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QUESTION 142
Why should you use PortFast on the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller?
A. It enables Jumbo Frames on the port, providing higher data throughput on the link
B. It configures all the ports for 1,000 Mbps full duplex, providing maximum throughput
C. It immediately puts a port into the STP forwarding state, preventing an application from possibly timing out
D. Like Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), PortFast provides faster convergence for wireless devices when a bridge port goes up or down on the networ

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 143
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Each WX must have a system IP address
B. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
C. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
D. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
E. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 144
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 145
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com wireless component with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 146
Click the Task button.
Match each Wireless LAN Mobility term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 147
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 148
Which IP route service can be configured on 3Com Wireless Switch/Controller (WXs)?
A. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
B. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
C. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
D. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 151
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Site survey
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Network discovery
D. Facility walk-through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 152
Which three are concerns facing companies deploying Voice Wi-Fi (VoWi-Fi) network solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Low level of security
B. Quality of Service (QoS)
C. Multi-building campus environments
D. Roaming from access point (AP) to AP
E. Bandwidth capacity of access points (APs)

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 153
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) model to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 155
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Outdoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Weatherproof enclosure
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Built-in 18dBi directional antenna
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 157
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Fresnel zone obstructions
B. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 158
Which 3Com Web Configuration Management System Advanced Settings software screen allows the network administrator to configure the authentication, encryption and key management parameters for an access point (AP)?
A. WEP settings
B. Wi-Fi settings
C. Radio settings
D. Security settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 159
What is the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager?
A. Configure, deploy and manage any wireless product
B. Configure, deploy and manage any 3Com wireless product
C. Configure, deploy and manage 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility Systems, i.e., Wireless LAN Controller WX4400

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 160
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
B. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
D. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 161
Which command in Windows XP would you use to begin the setup process for a wireless NIC?
A. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Load
B. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Install
C. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Configure
D. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 162
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 170
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 171
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 173
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 126
Which Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) command
displays the generic settings of a discovered 3Com Access Point (AP), i.e., device name, type, IP address,
MAC address?

A. Show
B. Display
C. Present
D. Properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 127
What is displayed by the 3Com Launcher/3Com Wireless LAN Manager if the antenna is retracted on a 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna?
A. A picture with a red line connecting the PC and AP
B. A picture with a green line connecting the PC and AP
C. A picture with a yellow line connecting the PC and AP
D. A picture with multiple curved lines showing the single strength between the PC and AP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
Which three are features of the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400? (Choose three.)
A. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
B. External redundant SuperStack RPS
C. Four 1,000 Mbps GBICs or 1000BASE-TX ports
D. Supports up to 24 fit access points with base model
E. License upgrade to support a maximum of 96 Managed Access Points
F. Stack up to four units together to support a maximum of 144 fit access points

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 129
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Encryption, roaming and security policy
B. Authentication, roaming and security policy
C. Encryption, authentication and security policy
D. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
E. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 131
The 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400 provides high-bandwidth, centralized control for up to 144 directly attached managed access points (MAPs).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 132
Which three are 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) network planning functions? (Choose three.)
A. Generate a work order
B. Define the geographical area for the wireless network
C. Launch countermeasures against rogue access points
D. Define the RF model and the coverage areas for the floor
E. Define the connection speeds for wired devices on a floor

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 133
What is required before the network administer can connect to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller via telnet?
A. Create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
B. Assign a master password to the device and set the console port authentication
C. Enable telnet services, create an admin user/password on the device and assign the device an IP address
D. Enable privilege mode, create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the purpose of the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller “quickstart” command?
A. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform advanced system configuration
B. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.
C. It begins the configuration process that automatically assigns the IP address and configures the device for basic operations
D. It is the command that first deletes any configuration on the device, then allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
Which two are performed by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM), during the Compute and Place MAPs process of network planning, to determine the number of Managed Access Points (MAPs) for an area? (Choose two.)
A. Coverage calculation to determine RF capacity and coverage
B. Capacity calculation to determine the number of MAPs required
C. Coverage calculation to determine the RF obstacles for an area
D. Optimal MAP transmit power requirements for RF area coverage

