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The actual Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-864.html exam questions and answers will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success.save your money and time on your preparation for your Cisco 640-864 certification exam. You will find we are a trustful partner if you choose us as your assistance on your Cisco 640-864 certification exam. Now we add the latest Cisco 640-864 content and to print and share content.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.)
A. the monitoring of processor time on network devices
B. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic
C. the decoding and analyzing of packets
D. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network
E. the monitoring of user network utilization
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What is the benefit of deploying a gatekeeper in an H.323 IP telephony network.?
A. provides spatial redundancy through the use of HSRP
B. provides load balancing via GUP when alternate gatekeepers are deployed
C. reduces configuration complexity by centralizing the dial plan
D. increases redundancy by allowing each gateway to maintain a copy of the dial plan
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
-Has a low initial cost
-Provides low-to-medium BW
–
Has medium-to-high latency and jitter Which technology would you suggest?

A.
ISDN

B.
X.25

C.
analog modem

D.
DSL

E.
wireless
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security solution offers protection against “day zero” attacks?
A. Cisco IOS IPS
B. Cisco IOS Firewall
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
E. Cisco Security Agent
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. intra-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. inter-office
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints? The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
A. RTCP
B. H.245
C. H.225
D. RAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single
dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?

A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize
routing table size. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office from the
Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)

A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. The layer’s IT
resources include servers, storage, and clients. The layer represents how resources exist across the
network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity. Which Cisco SONA
architecture layer is being described?

A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19

Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 20
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No How
many calls can be made?

A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 22
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in Which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 27
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises Which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes: support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, Which
will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint,
Which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?

A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 31
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 32
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers
listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation
of these routers? (Choose two.)

A. software revisions
B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify Which network management protocol will be used for Which function.
E. Order the equipment.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network.
Which two strategies can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
(Choose two)

A. translate one protocol into the other
B. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
C. encapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets
D. bridge between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks
E. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
A network is being designed to meet the requirements listed.
Within the enterprise network:
All routers are Cisco 3800 Series routers running the latest Cisco IOS release.
The fastest convergence time possible is required.
Unequal cost load-balancing is required.
For Internet connections:
A single link is used to connect to a single ISP.Which two routing protocols should be used?(Choose two.)

A. Use Internal BGP as the IGP within the enterprise.
B. Use Static (Default) routing between the enterprise and the ISP.
C. Use OSPF as the IGP within the enterprise.
D. Use EIGRP as the IGP within the enterprise.
E. Use EIGRP between the enterprise and the ISP.
F. Use External BGP between the enterprise and the ISP.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
B. Guest tunnels have limitations on Which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
C. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
F. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
B. QoS should be performed only in the core.
C. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best performance for all time-critical applications.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
For Which technology is IPsec required for a site-to-site enterprise WAN/MAN architecture?
A. self-deployed MPLS
B. ATM
C. Frame Relay
D. SP MPLS VPN
E. ISP Service
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
What does Cisco recommend as the foundation of any deployed security solution?
A. Customer needs
B. Security audit
C. Service-level agreement
D. Corporate security policy
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
What is the administrative distance of eBGP routes?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 20
D. 110
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which name is for the Cisco product that provides centralized, policy-based security management?
A. IDS
B. Out-of-band management
C. AAA
D. CSPM

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which statement represents a likely starting point for planning network changes?
A. Protocol assessment
B. Determining the design requirements
C. Determining the business needs
D. Determining the application requirements

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45
What does IGMP stand for?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Interior Group Management Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Media Protocol

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
ISDN is short for Integrated Services Digital Network. Under what category of WAN technologies does ISDN belong?
A. Cell-switched
B. Circuit-switched
C. Packet-switched
D. Leased lines

