SMB market
for partner recurring revenue?
A. Cisco Hybrid Media Services
B. Cisco Business Edition 6000
C. Cisco Spark Flex Plan
D. Cisco Business Edition 4000
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco launched a new premise-based, cloud-managed telephony platform targeting the SMB market. The
new Cisco Business Edition 4000 provides affordable telephony and voice mail for up to 200 devices,
according to Trollope.
https://www.crn.com/slide-shows/networking/300082686/5-new-cisco-collaboration-plays-aimed-at-driving-
sales-recurring-revenue-for-partners.htm/pgno/0/1
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco UCL plans support all Cisco user devices?
A. Basic and Enhanced
B. Enhanced and Enhanced Plus
C. Essential and Enhanced Plus
D. Essential and Basic
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/
CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-
features-services-guide-100_chapter_0100101.html#CUCM_RF_U75FBF1E_00
QUESTION 16
Which purpose of the Customer Lifecycle is true?
A. understanding why single-transaction customers are preferred
B. understanding what a customer needs between onboarding and renewing, and creating a customer for
life
C. understanding when you should no longer be selling products to a customer and start focusing on new
D. customers understanding how to entice the customer to contact you when they want to purchase
additional products
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 1
Which vSphere 6 Standard Edition feature will allow an organization to ensure that critical multi-threaded applications have the maximum possible uptime?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. High Availability
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. App HA Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the effective vSphere licensing level during the 60 day evaluation period?
A. vSphere Foundation Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What component must be installed prior to deploying a vCenter Server in vSphere 6.x?
A. vCenter Identity Services
B. Platform Services Controller
C. vCenter Single Sign-On
D. Client Integration Plug-In Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
An administrator is installing vCenter Server for an environment that has 40 ESXi 6.x Hosts and 150 virtual machines.
Which database would meet the minimal requirements needed for this task?
A. vFabric Postgres
B. Microsoft SQL Express 2008
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2014
D. Oracle 11g Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that needs to be made is that the hostname of the
server needs to change.
What are two ways that an administrator can change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.)
A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here.
B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client.
C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname.
D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
You are editing the management network configuration of an ESXi 6.x Host from the vSphere Web Client. You mistakenly put the incorrect VLAN in place for the
management network.
What action do you need to take to correct this?
A. You need to manually edit the configuration on the host with command line utilities.
B. No action is required. By default ESXi rolls back configuration changes that disconnect the host.
C. The ESXi host system configuration will need to be restored to the factory configuration to fix the issue.
D. The change can be reverted in the vSphere Web Client by simply editing the switch again. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
In order for a company to meet regulatory requirements, all ESXi 6.x Hosts must be configured to direct logs to a syslog server.
What are two ways ESXi hosts can configured for this action? (Choose two)
A. Use the esxcli system syslog command.B. Edit them in the ESXi host Advanced System Settings.
C. From the Syslog collector user interface of the Web Client.
D. Syslog logging is not available for ESXi Hosts. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
An administrator is performing a scripted installation of ESXi 6.x.
In which three locations does the script need to be? (Choose three.)
A. PXE Server
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. NFS
E. VVOLs Datastore Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9
An administrator has just completed installing an ESXi 6.x host, but doesn’t know what address has been configured.
Where is the ESXi host IP address configured?
A. RVC console
B. Direct Console User Interface
C. vSphere Web Client
D. vSphere Client Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Your manager has given you a bash script that retrieves data for ESXi 6.x host configurations. This data needs to be collected right after the installation of a host
and must be run directly on the host.
Which two actions can be used to run this script on an ESXi host? (Choose two.)
A. Connect to the host with Ruby vSphere Console and run the script from there.
B. Enable SSH access from the Direct Console User Interface.
C. Enable the ESXi Shell from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Run the script directly from the vSphere Web Client. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
How are ports scaled on vSphere Standard Switches (vSS)?
A. Ports on a vSS can be dynamically scaled up and down.
B. Ports on a vSS can only be statically scaled up or down.
C. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled down.
D. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled up. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
How many Link Aggregation Groups (LAGs) can be configured on a vSphere 6.x Distributed Switch?
A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
During a new vSphere Distributed Switch configuration, where does the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) value get modified?
