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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction
principle? Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
70-742 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also
composed by other service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be
composed.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service
compositions to become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.

A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and
its underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering “loose state” in
support of runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an
agnostic abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship
between the service contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details,
whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in
relation to the service implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of
the other depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation
and SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms
and practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical
(short- term) requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service
orientation is required.
70-742 pdf Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 6
The decoupling of a service contract from the service’s underlying implementation results in
a(n) in the service’s level of abstraction because service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly
couple to the underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding

D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle:
“Services are supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively
and .” Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
70-742 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract
principle is not followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the
purchase of legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the
Service Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.

70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the
initial delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a
constant emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather
than strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure
that may introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of
applying the Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or
contract of a service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract

Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract
receives a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract
content to only what is deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service’s Service
Level Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be
easily located by those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles
directly supports these design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
70-742 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD). What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Your company uses 70-243 dumps System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
In an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. The AS ABAP message server
B. The AS Java central service instance
C. The AS Java message server
D. Both the AS ABAP and the AS Java message server
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Who participates in SAP Ramp-Up programs?
A. Customers who applied and were accepted for participation
B. All SAP partners and internal SAP departments
C. Only internal SAP departments
D. All customers with SAP Enterprise Support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
For which purposes can property variants in CCMS monitoring be used? (Choose three)
A. To enable cross-system monitoring
B. To transport sets of threshold values from one SAP system to another SAP system
C. To allow users to use different sets of threshold values at the same time
D. To switch between different sets of threshold values triggered by a switch of the operation mode
E. As containers for threshold values
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12
SAP provides a vast range of software for companies of all sizes. Which of the following are SAP offerings?
(Choose three)
A. SAP Business ByDesign
B. SAP Business ByEvolution
C. SAP Business Suite
D. SAP Business All-in-One
E. SAP Business End-to-End
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a background job
in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
70-243 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
An SAP system’s Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs.
Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next online
redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What does SAP recommend when importing transport requests? (Choose three)
A. Transport requests should only be imported if the software component vector of the transport requests
fit to the software components and their Support Package level of the target system.
B. Transport requests should be imported into the productive system one by one in the order of their
sequence in the import queue.
C. Transport requests should always be imported into the productive system in the sequence of their export
from the development system.
D. In general importing transport requests into the productive systems requires a maintenance window
(downtime window).
E. Transport requests should be imported project wise into the productive system.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 16
You want to reduce the fragmentation of a tablespace by using BR*TOOLS. Which methods can you use to
achieve this? (Choose two)
A. Online shrinking of tables
B. Update statistics
C. Online backup
D. Online redefinition of tables
E. Coalesce tables
Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-135 pdf Answer: B
Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. SOAP
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-135 vce Answer: C, E
Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
components?
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D
QUESTION 9
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-135 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 12
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: CV0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 389

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public cloud
environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
CV0-001 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company’s existing
network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator is creating a new VM template CV0-001 dump and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company’s servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator needs to provide Internet access to all internal systems using a single IP
address. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. NAT
B. Virtual switching
C. VLAN tagging
D. PAT
CV0-001 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
In which of the following cloud services will the customer be responsible for securing provisioned
hosts?
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
CV0-001 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following should an administrator perform to harden a VM that has been provisioned
in a public cloud environment before deploying the system?
A. Defrag system
B. Update drivers
C. Disable firewall
D. Patch system
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
CV0-001 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator is tasked to reduce the company’s datacenter power utilization. Currently there
are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator
needs the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system.
Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this CV0-001 dump task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s
existing network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
CV0-001 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that
the server vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
CV0-001 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual
environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the
administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud
environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
CV0-001 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented
a data encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the
administrator implement NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior
administrator notices that these ten VMs are not using their CV0-001 dump resources efficiently. Which of the
following is MOST likely the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?
A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A16
Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 77

