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Exam A
Which configuration command is used to enable EIGRP unequal-cost path load balancing?
A. maximum-paths
B. distance
C. metric
D. variance
E. default-metric

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: EIGRP automatically load balances across links of equal cost. Whether the traffic is sent on a predestination or round-robin basis depends on the internal switching within the router. It is possible to configure EIGRP to load balance across unequal-cost paths using the variance command. The variance command allows the administrator to identify the metric scope for including additional paths by the use of a multiplier parameter. The command structure follows: Router(config-router)#variance multiplier The multiplier argument is the metric value used for load balancing. It can be a value from 1 to 128. The default is 1, which means equal-cost load balancing. Reference: CCNP Self-Study CCNP BSCI Exam certification guide p.485

Examine the EIGRP network diagram. All paths should be used for load balancing between Certkiller 4 and the Certkiller Corporate Network. Which value should be assigned to the variance command to accomplish this?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
E. 5
F. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. In this example, the worst route is 2.5 times worse than the best route. Since we can not use 2.5 for the variance (the value must be an integer) we must specify a minimum value of 3.

Assuming that the OSPF router ID was not explicitly defined on router CK2 , what would its router ID default to?
F. None of the above Answer: D Explanation: The router ID is the tie-breaker for OSPF path selection. The path selection process uses a variety of metrics to select a route. If all other metrics (accessibility, administrative weight, local preference, etc.) are equal, OSPF determines the router ID using the following priority: Use the address configured by the ospf router-id command Use the address of the loopback 0 interface Use the highest IP address of any interface If no interface exists, set the router-ID to

Which of the following commands ensures that permanently created static route entries are dynamically added into the routing process?
A. inject static
B. inject permanent
C. redistribute all
D. redistribute static

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: If you define a static route to an interface that is not one of the networks defined in a network command, no dynamic routing protocols will advertise the route unless a redistribute static command is specified for these protocols. Incorrect Answers:
A: The inject static is used to configure legacy DECnet systems. It is not a valid IP routing command.

B: There is no such command.

C: The command is not valid.
Reference: Cisco, Configuring IP Routing Protocol-Independent Features
The Berlin and Nuremberg OSPF networks need to be established and configured in the following manner: The router is named Berlin. The clocking is provided on the Berlin router’s serial 0/0 interface. The secret password in the Berlin router is ” Certkiller “. You should use OSPF in a single area Area 0 should be used for the routing protocol. Use 1 for the process ID of the routing protocol. The IP addresses and subnet masks are listed in the chart. Berlin FA0/0 S0/0 Lo 0 Nuremberg FA0/0 S0/0 Lo 0

Please provide the complete configuration and also the prompt where the configuration is to be done. Start by clicking on host that is connected to the router you want to configure. Lab A Berlin
FA0/0 S0/0 Lo 0 Secret Password: Certkiller Lab B Nuremberg FA0/0 S0/0 Lo 0

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Which command should you use to verify what networks are being routed by a given OSPF process?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocol
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: The information displayed by the show ip protocols command is useful in debugging routing operations. Information in the Routing Information Sources field of the show ip protocols output can help you identify a router suspected of delivering bad routing information. For OSPF routers, this command will display the routed networks. Incorrect Answers:
A: To display general information about Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing processes, use the show ip ospf command in EXEC mode. This command will display the areas assigned and other useful information, but not the networks being routed. Example: CK1 # show ip ospf Routing Process “ospf 201” with ID Supports only single TOS(TOS0) route It is an area border and autonomous system boundary router Redistributing External Routes from, igrp 200 with metric mapped to 2, includes subnets in redistribution rip with metric mapped to 2 igrp 2 with metric mapped to 100 igrp 32 with metric mapped to 1 Number of areas in this router is 3 Area Number of interfaces in this area is 1 Area has simple password authentication SPF algorithm executed 6 times
B: This will display the active routing table, but not the networks that are being routed.
D: The OSPF database does not display the networks being routed.

OSPF is being configured over the Certkiller frame relay network as displayed in the diagram below:

Which three of the following commands would you enter on the Certkiller 1 serial 0 interface, if you wanted to implement OSPF on this network? (Select three)
A. ip ospf network point-to-point
B. ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
C. frame-relay map ip 200
D. frame-relay map ip 300
E. frame-relay map ip 200 broadcast
F. frame-relay map ip 300 broadcast

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ip ospf network command, typed under the interface configuration mode, is used to specify the OSPF network configuration and sets the network mode to point-to-multipoint DLCI- Data-link connection identifier (DLCI) number. Broadcast – Forwards broadcasts to the specified IP address. This keyword is needed on the frame relay mappings in order to transmit the OSPF information across the frame relay network. Reference: 87b42.html

