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300-070 vce

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Apr 21, 2017
Q&As: 189
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html

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  • Covers CUCM architecture, deployment models, and tradeoffs
  • Walks through bringing CUCM online, deploying endpoints, and setting up users
  • Explains how to create a solid IP Phone foundation for advanced services
  • Covers dial plan elements, design, and implementation
  • Reviews key call routing elements
  • Explains digit manipulation
  • Shows how to control user access
  • Discusses audio/video resources and videoconferencing
  • Covers QoS tools and preferential call handling
  • Explains external connections via Cisco IOS Voice Gateways and CUBE
  • Streamlines review with clear summaries, assessment questions, and objectives

300-070

♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-070 Vce Exam Q&As♥♥

QUESTION 11
Which service book is required by the BlackBerry MVS Client to function properly? (Choose one.)
A. Desktop [VoIP]
B. Desktop [MVSSIP]
C. Desktop [BBMVS]
D. Desktop [BBSIP]
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What allows a BlackBerry device to be added as a valid BlackBerry device to a BlackBerry MVS user DN in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment? (Choose one.)
A. Enabling KPML
B. Assigning the MVS user a 10 digit DID/DDI
C. Installing the COP file and rebooting the PBX
D. Configuring CSS for BlackBerry device-initiated calling
E. Setting the call direction for PBX-initiated calls in a MVS user class of service

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 14
What allows a BlackBerry device to differentiate between an inbound call to the mobile number and an inbound call to the work number? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Client is programmed to recognize calls from a specific DID that the PBX uses to indicate an enterprise call
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server notifies the BlackBerry device user with an email message
C. An indicator isprepended to the ANI that is sent by the PBX to the BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager sends a SIP message to the BlackBerry MVS client to indicate that a work call has been initiated
E. Calls to the mobile number use a different ring sequence

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 15
For BlackBerry devices that operate on CDMA networks, which Voice over Mobile call direction offers the optimal performance and reliability? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 16
Which BlackBerry MVS Session Manager configuration setting is required in order for BlackBerry device-initiated calling to work? (Choose one.)  300-070 vce
A. Configure a unique SIP IP address
B. Configure BlackBerry MVS for High Availability
C. Add a unique DID/DDI number to each BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Add a unique BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector Caller Identification Number
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
Which three processes make use of the SIP Trunk? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Client registration
B. Mobile Call initiation using voice over mobile
C. Mid-call features such as transfer and hold
D. BlackBerry device-initiated call authentication
E. Wi-Fi profile authentication

Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you may click Next to proceed to the next item.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 19
How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 20
On a planning call with a customer, the Windows account requirements for the BlackBerry MVS installation are discussed. The customer says that the BlackBerry MVS account sounds similar to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server ESadmin account. The customer asks if this account can be used for BlackBerry MVS. What is the appropriate response to this query? (Choose one.)
A. This account can be used since it meets the requirements of the Windows account for BlackBerry MVS.
B. This account cannot be used at the risk of causing issues with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. The permissions appear similar but are not. TheBESadmin account cannot be used.
D. The BESadmin account must be used since the BlackBerry MVS installation sets up the connection to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
A BlackBerry MVS user calls a contact from the BlackBerry device contact list and it fails. The BlackBerry MVS user finds that calls only fail if the contact numbers are prefixed with a plus (+) sign. What is a likely cause of this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Phone number translation is not configured correctly
B. The Call Control option is not set to allow calls to numbers prefixed with the plus sign (+)
C. The BlackBerry device is not registered
D. Contacts prefixed with the plus sign (+) are not supported

Correct Answer: A

300-070 vce

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Cisco 352-001 PDF

screen568x568

 The individual who wants to get the guidance and assistance for passing the 352-001 pdf with high score can go for signing up the websites which offer the 352-001 exam because it is the only way to get successful in the Cisco CCDE exams. The candidates who are going to appear in the exam can download 352-001 pdf  from the pass4itsure because it helps them in getting ready for the tough Cisco 352-001 pdf.
We provide two types of learning material.
  • Solved questions and answers in PDF format
  • Practice test software

QUESTION 2
NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Correct Answer: CQUESTION 3
The P4S company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Correct Answer: BQUESTION 4
What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Correct Answer: DQUESTION 5
What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Correct Answer: CQUESTION 6
Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Correct Answer: AQUESTION 7
According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at P4S-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take P4S-R2.
B. It will not take any path. P4S-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take P4S-R3.
D. It will load share between P4S-R2 and P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: AQUESTION 8
You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Correct Answer: BDQUESTION 9
The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Correct Answer: CQUESTION 10
In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router P4S-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router P4S-RC only has one path in its topology table?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?