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Testlet 1
Executive Summary
Healthy Helping Hands is a multi-national health care equipment company with operations in 10 countries. The organization manufactures and distributes a variety of health care products ranging from its unique baby breathing devices to diabetes supplies to wheelchairs. Based on current projections, Health Helping Hands expects to expand the company primarily through small, targeted acquisitions, as well as a modest amount of organic growth. The organization has been affected by numerous technical challenges, specifically with delivering applications to its users-4.000 employees,
approximately 500 of which are contractors In addition, because the timing and size of 1Y0-A16 exam acquisitions is unpredictable, the IT staff must have the ability to adjust the technical integration of newly acquired companies to accommodate unpredictable timing: for example, while a period of several weeks or months may have been planned, the integration may need to be completed in several days. These challenges caused the company to investigate the Citrix Delivery Center offerings, leading to the CIO’s decision to move forward with those Citrix Delivery Center products and features that address IT and user needs. With users spread throughout numerous offices, some with and some without IT staff, it is imperative that supportability, administration and security are factored into the new solution. However, for the 4,000 employees and contractors within the organization, the CIO has mandated that users should be provided with a
highly available virtualization solution that best suits their job function.
1.1 Current Citrix Environment
Healthy Helping Hands currently runs a Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps Presentation Server 4.0 farm based on Windows Server 2000 that services the Human Resources (HR) applications. Because this product has reached end-of-life’ and is no longer supported, and this farm has had numerous growth issues, the CIO has designated that the new design will incorporate XenApp. XenDesktop. And/or XenServer as appropriate to address present and future application and access requirements
However, before moving into the design phase, the current Presentation Server environment, as well as infrastructure, user requirements applications and related areas have been assessed to determine current status, issues and considerations fort he new design. The Consulting project team worked on-site at Healthy Helping Hands during the week of February.1.-5, 2010, conducting this Infrastructure Assessment as defined in the Statement of Work, dated January 20, 201.0. This document represents the deliverable for the Infrastructure Assessment phase of the project.
1.2 Key Project Findings
During the week of February 1, 2010, an assessment of Healthy Helping Hands’ Application Delivery environment was conducted and the project team determined
several key findings:
The current environment is built on 1Y0-A16 pdf 32-bit architecture, although some hardware may support 64-bit architecture. The CIO wants to migrate all IT platforms to 64-bit during upgrade/replacement programs only.
1.3 Next Steps
After thoroughly reviewing this document Healthy Helping Hands should take the following actions within the short term (one-to-two weeks) and long term (several
weeks or longer):
Long-Term Activities:
Migrate all IT platforms to 64-bit for compatibility and support
1.4 Issue Status and Resolution
The following 1Y0-A16 vce issues were also addressed during the course of this assessment:
1Y0-A16 dumps

Users
Currently, only the Human Resources group accesses applications hosted on Citnx Presentation Server 4.0. HR users typically log onto the HR applications suite as needed, approximately two or three times throughout the day and then log off when finished due to security requirements. When a new Human Resources employee joins the company, he/she is added to this group and thus gains access to the HR applications suite. In general, this group reports overall satisfaction with application access through 1Y0-A16 exam Presentation Server However, some users have reported printing issues as
described in Section 1.4. With the exception of the San Francisco and New York locations where the majority of the IT staff is located, users are generally frustrated with the IT staff because of hardware and application access issues associated with traditional application delivery. In formal and informal settings, the CIO has presented the concept of virtualizing applications and desktops, and users have responded favorably. Thus, the CIO has decided that Healthy Helping Hands will virtualize all applications and desktops, making the delineation based on job requirements. 
Client Devices All of the HR users currently accessing the Presentation Server-based applications do so by means of Windows XP or Windows Vista laptop or desktop computers. With the exception of Customer Service, most office users have computers that run Windows XP or Vista. The manufacturing employees have access to locked down antiquated computers on the manufacturing floor and common areas For several years, the Manufacturing Department has reported numerous problems related to frequent equipment failures. This has normally been blamed on the environmental conditions, such as dust, dirt and vibration, found on the
manufacturing floor. The Customer Service employees also have antiquated computers. Both the manufacturing and customer service devices will be replaced with new thin client devices as part of this initiative. Some employees have purchased their own handheld devices, such as iPhone. HP iPAQ with Windows Mobile and Blackberry. As part of an earlier initiative. Microsoft ActiveSync 1Y0-A16 dumps is installed on the Citrix servers to facilitate Windows-based PDA sync for a small group of users. This feature is still available but should be disabled for security reasons. These devices are not officially supported by the IT department at Healthy Helping Hands; only “best effort’1 support is provided. Current breakdown of computer devices at Healthy Helping Hands:

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Applications
The HR applications suite, named PositivelyPeople, is based on a front-end application that provides access to various modules, including payroll, time sheets, vacation requests, new hires and former employees. The sensitive data in the PositivelyPeople application must be treated with strict confidentiality and must only be accessible to members of the HR user group; distribution of the data must be prevented. The output of the modules can be in either Microsoft Word or Excel file formats, so these applications are co-located with PositivelyPeople on the same Presentation Servers and likewise presented as published applications Thus, users are presented with three applications, PositivelyPeople, Word and Excel, and within these applications each user creates his/her own customized view. Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process, and Installation Manager 1Y0-A16 pdf is used to deploy Word and Excel. Because only these three applications are published, there is no process for testing and integrating new applications. All applications are published with consistent
settings.
In addition, all users require access to office productivity applications including e-mail
Several months ago, Healthy Helping Hands explored hosting the CAD application on XenApp 5.0 Platinum for Windows Server 2003 (x86), but only a maximum of five concurrent user sessions could successfully be hosted on each server due to heavy resource requirements even with CPU and memory optimization enabled. The vendor for PositivelyPeople has tested and certified the application to run on Windows Server 2008. The vendor has also found that leveraging High Availability for XenApp applications would be beneficial. Breakdown of all user groups and their application 1Y0-A16 vce requirements:

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Application Access
Users access applications by means of the Web Interface The internal Web Interface site, , is accessible to all employees but only presents applications to the Human Resources group at this time If the Web Interface will be used in the future environment, this URL should be used because this employee group is already familiar with it. Most of the HR users access their application suite internally, however, the IT staff recently created a Secure Gateway/Web Interface server in the DMZ so that users could access their applications while traveling. However, this server is based on older hardware and has had intermittent issues over the past few weeks. Thus, most HR users can no longer rely on having remote access to their applications. In the new environment, all employees should have remote access to their applications and/or desktops, with the 1Y0-A16 exam exception of manufacturing floor employees and contractors.
XenApp Farm
TheXenApp farm is based on the following:
•One dedicated data collector
•One internal Web Interface server
•One Citrix’Microsoft Terminal Services license server
•One SQL Server 2005 server hosting the Data Store and EdgeSight databases
•One web server hosting EdgeSight web server and SQL Reporting Services
•One antiquated file server hosting old user profiles
•One Secure Gateway/Web Interface server located in the DMZ
•Eight Presentation Server 4 0 servers

QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade their Citrix 1Y0-A16 dumps environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all the current and future staff, including contractors around the world. Which two issues present a risk to the project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. Print jobs intermittently fail
B. A dispersed user community
C. Wide range of device types in use
D. Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E. External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to ensure that the project meets the business and technical
requirements of Healthy Helping Hands? (Choose three.)
A. Risk Log
B. Stage Plan
C. Project Scope
D. Detailed Design
E. Resource Requirements
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge works, which two user groups would be classified as task workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Engineers
C. Marketing
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers, and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be
classified as knowledge workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Marketing
C. Engineers
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Based on the assessment document, for which user group may an administrator need to use ICA session policies to control session bandwidth?
A. Sales
B. Finance
C. Marketing
D. Customer Service
E. Human Resources
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be
classified as mobile workers? (Choose two.)
A. IT staff
B. Sales staff
C. HR employees
D. Marketing personnel
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demands placed on the current 1Y0-A16 dumps solution will increase significantly. As such, an architect must assess the current hardware to identify constraints against the company’s future growth. Which statement best describes a current hardware constraint?
A. Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B. Existing server processors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C. The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D. Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) Topic 1, Volume A
You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:
An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example,
[email protected]) A nine-digit number that allows 70-480 exam optional hyphens after the second and fifth
character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55- 5555)
You need to use the correct expression to validate the input. Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

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Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a
company’s website. The page collects 70-480  dumps information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The
query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the
correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
70-480  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
70-480  vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
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70-480  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
70-480  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
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Q&As: 113