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 136
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
D. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
Which two are functions of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “deploy” command?
A. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Managed Access Point (MAP)
B. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Activates a newly loaded configuration file on a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
D. Allows a Wireless LAN Switch/Controller to be drawn into a Network Plan Mobility Domain
E. Synchronizes configuration information between the 3WXM and a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 140
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Authorized wireless NIC
B. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
C. Unauthorized third-party access point
D. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
E. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 141
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
D. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 108
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 109
Which three are Smart IP Switch 40×0 family features? (Choose three)
A. Switch can function as a DHCP or BootP server
B. Supports both manual and automatic IP configuration
C. Uses SNMP trap to verify the availability of IP address pool.
D. Can select a random IP address from default assress range
E. Can receive an IP address from either a DHCP or BootP server
F. Network manager must release any automatically assigned address before the switch can be manually configured

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 110
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR)
E. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
Which two are valid XRN Fabric configurations? (Choose two)
A. Switch 4050 and Switch 4070
B. Switch 4060 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4950
C. Switch 4007 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4400
D. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
E. Switch 4050 and Switch 4060,Swicth 4070 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 112
Which two 3Com switch families can currently be used to create an XRN Distributed Fabric (DF)? (Choose two)
A. 3Com Swicth 40×0 family
B. 3Com Swicth 4005 family
C. 3Com Swicth 4007 family
D. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4400 family
E. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4900 family

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 113
Which two components are required to create a geographically distributed XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches)?(Choose two)
A. 4-port GBIC module
B. 3Com Network Supervisor
C. XRN Fabric Interconnect Modules
D. High-Bandwidth Interconnect Cable
E. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V4.X

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 114
What is minimum requirement to support the Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is support by every switch
B. At least two switches must be stacked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What is the procedure for upgrading a SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 SE to the enhanced switch feature set?
A. Enter the software upgrade code obtained from 3Com and reboot the switch
B. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to TFTP server on the same subnet as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch, reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
C. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to a TFTP server on the same network as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
D. Purchase and obtain activation key for the Switch 4400 Enhanced Software Upgrade from 3Com using Command Line Interface (CLI) entry “system license add” enter activation key confirm.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 116
Which three Physical Layer components should you check when either the Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 is having a connection problem? (Choose three)
A. Link LEDs
B. Switch ARP tables
C. Switch VLAN assignments
D. MAC address for the link
E. RX error statistics for link
F. Link Speed, duplex mode and flow control

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 117
Which three may be the cause of a Switch 7700 Network Layer 3 problem? (Choose three)
A. The switch trunk ports are not properly configured
B. The RIP versions are not the same between switches
C. The switches is not sending and receiving rout ipdates
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the switch
E. The MAC address table “aging parameter” is set too high
F. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is not properly configured on the switch

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 118
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 120
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 121
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 122
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 123
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 124
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 125
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)

Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 126
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 128
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 85
Which five are correct steps to be performed when installing NBX pcXset on a computer? (Choose five.)
A. Select country and language
B. Test audio and microphone settings
C. Enter the pcXset CD Key when prompted
D. Configure the MAC and IP address of the NCP associated with pcXset
E. Install the pcXset Telephony Adapter Card in the multimedia computer that will run pcXset
F. Confirm adequate software pcXset licensing on the associated NBX Communication System
G. In NetSet under the System Settings check the Auto Discover Telephones box and click OK
H. In NetSet under the System Settings check the Auto Discover pcXset Telephones box and click OK

Correct Answer: ABDFG
QUESTION 86
Which four are NBX Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system

Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 87
Which three does NBX Call Reports (CDR) provide for calls made on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Track all call information
B. Track all internal calls within NBX system
C. Track all incoming and outgoing PSTN calls
D. Provides customer and department chargeback accounting
E. Collects telephone usage information on a per user / per call basis
F. Track all incoming and outgoing attempted and/or abandoned calls
G. Supports “Snap-in” modules for Microsoft Excel and Lotus 123 for integrated account reporting
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 88
Which four are NBX CDR requirements? (Choose four.)
A. 24 MB of RAM
B. Linux Operating System
C. TAPI compliant application
D. Windows Operating System
E. IMAP4 compliant application
F. Adequate disk space for records
G. 12 MB of disk space for application
Correct Answer: ADFG
QUESTION 89
A NBX Software license upgrade provides access to the specific license purchased and every prior
software release.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 91
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems support software version R5.0? (Choose three.)
A. NBX 25
B. NBX 100
C. VCX 7000
D. VCX 6000
E. NBX V3000
F. NBX V5000

