[2017 New Updated From Google Drive] Latest Updated CCDP ARCH v3 300–320 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Download for Cisco Network Service Architectures

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 389

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QUESTION 1
When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is the
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning Tree Protocol but one of
the big advantages of EAPS is
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring defaultgateway redundancy.
300-320  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin authentication. Extreme
provides a vendor specific attribute ExtremeExtreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
300-320  vce Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path tree. This switch over
will be initiated by
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
300-320  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Exhibit
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host A (10.10.10.100) and
Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
300-320  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration that allows you to connect
active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet from host A to any of the
switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the Radius and Tacacs
+features.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all attachments are made with
a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port Translation Mode the
physical Port where the node connects to must be configured as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
An IP-only IS-IS router (or “IP-only” router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS

B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by the BSR towards
all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are activeIt is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by RP towards all
PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band management port and VLAN.
The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the
switch. If you want the switch to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to
enable ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 27
How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
300-320 dumps

Correct Answer:

300-320 dumps

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia When deciding on the players in the lineup, the
coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together. If George starts, Marlene
won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If George is in the starting lineup, who must also start?
A. Marlene or John
B. Dexter or Leanne
C. Dexter or John
D. John or Patricia E.
Marlene or Roger
70-775 exam Answer: D
2.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Which of the following pairs cannot start together?
A. Erwin and Dexter
B. George and John
C. Roger and John
D. John and Bart
E. Patricia and Marlene
Answer: A
3.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from thesecond group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start. The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.

If Marlene is on the starting lineup, which of the following players will be the first groupplayers who will
also be starting?
A. John
B. John and Dexter
C. John and Bart
D. John, Dexter and Bart
E. John, Erwin and Bart
70-775 pdf Answer: C
4.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Of the following hockey players, who must start?
A. Patricia
B. John
C. George
D. Marlene
E. Bart
Answer: E
5.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill
doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger.
Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not Melville).
What is the name of the Dragon?
A. Audrey
B. Hamish
C. Melville
D. Rex

E. Dave
70-775 dumps Answer: B
6.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Who is the assistant puppeteer for Melville?
A. Dave
B. Gale
C. Pam
D. Tom
E. Ben
Answer: A
7.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom.
Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Which chief puppeteer works with Tom?
A. Ben
B. Jill
C. Paul
D. Sue
E. Rex
70-775 exam Answer: A
8.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
With what kind of animal does Gale work?
A. Dragon
B. Gorilla
C. Kangaroo
D. Tiger E.
Lemur
Answer: C
9.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
What table is Stephen playing at, and what is the score at that table?
A. Table 1, 2.5:1.5
B. Table 1, 3:0
C. Table 2, 3:0
D. Table 2, 2.5:1.5
E. Table 3, 2:1
70-775 dumps Answer: C
10.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1,

1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Whose score is highest?
A. Mike
B. Stephen
C. Richie
D. David
E. Lenny
Answer: D
11.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Which player has black pieces and is tied?
A. Mike
B. David
C. Richie
D. Don
E. Terry
70-775 pdf Answer: A
12.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 [note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike. At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.

The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Who is the winning player at table 4?
A. Don
B. Terry
C. David
D. Gerry
E. Richie
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 2
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998  dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 5
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
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642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
two.)
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool

642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
gateways?
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Jul 08, 2017
Q&As: 86

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-696  Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1
Which of the following International Telecommunication Union (ITU) recommendations defines
the standard for store-and-forward fax transmission over IP networks?
A. T.37
B. S.47
C. V.235
D. Q.931
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Which media protocol is commonly used for Voice over IP (VoIP) solutions?
A. IMP
B. RTMP
C. MGCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Users are reporting problems with voice delays on telephone calls on the corporate Voice over
IP (VoIP) network. Which of the following is a possible cause of this problem?
A. Large data packets are causing the voice packets to exceed their delay budget.
B. Echo cancellation has been enabled on the voice coders without configuring phase shifting.
C. The destination number is not contained in the local dial plan, forcing the gateway to do a
recursive number lookup.
D. The voice codec is unable to properly compress the voice stream into packets because the
sampling rate has been set too high.
70-696 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in packet-voice networks?
A. Applies differential routing to voice packets
B. Improves encoding performance for voice packets
C. Reduces serialization and propagation delay to voice packets
D. Increases the amount of available bandwidth of voice packets