Router CK1 is configured as shown below: interface serial0 ip address encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 51 network 0.0.0255 area 0 Based on the information above, which two of the following statements are true? (Select two)
A. DB/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
E. The OSPF hello timers need to be adjusted manually.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: In an OSPF Point-to-Multipoint environment, DB/BDR elections do not take place. The neighbor command became somewhat obsolete with the introduction of the capability to configure other network modes for the interface, regardless of the underlying physical topology. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 130 and 181 Point-to-Multipoint Network: Point-to-multipoint is a single interface that connects to multiple destinations. The underlying network treats the network as a series of point-to-point circuits. It replicates LSA packets for each circuit. OSPF traffic is sent as multicast. There is no DR or BDR election. This technology uses one IP subnet for all endpoints on the network. By default, the network is considered to be a series of point-to-point interfaces. There is no need
to specify neighbors, because the neighbors will see each other and simply become adjacent, with no need for the election of a DR or a BDR. Point-to-multipoint does not try to reduce adjacencies using a DR. Instead, it accepts the extra overhead of having a full set of adjacencies for the sake of stability. Point-to-multipoint forms an adjacency automatically along any PVC, which causes more overhead but is more resilient than NBMA.

On the Certkiller NBMA Frame Relay network, subinterfaces were configured. In routing OSPF over the frame relay network, what advantage does using subinterfaces provide?
A. To converse IP addressing space.
B. To avoid split-horizon issues with the routing protocol.
C. Because logical interfaces are more reliable than physical interfaces.
D. Subinterfaces remain up when the physical interface changes to a down state.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: When configuring routers in a NBMA topology, subinterfaces are typically used. A physical interface can be split into multiple logical interfaces, called subinterfaces, with each subinterface being defined as point-to-multipoint interface. Subinterfaces originally were created to better handle issues caused by spilt horizon over NBMA and distance vector-based routing protocols. Incorrect Answers:
A: Using subinterfaces creates separate IP subnets for each frame relay link, so actually more IP addresses are used this way.
C: Using logical interfaces has no impact on the stability of any network link.
D: When the physical link goes down, all subinterfaces also go down. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 120.

You have been assigned the task of connecting two office networks together via a frame relay network, and running OSPF across this network. What kind of configuration structure would you use to accomplish this?
A. Point-to-point over sub-interfaces.
B. Point-to-multipoint star configuration.
C. Point-to-multipoint using a single subnet.
D. Point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast using a single subnet.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Using point to point subinterfaces will eliminate the issues surrounding split horizons over

NBMA networks. Configuring the network in this way is the Cisco recommended solution. Reference:
RFC1586, Guidelines for Running OSPF over Frame Relay Network.

A Certkiller router is configured as shown below: interface serial 0 ip address encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network non-broadcast ! router ospf 1 network area 0 neighbor neighbor Based on this configuration, which of the following statements are true? (Select two)
A. There can be no DR or BDR in this configuration.
B. This is a point-to-point configuration over Frame Relay.
C. The network mode is nonbroadcast multiaccess (NBMA).
D. The DR and BDR need a static list of neighbors due to non-broadcast.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: The configuration printout shows an OSPF configuration across a frame relay network that is not configured for subinterfaces. With this setup you are required to specify neighbors so that a DR and BDR can be elected. In addition, all locations are part of the same IP subnet so the OSPF neighbors need to be explicitly assigned at the host location of an NBMA network. Note: Had subinterfaces been used, the network would be seen as a series of logical point to point links, so the OSPF neighbors would not need to be specified.
In a network running OSPF, what is the term used to describe the administrative process of dividing a large area into smaller areas?
A. interior areas
B. OSPF subarea
C. link-state protocol
D. hierarchical routing

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: OSPF’s ability to separate a large internetwork into multiple areas is referred to as hierarchical routing. The backbone area, area 0, is considered to be at the top of the hierarchical chain, with the other areas lying below it.
Assuming that you are configuring an ABR in an OSPF area, which IOS command would you execute if your goal was to summarize the networks advertised out of the area?
A. summary-address address mask
B. area area-id range address mask
C. auto-summary address mask area area-id
D. network network-number wildcard mask area area-id

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
The area area-id range address mask command consolidates IA (intra-area) routes on an ABR. This
command instructs the ABR to summarize routes for a specific area before injecting them into a different
Incorrect Answers:

A: The summary-address address mask command consolidates external routes (inter-area) on an ASBR
C: Auto-summarization is not useful here.
D: The network command cannot be used for this purpose. This command is simply used to add a network to the OSPF routing process.
Which two of the following characteristics are defined by the network command? (Select two)
A. The OSPF area ID
B. The OSPF router ID
C. The OSPF process ID
D. Which interface belongs to which OSPF area

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
The network command designates the OSPF area for an interface with the specified IP address.
Syntax: network address wildcard-mask area area-id

Router CK1 is configured for OSPF as shown below: router ospf 76 network area 1 network area 0 area 0 range area 1 range Which of the following statements are true regarding the above configuration? (Select three)
A. The OSPF router ID is 76.
B. This is an area border router.
C. The designated router priority is 76.
D. This router connects area 1 to the backbone area.
E. Any router interfaces with an address of 172.18.x.x are in area 0.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: An interface may belong to only one area. If a router has multiple interfaces and if
any of those interfaces belong to different areas, the router is considered as an area border router.
The networks that follow the network command are connected to each other and Area O is
always the backbone area. Finally, the command “network area 0”
identifies that all interfaces with IP address of area within area 0.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: The command router ospf 76 identifies the process ID as 76 and not the router ID nor the
router priority.