B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack?
A. source of the attack
B. type of attack
C. target of the attack
D. priority of the attack traffic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. reverse the direction of an attack
B. redirect an attack away from its target
C. monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. delay an attack from reaching its target

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 15
In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted packets). What is the maximum number of queries P4S-R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link between P4S-R1 and P4S-R2 fails?

A. four queries, one each from P4S-R2, P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6
B. no queries, because there aren’t any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24
C. seven queries, one from P4S-R2 and two each from P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6
D. one query, since the remote routers P4S-R4, P4S-R5, and P4S-R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
All routers in this network are running EIGRP according to the exhibit.
Which step is the most important to make sure that this network core will converge quickly should a link
failure occur?

A. make certain the maximum number of paths on both of the routers is two
B. make certain EIGRP is not running across non-transit links
C. add another link between the two routers with no servers and set the metric on this new link equal to the other four links
D. make certain EIGRP is running across all links
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.)
A. rate limit voice traffic
B. onfigure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs
D. classify and mark traffic close to the source
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.)
A. to increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree
B. to aggregate reachability information
C. to provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
D. to segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
The P4S company is planning to deploy a new multicast application in its network to do real-time trading.
This application will be performed simultaneously by thousands of traders located throughout the network,
each a source of several IP multicast streams, to
carry the “sell” and “buy” trading bids. All routers in its network have full hardware support for all PIM
multicast modes.
Which mode can be used to minimize the impact of the new application on the routers in the P4S network?

A. PIM Source Specific Multicast
B. PIM Any-Source Multicast
C. PIM Dense Mode
D. PIM Bidirectional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You work as a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully, router P4S-RA is the hub router in a Frame Relay hub-and-spoke deployment. Configure router P4S-RA’s serial interface as a point-to-multipoint interface, and it is servicing three spoke routers. The link between Router P4S-RC and the frame provider experiences a service disruption, which causes the interface on Router P4S-RC to go down. How does Router P4S-RA learn of this failure in the network and how does it react?

A. If OAM is configured between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC, router P4S-RA will be notified of the failure after three missed OAM packets. After the third OAM packet is missed, the frame PVC becomes inactive, and this event terminates the routing process neighbor relationship established between Router P4S-RA and Router P4S-RC.
B. Router P4S-RA does not detect the failure in the network and its interface continues to remain in an operational state. If routing is configured over this link, Router P4S-RA must wait for the neighbor relationship to time-out before updating its routing table to account for the lost router and its networks.
C. Router P4S-RA must wait for a full LMI status update from the provider frame switch before it is notified
about the PVC status.
Once the full LMI status message is received, the routing process neighbor relationship between
Router P4S-RA and Router
P4S-RC is immediately terminated.

D. Router P4S-RA immediately detects the failure via LMI notification and its interface is placed in a non-operational state. If routing is configured over this link, the neighbor relationship is terminated and the routing table is updated. The change is then propagated as appropriate to the rest of the network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Silver
B. WMM must be enabled
C. QoS must be set to Gold
D. QoS must be set to Platinum
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
In this network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at router P4S-RC, only one path can be seen towards 10.1.1.0/24. Which description is correct?

A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to router P4S-RC due to a split horizon
B. EIGRP should advertise all available paths to 10.1.1.0/24 in the local topology table to all neighbors so this condition is a bug
C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to a split horizon
D. Router P4S-RC should have two paths to 10.1.1.0/24, while routers P4S-RB and P4S-RD should each have only one path, indicating a route filter has been applied on Router P4S-RC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which three types of LSA could each trigger a partial SPF? (Choose three.)
A. type 2 LSA (Network Link Advertisements)
B. type 3 LSA (ABR Summary Link Advertisements)
C. type 4 LSA (ASBR Summary Link Advertisements)
D. type 5 LSA (Autonomous System External Link Advertisements)
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
You are a network technician for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. P4S-R1 is redistributing 10.1.5.0/24 into Area 1 in this network. Which LSA containing 10.1.5.0/24 will P4S-R6 have in its database?