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Using a T1 circuit to connect a North American company to its European branch, a technician
may choose an E1 carrier trunk. How many total and usable data and/or voice channels can be
configured?
A. 23 channels
B. 24 channels
C. 30 channels
D. 32 channels
70-696 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is a common characteristic of circuit-switched networks?
A. A call uses multiple circuits, releasing them during periods of silence for maximum
efficiency.
B. A call has exclusive use of the entire circuit for the duration of the call but is inherently
expensive.
C. A call can be completed without the need for any signaling because it uses PSTN circuits
instead of TCP/IP.
D. A call has a very robust set of Quality of Service (QoS) options that allows it to overcome
congestion and latency problems.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
Which Quality of Service (QoS) technology is used by applications to signal QoS requirements
to the network?
A. DSCP
B. RSVP
C. 802.1P
D. IP Precedence
70-696 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
What is the function of a gatekeeper in a converged network?

A. Provides network connectivity for legacy systems
B. Provides admission control and address translation between endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between packet-switched and circuit-switched
networks
Answer: B
QUESTION: 9
What is a function of a gateway in a converged network?
A. Provides Quality of Service (QoS) to converged networks
B. Provides admission translation and address control between IP endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between circuit-switched and packet-switched
networks
70-696 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard defines PCM voice
coding at 64 Kbps?
A. G.711
B. G.726
C. G.728
D. G.729
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
Which is a variable delay component in packet-voice networks?
A. Routing-queuing delay
B. Bit-serialization delay
C. End-point processing delay
D. Encoding and compression delay
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?

A. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
B. No more than 80 percent of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. The connection will be transparent to the technician.
D. No less than 80 percent of the T1 can be used or the connection will fail.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A company has complained that its voice quality is poor and would like to switch the codec used
by its on-premise Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway from G.723.1 to G.711. How will changing the
customer’s gateway to G.711 impact the overall bandwidth consumption?
A. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will increase latency
B. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will reduce jitter
C. Decreases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 8 Kbps (plus any overhead)
D. Increases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 64 Kbps (plus any overhead)
70-696 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
Which standards body is responsible for publishing the Requests For Comments (RFCs) that
establish TCP/IP specifications?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 15
Through troubleshooting, a technician determines that there is a degraded clocking source on a
customer’s wide area network (WAN). Which term would that troubleshooter use to describe this
situation?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Latency
D. Attenuation

70-696 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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Question: 1
This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: E
Question: 2
The transaction number assigned to the Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction is:
A. 270
B. 276
C. 834
D. 835
E. 837
Answer: D
Question: 3
Select the correct statement regarding the 834 – Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance transaction.
A. It cannot be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It cannot be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
1Z0-443 pdf 
Answer: E
Question: 4
Implementation features of the Security Management Process include which one of the following?
A. Power Backup plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Security Testing
D. Risk Analysis
E. Authorization and/or Supervision
Answer: D
Question: 5
The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: B
Question: 6
This transaction type may be used in three ways:
1. Reply to a Health Care Claim Status Request.
2. Unsolicited notification of a health care claim status.
3. Request for additional information about a health care claim.
A. 837.
B. 820.
C. 277.
D. 835.
E. 278.
Answer: C
Question: 7
The scope of the Privacy Rule includes:
A. All Employers.
B. The Washington Publishing Company
C. Disclosure of non-identifiable demographics.
D. Oral disclosure of PHI.
E. The prevention of use of de-identified information.
1Z0-443 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 8
The Privacy Rule has broad administrative requirements. Which one of the following requirements is
defined under the Privacy Rule?
A. Designate a security officer.
B. Document termination procedures.
C. Use biometrics to authenticate transactions.
D. Deploy tokens and smart cards to all medical personnel.
E. Verify that business associates treat patient information respectfully.
Answer: E
Question: 9
The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:
A. Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.
B. Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law.
C. Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPA4.
D. Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.
E. Establishing a ‘floor” for privacy protection.
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: E
Question: 10
The code set that must be used to describe or identify inpatient hospital services and surgical
procedures is:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: D
Question: 11
The Privacy Rule’s penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 12
ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of its workforce have
appropriate access to electronic protected health information. These policies and procedures satisfy
which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D
Question: 13
Performing a periodic review in response to environmental or operational changes affecting the
security of electronic protected health information is called:
A. Transmission Security
B. Evaluation
C. Audit Control
D. Integrity
E. Security Management Process
1Z0-443 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 14
Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B
Question: 15
An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
1Z0-443 vce 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jun 07, 2017
Q&As: 61
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DCICT exam domains comparison
640-916 DCICT exam Pass4itsure 200-155 DCICT exam
1.0 Cisco Data Center Fundamentals Concepts 30% 1.0 Unified Computing 25%
2.0 Data Center Unified Fabric 20% 2.0 Network Virtualization 17%
3.0 Storage Networking 18% 3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
4.0 Data Center Virtualization 14% 4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
5.0 Unified Computing 17% 5.0 Application Centric Infrastructure 17%
6.0 Data Center Network Services 1%