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
As a network engineer, can you tell me accounting management on a network-management system allows a network manager to perform Which function?
A. Assess the network’s effectiveness and throughput
B. Charge back to users for network resources
C. Performance management
D. Identify problem areas in the network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Which address type is 225.10.1.1?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What is the length of the key used with Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)?
A. 64 bits
B. 168 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 56 bits
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Correct Answer: B

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Flydumps Free Study Guide For Cisco 640-822 Exam With New Added Questions Ensure 100% Pass

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Exam Description
The Cisco 640-822 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

Exam A
QUESTION 1 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A. show ip route
B. show interfaces
C. show s0/0 status
D. debug s0/0
E. show run
F. show version

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which commands display information about the Cisco IOS software version currently running on a router? (Choose three.)
A. show running-config
B. show stacks
C. show version
D. show flash
E. show protocols
F. show IOS

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4 After the shutdown command has been issued on the serial 0/0 interface, what will be displayed when the show interface serial 0/0 command is issued by the administrator?
A. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
B. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is administratively down
E. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
F. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the output of the three router commands shown in the exhibit. A new technician has been told to add a new LAN to the company router. Why has the technician received the error message that is shown following the last command?

A. The interface was already configured.
B. The interface type does not exist on this router platform.
C. The IOS software loaded on the router is outdated.
D. The router does not support LAN interfaces that use Ethernet.
E. The command was entered from the wrong prompt.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is malfunctioning.
B. The system is not powered up.
C. The system is powered up and operational.
D. The system is forwarding traffic.
E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5
Cisco 640-822 Exam
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown.
According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA
handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit. The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator issue to correct this problem?

A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# cdp enable
B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.9
E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.252 NewYork(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.5

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method?
(Choose two.)

A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Correct Answer: A

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IT Exams Cisco 640-816 Pass Certification Dumps Exam Training Questions And Answers

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
A junior network engineer has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of
the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
B. Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet.
C. The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
D. The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
E. Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit?
A. Q933a
B. B8ZS
C. IETF
D. Cisco
E. ANSI
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B. The address of host C is incorrect.
C. The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
E. The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands: hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248 no shutdown interface FastEthernet 0/1 ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface Serial 0/0 ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252 no shutdown ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1 What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Correct Answer: DE

 

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have just been configured by a new technician. All interfaces are up. However, the routers are not sharing their routing tables. What is the problem?

A. Split horizon is preventing Router2 from receiving routing information from Router1.
B. Router1 is configured for RIP version 2, and Router2 is configured for RIP version 1.
C. Router1 has an ACL that is blocking RIP version 2.
D. There is a physical connectivity problem between Router1 and Router2.
E. Router1 is using authentication and Router2 is not. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?

A. The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B. The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C. The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D. A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Refer to the output from the show running-config command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B. Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
B. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two subinterfaces and configure point-to-point links to R2 and R3.
D. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.
E. Change the network address configurations to eliminate the discontiguous 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?

A. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C. The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D. The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

A. The command establishes a static route.
B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
Refer to the graphic. Users on the Holyoke router are unable to access the intranet server attached to interface E0 of the Chicopee router. Inspection of the routing table of the Holyoke
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
router shows that an entry for the Chicopee E0 network is missing. Which command will configure the Holyoke router with a path to the intranet server network?

A. Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.2
B. Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.0 255.255.255.0
C. Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.38.0
D. Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0
E. Holyoke(config)# ip route 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0 201.73.127.2
F. Holyoke(config)# ip route 201.73.127.2 255.255.255.0 202.18.18.0

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?

A. Corporate router
B. Engineering router
C. Sales router Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
D. all routers
E. all routers and switches

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A. during high traffic periods
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface
on the Ethernet network.
B. Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.
C. Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.
E. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero.
F. No further configuration is necessary.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 22
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface
C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 0.0.0.224
D. 0.0.0.8
E. 0.0.0.7
F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Cisco 640-816 With New Added Questions To Ensure 100% Pass

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Exam A QUESTION 1

To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2
A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Riverside Towing is redesigning the network that connects its three locations. The administrator gave the networking team 192 168.45 0 to use for addressing the entire network. After subnetting the address, the team is ready to assign the addresses. The administrator plans to configure ip subnet-zero and use RIP v2 as the routing protocol. As a member of the networking team, you must address the network and at the same time conserve unused addresses for future growth. With those goals in mind, drag the host addresses on the left to the correct router interface. One of the routers is partially configured. Move your mouse over a router to view its configuration. Not all of the host addresses on the left are necessary.