When configuring a multi-area OSPF network to summarize routes, what additional command is required by ASBR’s that is not needed by ABR’s?
A. area range command
B. ospf summarize command
C. aggregate-route command
D. summary-address command
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation: Using this command for OSPF causes an OSPF autonomous system boundary router (ASBR) to advertise one external route as an aggregate for all redistributed routes that are covered by the address. For OSPF, this command summarizes only routes from other routing protocols that are being redistributed into OSPF. Incorrect Answers:
A: The area range command is used only with area border routers (ABRs). It is used to consolidate or summarize routes for an area. The result is that a single summary route is advertised to other areas by the ABR. B, C: There are no such commands for OSPF. Reference: OSPF Commands
When designing OSPF networks, maintaining stability in an area is important. Which of the following describes a reason for this?
A. Instability causes more LSAs to be sent, requiring more CPU to recalculate routes.
B. Convergence cannot happen until holddown timers expire, so routing loops can occur.
C. Flooding the area topological database instances consumes excessive bandwidth.
D. Summary link LSAs cannot be sent until all routers in the OSPF area have the same topological database.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Instability of routes (links) would force sending of LSAs (Link State Advertisements), and CPU time would
be required to recalculate the routes.
Incorrect Answers:

B: OSPF does not use hold down timers. Holddown timers are used by distance vector protocols, such as RIP.
C: The topological database is not distributed, only link changes.
D: Summary-link LSAs are not sent to all routers. Summary-link LSAs originate from area border routers, and flood throughout the LSA’s associated area. Each summary-LSA describes a route to a destination outside the area but within the AS. Reference:
A Certkiller OSPF router is configured in the following manner: router ospf 200 network area 7 network area 0 area 7 stub no-summary area 7 default-cost 30 Which of the following statements are true regarding this configuration? (Select two)
A. Area 7 is a totally stubby area.
B. If the backbone becomes discontiguous, traffic can be routed through area 7.
C. Redistribution of other routing protocols takes place at the area designated router.
D. Area 7 non-ABR routers contain only intra-area routing information and a default route.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
An extension to stub areas is what is called “totally stubby areas”. Cisco indicates this by adding
a “no-summary” keyword to the stub area configuration. A totally stubby area is one that blocks external
routes and summary routes (inter-area routes) from going into the area.
Note: The area stub command is used to define an area as a stub area.

Syntax: area area-id stub [no-summary]
The no-summary optional parameter prevents an ABR from sending summary link
advertisements into the stub area.
Reference: OSPF Design Guide

Router CK1 is an ABR in the Certkiller OSPF network. What does an ABR connect to?
A. Multiple OSPF areas
B. OSPF and RIP networks
C. Multiple designated routers
D. Multiple OSPF autonomous systems
E. Multiple redistributed networks.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
An ABR (Area Border Router) shares an interface with at least one other OSPF area. A router
that contains network/area statements for two or more different areas is an ABR.

You are a systems administrator of a large multi-area OSPF network, and you’ve just created a new area for an upcoming remote network. Ordinarily OSPF areas are be connected to the backbone, area 0. However, circumstances dictate you to connect it to the existing area 2 at this time. Which conditions have to be met in order to make this configuration work? (Select three)
A. There must be a virtual link.
B. Area 2 must be a stub area.
C. Area 2 cannot be a stub area.
D. Area 2 must attach directly to area 0.
E. Network summary link LSAs must be disabled.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
A: There must be a virtual link from the new area to the backbone, area 0. The virtual link provides the disconnected area a logical path to the backbone.
C: The area through which you configure the virtual link, known as a transit area (here area 2), must have full routing information. It cannot be a stub area.
D: The transit area, area 2, must attach directly to area 0. Reference: OSPF Virtual Link http:// Incorrect Answers:
B: The transit area, area 2, cannot be a stub area.
E: This is not a requirement.
Which of the following is an OSPF configuration parameter that is used on an ABR, but not on an internal router?
A. A virtual link to area 0.
B. OSPF summarization command.

C. default-cost extension to the area command.
D. no-summary extension to the area stub command.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
The no-summary extension of the area stub command is used only for ABRs connected to
totally stubby areas. It prevents an ABR from sending summary link advertisements into the stub area.
This option is used for creating a totally stubby area.
Incorrect Answers:

A: For a virtual link to work both ends need to be configured. B, C: These commands are not specific to an ABR only.


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