A. P4S-R6 will have a border router (type 4) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24.
B. P4S-R6 will have an NSSA external (type 7) LSA in its local database for 10.1.5.0/24.
C. P4S-R6 will have an external (type 5) LSA for 10.1.5.0/24 in its local database.
D. P4S-R6 will not have any LSAs containing 10.1.5.0/24.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are a network technician for the P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network
are equal cost, and P4S-R1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route
are displayed on the diagram.
Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?

A. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the P4S-R4- P4S-R3 link.
B. P4S-R1 will not use P4S-R4 and P4S-R3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path.
C. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R1.
D. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router P4S-R3.

Correct Answer: A

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100% Pass Rate 70-412 Exam New Microsoft Guide Configuring Advanced Microsoft Windows Server 2012 Services

Are you studying for the Microsoft 70-412 exam?  I presented the 70-412 Exam Prep session at Pass4itsure and the session is now available online.  If you are planning to take the exam, it would be worth the 75 minutes to check it out.  This session also covers part of the 070-412 exam.

Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Apr 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

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70-412 exam

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-412 Exam Q&As   

QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.

Correct Answer: A

352-001 pdf  QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one minute.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address coded in the network interface card?
A. MAC
B. TCP
C. IP
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
A. 1977
B. 1984

C. 1967
D. 1940

Correct Answer: A

70-412 exam

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Cisco New CCNA 200-125 PDF Routing and Switching | Free Cisco Exam Video Training Online 2017

200-125 CCNA

At Lead4pass, we provide thoroughly reviewed Cisco CCNA 200-125 training resources which are the best for clearing 200-125 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry.

200-125 pdf

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Associated Certifications:CCNA Routing and Switching
Duration:90 minutes (50-60 questions)
Available Languages:English, Japanese
Exam Registration:Pearson VUE
Exam Policies:Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial:Review type of exam questions
Total Questions: 572 Q&As
Last Updated: Feb 28, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html

The practice tests consists of 300+ most relevant questions with flash card explanation. The exam topics for CCENT are given below:

  1. Network Fundamentals 20% (weightage)
  2. LAN Switching Fundamentals 26%
  3. Routing Fundamentals 25%
  4. Infrastructure Services 15%
  5. Infrastructure Maintenance 14%

The CCNA exam and training course have been revised from v2.0 to v3.0. Candidates can choose to take either the 200-120 CCNA v2.0 exam or 200-125 CCNA v3.0 exam.

Practice Cisco 200-125 Route Training Program Online Here(#1-5)

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 pdf
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address
192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of
192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the
TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from
source to destination.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 pdf
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the
frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the
MAC header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a
packet is destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet’s network
layer header (such as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain
source and destination network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s
MAC address in the MAC header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the
following steps:
1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header. The router
checks the packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and
examines the network-layer header to determine what to do with the packet.
2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too
far to be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is
the maximum number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop
count of 15, the router discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value.
Unlike the IPX hop count, which increments as the packet is forwarded through each
router, the IP TTL value decrements as the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If
an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router discards the packet. A router cannot
decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists
available networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number),
and the distance to those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet,
the router must build a new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows
95/98 workstation, type ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC
header for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the final
destination’s MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
200-125 pdf
Answer:
200-125 pdf

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and
without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a
single physical interface.
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both
Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment
will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in
that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the
address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on
a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network
device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with
other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each
segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of
collision domains.