ActualTests.com
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

 

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00::/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and itis :: 1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown in the exhibit, why do internal workstations on the 192.168.1.0 network fail to access the Internet?
A. A NAT pool has not been defined.
B. The wrong interface is overloaded.
C. NAT has not been applied to the inside and outside interfaces.
D. The access list has not been applied to the proper interface to allow traffic out of the internal network. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
F. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6
A. A switch in the VTP client modecannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which mask is correct to use for the WAN link between the routers that will provide connectivity while wasting the least amount of addresses?
A. /23
B. /24
C. /25
D. /30
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the interfaces of the Main_Campus router from the output shown?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C

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New Updated Cisco 640-816 Offer New Cisco 640-816 Free Dumps With PDF And VCE Download Flydumps Free Study Guide For Cisco 640-816

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
B. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23 access-list 1 premit ip any any
C. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21 access-list 1 premit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
E. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
F. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2

A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on s a VLAN to the Switch 2 VLAN database
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information will be passed on s a VLAN to the Switch 2 VLAN database
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on s a VLAN to add the Switch 2 VLAN database
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch 2 VLAN database
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3

A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet
B. Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on R1, R2 and R3
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interface and configure point-to-point links to R2 and R3
D. Dynamic routing protocol such as RIPv2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4

A. deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 D. deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5

A. They increase the size of collision domains
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function
C. They can enhance network security
D. They increase the size of broadcast while decreasing the number of collision domains
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains
F. They simplify switch administration

Correct Answer: BCE

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch managment interface over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9

A. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration
B. Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1
D. Add access-list 14 permit any ny to the access list configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10

A. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable
B. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26
D. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15
E. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11

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New Version Professional Cisco 500-254 Exam Questions From Flydumps For Free Download

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The actual Cisco 500-254 exam questions and answers will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success.save your money and time on your preparation for your Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/500-254.html certification exam. You will find we are a trustful partner if you choose us as your assistance on your IT Cisco 500-254 certification exam. Now we add the latest Cisco 500-254 content and to print and share content.

QUESTION 1
Which two elements must you configure on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to allow Cisco ISE to authenticate wireless users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Cisco ISE as a RADIUS authentication server and enter a shared secret.
B. Configure Cisco ISE as a RADIUS accounting server and enter a shared secret.
C. Configure all attached LWAPs to use the configured Cisco ISE node.
D. Configure RADIUS attributes for each SSID.
E. Configure each WLAN to use the configured Cisco ISE node.
F. Configure the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to join a Microsoft Active Directory domain.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
Which three Cisco TrustSec enforcement modes are used to help protect network operations when securing the network? (Choose three.)
A. logging mode
B. monitor mode
C. semi-passive mode
D. low-impact mode
E. closed mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 3
Which statement is correct about Change of Authorization?
A. Change of Authorization is a fundamental component of Cisco TrustSec and Cisco ISE.
B. Change of Authorization can be triggered dynamically based on a matched condition in a policy, and manually by being invoked by an administrator operation.
C. It is possible to trigger Change of Authorization manually from the ISE interface.
D. Authentication is the supported Change of Authorization action type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The default Cisco ISE node configuration has which role or roles enabled by default?
A. Administration only
B. Inline Posture only
C. Administration and Policy Service
D. Policy Service, Monitoring, and Administration
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Inline Posture nodes support which enforcement mechanisms?
A. VLAN assignment
B. downloadable ACLs
C. security group access
D. dynamic ACLs
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What is the process for Cisco ISE to obtain a signed certificate from a CA?
A. Request a certificate from the CA, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.
B. Generate a CSR; download the certificate from the CA; bind the CA-signed certificate with its private key, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.
C. Generate a CSR; export the CSR to the local file system and send to the CA; download the certificate from the CA, and bind the CA-signed certificate with its private key.
D. Submit a CSR to the CA; download the certificate from the CA; bind the CA-signed certificate with its private key, and import the CA-signed certificate into ISE.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
What is the Cisco ISE default admin login name and password?
A. admin/admin
B. admin/cisco
C. ISEAdmin/admin
D. admin/no default password—the admin password is configured at setup