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the new data source.
Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. LINQ to XML
B. ADO.NET Entity Framework
C. ADO.NET DataSets
D. WCF Data Services
70-487 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Errors occasionally occur when saving data using the FlightInfoContext ADO.NET Entity Framework context. Updates to the data are being lost when an error occurs. You need to ensure that data is still saved when an error occurs by retrying the operation. No more than five retries should be performed.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the SaveChanges() method in the FlightInfoContext.es file?
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller. It returns flights from the consolidated data sources only for flights that are late. You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required 70-487 dumps  data. Which code segment should you use? 70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D is right because you send result as REST so if you use “AsQueryable” the result is deferred to the next enumeration of your result.
D is not optimized but will works.
A will break at runtime.
Credits to Rem
QUESTION 4
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 5
An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide to move
schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses their concerns about
having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still decide to implement your off-schedule
shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
70-487 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Who is ultimately responsible for an employee’s success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee’s mentor
C. the employee’s manager
D. the employee’s team leader
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
70-487 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System produces
performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the phone, performing wrap
up work, and not available. Reports also show the number of calls taken and the average talk-time
per agent. Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization’s performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has theleast :not available” time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the
morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
70-487 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What should be addressed in a support center’s marketing plan?
A. the support center’s budget requirements
B. the support center’s staffing requirements
C. the support center’s implementation timelines
D. the support center’s role in the corporate vision
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods? (Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
70-487 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals? (Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by their
company.
70-487 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
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1. What are three roles in HFM security? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Run Allocation
B. Delete Journals
C. Create Unbalanced Journals
D. Save System Report on Server
200-125 exam Answer: ACD
2. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are Export Data Criteria options?
A. Scenario, Year, View, Entity, Accounts
B. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Value, ICP
C. Scenario, Year, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: A
3. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are valid Import Data Method options?
A. Replace, Merge, Aggregate
B. Merge, Accumulate, Remove
C. Accumulate, Replace, Clear
D. Merge, Replace, Accumulate
200-125 dumps Answer: D
4. You are extracting information using Extended Analytics. Which list shows all the dimensions that allow
for multiple members?
A. Scenario, Year, Period, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
B. Scenario, Year, Period, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
C. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Value, Account, ICP, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: D

5. You are performing a data extract using the Extract Data module. From which three dimensions can
you make multiple selections? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: BCD
6. Extended Analytics uses which format for the extracted information?
A. ASCII File
B. Star Schema
C. Snow Flake Diagram
D. Comma Delimited File
Answer: B
7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB
8. What are three available methods for the HFM HAL adapter? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Import Data
B. Import Journals C.
Export Journals D.
Open Application

E. Set Logon Information
200-125 exam Answer: ADE
9. What types of documents can be selected as related content in Financial Reporting? (SELECT
THREE)
A. An Interactive Reporting Report
B. Any web page
C. A Web Analysis Report D. An HFM Web Form
E. A Planning form
Answer: ABC
10. Which two must be selected to enable the Data Audit feature for selected accounts? (SELECT TWO)
A. DataAuditTrail in the ApplicationSettings
B. Data Auditing in the Data Audit Window
C. EnableDataAudit on the selected Accounts
D. Y for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
E. O for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
Answer: CE
11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
200-125 dumps Answer: B
12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.

D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C
13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
Answer: ABD
14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
TWO)
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: CD
15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD
16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only

C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
200-125 exam Answer: D
17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE
18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C
19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
THREE)
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: ACD
20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?

A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C

21.Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause
of the problem?

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A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
22.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
23.Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port
security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

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[2017 New Cisco Updated] The Most Effective Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Update 2017 with CCNA Security Video Series Is What You Need To Take (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Question: 14
Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A – Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B – Both come into being by operation of law.
C – Both are monitored by the courts.
D – Both are required to file income tax returns.
210-260 exam Answer: D
Question: 15
A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year:
Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A – $23,000
B – $45,000
C – $52,000
D – $95,000
Answer: A
Question: 16
A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint
of providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best
choice of trustee?
A – The grantor of the trust
B – The grantor’s 70-year-old father
C – The grantor’s 22-year-old son
D – A bank or trust company
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Question: 17
A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter 10,000

What amount must be brought back to the man’s estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the
calculation of his federal estate taxes?
A – 0
B – $ 90,000
C – $280,000
D – $320,000
Answer: A
Question: 18
A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his
descendants are as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower’s will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his
children, per stripes, which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will
receive?
A – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C – $ 75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D – $ 60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate
planner?
A – Contracts
B – Compatibility
C – Consistency
D – Compensation
Answer: D
Question: 20
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when
the gift was made in 1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift
tax because of the applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s
death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for
$200,000. She had a gain of
A – 0
B – $130,000
C – $160,000
D – $200,000

