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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs are currently connected to T1 ISDN circuits.
Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You are meeting with a customer that has deployed IP telephony at their headquarters location. They would like to roll out IP telephony to their regional office as well. They are now using the G.711 codec at headquarters. They want to be able to maximize the number of calls carried without impacting voice quality or forcing a WAN upgrade. Which codec would be appropriate for their WAN?
A. G.726
B. G.723.1
C. G.711
D. G.729B

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111. What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?

A. incorrect dial-peer statement in Router 1
B. incorrect port statement in Router 1 pots dial peer
C. incorrect session-target statement in Router 2
D. incorrect destination-pattern in Router 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You have been forwarded some questions by a prospective VoIP customer who would like to know the Cisco default sample size for the G.729 codec. What is it?
A. 40 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 20 ms
D. 10 ms

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Examine the example output.
hostname GW1 ! interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212.
session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which preference key word assigns top precedence to a dial peer in a hunt-group?
A. 0
B. priority
C. 1
D. high

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7

You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use Wink-Start signaling.
Which signaling type will allow you to support the customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A 9 digit number must be dialed to reach numbers on the PSTN. What process makes sure that the first digit 9 is not transmitted as part of the called number?
A. digit alternating
B. digit masking
C. digit manipulation
D. digit seizing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the E.164 numbering plan?
A. a proprietary PBX number plan
B. the IETF North American number plan
C. the European PBX standard telephony number plan
D. the ITU worldwide number plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?

A. 19,200 bps
B. 51,600 bps
C. 79,200 bps
D. 247,200 bps

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
In the connection between a Cisco router and an E&M port on a PBX, which side is generally the Cisco side?
A. loop start
B. trunk circuit
C. switch port
D. signaling unit

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What are two basic parameters needed to setup a dial peer connected to the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. voice port
B. signaling type
C. interface bandwidth
D. destination pattern

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which device is used to allow an H.323 stream to transit a firewall?
A. gatekeeper
B. gateway
C. proxy
D. MCU

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You are working with your customer in their lab to test the effect of jitter on voice quality. You have set the maximum playout delay to 40 ms on the voice enabled routers. What will be the impact on voice quality if after severe congestion the playout buffer empties and the source sends packets to the buffer faster than they are leaving?
A. There will be no noticeable drop in quality.
B. The jitter buffer will adapt to the faster-arriving packets by expanding the buffer size.
C. The jitter buffer will speed up delivery of packets to the DSP so that packets are not dropped.
D. After the jitter buffer fills up, subsequent packets are discarded.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge voice and data on the existing T1 Frame Relay WAN link between New York and Atlanta. The customer has allocated 25 percent of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. You are using 6 bytes of overhead for Frame Relay, no cRTP, and the G.729 codec.
How many calls could be placed on this link?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
E. six
F. seven

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In a VoIP environment when speech samples are framed every 20 ms, a payload of 20 bytes is generated. Assuming a total packet length of 60 bytes, what is the length of the packet header if cRTP is deployed without redundancy checks?
A. 1 byte
B. 2 bytes
C. 3 bytes
D. 4 bytes
E. 20 bytes
F. 40 bytes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
You have a customer that is interested in determining the number of VoIP calls their Frame Relay WAN links can support. Each of their Frame Relay WAN links has 84 kbps of bandwidth available outside all other applications and overhead. How many G.729 calls using the 8 kbps codec and 20 byte sample size can be supported?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use an in-band signaling type.
Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A network has the following characteristics:
?the use of the G.711 codec with a codec speed of 64 kbps ?a 160-byte sample size ?the use of Frame Relay without compressed Real-Time Transport Protocol (CRTP) ?FRF.12 with 6 bytes of overhead
What minimum WAN bandwidth would be required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls?
A. 247200 bps
B. 19200 bps
C. 79200 bps D. 51600 bps

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?

A. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
King’s Mountain Cable has a pair of voice enabled routers capable of supporting only high complexity codecs. They need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which two codecs satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. G.729
B. G.729a
C. G.729b
D. G.729ab

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which gateway interface connects to the standard station port of a PBX?
A. FXS
B. E&M
C. POTS
D. FXO

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Your customer has forwarded this diagram and configuration. The customer wishes to have a connection between its PBXs, a connection that is created and dropped as required. There is one configuration statement missing from each router. What are the two missing statements? (Choose two.)