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
What are two methods to verify that Cisco ISE is properly connected to AD? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Test Connection feature in the Cisco ISE External Identity Sources Active Directory.
B. View the Active Directory Log /opt/CSCOcmp/logs/ad_agent.log.
C. Use the ISE Dashboard Summary alarms.
D. Use ktpass to determine if the Kerberos ticket is valid.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 9
Where is the license installed within Cisco ISE deployment?
A. A license is installed on the Policy Service node within ISE deployment.
B. A license is installed on the primary or secondary Administration node within ISE deployment.
C. A license is installed only on the primary Administration node within ISE deployment.
D. A license is preinstalled for ISE deployment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which of these is NOT a high-availability option that is available for Cisco ISE deployments?
A. In the event of failure of the Primary Administration node, the standby instance automatically becomes active.
B. In the event of failure of the Primary Monitoring node, the standby instance automatically becomes active.
C. Clustering of Policy Service nodes to provide N+1 redundancy
D. Stateless failover of Inline Posture nodes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
What are the three default Cisco ISE identity user groups? (Choose three.)
A. employee
B. contractor
C. activated guest
D. guest
E. sponsor

Correct Answer: ACD

 

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Ensure Pass Apple 9L0-615 Shares Latest Apple 9L0-615 FlyDumps New Questions for Apple 9L0-615 Exam 100% Valid

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which comparison of Mac OS X Server and Windows user account password policy enforcement is TRUE?
A. Mac OS X Server does not let you set inactivity limits on user account passwords, but Windows does.
B. Both Mac OS X Server and Windows allow you to enforce a minimum length for user account passwords.
C. Neither Mac OS X Server nor Windows has a graphical user interface for entering user account password policies.
D. Both Mac OS X Server and Windows require that user account passwords be different from account names.
E. Mac OS X Serverlets you require that account passwords be different from account names, but Windows does not.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
How do you configure an Apple Remote Desktop admin computer to use a remote Task Server?
A. Run the cfgtaskserver command line utility with the Task Server’s IP address as its parameter.
B. Open Remote Desktop and select your Task Server from the list that appears in the Task Server window.
C. Open Remote Desktop on the Task Server, and type the host name or lP address of the ARD admin computer.
D. Open Remote Desktop and select “Use remote Task Server” in the Task Server preferences pane of Remote Desktop, then enter the host name or IP address of your Task Server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
In Workgroup Manager, which managed preference pane lets you configure proxy server settings for accounts?
A. Sharing
B. Internet
C. Network
D. Applications
E. System Preferences
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is the maximum number of computers that can appear in the All Computers list in Remote
Desktop?
A. 1,000
B. 10,000
C. There is no defined upper limit.
D. The upper limit depends on your user license.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In Workgroup Manager, which management frequency cannot be used to manage the System Preferences for accounts?
A. Never
B. Once
C. Often
D. Always

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which Login preference can you set in Workgroup Manager for computer lists, but not for users or for groups?
A. Enable Fast User Switching
B. Open Specified Items at Login
C. Add Network Home Share Point
D. Hide Opened Login Items after Login