A. Uplink Settings
B. Switch Settings
C. Portgroup Settings
D. NIC Teaming Settings Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which load balancing policy, previously limited to vSphere Distributed Switches, is now available on vSphere Standard Switches with vSphere 6.x?
A. Route based on physical NIC workload
B. Route based on IP Hash
C. Route based on the originating virtual port
D. Route based on Source MAC Hash Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to monitor traffic on vSwitches in a vSphere 6.x environment.
Which option, if configured, would accomplish this task?
A. Forged Transmits
B. MAC Address Changes
C. Promiscuous Mode
D. Notify Switches Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which two allow for the disabling of Network Rollback operations? (Choose two.)
A. Modifying the vpxd advanded configuration options and adding the config.vpxd.network.rollback key
B. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\vpxd.cfg file and adjusting the<rollback> xml tag
C. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\vpxd.cfg file and adjusting the <networkrollback> xml tag
D. Modifying the C:\ProgramData\VMware\CIS\cfg\vmware-vpx\firstboot\vpxd-service- spec.prop file and adjusting the <rollback> xml tag Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17
Which two Fibre Channel zoning options are supported with vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Single-Initiator
B. Single-Initiator-Single-Target
C. Multiple-Initiators-Single-Target
D. Multiple-Initiators-Multiple-Targets Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
What is true regarding datastores on ESXi 6.x?
A. NFS 4.1 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT)
B. VMFS3 and VMFS5 datastores can be newly created
C. NFS datastore can be concurrently mounted using NFS 4.1 on one host and NFS on another
D. NFS 3.0 datastore does not support Fault Tolerance (FT) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What are two benefits of using NFS 4.1 with vSphere 6.x as compared to NFS 3? (Choose two.)
A. NFS 4.1 supports Kerberos Authentication
B. NFS 4.1 supports multipathing
C. NFS 4.1 supports IPv6
D. NFS 4.1 supports hardware acceleration Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment. The Virtual SAN cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are
on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
Two SAS Controllers that support Passthrough Mode
Four Solid State Drives (SSDs) 1TB in size each
20 SAS Magnetic Disks (MDs) 1TB in size each
The SSDs and MDs are evenly split between the two SAS controllers
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while maximizing storage capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)
A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 21
An administrator is creating a new Virtual SAN cluster on a Layer 2 network. There is an existing Virtual SAN cluster on the same Layer 2 network.
Which two actions would allow the new Virtual SAN cluster to coexist with the older cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default Multicast Address on the new Virtual SAN cluster.
B. Change the default Unicast Address on the new Virtual SAN Cluster.
C. Create a separate VLAN for each cluster.
D. Create an ARP Alias for the Virtual SAN VMkernel Network Adapter. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 22
An organization has an ESXi 6.x host that contains two resource pools. The host is being relocated to a DRS cluster.
What two actions can be taken to integrate the host into the cluster, and what would happen to the existing ESXi resource pool hierarchy as a result? (Choose
two.)
A. Place all of the host’s virtual machines into the DRS cluster root resource pool. The resource pools present on the host will be deleted.
B. Create a resource pool for the ESXi host’s virtual machines and resource pools. The resource pools present on the host will be deleted.
C. Place all of the host’s virtual machines into the DRS cluster root resource pool. The resource pools present on the host will be preserved.
D. Create a resource pool for the ESXi host’s virtual machines and resource pools. The resource pools present on the host will be preserved. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
Which two High Availability (HA) Cluster admission control policies can help avoid resource fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. Define failover capacity by static number of hosts
B. Define failover capacity by reserving a percentage of the cluster resources
C. Use dedicated failover hosts
D. Use Virtual Machine Monitoring Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
What must be enabled to ensure that VM Component Protection (VMCP) works in a High Availability cluster?
A. VMware Tools Virtual Machine Communication Interface (VMCI)
B. Fault Tolerance
C. Atomic Test and Set (ATS)
D. All Paths Down (APD) Timeout Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which three features are not supported when using Fault Tolerance in vSphere 6.x? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Volumes (VVOLS)
B. Storage vMotion
C. Virtual Machine Component Protection
D. vMotion
E. vSphere Distributed Switches Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
An administrator is moving a virtual machine into a resource pool. The VM and resource pool are configured as shown:
VM configuration:
2GHz CPU reservation
1GB Memory limit
Resource Pool configuration:6GHz CPU reservation
1GB Memory reservation
No limit to memory
What happens to the virtual machine’s resource settings when it is moved into the pool?