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 24
What must a system administrator do to reconcile BlackBerry devices with email messages that have been permanently deleted from Microsoft Outlook? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server properties.
B. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Domain properties.
C. Create a new group, add BlackBerry device users to the group, and enable the hard delete option for the group.
D. Change the IT policy for the hard delete option and apply the IT policy to the all users.
E. Use the BlackBerry Resource Kit to apply the hard delete option to all users.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
A custom application has been developed for a group of BlackBerry device users. The organizations management staff require that all users in the group have the custom application installed on their BlackBerry devices. Which method can the system administrator use to prevent the custom application from being uninstalled by users? (Choose one.)
A. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Required.
B. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Optional.
C. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Disallowed.
D. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, an allow list or white list for third-party application control is created.
E. The custom application is signed by Research In Motion Limited so that the application is part of the system software.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which type of confirmation does the Message Receipt Confirmation tool in the BlackBerry Resource Kit monitor? (Choose one.)
A. Email messages to a BlackBerry device
B. PIN messages to a BlackBerry device
C. SMS messages to a BlackBerry device
D. Unread status for email messages sent to a BlackBerry device
E. Message receipts for all email messages sent to a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which two delivery methods are available to push applications to a BlackBerry device using a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless
B. Wireline only
C. Wi-Fi
D. BlackBerry device user initiated download
E. BlackBerry MDS Push Server

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
A company does not want their BlackBerry device users to be able to send PIN messages outside of their company. Which option in the BlackBerry Manager can be used to prevent PIN message communication outside of the company? (Choose one.)
A. Enable Enterprise Service Policy
B. Update Peer-to-Peer Encryption Key
C. Import IT Policy Definitions
D. Disable the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
E. Disable message redirection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
The database administrator for the BlackBerry Configuration Database has advised the system administrator that the Microsoft SQL Server was shut down for maintenance the previous night for approximately two hours. In the application log, from which three BlackBerry Enterprise Server components would the system administrator expect to see warnings when the connection to the Microsoft SQL Server was lost? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Router
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Controller
E. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service

200-155 Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
A BlackBerry device is activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, allowing the BlackBerry device user to send and receive email messages and wirelessly update organizer (PIM) data synchronization control. The user wants to synchronize the address book on the BlackBerry device with a new contact that has recently been created in a personal .pst folder file. What must be done before the user can successfully synchronize the BlackBerry device and the new address book? (Choose one.)
A. The new address book must be assigned to the user in the BlackBerry Manager.
B. The user can synchronize the BlackBerry device to a .pst file in the BlackBerry Manager.
C. Wireless synchronization for the address book must be disabled on the BlackBerry device, and then, the BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. The user must disable the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book feature must be selected for synchronization in the BlackBerry Manager.
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book must be selected for synchronization.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What can be configured for the BlackBerry Controller Service in the Microsoft Windows Registry? (Choose one.)
A. Daily restart of the BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. The number of hung threads
C. The wait count of hung threads
D. Maximum number of BlackBerry Messaging Agents
E. BlackBerry Controller Service enabled