210-260 vce Answer: A
Question: 21
The Decedent, T, died this year. The facts concerning T estate are:
Gross estate $2,700,000
Marital deduction 900,000
Charitable deduction 110,000
Gifts made after 1976 130,000
State death taxes payable 165,000
What is T taxable estate?
A – $1,285,000
B – $1,395,000
C – $1,525,000
D – $1,655,000
Answer: C
Question: 22
When the owner of a closely held business dies, the payment of a portion of the federal estate tax
may be deferred for a period of several years if the estate otherwise qualifies under the provisions
of IPC Section 6166. Which of the following statements concerning this deferral of federal estate
tax is correct?
A – The interest rate on the deferred tax is determined by the prime rate in effect on the date of
death.
B – The interest on the unpaid estate tax is payable over the first 10 years, after which the tax
plus interest on the balance is payable in equal installments for the last 5 years.
C – To qualify for the tax deferral, the closely held business must represent more than 50 percent
of the value of the decedent’s adjusted gross estate.
D – Under certain circumstances, the estate will forfeit its right to tax deferral, and all the
remaining unpaid estate tax will become due and payable immediately.
210-260 exam Answer: D

Question: 23 Which of the following could be used by Duane to attempt hiding files within the file
system?
A.Attrib
B.HideNSeek
C.Chgrp
D.Alternate Data Stream
Answer: D
Question: 24.Which of the following 210-260 dumps penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A.CANVAS
B.CORE IMPACT
C.METASPLOIT
D.DEEP HOLE
Answer: C
Question: 25.Software Restriction Policies,if implemented correctly,can help protect against what kinds of threats?
Choose two.
A.Trojans
B.Malware
C.Spam
D.Smurf Attacks
Answer: A,B
Question: 26.If the DS Client software has been installed on Windows 95,Windows 98,and NT 4 comptuers,what
setting of the LanMan Authentication level should be applied to counteract LanMan hash sniffing and
offline cracking? Choose the best Answer.
A.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM & NTML
B.Send NTLM only
C.Send LM & NTLM responses
D.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM
210-260 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
Question: 27. Ping utilities can be used for basic network connectivity test; the ping command sends out an ICMP
Echo Request packets and the destination host will reply with an ICMP Echo Reply packets if the host is
alive.However,in some cases the host might be alive and responses are not received.What is the most
likely cause of such behavior?
A.The packet suffers from time exceeded in transit
B.The packet did not reach the destination gateway
C.A filtering device is dropping the packets
D.The remote device OS does not support the ping command.
Answer: C
Question: 28. When doing a Half-Open Scan what packet type would be expected as a response if the port being
probed is closed?
A.FIN
B.ACK
C.RST
D.RST/ACK
210-260 vce Answer: D
Question: 29. Mae i a keen system administration; she constantly monitors the mailing list for best practices that are
being used out in the field.On the servers that she maintains,Mae has renamed the administrator account
to another name to avoid abuse from crackers.However,she found out that it was possible using the
sid2user tool to find the new name she used for the administrator account.Mae does not understand; she
has NOT shared this name with anyone.How can this be?What is the most likely reason?
A.Her system have been compromised
B.Renaming the administrator account does not change the SID
C.She has not applied all of the patches
D.Someone social engineered her
Answer: B
Question: 30.What built-in Windows command can be used to help find remote access trojans?Choose the best
Answer. A.Netstat a
B.Ipconfig/displaydns
C.Nbtstat c
D.Netdiag
210-260 exam Answer: A
Question: 31.Under the Windows platform,there is something refered to as Null Session.
Which of the following statements would best describe what a null session consists of?
A.It is a session where zero bytes of traffic have been transferred
B.It is a session where erroneous commands are being used showing the a lack of knowledge of the user
connected.
C.It is a remote session that is established anonymously to a window machine
D.It is a anonymous FTP session under the Windows platform
Answer: C
Question: 32.Why is tunneling-based trojan software so useful for hackers if it is installed inside a
corporate network?Choose the best 210-260 dumps Answer.
A.Tunneling software uses ports that are not well knwon,eg.12345
B.Stateful inspection firewalls can only filter Server ports of 1-1023
C.It makes network penetration trivial the tunneling occurs using Whatever port(s) the firewall is
configured to allow
D.Anti-trojan software do not have signatures for tunneling trojans,therefore it is easy to have end-users
install tunneling trojans.

Answer: C
Question: 33.On a Linux system,which of the following files would contain the list of user
accounts,their shell,and their home directories?
A.useradd
B.shadow
C.passwd
D.group
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated] First-hand Microsoft SQL Server 70-764 Dumps PDF Exam Sample Questions Free Download for MCSA Video Series (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-764 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
70-764 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
70-764 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
70-764 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
70-764 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
70-764 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
70-764 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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