A. The VM inherits the resource settings of the resource pool if expandable reservations is enabled.
B. The VM’s reservations and limits are ignored and removed.
C. The VM keeps the 2GHz CPU reservation but receives the 1GB memory reservation.
D. The VM keeps the 2GHz CPU reservation and the 1GB Memory limit. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
An administrator is tasked with performing a vMotion migration of a virtual machine.
The virtual machine is configured as follows:
vSphere Flash Read Cache (vFRC) enabled
Is part of a Distributed Resource Cluster (DRS) Cluster
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each ESXi host in the cluster supports multiple virtual flash resources.
B. Each ESXi host in the cluster supports one virtual flash resource.
C. DRS treats powered-on virtual machines with Flash Read Cache as having a preferred affinity to their current host and moves them only for mandatory
reasons.
D. DRS treats powered-on virtual machines with Flash Read Cache as having a required affinity to their current host and does not move them. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 28
Which three operations occur during a cold migration of a virtual machine? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual machine disks are moved if the datastore is being changed.
B. The virtual machine is registered with the destination server.
C. The source virtual machine is removed from the old hosts.
D. The virtual machine hardware is upgraded.
E. The virtual machine files are quiesced prior to the migration. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
An administrator has been tasked with enabling High Availability (HA) on a cluster in a vSphere 6.x environment with default settings. The cluster configures
properly and there are no errors. The next day when powering on a virtual machine, an error is presented:
Not Enough Failover Resources
Which three scenarios are likely causes of this error message? (Choose three.)
A. The default VM Monitoring Sensitivity is set too high.
B. There are not enough datastore heartbeat datastores configured by default.
C. The default slot size in the cluster is set too high.
D. There are virtual machines with large CPU reservations.
E. A host is in maintenance mode for a replacement of a failed Hard Drive. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 30
An administrator is attempting to remove an ESXi 6.x host from a vSphere Distributed Switch (vDS). When the administrator attempts to remove the host, the
following error is observed:
The resource ’16’ is still in use.
What three steps are needed to successfully remove the host from the switch? (Choose three.)
A. Select Manage Ports on the vDS for the host.
B. Locate all ports currently in use on the vDS for the host.
C. Migrate or delete any vmkernel or virtual machine adapters associated with the switch.
D. Remove all network cards from the switch before trying to remove the host.
E. Create a standard switch for everything to be automatically be migrated to. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 31
Users of an application are reporting performance issues. The following performance values are observed in the vSphere Web Client:
Host CPU utilization is 90%
Virtual Machine memory utilization is consistently greater than 90%
CPU Ready values are higher than 20%
What could be the cause of the application performance issue?
A. The host is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
B. The host is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
C. The virtual machine is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
D. The virtual machine is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
An administrator receives a report that no real time statistics are available for a virtual machine in the vCenter Server inventory.
Which two statements indicate likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine is powered off.
B. The host containing the virtual machine is disconnected from vCenter Server.
C. There is insufficient real time data to display the information.
D. The vCenter Server service is not running. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 33
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which two are true about the Risk badge in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. The Risk badge indicates potential future problems that may degrade the performance of the system.
B. Risks may require attention in the near future.
C. The Risk badge indicates problems that are degrading performance of the system.
D. Risks require attention now to correct system performance problems. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
Which two badges are major badges in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. Risk
B. Efficency
C. Workload
D. Faults Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 36
A user wants to monitor a business-critical virtual machine to ensure that it doesn’t run out of resources.
What metric could be monitored in vRealize Operations to address this concern?
A. Time Remaining badge
B. Compliance badge
C. Reclaimable Waste badge
D. Density badge Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is configuring an ESXi 6.x host to use multiple NICs to resolve a management network redundancy error. After configuring a second NIC, the
server is not able to communicate when the primary connection is taken down. The administrator analyzes the Exhibit shown here.
Based on the exhibit, what is the likely cause of the issue?