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
How many remote components from a BlackBerry Enterprise Server installation can be installed on the same computer? (Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
When planning for disaster recovery, what are the two minimum version requirements to support replication of the BlackBerry Configuration Database? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.0 Service Pack 4
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 2
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 4 or later

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
A system administrator is installing the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server in an environment. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server will be installed on a member server that does not have a Microsoft Exchange Server and the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account will be named BESAdmin. Which two tasks must be performed in the Microsoft Exchange Server environment prior to installing the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the server on which the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software will be installed has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
B. Verify that the Microsoft Exchange Server that the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will connect to has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
C. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Send As, and Receive As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
D. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
E. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write Properties, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
Given the following example of a BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file: Which logging level has been set for this BlackBerry Enterprise Server component?

(Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
The following line appears in the BlackBerry Dispatcher logs from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server:
[30222] (06/12 23:59:39):{0xFE4} {Smith, Donna} MTH: contentType=IPPP, sizeOTA=1228, sizeOTW=2096, TransactionId=201199664, Tag=9979374
Which action is being performed? (Choose one.)
A. An Internet request packet is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
B. An Internet request packet is being received from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. An email message is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. An email message is being received from the BlackBerry device through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
E. An attachment request packet is being sent from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A system administrator has moved the BlackBerry Configuration Database from one Microsof SQL Server to another. The Microsoft SQL database was backed up from the source server and restored on the destination server. The system administrator restores the BlackBerry Configuration Database on the destination Microsoft SQL Server and configures the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to point to the new Microsoft SQL Server using the BlackBerry Config tool. The BlackBerry Dispatcher, the BlackBerry Synchronization Service, and the BlackBerry Policy Service all fail to start. The system administrator has verified connectivity to the destination Microsoft SQL Server by clicking the Test Microsoft SQL Server Connectivity button. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account is not a member of the local administrators group on the Microsoft SQL Server.
B. The BlackBerry Configuration Database schema is not updated.
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account does not have sufficient Microsoft Exchange permissions.
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is pointed at the wrong database.
E. The BlackBerry system errors (syserrors) are not updated in the master database.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
At what level in the BlackBerry Manager are IT policies created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. User
C. Group
D. Domain
E. Device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
A system administrator wants to create a software configuration that prohibits installation of all third-party applications with the exception of a short list of approved applications. Which two options require the shortest steps to achieve the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
B. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
C. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
D. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
E. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.

Correct Answer: AC

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Exam Code: 600-509
Exam Name: Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
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Exam Number Pass4itsure 600-509 NPIBA
Associated Certifications Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist
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QUESTION 49
You are administering aWebLogicdomain that consists of an Administration server and a cluster that consists of two Managed Servers, namedserverAandserverB, respectively. These servers are distributed between two machines,machineAandmachineB. The Administration server andserverAare onmachineA andserverBis onmachineB. Local and remote clients are complaining about sluggish performance. Which of the following could help improve network performance in this cluster?
A. Use SSL on both Managed Servers.
B. Crate a separate network channel for IP Multicast.
C. Allocate more RAM to each server.
D. Add another NIC card for each managed server.
E. B and D

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 50
A JMS message is sent to a consumer that is offline. The consumer comes back online. Under which circumstances does the consumer receive the message?
A. JMS message delivery guarantees that the consumer always receives the message.
B. The consumer receives the message if the destination or session is persistent.
C. The consumer receives the message if the message has not timed out.
D. The consumer does not receive the message.
E. If both B and C are true