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 92
You have a NBX V3000 with full licensing. You discover the NBX V3000 internal disk drive is nearly full. Which three are best ways the NBX administrator can manage the available disk space on an NBX V3000 system? (Choose three.)
A. Limit the number of NBX users
B. Limit the maximum length of any message
C. Limit the number of messages an individual user can have at any one time
D. Replace the NBX V3000 20Gb internal disk drive with larger third party disk drive
E. Use a network attached storage server to supplement the NBX V3000 internal disk drive
F. Have the system remove messages more quickly by reducing the message retention period
G. Increase the NBX V3000 disk drive “Free Space” setting which automatically removes the oldest voice messages when the Free Space threshold is exceeded
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 93
What software version is supported by the NBX V3000?
A. NBX R4.5 only
B. NBX R4.3 and higher
C. NBX R4.4 and higher
D. Same software versions as 3Com Router 5000
E. Same software versions as 3Com Switch 6000
F. Same software versions as 3Com Router 8000

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
V3000 memory upgrades must be done at a 3Com Authorized Service Center and can not be performed in the field.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
Which two NBX V3000 system components are field upgradeable or field replaceable? (Choose two.)

A. CPU
B. Disk drive
C. Power supply
D. Memory module
E. Analog Port Modules
F. Paging Port Modules

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 96
Which three steps should the NBX administrator perform to add new members to an existing Page Zone? (Choose three.)
A. Select the User Configuration Icon and the Page Zones Tab
B. Select the Page Zones Icon and the User Configuration Tab
C. Select the Add New User Button and enter the new members extensions
D. Select new extensions from the “Non-Members” list and Click the”<<” button
E. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated from the list of zones and choose “Modify”
F. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated and Click the”<<” button to move it into the “Modify Zone”field

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 97
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
F. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension and name
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 98
How does an NBX telephone user send a page?
A. Pick up handset and dial the Page Zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
B. Pick up handset; press Feature button; dial the Page Zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
C. Pick up handset and dial the Page Zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays – “Paging Ready”; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
D. Pick up handset; press Feature button and dial the Page Zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays – “Paging Ready”; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
An NBX user can view and modify the operators?settings if the Administrator allows it.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to change configurable operator system default values?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 101
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 103
Which four are requirements for using Virtual Tie Lines (VTL) with an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. VTL license is required for each participating NCP
B. Each VTL counts as one NBX device for device limit
C. Each NBX must have its own Network Call Processor (NCP)
D. VTLs require a T1 or E1 Digital Line Card in each NBX system
E. A maximum of 96 VTLs are supported on any one NBX system
F. VTL requires either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. VTLs maintain Quality of Service (QoS) and provide end-to-end IP-ToS tagging

Correct Answer: ACFG QUESTION 104
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add a Page Zone or make modifications to an existing Page Zone?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan timed routes? (Choose three.)
A. Can designate a specific destination route for each time period
B. Can create route plans based on specific time-of-day or day-of-week
C. Can group time periods and point them to a specific route destination
D. Can disable specific routes for any time period, for example, holiday, night, etc.
E. Can create route plans based on pre-configured business hours – open, closed, lunch etc.
F. Can create route plans based on a specific date, for example, business, state or country holiday
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 85
Which two are performed by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM), during the Compute and Place MAPs process of network planning, to determine the number of Managed Access Points (MAPs) for an area? (Choose two.)
A. Coverage calculation to determine RF capacity and coverage
B. Capacity calculation to determine the number of MAPs required
C. Coverage calculation to determine the RF obstacles for an area
D. Optimal MAP transmit power requirements for RF area coverage