A. connection trunk 2015551000404555?
B. connection trunk 4045551200
C. connection tie-line 4045551200
D. connection tie-line 404555?
E. connection tie-line 2015551000
F. connection trunk

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?

A. 19,200 bps
B. 51,600 bps
C. 79,200 bps
D. 247,200 bps

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. digit masking
B. forward digits
C. number expansion
D. prefix extension

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which type of signaling is DTMF?
A. supervisory
B. route
C. informational
D. address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which type of delay is caused when large data packets block voice packets from the outbound interface?
A. queuing delay
B. serialization delay
C. propagation delay
D. packetization delay

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You have a pair of voice enabled routers that have the capability of supporting only high complexity codecs. You need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which codecs will satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. G.729
B. G.729A
C. G.729B
D. G.729.AB

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. The call agent is never out of the call path setup.
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. ater the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The following are the original dial peer configurations for routers R1 and R2:R1:dial-peer voice 20 voipdestination-pattern 408…….session target ipv4:192.168.2.254!R2:dial-peer voice 21 potsdestination-pattern 4085554321port 1/0/1!Which phones can call to the other?

A. Only Phone A can call Phone B.
B. Only Phone B can call Phone A.
C. Both phones can call each other.
D. Neither phone can call the other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Examine the following PBX system parameters: The calling side seizes the line by going off-hook on its E-lead and sends information as DTMF digits. The voice path is 4-wires, and the voice enabled router is in another building from the PBX.Select the correct set of commands to allow communication between a voice enabled router and a PBX.
A. voice port 1/0/0 signal immediate-start operation 4-wire type 2
B. voice-port 1/0/0 signal delay-dial operation 4-wire type 1
C. voice port 1/0/0 signal wink-start operation 4-wire type 3
D. voice port 1/0/0 signal immediate-start operation 4-wire type 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which device is used to allow an H.323 stream to transit a firewall?
A. gatekeeper
B. gateway
C. proxy
D. MCU

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
One voice packet is lost between Phone A and Phone B. What will be the result to the listener?

A. The call is terminated.
B. The listener will experience a gap in the received audio stream.
C. The listener will hear the audio normally. Packet loss concealment will make the loss inaudible.
D. The listener will hear the audio out of order when the lost packet is retransmitted.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the graphic for IP addresses and telephone numbers. You are working with a customer that is opening a small sales office in London. You would like to be able to have the user in London be able to dial into the PBX in New York over the IP WAN. The New York PBX uses loop start, a two-wire operation, and DTMF dialing. Please choose the correct FXO port configuration for New York.

A. voice-port 1/0/0 signal loop-start operation 2-wire dial-type dtmf
B. voice-port 1/1/1 destination 2015551212 signal loop-start operation 2-wire type 1 dial-type dtmf
C. voice port 1/0/0 session target ipv4:172.16.1.1 destination 2015551212 signal loop-start operation 2-wire dial-type dtmf

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the E.164 numbering plan?
A. a proprietary PBX number plan
B. the IETF North American number plan
C. the European PBX standard telephony number plan
D. the ITU worldwide number plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?

A. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use a proprietary signaling type.Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. E&M
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. FXO
F. FXS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What are the three components in an MGCP environment? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper
C. endpoint
D. call agent
E. proxy server

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are the voice technician at Certkiller . Certkiller has its offices in Great Britain. You need to install a
Cisco router to support IP Telephony services with direct-connected analog phones. You need to emulate
the local PSTN provider.
What FXS port parameter do you need to change?