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
How must you authenticate if you want to create a managed network view?
A. You must authenticate in the managed domain as a domain administrator.
B. You must authenticate with the Apple Remote Desktop password on your server computer.
C. You must authenticate as an administrator on the Mac OS X Server computer that manages your domain.
D. No special authentication is required; anyone can use Network preferences to create a network view named ‘Managed” which will be managed automatically by the Mac OS X Server computer that manages your domain.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You want your Mac OS X Server to provide SMB service. What directory service role should it be
configured to use?
A. The Mac OS X Servers role must be Domain Member.
B. The Mac OS x Server’s role must be Standalone Server.
C. The Mac OS X Server’s role must be Backup Domain Controller.
D. The Mac OS X Server’s role must be Primary Domain Controller.
E. The Mac OS X Server can use any directory service role available.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes how you configure managed Applications preferences in Workgroup Manager?
A. You create a list of users who can open any application on the local drive.
B. You create a list of users who can open specified applications when logged into their mobile account.
C. You select an account, then create a list of applications that can or cannot be opened by that account.
D. You create a list of approved or unapproved applications, then apply the list to selected user accounts.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You can generate client computer reports on your Apple Remote Desktop admin computer, but not using your remote ARD Task Server. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. SSH is disabled on client computers.
B. The Mac OS X firewall is blocking port 22.
C. The Mac OS X firewall is blocking port 3283.
D. The network DNS is improperly configured.

Correct Answer: C

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Acpt, Apple

Buy Latest Apple 9L0-206 PDF Download,Apple 9L0-206 PDF Questions For Groundbreaking Results

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The Apple 9L0-206 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Apple https://www.pass4itsure.com/9l0-206.html configurations, get information about the Apple 9L0-206 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Apple 9L0-206 united computing systems.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
What tool does the service manual recommend you use to separate plastics and lift components of PowerBook and iBook computers?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Jeweler screwdriver
C. Flatblade screwdriver
D. Precision needle nose pliers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which TWO of the following are true statements about screws inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. All screws are interchangeable.
B. It is not necessary to replace all screws after a repair.
C. Screws should always be only comfortably tightened.
D. Screws should always be tightened as much as possible.
E. Screws should always be replaced exactly where they came from.
F. Torx and Hex (Allen) screws can both be driven by either type of driver.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode.
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio Input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disks to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of _______ within computers.
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to _____.
A. boot the system into Mac OS 9
B. boot the system into Mac OS X
C. boot the system into Open Firmware diagnostics
D. hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by _____.
A. visually inspecting them for damage
B. replacing them with known-good parts in any order
C. adding more known-good parts in a specified order
D. replacing them with known-good parts in a specified order
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco

Provide Latest Cisco 350-040 Flydumps PDF With All New Questions And Answer

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Provide Latest Cisco 350-040 pass4itsure PDF With All New Questions And Answer

Exam A QUESTION 1
In Cisco MDS, how is a pWWN assigned to a dynamically assigned iSCSI?
A. by the system
B. by the user in the configuration of the iSCSI target
C. by the iSCSI host
D. created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver, and Connection ID
E. by the storage system attached to Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which of these TCP ports does iSNS use?
A. 3205
B. 3225
C. 3226
D. 3325

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Is the iSNS client supported on VRRP interfaces?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the storage_services_enabler_pkg license is enabled on the switch
D. only on Cisco IPS line cards

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Can Cisco Fabric Services be used to distribute iSCSI initiator configurations?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP_18_4 license is installed on the switch
D. only when ENTERPRISE_PKG is installed on the switch

