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QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 170
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 171
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 173
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 93
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 95
Which two are security features supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Access Control Lists (ACL)
B. De-militarized Zone (DMZ) Firewall
C. IPSec with MD5, SHA1, 3DES and AES
D. Session Security Synchronization (SSS)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Which three Quality of Service (QoS) features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. Last in First Out (LIFO)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
E. Weighted random early detect (WRED)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What are two features of the Backup Center function on the Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a console port to be configured as a failover backup
B. Allows any WAN interface to be configured as a failover backup
C. Can provide additional bandwidth via load sharing on the primary link interface
D. Can automatically reconfigure an unused-physical interface to dynamically backup a link
E. Allows two Router 5000 units in the same physical location to provide backup in case one router fails

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 99
Which two commands are required to output RIP debugging information to the 3COM router (software version 2.x) console? (Choose two.)
A. [Router] Rip debug start
B. <Router>terminal debugging
C. <Router> debugging rip packet
D. <Router-console> debug enable
E. <Router> enable debugging channel 1

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 100
Which four protocols are supported by the Router 3000 family? (Choose four.)
A. IP
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
D. Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
F. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 101
With software version 2.x, which command enables multicast routing for the entire router?
A. <RTA> igmp version 1
B. <RTA> PIM DM enable
C. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] PIM DM
D. [RTA] multicast routing-enable
E. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] igmp version 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which three are IP Multicasting advantages? (Choose three.)
A. Provides network congestion control for timely delivery of data
B. Optimizes performance and eliminates redundant network traffic
C. Uses TCP connection-oriented transmissions for reliable packet delivery
D. Makes efficient use of network bandwidth as the number of participants expands
E. Enables simultaneous delivery of information to many receivers without producing multiple copies of the same data

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 103
Which protocol, supported on the 3Com Router 5000/6000 series, should be used when the router has to send heavy amounts of traffic to different multicast groups?
A. MOSPF
B. IP Unicast
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 105
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 106
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 93
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 95
Which two are security features supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Access Control Lists (ACL)
B. De-militarized Zone (DMZ) Firewall
C. IPSec with MD5, SHA1, 3DES and AES
D. Session Security Synchronization (SSS)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Which three Quality of Service (QoS) features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. Last in First Out (LIFO)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
E. Weighted random early detect (WRED)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What are two features of the Backup Center function on the Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a console port to be configured as a failover backup
B. Allows any WAN interface to be configured as a failover backup
C. Can provide additional bandwidth via load sharing on the primary link interface
D. Can automatically reconfigure an unused-physical interface to dynamically backup a link
E. Allows two Router 5000 units in the same physical location to provide backup in case one router fails

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 99
Which two commands are required to output RIP debugging information to the 3COM router (software version 2.x) console? (Choose two.)
A. [Router] Rip debug start
B. <Router>terminal debugging
C. <Router> debugging rip packet
D. <Router-console> debug enable
E. <Router> enable debugging channel 1

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 100
Which four protocols are supported by the Router 3000 family? (Choose four.)
A. IP
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
D. Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
F. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 101
With software version 2.x, which command enables multicast routing for the entire router?
A. <RTA> igmp version 1
B. <RTA> PIM DM enable
C. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] PIM DM
D. [RTA] multicast routing-enable
E. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] igmp version 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which three are IP Multicasting advantages? (Choose three.)
A. Provides network congestion control for timely delivery of data
B. Optimizes performance and eliminates redundant network traffic
C. Uses TCP connection-oriented transmissions for reliable packet delivery
D. Makes efficient use of network bandwidth as the number of participants expands
E. Enables simultaneous delivery of information to many receivers without producing multiple copies of the same data

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 103
Which protocol, supported on the 3Com Router 5000/6000 series, should be used when the router has to send heavy amounts of traffic to different multicast groups?
A. MOSPF
B. IP Unicast
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 105
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 106
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 51
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 41
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?

A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 10
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?

A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 15
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 19
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD

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