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 86
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
D. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Which two are functions of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “deploy” command?
A. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Managed Access Point (MAP)
B. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Activates a newly loaded configuration file on a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
D. Allows a Wireless LAN Switch/Controller to be drawn into a Network Plan Mobility Domain
E. Synchronizes configuration information between the 3WXM and a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 90
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Authorized wireless NIC
B. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
C. Unauthorized third-party access point
D. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
E. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 91
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
D. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Each WX must have a system IP address
B. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
C. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
D. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
E. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 93
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
Click the Task button.
Match each Wireless LAN Mobility term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 95
Why should you use PortFast on the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller?
A. It enables Jumbo Frames on the port, providing higher data throughput on the link
B. It configures all the ports for 1,000 Mbps full duplex, providing maximum throughput
C. It immediately puts a port into the STP forwarding state, preventing an application from possibly timing out
D. Like Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), PortFast provides faster convergence for wireless devices when a bridge port goes up or down on the network

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 96
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com wireless component with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 97
Which IP route service can be configured on 3Com Wireless Switch/Controller (WXs)?
A. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
B. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
C. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
D. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 99
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 100
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 101
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Click the Task button.
Match each IEEE standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 104
Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 105
What is the first step a wireless station performs as it attempts to access a wireless network?
A. Beaconing
B. Authentication
C. Active or passive scanning
D. Roaming and reassociation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
An advantage of using radio frequency (RF) signals for a Wireless LAN
(WLAN) is that an RF signal can pass through any object without interference (i.e., walls, concrete, steel,
etc.).

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 107
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
Which security protocol uses a hashed password for authentication rather than using a less secure encrypted password?
A. 3Com Dynamic Security Link
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Click the Task button.
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 110
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 114
Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 115
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the 3Com product that is represented by Sevice A in the network diagram.
A. Wireless LAN Switch WX1200
B. Wireless LAN Access Point 8750
C. 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge
D. Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750.
(Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 118
Which two are reasons a company may choose to use a
building-to-building wireless bridge versus a T1/E1 or fiber link? (Choose two.)

A. Reliability of the connection
B. Time to deploy and set up the connection
C. The distances between the two buildings
D. The initial installation costs and/or recurring monthly charges

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 119
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Basic Rate Set
B. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
D. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
How can the network administrator set the IP address and administrator password on a 3Com Access Point?
A. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) IP command
B. Type the follow CLI command “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”
C. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) configure command
D. Type the follow CLI commands “Set IPaddress <x.x.x.x>” and “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
B. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
C. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
E. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
F. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 122
Which three Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 parameters are set using the 3Com Web Configuration Management System “Advanced Setup Radio Setting” window? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs
B. Service Set ID (SSID)
C. Device name and type
D. Administrator password
E. IP address and subnet mask
F. Maximum number of client associations

Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 123
You have taken a new job as the network administrator. You find a 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 on a shelf in the network supply closet. What should you do when you are unable to connect a Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 because your predecessor has configured the access point (AP) with an unknown username and password?
A. Attach your PC directly to the RJ-45 port on the AP and telnet into the AP
B. Reset the AP configuration to factory default by pressing the reset button for at least 15 seconds
C. Reset the AP to its default factory settings by opening the back of the AP and removing the battery for at least 30 seconds
D. Use Windows Registry Editor to create and upload the following text to disable the AP security: “HKEY_USERS\.DEFAULT\Software\3Com Corporation\EAPOL\UserEapInfo”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
Which parameters must be completed to set up a 3Com access point (AP) as a non-restrictive Virtual Access Point (VAP)?
A. VLAN ID and radio channels
B. Bridging mode and radio channels
C. Service Set ID (SSID) and VLAN ID
D. Service Set ID (SSID) and Wi-Fi settings
E. MAC address and Service Set ID (SSID)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
To use IEEE 802.1X Network Login for the wireless LAN (WLAN), you must configure both the 3Com access point (AP) and wireless LAN NIC for 802.1X authentication.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 77
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 78
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 79
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 80
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 81
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 82
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 83
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 86
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 88
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 93
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 94
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 95
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 96
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900

Correct Answer: CDEF QUESTION 97
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
Which two are features of the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. Describes network edge access between a supplicant and a network access device
B. Defines tunnel encapsulation to transmit data across a Virtual Private Network
C. Identifies RADIUS as a generic means of performing supplicant access validity inspection
D. Identifies proxy servers as means of intercepting and filtering requests to the main server
E. Defines packet filtering as a means to control network access by analyzing each incoming and outgoing packet and rejecting or accepting it based on user-defined rules