A. Pulse
B. Signal
C. Cptone
D. Busyout
E. Description
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Certkiller distributes computer components and has warehouses in New York and Chicago. Headquarters is located in Washington, DC. To keep costs low, all inside sales associates are located at headquarters. Your want to provide a direct analog telephone connection to the inside sales teams from the pick-up counters at the warehouses. This connection should not require the inside sales teams to dial any digits. One of the warehouses is having a problem with their sales phone. You receive the following output: altwhse#show voice port 1/0:1 Foreign Exchange Office Type of VoicePort is E&M Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP The Last Interface Down Failure Cause is Administrative Shutdown Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Music On Hold Threshold is Set to -38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attenuation is Set to 0 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancel Coverage is set to 8 ms Connection Mode is plar Connection Number is 2000 Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 s Region Tone is set for US What is the cause of the problem?
A. VoicePort type is incorrect.
B. Echo cancellation is enabled.
C. Connection Number is not required.
D. Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what types of trunks Cisco support with the connection trunk command. What will your reply be? (Choose three)
A. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to FXO trunks, and FXS to E&M trunks
B. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
C. FXS to FXS trunks, FXO to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
D. FXO to FXS trunks, FXO to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
E. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to E&M trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
What happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway?
A. The incoming call leg takes an alternate path.
B. The incoming call leg matches the default dial peer.
C. The incoming call leg sends a busy to the originator.
D. The incoming call leg is denied and the call is dropped.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and a branch office in New Hamshire. You want to configure a permanent connection between the PBX at headquarters and the PBX at the branch office. The following configuration is used at the New York site: destination-pattern 20 port 1.0:1 destination-pattern 41 session target ipv4:10.2.0.20 The following configuration is used at the New Hamshire site: destination-pattern 41 port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 41 voip destination-pattern 20 session target ipv4:10.4.1.41 What must be added to the voice port configuration at the New York site?
A. connection trunk 20
B. connection trunk 41
C. connection tie-line 20
D. connection tie-line 41
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You must specify the same number in the connection trunk voice port command as in the appropriate dial
peer destination-pattern command in order to create a permanent trunk.

QUESTION 6
Certkiller sells managed IP Phone service to businesses in multi-tenant units. Certkiller has POPs in many
cities, so all of their dial peer patterns are based on 10 digit numbers.
Users dial 9 for local calls, followed by the 7 digital local number.
The following dial peer has been configured in a New York POP:
destination-pattern 595
port 1/0:24
A user dials a local number, 94422.
What command must be configured in the gateway to allow the call to complete?

A. prefix 595
B. forward-digits 7
C. rule 1 9…….595…….

D. forward 9…….595…….

E. num-exp 9…….595…….
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
configuration would define a destination pattern for all of the 1000 and 2000 range of extensions starting
with the numbers 555.
What will your reply be?

A. 5551…
B. 5552…
C. 555[1-2]…
D. 555[100-200]…
E. 555[1000-2000]…
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . The Certkiller network uses RTCP. Your newly appointed
Certkiller trainee wants to know what RTCP does.
What will your reply be?

A. It provides independent services irrespective of RTP.
B. It provides compression techniques to save bandwidth.
C. It provides in-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. It provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.

QUESTION 9
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . The Certkiller network uses VoIP. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM are. What will your reply be?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You have configured real-time call control processing on the
Certkiller VoIP network. You want to verify this configuration.
What command should you use?

A. debug voip rtcp
B. debug call control
C. debug voip ccapi inout
D. debug voip call control
E. debug voice call control
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what a
voice gateway is.
What will your reply be?