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
A Web application is deployed from a WAR file namedAppa.war. How can you set the application context toMyApp?
A. Specify that the Web application is the default Web application
B. Deploy in an Enterprise Application, and set the context root toMyApp
C. Set the application external DNS name in the Administration Console.
D. Undeploythe application, rename the fileMyApp.war, and redeploy.
E. B or D
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following is NOT a security feature ofNodeManger?
A. Limiting connections to specific hosts
B. Password expiration
C. Transport security with SSL
D. Digital Certificates for authentication
E. Reverse DNS for host verification

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
To useWebLogic.Adminin “batch” mode, which command-line switch is required?
A. BatchScript
B. BATCHMODEBatchFile
C. Batch
D. BATCHUPDATEBatchFile
E. BATCHUPDATEBatchScript

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
How can you monitor garbage collection in the JVM of aWebLogicserver instance?
A. When starting the JVM, use the -verbose:gcswitch.
B. Whentartingthe JVM, use theprofswitch.
C. Examine the domain logs.
D. UseWebLogic.Adminwiththe CHECKGC command
E. A and B

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
A clusterisdefinedthat consists of sixWebLogicservers running an enterprise application: a Web application and a JAR file with someEJBs. In-memory session replication is enabled for the Web application and theEJBs. All theEJBsareclusterable(home and remote stubs). The round-robin algorithm is used to balance the load across the servers. If the Web application acquires a remote interface to a Stateless Session Bean and calls one of its methods three times, which of the following is true?
A. Each method call is invoked on an EJB instance that is on the same server as the Web application
B. Each method call is invoked on the same EJB instance, on the same server as the Web application.
C. The method calls are distributed, round-robin styles, among the servers.
D. The behavior depends on theidempotenceof theEJB’smethod.
E. The behavior depends on whether JNDI replication is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
When configuringWebLogicsecurity realms, and administrator can:
A. Configure multiple active realms and perform round-robin load balancing among them.
B. Configure multiple active realms and perform failover to a secondary realm if the first realm fails.
C. Configure only two realms and authenticate users from either realm.
D. Configure multiple realms and select one realm to be active.
E. Configure only one realm.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which of the following is a best practice for tuningWebLogic?
A. In each Execute Queue, assign no more than 15 threads per server.
B. Do not allocate more heap memory than physical memory
C. Create at least as many JDBC connections as threads.
D. Utilize as much virtual memory as possible.
E. Set the minimum heap size to 50% of the maximum heap size

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Consider a JDBC multi-pool with three connection pools (Pool A, Pool B and Pool C). The distribution algorithm is set to High Availability. You attempt to acquire a connection to Pool A. Under what circumstances do you get a connection to Pool B or Pool C?
A. When the connection to Pool A fails a connection test
B. When all the connections in Pool A are in use
C. When Pool B or Pool C is next in the round-robin algorithm
D. You never get a connection from Pool B or Pool C
E. A and B

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
A server with a Message-driven Bean is listening to a JMS queue. It appears that messages are waiting in the queue too long. How can you decrease the time that messages spend in the queue?
A. Increase the Message-driven Bean pool size.
B. Increase the JMS Queue priority.
C. Assign the Message-driven Bean to a prioritized Execute Queue.
D. A and C
E. A and B

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
A JMS producer is overwhelming its destination. How can you help fix this problem?
A. Use a durable subscriber.
B. Enable JMS Flow Control.
C. Configure a JMS store.
D. Use a Message-driven Bean.
E. Enable Message Filtering.

Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Updated] Most Hottest CCNA Data Center DCICN 200-150 Dumps [Vimeo] Is Your Best Choice

Pass4itsure combines the two official study guides for the two CCNA Data Center exams. This value-priced bundle includes the following titles: CCNA Data Center DCICN Official Cert Guide and CCNA Data Center DCICT Official Cert Guide. Pass4itsure provide a comprehensive self-study tool for preparing for the Pass4itsure 200-150 dumps. Complete coverage of all exam topics as posted on the exam topic blueprint ensures readers will arrive at a thorough understanding of what they need to master to succeed on the exam.

Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 60
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-150.html

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  • The companion web page contains a set of customizable 200-150 dumps practice tests.