A. vmnic4 is not attached to a vSwitch.
B. vmnic2 is not connected to a physical switch.
C. E1000 is the incorrect NIC Driver for this card.
D. There is a MAC address conflict on the network. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the Exhibit.
— Exhibit —
— Exhibit —
An administrator has configured network connectivity for a new virtual machine, as shown in the Exhibit.
What will occur with the network traffic of this virtual machine when communicating externally from vSwitch1?
A. The virtual machine will communicate on both uplinks
B. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic1
C. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic2
D. The virtual machine will fail to communicate externally Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
A developer needs to create a multi-tier development stack for a home lab. Which vSphere product will support the architecture required for the least software
cost?
A. vSphere Hypervisor
B. vSphere Essentials
C. VMware Player
D. VMware Workstation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Immediately after installing ESXi, an administrator observes that the Configure Lockdown Mode option is grayed out in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The host has not yet been added to a vCenter Server.
B. The BIOS on the host does not have NX/XD enabled.
C. The ESXi host is running in evaluation mode.
D. The host requires a reboot before this feature is available. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
The vSphere administrator attempts to connect to an ESXi host via an SSH client and receives the following security alert:
— Exhibit —
— Exhibit —
The vSphere administrator needs to determine whether the RSA key fingerprint shown in the security alert is the fingerprint of the intended ESXi host.
Which tool should the vSphere administrator use?
A. Direct Console User Interface
B. vSphere Client
C. vSphere Web Client
D. vSphere Management Assistant Correct Answer: A
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Do you know The IT certifications is very important? It takes a solid position in the modern world. The development of science and technology makes IT certification in the market occupies a huge position, even in the larger scope of job selection, The IT certification can occupy a place, the status should not be underestimated. At the same time, as technology continue to progress, employers are also looking for more skilled and proficient in the relevant it knowledge of the candidates. Today, if you have a valid it certificate in any given field, you have acquired some very necessary skills that are recognized by the public. There is no doubt that the IT industry’s professional certification will bring you a lot of benefits, but also become your advantages. The best thing that once get an IT certification that means you’ll get a permanent career opportunity, and if you get a valid certification in any particular area of the IT industry, that means you have the more and more opportunity to come from the global IT industry.
It is not too late for you to strive for the best, to improve your working ability to the best possible condition, to get the ideal career, and to achieve the desired level of employment. Reaching your career goals will be hard work, determination and dedication. Once you have done what you need to do, you will be successful, financially stable, and mentally happy. You can enjoy life, and you will find all of them is worthwhile. If you want to get a better future, you need to invest wisely in yourself and your time, so it is important to learn how to achieve the best results in your career and business opportunities. Many professions require you to have specific qualifications, so in order to achieve your career goals, you have to find out what you need, what exams you need to pass, and what you need to do next.
Therefore, getting a certificate in the IT field is the perfect choice to improve your career prospects. The next step is to know exactly what type of certification you want to make, after you have identified the idea that you want to get the certification. Before registering or preparing your certification exam, you need to consider some factors. Preparing an exam is a huge task that requires sufficient time to study and the experience of the certification in the corresponding work area that you plan to obtain. The first step is to look at your current career and review your passion and career goals. If your current career path is where you want to insist to, then you can continue to get certified in these areas. But if you change your goal later, it’s best to think about your career plan at the preparation stage to avoid wasting time and energy.
Take the CCNA Routing and Switching certification exam as an example, how do you start to prepare? It is not surprising that millions of candidates are trying to get the certification every year. Unlike other certificates, Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certifications are globally recognized and can be used in any it world. Getting the CCNA Routing and Switching certification in advance is a great way to improve your career prospects in the IT industry. After we understand the importance of Cisco certificates, you do bot be panic，worry,and despair. Here we have some great suggestions that will help you do everything possible to get your IT certification.
Let’s see what steps you can take to pass the certification exam.
1.Know The Content of The CCNA Routing and Switching Certification Exam
The most important first step is to understand the content of the exam, if you do not know anything, then you will not start. The official website provides all the details you need to know about CCNA Routing and switching certification exams. In addition to the information on testing, you can find a number of useful links to different Web sites where you can find the materials that help you prepare.