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of these is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel encoding?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
A. K28.5
B. 8B/10B
C. 3B/4B
D. D28.5
E. idle
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which three of these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A. NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
What set of primitive signals is valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS, ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN, ARB
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
If a Fibre Channel interface is receiving an NOS pattern on its interface, what pattern will the interface be transmitting?
A. OLS
B. LR
C. LRR
D. IDLE
E. NOS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Fibre Channel Protocol is a protocol consisting of several layers. What are these layers, in
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
order from FC-0 to FC-4?
A. Media, Encode and Decode, Framing and Control, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
B. Encode and Decode, Media, Framing and Control, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
C. Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Media, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
D. Upper Level Protocol, Common Services, Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Media
E. Media, Framing and Control, Encode and Decode, Common Services, Upper Level Protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
All of these are functions of LIP except which one?
A. reinitialize a loop
B. perform passive attachment to loop
C. indicate loop receiver failure
D. indicate which port to reset on loop
E. acquire an AL_PA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What Fibre Channel header field indicates the frame is a Link Control frame?
A. R_CTL
B. CS_CTL
C. TYPE
D. F_CTL
E. DF_CTL
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What Fibre Channel transport functions can be found at the FC-2 level?
A. Exchange Operation, Information Unit, and Sequence
B. Session, Exchange, and Information Unit
C. Sequence, Frame, and Flow Control
D. Sequence, Frame, and Information Unit
E. Exchange Management, Link Control, and Flow Control
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco

The Most Recommended Cisco 350-040 Certification From Flydumps For Free Download

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The Most Recommended Cisco 350-040 Certification From Pass4itsure.com For Free Download

Exam A
QUESTION 1
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 – (ISL)
–
Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A.
Open Fabric Mode

B.
Native

C.
Interop 1

D.
Interop 2

E.
Interop 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
MDS3_9509# MDS3_9509# dir bootflash: 1106 Dec 08 15:36:14 2003 MDS20031208072937365.lic 1106 Dec 08 15:44:47 2003 MDS20031208074023541.lic 2562 Jun 13
17:25:32 2004 special_config.txt 558 Jun 08 20:25:17 2004 create_mds3_fcalias.script 12288 Dec 04
18:04:10
2003 lost+found/ 12317696 Apr 09 15:41:02 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin 12334592 May 05 19:13:47 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4b.bin 43659162 Apr 09 15:42:12 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin 43687917 May 05 19:13:30 2004 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4b.bin 3222 Mar 26 18:40:02 2004 script_b_fcip Usage for bootflash://sup-local 126206976 bytes used 58352640 bytes free 184559616 bytes total MDS3_95 What command would successfully transfer the “special_config.txt” file to a workstation, PC, or File Server?

A.
copy special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt

B.
copy bootflash:special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt

C.
copy <ftp://bootflash:special_config.txt> <ip address>/<path>/special_config.txt

D.
copy <ftp://<ip> address>/<path>/<filename> special_config.txt

E.
copy special*.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In a long distance link of 100KM, which is true of the desired number of BB credits?
A. More BB credits would cause excessive delay in handling the larger number of packets.
B. The fewer the BB credits there are, the less likely we are to have a packet lost in the network.
C. With fewer BB credits, the transmission pipe will not be full and this will lead to other applications getting bandwidth should they need it.
D. The FC standard defines the number of credits on a long distance link.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5

A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the “show vsan 1009” command?
A. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/ dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E. vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only Fibre Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would you use?
A. HSSC
B. MIA
C. GBIC
D. SFP
E. DUAL SC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. Ethereal with PAA
D. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
E. MDS fcanalyzer
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
You have a host that you connect to a switch port on a MDS switch. The switch port does not come up and a “show interface” indicates that the port is initializing and eventually goes offline. You configure the port as a TL port and the port comes up. What type of device is the host?
A. Public loop device
B. Private loop device
C. Non Fibre Channel device
D. The host has a DB-9 copper connector
E. The port should not come up after being configured as TL port because TL ports are used to connect to other switches.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Inrange FC/9000
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is TCP fast recovery?
A. It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
B. It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C. It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D. It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. snmp-server contact name defined
B. callhome site-id defined
C. Enterprise license installed
D. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
E. snmp-server location defined
Correct Answer: A

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