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two cabling options should you choose for a customer who wants to upgrade the building and the campus backbones to Giabit Ethernet?Note: The campus backbone requires a 1,000-meter run, and the building backbone runs are from 300-500 meters in length. All new cabling is required. (Choose two)
A. 1000BASE -TX copper for the building backbones
B. 1000BASE -SX 50 micron multimode fiber for the campus backbones
C. 1000BASE – LX 9 micron single-mode fiber for the campus backbones
D. 1000BASE -LX 62.5 micron multimode fiber for the building backbones

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 100
How does a 3Com switch 7700, with RSTP disabled, handle the flooding process for a frame with the following attributes: A VLAN exists for the frame’s protocol, but the frame’s source port is not a member of the VLAN definition?
A. The frame is forwarded to all switch ports in the system
B. The frame is flooded to the default VLAN for the receive port
C. The frame is flooded according to the default VLAN assigned to that port
D. The frame is flooded according to the group of ports assigned to that VLAN

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
Which two are attributes of the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
A. Layer 4 protocol
B. Routing load balancing
C. Authentication passwords must be encrypted
D. Multiple virtual routers may exist on the same LAN segment
E. The Virtual Router ID (VRID) value determines the Master/Backup status

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 102
What is MINIMUM REQUIREMENT TO SUPPORT THE Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStake 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is supported by every switch
B. At least two switches must be staked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Which three traffic-prioritization classification are supported by the Super Stack 3 Switch 4400?
A. IP address
B. Physical port number
C. Resource Reservation Protocol
D. Common Open Policy Service Protocol
E. IETF Differentiated Services Code Point

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 104
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Choose two)
A. The Link Aggregation group can start on any port
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to single Link Aggregation group
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 105
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Which three are functions of the Access Control List capabilities of the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Filter routing updates
B. Support Embadded Firewall
C. Control management logins
D. Filter data from information in Layer 2-4 IP header
E. Integrate with RAIDUS for maximum security protection

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 107
Which two operations does the Switch 7700 use to prevent network loops on an Ethernet network? (Choose two)
A. The switch uses Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to eliminate loops on the network
B. The network administrator must configure switch-to-switch ports to eliminate loops on the network
C. The switch uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to eliminate loops on the network
D. The switch uses Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to determine the network topology and eliminate loops
E. The switch uses Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to eliminate loops on the network
F. The switch automatically learns address of other devices by listening to the network to determine the network topology

Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 93
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 95
Which two are security features supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Access Control Lists (ACL)
B. De-militarized Zone (DMZ) Firewall
C. IPSec with MD5, SHA1, 3DES and AES
D. Session Security Synchronization (SSS)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Which three Quality of Service (QoS) features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. Last in First Out (LIFO)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
E. Weighted random early detect (WRED)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What are two features of the Backup Center function on the Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a console port to be configured as a failover backup
B. Allows any WAN interface to be configured as a failover backup
C. Can provide additional bandwidth via load sharing on the primary link interface
D. Can automatically reconfigure an unused-physical interface to dynamically backup a link
E. Allows two Router 5000 units in the same physical location to provide backup in case one router fails

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 99
Which two commands are required to output RIP debugging information to the 3COM router (software version 2.x) console? (Choose two.)
A. [Router] Rip debug start
B. <Router>terminal debugging
C. <Router> debugging rip packet
D. <Router-console> debug enable
E. <Router> enable debugging channel 1

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 100
Which four protocols are supported by the Router 3000 family? (Choose four.)
A. IP
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
D. Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
F. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 101
With software version 2.x, which command enables multicast routing for the entire router?
A. <RTA> igmp version 1
B. <RTA> PIM DM enable
C. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] PIM DM
D. [RTA] multicast routing-enable
E. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] igmp version 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which three are IP Multicasting advantages? (Choose three.)
A. Provides network congestion control for timely delivery of data
B. Optimizes performance and eliminates redundant network traffic
C. Uses TCP connection-oriented transmissions for reliable packet delivery
D. Makes efficient use of network bandwidth as the number of participants expands
E. Enables simultaneous delivery of information to many receivers without producing multiple copies of the same data

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 103
Which protocol, supported on the 3Com Router 5000/6000 series, should be used when the router has to send heavy amounts of traffic to different multicast groups?
A. MOSPF
B. IP Unicast
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 105
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 106
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D

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