 

200-150

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing
department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business
department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated
accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining
Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 8
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
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[OFFER] Cisco Exam Rapid Preparation for Cisco CCENT Exams & Training

CCENT

The CCENT certification validates the skills required for entry-level network support positions, the starting point for many successful careers in networking. CCENT certified professionals have the knowledge and skill to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small enterprise branch network, including basic network security.

CCENT qualified individuals have the knowledge and skill to install, manage, maintain and troubleshoot a small enterprise branch network, including network security. The Lead4pass CCENT curriculum covers networking fundamentals, WAN technologies, basic security, routing and switching fundamentals, and configuring simple networks. The applicable training is Cisco ICND1 (“Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 1”) and the exam is (“100-105” ICND1). The certification is valid for 3 years, and professionals may retake the exam to re-certify.

Exam Details in Lead4pass.comCCENT

The CCENT is made up of just one exam, detailed below.
CCENT/ICND1

  • Time allotted for exam: 1.5 hours (90 minutes)
  • Number of questions: 45-55 questions per exam
  • Passing score: Cisco does not publish the passing score for its exams
  • Question types: Multiple choice/single answer; Multiple choice/multiple answer; Drag and drop; Fill-in-the-blank; Simulation; Testlet; Simlet
  • Exam registration: Pearson VUE
  • Exam cost: $150 (USD)*
  • Learn more about exam fees from Pearson VUE

Exam topics: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (100-105) (free resource)
All CCENT Certification Exams list: 640-823 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

CCENT

640-823 Exam Examples:

CCENT

QUESTION 11
What section of the Blackberry Solution Management allows control of how users gain access to areas such as Wi-Fi in the corporate environment?
A. Profiles
B. Policy
C. Roles
D. Enterprise Management Web Service

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Under which Profile can you configure which messaging server or email account a BlackBerry User will connect?
A. Email
B. SCEP
C. Proxy
D. Wi-Fi

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
In which of the following scenarios would you check the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) configuration before user configuration?
A. All users cannot enterprise activate their devices.
B. One user cannot enterprise activate their device.
C. One user is having network connectivity issues on their device.
D. Two users are not receiving email.

Correct Answer: A

Recertification

Cisco’s Entry-level certifications, including CCENT, are valid for three years from the date of certification. Learners can recertify by passing the current ICND1 exam or any Associate-level exam. Or, learners can recertify by passing any Cisco 642-XXX or 300-XXX exam, any CCIE written exam, CCDE written or practical exam, or the CCAr interview and the CCAr board review.

Why become Lead4pass CCENT certified in 2017?

  • Do you have an interest in computer networking?
  • Do you want to work in the networking field?
  • Do you want to get CCNA certified?

Where You Can Pass the CCENT Exam

You can pass the CCENT certification in the nearest lead4pass.com

  • Visit this website
  • Click “Schedule a Test”
  • Choose “Career Certifications and Specialization Exams”
  • Provide your login and password (you can register here for free)
  • Check the 640-822 exam on the list, select language and go next
  • Find the nearest examination center
  • Select a date and an available appointment
  • Accept terms and conditions
  • Now you can use a voucher or a promotion code
  • Provide your credit-card information
  • Finish the process and wait for a confirmation from Pearson VUE

Launch your IT career with Cisco’s CCENT certification! Lead4pass’s training course is perfect for entry-level professionals seeking to develop a career within networking field. In this self-paced online course, you’ll verify your ability to install, manage and troubleshoot basic branch networks.

NOTE: lead4pass.com will offer complete Cisco exam information:

Cisco Cisco
CCDP CCNP Wireless
CCIE CCNA Security
CCNP CCNA Voice
CCDA CCNA Wireless
CCENT  CCNP Security
CCNA  website:lead4pass.com

Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician (CCENT) validates the ability to install, operate and troubleshoot a small enterprise branch network, including basic network security. With a lead4pass CCENT, network professional demonstrates the skills required for entry-level network support positions – the starting point for many successful careers in networking.

The curriculum covers networking fundamentals, WAN technologies, basic security and wireless concepts, routing and switching fundamentals, and configuring simple networks.lead4pass CCENT is the first step toward achieving CCNA, which covers medium size enterprise branch networks with more complex connections.