Overview：
As organizations migrate to a controller-based architecture, the roles and skills required for core network engineers are evolving and becoming increasingly important. To prepare for this kind of network transformation, CCNA Routing and Exchange authentication not only allows you to master the basics of technology, but also ensures that you remain relevant to the skill sets required to adopt next-generation technologies.
Prerequisite:
No Prerequisites
Exam and Recommended Training:
To obtain this Cisco certification, you must pass the following exams:
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, infrastructure security, and infrastructure management.
This is a comprehensive course that combines ICND1 and ICND2 content into a five-day training course.
100-105 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.
This course provides the basics of network layer 1-3 for core routing and switching, and introduces advanced technology. Topics include the interaction and networking capabilities of firewalls, wireless controllers and access points, and additional attention to IPV6 and basic network security.
200-105 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.
This course provides the knowledge and skills required to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot a small business network. Key topics include QoS elements, virtualization and cloud services, and controller types and tools that can be used to support a software-defined network architecture.
CCNA Routing and Switching certifications are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:
Pass any current Associate-level exam except for ICND1 exam, or
Pass any current 642-XXX Professional-level or any 300-XXX Professional-level exam, or
Pass any current 642-XXX Cisco Specialist exam (excluding Sales Specialist exams or MeetingPlace Specialist exams, Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations (ITI) exams, Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction exams, or any 650 online exams), or
Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
Pass the current CCDE Written Exam OR current CCDE Practical Exam, or
Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview AND the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications
When a higher level of authentication is used to extend other certifications, the validity period of other certifications is extended to the expiration date of the higher certification (i.e. if you have a year of CCNA Routing and Exchange certification, and you obtain CCIE certification (with two years of certification), Then your CCIE certification and your CCNA Routing and Exchange certification will expire within two years from the date you obtained the CCIE certification.
2.Make a Personal Study Plan
This is important for your success in the certification exam. In fact, your degree of success depends to a large extent on the plan you make. Develop a personal learning plan to understand your responsibilities and review progress. Although Cisco’s website also has a time suggestion for review exams, it’s not enough to do that, and you have to go beyond that to create a customized learning plan to suit your day-to-day schedule. When you put your plans together, you must consider some important factors. First of all, you need to decide when you are going to take the exam, this will helps you know how short or long to you have before the examination. Visit the Cisco website to check the CCNA Routing and Switching certification time details for the tests. You should also create an account on the site and check the location and time that is right for you. When you determine the date of the exam, you will have the motivation to begin to study hard. Second, understand your learning style and how long you can study every day. Some people prefer to study for a short time, while others can study for 5 hours without losing attention. Know yourself and the categories you belong to. If you’re the kind of person who can only study for a short period, don’t pile up your study time until the weekend. Devote a short time every day to learn and stick to it.
3.Registered For And Take an Exam Preparation Training Course
In addition to your study plan, we recommend that you also take the exam preparation training course. This gives you the opportunity to learn from experts in the field and to learn more about what you expect during the certification test. This is one of the useful ways that you can ask questions and get correct answers. You can also share your strategy and experience with other candidates and build networks with them, which means you are being trained on the spot. There is another good way, you can also through the video exam training courses to learn. There are many websites offering video training courses, but most courses are subject to charges. If you have a good budget, you can choose a course from the website below.
4.Join Online Courses
If you are having problems reviewing your IT credentials and cannot resolve them individually, we recommend that you conduct a course online. However, as mentioned above, some websites need to charge a fee. such as CBTNUGGETS, Udemy.
5.Joining Cisco online forums
It can help you get well preparation. You can share and learn other candidates’ exam strategies. You can join the Cisco Learning Network and view some other forums online. You only need to use Google search to get the CCNA Routing and switching certification forum. There are a lot of people on the web who are going through the process of writing a certification exam, and you can learn a few things from it, which will have a big impact on your preparation. But learning resources are relatively loose and it is difficult to get a full set of learning materials.
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Pass4itsure offers free PDF files and video learning.The pass4itsure YouTube channel will be regularly updated periodically for free, and you can keep your eye on it. Of course, Pass4itsure is not the only website offering video training courses. But this fact does not prevent it from becoming the best. All tutorials on this site apply to beginners who first prepare for the test, as well as to the level of IT professionals who want to broaden their knowledge or prepare for a new certification or upgrade to a later version.