A. It is a device that connects two dissimilar networks.
B. It is a device that transports voice and restricts data.
C. It is a device that can support only a distributed call processing model.
D. It is a device that cannot be connected to the traditional PSTN network.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Detroit and Denver. Each office has an analog phone at each location. These phones are connected to an FXS port on the on-site router. The Finance department at the Denver office is unable to make any phone class from these analog phones. You receive the following output: 2611#s voice port 1/0/0 Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0, Port is 0 Type of VoicePort is FXS Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP No Interface Down Failure Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Non Linear Mute is disabled Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attention is Set to 3 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default Playout-delay Mode is set to default Playout-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms Playout-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms Playout-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms Playout-delay Fax is set to 300 ms Connection Mode is normal Connection Number is not set Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s Companding Type is u-law Region Tone is set for US Analog Info Follows: Currently processing none Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode) Number of signaling protocol errors are 0 Impedance is set to 600r Ohm Station name None, Station number None Voice card specific Info Follows: Signal Type is groundStart Ring Frequency is 25 Hz Hook Status is On Hook Ring Active Status is inactive Ring Ground Status is inactive Tip Ground Status is inactive Digit Duration Status is inactive Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms No disconnect acknowledge Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection Ring Cadance are [20 40] * 100 msec 2611# What is the cause of this problem?
A. The cptone is incorrect
B. The dial-type is incorrect
C. The signal type is incorrect
D. The playout-delay is incorrect
E. The disconnect-ack is incorrect
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has been using the following dial peer codec command: Codec g729r8 You reconfigure the dial peers with the following command: Codec g729ar8 bytes 10 How will this reconfiguration affect the voice network bandwidth and delay characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. There will be no change.
B. Delay will increase on a per call basis.
C. Delay will decrease on a per call basis.
D. Bandwidth consumption will decrease on a per call basis.
E. Bandwidth consumption will increase on a per call basis.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which
features render VAD ineffective.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. Fax
B. CNG
C. Call waiting
D. Music on hold
E. Call forwarding
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
You are the VoIP engineer at Certkiller . A Certkiller user complains that she gets a busy tone instead of a
dial tone when she tries to call another user. You want to troubleshoot this problem.
What command should you use?

A. show voice dsp
B. show voice path
C. show voice connection
D. show voice port summary
E. show dial-peer voice summary
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
compressed RTP does.
What will your reply be?

A. It significantly reduce packet delay
B. It significantly reduce total bandwidth
C. It significantly reduce Frame Relay overhead
D. It significantly reduce the total number of packets
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has its offices in London. You are installing a voice
gateway.
What do you need to verify? (Choose two.)

A. The PSTN standards in England.
B. Encryption capabilities legalities.
C. The service provider installing the gateway.
D. Supplementary service including fax and modem.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
What identifies an MGCP endpoint?
A. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and local name of the user.
B. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and remote name of the user.
C. A two part identifier that consists of the domain name of the user and the IP address of the gateway.
D. A two part identifier that consists of the local name of the user and the domain name of the gateway.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You to connect a Cisco voice gateway to a PBX or the PSTN
via ISDN (PRI, QSIG, BRI).
What are two attributes of the PBX/PSTN switch that must be known to understand which features to
configure on the voice gateway to connect successfully to it? (Choose two)

A. Whether Q.921 or Q.931 is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
B. Whether Symmetric mode is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
C. Which PRI/BRI switch-type is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
D. Whether network or user side is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
E. Whether wink, delay dial, or immediate dial is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what protocol negotiates the codec type for H.323
sessions.
What will your reply be?

A. H.225
B. H.245
C. Q.931
D. Q.932
E. H.320
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
request method initiates a SIP call setup.
What will your reply be?

A. ACK
B. INVITE
C. OPTIONS
D. REGISTER
E. DISCOVER
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You want to verify the registration of the gateway with the call
agent.
Which show command should you use?

A. show mgcp
B. show call agent
C. show gateway mgcp
D. show endpoint mgcp
E. show call active voice
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
makes it possible for gatekeepers to communicate with each other.
What will your reply be?

A. RTP
B. RAS channel
C. call signaling channel
D. H.245 control channel
E. Q.931 control channel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 24
What does gateway require to function as a translating gateway?
A. The capacity to translate the audio.
B. The ability to recognize the call control procedures of both connecting endpoints.
C. The ability to establish separate RTP sessions with the originating and terminating endpoints.
D. The ability to recognize the call control procedures for at least one of the connecting endpoints.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Numerous Certkiller users complain that they are unable to
complete calls through the MGCP network. You want to verify the extent of the problem by reviewing a
count of the successful and unsuccessful control commands.
Which command should you use?

A. show mgcp
B. show mgcp count
C. show mgcp statistics
D. show call active voice
E. show call history voice
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which of the following call control models are based on decentralized call control? (Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. H.323
D. Q.931
E. MGCP
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has an H.323 gatekeeper. Your newly appointed
Certkiller trainee wants to know what functions are supported by this gatekeeper.
What will your reply be? (Choose four.)