Additionally, you’ll learn about boost processes, the configuration process of the Cisco IOS and basic switch commands. After successful completion of lead4pass CCENT, you’ll be able to demonstrate your ability to manage a  small, enterprise branch network.

ccent

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New Cisco 300-070 Vce Avaliable Download Actual Questions | The Cisco Learning Network

300-070 vce

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Apr 21, 2017
Q&As: 189
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html

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  • Covers CUCM architecture, deployment models, and tradeoffs
  • Walks through bringing CUCM online, deploying endpoints, and setting up users
  • Explains how to create a solid IP Phone foundation for advanced services
  • Covers dial plan elements, design, and implementation
  • Reviews key call routing elements
  • Explains digit manipulation
  • Shows how to control user access
  • Discusses audio/video resources and videoconferencing
  • Covers QoS tools and preferential call handling
  • Explains external connections via Cisco IOS Voice Gateways and CUBE
  • Streamlines review with clear summaries, assessment questions, and objectives

300-070

♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-070 Vce Exam Q&As♥♥

QUESTION 11
Which service book is required by the BlackBerry MVS Client to function properly? (Choose one.)
A. Desktop [VoIP]
B. Desktop [MVSSIP]
C. Desktop [BBMVS]
D. Desktop [BBSIP]
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What allows a BlackBerry device to be added as a valid BlackBerry device to a BlackBerry MVS user DN in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment? (Choose one.)
A. Enabling KPML
B. Assigning the MVS user a 10 digit DID/DDI
C. Installing the COP file and rebooting the PBX
D. Configuring CSS for BlackBerry device-initiated calling
E. Setting the call direction for PBX-initiated calls in a MVS user class of service

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 14
What allows a BlackBerry device to differentiate between an inbound call to the mobile number and an inbound call to the work number? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Client is programmed to recognize calls from a specific DID that the PBX uses to indicate an enterprise call
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server notifies the BlackBerry device user with an email message
C. An indicator isprepended to the ANI that is sent by the PBX to the BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager sends a SIP message to the BlackBerry MVS client to indicate that a work call has been initiated
E. Calls to the mobile number use a different ring sequence

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 15
For BlackBerry devices that operate on CDMA networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers the optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 16
Which BlackBerry MVS Session Manager configuration setting is required in order for BlackBerry device-initiated calling to work? (Choose one.)  300-070 vce
A. Configure a unique SIP IP address
B. Configure BlackBerry MVS for High Availability
C. Add a unique DID/DDI number to each BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Add a unique BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector Caller Identification Number
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
Which three processes make use of the SIP Trunk? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Client registration
B. Mobile Call initiation using voice over mobile
C. Mid-call features such as transfer and hold
D. BlackBerry device-initiated call authentication
E. Wi-Fi profile authentication

Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you may click Next to proceed to the next item.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 19
How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 20
On a planning call with a customer, the Windows account requirements for the BlackBerry MVS installation are discussed. The customer says that the BlackBerry MVS account sounds similar to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server ESadmin account. The customer asks if this account can be used for BlackBerry MVS. What is the appropriate response to this query? (Choose one.)
A. This account can be used since it meets the requirements of the Windows account for BlackBerry MVS.
B. This account cannot be used at the risk of causing issues with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. The permissions appear similar but are not. TheBESadmin account cannot be used.
D. The BESadmin account must be used since the BlackBerry MVS installation sets up the connection to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
A BlackBerry MVS user calls a contact from the BlackBerry device contact list and it fails. The BlackBerry MVS user finds that calls only fail if the contact numbers are prefixed with a plus (+) sign. What is a likely cause of this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Phone number translation is not configured correctly
B. The Call Control option is not set to allow calls to numbers prefixed with the plus sign (+)
C. The BlackBerry device is not registered
D. Contacts prefixed with the plus sign (+) are not supported

Correct Answer: A

300-070 vce

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Related More Official Informations:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ciptv1.html

 

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