Taking a mock practice test is a good way to check your certification test readiness level. Pass4itsure exam simulator can provide this service. When you participate in the CCNA Routing and switching mock practice exams, pass4itsure can help you understand the structure of the authentication problem and how to answer them. It is highly recommended that you use pass4itsure training materials for your study and exam practice. Because they contain test exercises at the end of each chapter. It is very important to remember the answer to your practice question. You’d better understand the skills of answering questions than just remembering the answers.
In most cases, if you remember the problem does not appear in your exam. The reason is that Cisco and other certification providers have thousands of problems in their databases, a huge database that cannot be fully demonstrated. It’s normal to meet a questions you haven’t seen in reviewing exam. Pass4itsure provides the latest and most complete collection of topics as far as possible. You can browse the Pass4itsure website and they will update it in real time. Take cisco 200-125 for example, pass4itsure 200-125 Exam Questions Answers provided 755 topics on May 1 of this year. In June 06, 2018, real-time updates provide 885 topics. It can be seen that the pass4itsure website will continuously provide new topics to participants.In addition, Pass4itsure has a portfolio of PDF and test software, which is more affordable than buying PDFs individually or buying test software individually, maximizing discounts. Candidates who want to pass the exam at first time could give priority to this series. All of these is based on your own actual preparation schedule and your own needs.
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Hot Citrix Exam Questions Demo Samples: 2018 New Pass4isture Citrix 1Y0-201 Dumps Version:
The Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:
Managing a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
Maintaining a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
Monitoring a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
Troubleshooting a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator used the versioning feature of Provisioning Services to test changes made to a vDisk. After a successful test, the version is promoted. All users are using the latest production version. Over time, additional versions of the vDisk are created. To conserve space, the administrator decides to merge all of the versions to a new base version but the Merge option appears grayed out. Why does the Merge option appear grayed out?
A. Merging within the Provisioning Service console is only possible for an individual vDisk version.
B. The vDisk was NOT created with the latest version of the Provisioning Services target device software.
C. The administrator needs to promote the existing Maintenance Version to Test or Production, after that the Merge option becomes available.
D. The last production version of the vDisk is locked and used by the Target Devices. After all locks are removed, the Merge option becomes available.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to the Citrix StoreFront store. When users attempt to log in, they are presented with the following error:
\’Cannot complete your request. You can log on and try again, or contact your help desk for assistance.\’ Which service on the StoreFront server should a Citrix Administrator ensure is running in order to resolve this issue?
A. Citrix Licensing
B. Citrix Configuration
C. Citrix ICA File Signing
D. Citrix Credential Wallet
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to manage XenDesktop 7.6 in an organization. One Delivery Group currently deploys 100 pooled-random Desktop OS machines. The administrator increased the number of Desktop OS machines in the machine catalog to 150. After increasing the number of machines, only 100 users are able to log in to the pooled-random Desktop OS machines. Which additional step must the administrator take to ensure 150 users are able to log in simultaneously to 150 Desktop OS machines?
A. Power on the newly added machines.
B. Join the new machines to the domain.
C. Add the new machines to the Delivery Group.
D. Remove the new Desktop OS machines from maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C
2018 New Pass4isture Citrix 1Y0-401 Dumps Version:
The Designing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:
Assessing the Current Environment
Planning and Risk Assessment
Analyzing the Current Environment
Designing an Integrated Virtualization Solution
Designing and Documenting the Infrastructure
Designing and Documenting the Security Infrastructure
QUESTION 1
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Why would having one farm with three configured sites, with three Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter, meet the requirements of a regional, single-image management strategy with minimal WAN traffic across datacenters?
A. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability within each region.
B. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, and reduces management overhead.
C. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability between regions.
D. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, guarantees high availability within each region, and reduces management overhead.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by IP address, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: C
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Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. What four protocols are valid to mount vMedia? (Choose four.)
For a Cisco UCS 2208XP with the number of links illustrated in Exhibit 3, which four options are valid in the Chassis/FEX Discovery global policy? (Choose four.)
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension update?
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. There are two interfaces in Port Channel. Assuming you are creating this Port Channel on a Cisco UCS 6248, how many additional interfaces can be added to the Port Channel?
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