A. It provides services to registered endpoints.
B. It converts an alias address to an IP address.
C. It responds to bandwidth requests and modifications.
D. It provides translation between audio, video, and data formats.
E. It provides conversion between call setup signals and procedures.
F. It limits access to network resources based on call bandwidth restrictions.
G. It provides conversion between communication control signals and procedures.
Correct Answer: ABCF Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 28
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You are configuring a connection to a SIP proxy server. Which command would you use to specify the IP address of the server?
A. sip-ua sip-server 2.3.4
B. sip-ua sip-server target:1.2.3.4
C. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip:1.2.3.4
D. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip-server:1.2.3.4
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
With regard to SIP and SDP, which of the following statements is true?
A. SIP is similar to RAS and SDP is similar to RTP
B. SIP is similar to RTP and SDP is similar to RAS
C. SIP is similar to H.225 and SDP is similar to H.245
D. SIP is similar to H.245 and SDP is similar to H.323
E. SIP is similar to H.323 and SDP is similar to H.225
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller 60. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know on
what type of port you would set impedance.
What will your reply be?

A. T1
B. E1
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. E&M
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You are deploying an IP telephony solution using MGCP. The call agent expects the gateway to use UDP port 2427 but an application on the Certkiller network is already using that port. You want to use port 4662 instead. Which command would allow you to change the UDP port that the call agents and gateway communicate on?
A. Router(config)# mgcp UDP 4662
B. Router(config)# mgcp gateway 4662
C. Router(config)# mgcp call-agent 4662
D. Router(config-dial-peer)#application MGCPAPP 4662
E. Router(config)# mgcp default-package gm-package 4662
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam Description
Cisco 642-164 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Publisher Activation page
B. Component Activation page
C. Cluster Setup page
D. Server Setup page

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 2
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 3
What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 4
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose
two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel

Correct Answer: DE Section: Section 1 Explanation Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164

QUESTION 5
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 6
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows

Correct Answer: E Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 8
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? TestInside 642-164
A. resources
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 10
When using the Call Subflow step, can variables be shared between the parent (calling) flow and the subflow?
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Yes, but they must be manually passed via input and output mapping.
D. Yes, but they must be manually created in both flows and have the same name.

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
B. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
C. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which phone type has the following support matrix for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
version 4.0 unsupported
version 4.5 supported
version 5.0 supported
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 13
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool? TestInside 642-164
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool

Correct Answer: E Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 14
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 15
When a call terminates, which Cisco Unified CCX setting takes precedence over “Automated Available” to
determine the agent’s next state?
A. Automatic Work
B. Automatic WrapUp
C. Prompt for this CSQ
D. Service Level settings
E. Resource Pool selection

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which feature is added when upgrading from the Enhanced to Premium Cisco Unified Contact Center
Express?
A. sending email
B. a wrap-up timer
C. keystroke macros
D. supervisory recording
E. agent-to-agent text chatting

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 17
Which criterion can be used to control the actions of supervisor workflows?
A. average talk duration
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 18
What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Skill Queue
B. Common Skill Queue
C. Contact Service Queue
D. Common Service Queue
E. Competence Skill Queue
F. Competence Service Queue

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment scenario is valid?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.0
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.5 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.3
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.0

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 20
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 21
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop TestInside 642-164
(CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 22
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route
Point in CallManager.
D. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 23
The CRS Installer is used to perform which functions? (Choose three.)
A. install CRS software
B. back up CRS data
C. repair a CRS installation
D. back up CallManager data
E. remove a CRS installation (uninstall)
F. activate CRS components

Correct Answer: ACE Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 24
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164

Cisco 642-164 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
QUESTION 25
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
C. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 26
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging
messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 27
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM
Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CRS CTI Route Point
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which three server types are supported for the installation of Cisco CRS? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco MCS 78xx servers
B. Dell PowerEdge servers
C. HP DL Cisco certified servers
D. Acer Altos servers
E. IBM xSeries Cisco certified servers
F. Apple servers

Correct Answer: ACE Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 29
Which server or servers combine with redundant Cisco CRS engines to make a valid Cisco CRS 4.0
deployment?
A. five recording servers
B. a simplex database server
C. five simplex VoIP monitoring servers
D. two VoIP monitoring servers and three recording servers

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 31
Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
D. Cisco Unified CallManager
E. Cisco Recording
F. MS SQL Server

Correct Answer: BEF Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 33
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco
Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI
ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP
address.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco
Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Minor Release
B. Major Release
C. Service Release
D. Engineering Special
E. Maintenance Release

Correct Answer: AB Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 36
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. e-mail steps
C. media steps
D. database steps

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express v. 5.0?
A. a two-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Communication Manager clusters
C. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communication Manager Express router
D. two Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Communications Manager
cluster

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 39
If an existing script is uploaded to the CRS, what does it ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to save the application?
D. Do you want to return to Script Management?

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 40
What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Configuration and Ordering Tool
D. CRS Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 41
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the
step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful
D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Installation Wizard?
A. recover or restore a Cisco CRS system
B. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
C. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
D. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 44
For which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 packages is the preview outbound dialer available?
A. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
B. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express packages
C. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
D. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unified Communications Manager
Express packages

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 45
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express deployments?
A. wrap-up data
B. high availability
C. preview outbound dialer
D. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 47
What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played
C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. Custom File Configuration
D. Control Center

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 49
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time
30 agents able to make outbound calls
How many seats should be purchased?
A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 50
What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Standard
deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. varies based on the number of expansion servers
E. varies based on the number of configured applications

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What are three of the fields used in defining a CSQ in IPCC Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. WrapUp Time
B. Service Level
C. Overflow CSQ
D. Agent Name
E. Automatic Work
F. CRS Application

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played
C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
How are CTI ports in a CTI Port Group added on the CRS Server?
A. They must be created in Cisco Unified CallManager in ascending order (i.e., 1001, 1002, and 1003) with no gaps or missing numbers in the group.
B. They can be assigned as a range of ports in CRS Application Administration.
C. They are the same as the CTI Route Points in the Cisco Unified CallManager and automatically built in CRS when they are associated with the JTAPI user.
D. They are the same as the CTI Route Points in the Cisco Unified CallManager and automatically built in CRS when they are associated with the RM JTAPI user.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about the default e-mail address used in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page?
A. If no From field is specified with an address in the Send E-mail step, it will use the default.
B. All Send E-mail steps are automatically sent as a Blind cc: to the default.
C. Alarms that are generated by the CRS Server are automatically sent to it.
D. If no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step, the default is used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

CCNA Composite Exam:Cisco 642-162 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum number of CTI ports for a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. varies based on the number of expansion servers used
E. varies based on the number of applications configured

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are automatically configured on the CallManager when entered on the CRS Application Administration? (Choose three.)
A. CTI port
B. CTI Route Point
C. agent skills
D. JTAPI user
E. CRS prompt language
F. ASR provider

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which three Cisco CRS upgrade paths are supported? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 3.5
B. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 4.0
C. Cisco CRS 3.1 to Cisco CRS 4.0
D. Cisco CRS 3.5 to Cisco CRS 4.0
E. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 3.0
F. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 4.5

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which should you check to verify that you have correct software product versions installed? (Choose four.)
A. Administration Guide
B. Release Notes
C. Software Center
D. Application Administration
E. Compatibility Matrices
F. patch availability
Correct Answer: BDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When will a skills-based CSQ that requires a skill competency of four (4) select an IPCC Express agent?
A. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of nine (9) in another skill defined in CRS
B. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of one (1) in the required skill for the CSQ
C. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of seven (7) in the required skill for the CSQ
D. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of three (3) in the required skill defined in CRS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP As an instructor at Certkiller .com you are required to drag the Wrapup Timer configuration setting to the proper definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What formula do you use to compute the number of IVR ports?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + CTI ports
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a CRS Telephony or Media Subsystem?
A. JTAPI
B. Cisco Media
C. VXML
D. MRCP ASR
E. MRCP TTS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP You are a network engineer at Certkiller .com. You are configuring IPCCX and you will create several items that relate to either CallManager or CRS. You are required to the configuration to what it relates to the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of CTI ports for an IPCC Expess Standard deployment?
A. 150 B. 200
C. 300
D. Depends upon how many expansion servers are used
E. Depends upon the number of applications configured
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP You are a Certkiller .com network consultant. At the client site you are giving a lecture and you are required to provision the JTAPI subsystem to complete the task below. You need to drag the functions to the proper tasks.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
-In JTAPI Provider you have to input the IP or the name for the Callmanager CTI Manager.
-JTAPI Call Control Groups create the CTI ports in Callmanager.
QUESTION 9
What two things happen when the CRS Publisher Database on an HRDB expansion server fails? (Choose two.)
A. All call processing immediately begins using the CRS Subscriber Database.
B. Calls in queue are dropped.
C. Agent calls are dropped.
D. Agents are automatically logged out.
E. CRS configuration changes are blocked until the CRS Publisher Database is restored and synchronized with the CRS Subscriber Database.
F. Configuration changes are buffered until the CRS Publisher Database is restored.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A customer with IPCC Express Standard reports that a script using the Database steps is not working. What is the most likely root cause?
A. The script probably has an error in the DSN configuration.
B. IPCC Express Standard is not licensed for Database steps.
C. The script probably has an error in the query string.
D. There is probably an interoperability problem between IPCC Express and the database.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-162 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-162 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 11
What features are supported in a license for IPCC Express 4.0 Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. database integration
B. prompt and collect
C. VoiceXML
D. read HTTP and XML Documents
E. announcements
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid CRS deployment scenarios? (Choose three.)
A. High Availability CRS Engines running on hardware from different server classes
B. High Availability CRS Engines running on similar hardware from the same server class but from different vendors
C. High Availability CRS Engines and database and a simplex Recording Server
D. High Availability CRS Engines and four simplex VoIP Monitoring Servers
E. CCM co-resident deployment on an MCS 7815
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is the typical number of trunks in a Call Center?
A. equal to half the number of IVR ports
B. greater than the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones
C. less than or equal to the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones
D. twice the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
How does the Extended Get Digit String step differ from the Get Digit String? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used in conjunction with another step.
B. It allows the application programmer into another section of the application.
C. Most of the Extended Get Digit String variables can be changed while the application is running.
D. It allows the entry of a Boolean expression for the Interruptible and Clear DTMF Buffer on Retry fields.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How many skills may an agent have?
A. 25
B. 50
C. no enforced limit
D. as many as the number of ports supported on the server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You have just successfully added a JTAPI trigger in CRS Administration. Which two items are automatically configured on your CallManager? (Choose two.)
A. CTI dialogue control port
B. CTI Route Point
C. dialogue group
D. Call Control Group
E. CTI Route Port
F. CTI Route Point association with JTAPI User

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What allows you to monitor the system performance of the Cisco CRS System (CPU, memory, etc.)?
A. Cisco Desktop Administrator
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Microsoft Windows 2000 Performance Monitoring
D. CRS Application Administration
E. CRS Application Editor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is the default filename for the component trace file?
A. CiscoMIVR.log
B. CiscoMADM.log
C. CiscoMEDT.log
D. CiscoMCVD.log

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
How do you start an event-triggered debug session?
A. Select “Start” from the Debug menu in CRS Script Editor.
B. Select “Reactive Script…” from the Debug menu in CRS Script Editor.
C. Select “Debugging” from the Trace menu in CRS Application Administration.
D. Select “Start Trace” from the Trace menu in CRS Application Administration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
The JTAPI provider is the IP address of the _____.
A. publisher
B. CTI Manager
C. CallManager
D. CRS Server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22
What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP As a network technician at Certkiller .com you are asked to match the CRS objects to the correct provision configuration assignment. Not all CRS objects are used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24

When installing the CRS software on two or more nodes in the same cluster, how do you know it is safe to start installing the next node?
A. Wait until the node is completely installed to start installation on the next one.
B. After you insert Disk 2.
C. A dialog box, “It is now safe to start installing the next node,” appears during the installation.
D. After Windows OS is installed on the first node.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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