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 300-075 pdf

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Exam Code: 300-075 (2016 Version)
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony and Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2)
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QUESTION 1
The command-line utility asr can scan ________.
A. info.plist files on .dmg files
B. uncompressed .cdr.img files
C. read/write and read-only .dmg files
D. read-only or compressed .dmg files

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have 30 student computers with Apple Remote Desktop enabled. Which of these actions can you perform on all the computers at the same time using Apple Remote Desktop Admin?
A. Control the mouse pointers.
B. Perform a live software restore.
C. Download a file to the admin computer.
D. Upload and run a custom installation package.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Performing an Apple Software Restore image scan on a disk image creates a new checksum for the image so that ________.
A. an image can be used by ASR as a source
B. ASR can verify that the .rc file has been updated for restore
C. file copy restores will occur at the speed of block copy restores
D. block copy restores will occur at five times the speed of file copy restores

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What convention does Apple recommend for generating a unique package identifier?
A. DNS convention or your company’s domain with the package name at the beginning (Example: mypackage.apple.com)
B. mixed java convention or your company’s domain name with the package name at the end (Example: apple.com.mypackage)
C. mixed DNS convention or your company’s domain name in reverse with the package name at the beginning (Example: mypackage.com.apple)
D. java package name convention or your company’s domain name in reverse with the package name at the end (Example: com.apple.mypackage)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You need to install Mac OS X v10.4 simultaneously on multiple computers from an ASR image using a strictly network-based solution. How do you accomplish this?
A. Start up the computers from a diskless NetBoot image, then use ASR multicast to restore the volumes.
B. Start up the computers from a non-diskless NetBoot image, then use ASR multicast to restore the volumes.
C. Start up the computers from the ASR image using NetBoot services, then select Restore Target Volume when prompted.
D. Start up the computers from the target volumes, then use the command-line utility asr to restore the target volumes from the ASR multicast image.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You plan to restore the volumes on more than 200 computers that run Mac OS X v10.4 and bind to Active Directory for authentication. Rather than use the single computer name assigned by Active Directory on every computer, you want to give each computer a unique computer name. Before creating the image, you first unbind your master image computer (model) while keeping the search paths configured. What is your next step?
A. Create a restore image for each of the computers you will be restoring.
B. Include a sharingnames.txt file in the disk image for ASR to use when creating unique computer names.
C. Include dsconfigad as a startup item for the image to create a new and unique binding for the computer.
D. Update the Active Directory schema to create a new and unique computer for each restored volume based on the ASR RID (restore ID).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You have configured Mac OS X Server v10.4 to provide Software Update services to systems on your network. Using this service allows you to ________.
A. deliver Mac OS X restore images over a network using multicast
B. deploy custom installation packages to Mac OS X systems on a regular basis
C. gather system software information from remote Mac OS X systems before updating
D. stage and validate updates to Mac OS X before providing them to users on the network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
In which location does Mac OS X Server store packages on a Network Install disk image?
A. /Library/NetBoot/Packages
B. /Library/Installation/Packages
C. /System/Installation/Packages
D. /System/Library/Installation/CDIS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What tool do you use in Mac OS X v10.4 to restore a target volume from an multicasted ASR source image?
A. Disk Utility
B. System Image Utility
C. the command line utility asr
D. Restore Target Volume in NetBoot services

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In Server Admin, you can choose to deliver a NetBoot image with the ciskless option selected. This feature is used to ________.
A. create a virtual pool of NetBoot images to balance the client load
B. allow restoration of a target volume while started up from the NetBoot volume
C. ensure that items saved to ~/Documents are located on a network home folder
D. ensure better performance of the client computer by caching the NetBoot image

Correct Answer: B

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100-105 dumps
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link
Answer: E

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer: A,B,E  70-417 exam

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To prepare via the Tutor Approach, take courses [ (WM665G or ZM665G) + (WM675G or ZM675G) ], and refer to the sources with an * in front of them. Note that per this formula, you are only required to take 2 courses.
To prepare via the Self-Study Approach, omit the courses, and refer to all other sources with and without the * in front.
C9530-404 Dumps Notes:
The recommended educational resources listed are not intended to be a substitute for, but should complement, relevant practical experience.
Extensive product knowledge is required to pass the test.
Every effort has been made to make the recommended educational resources as complete and as accurate as possible, but no warranty of fitness is implied. The resources provided are on an as is basis.  352-001 pdf shall have neither liability nor responsibility to any person or entity with respect to any loss or damages arising from course or publication content.
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QUESTION 1
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
B. bandwidth reservation
C. optimized power-save mode periods
D. increased call capacity
E. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
Which two options allow a Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7925G to conserve its battery? (Choose two.)
A. PS-Poll
B. S-APSD
C. U-APSD
D. 802.11h
E. 802.11r

Correct Answer: AC 352-001 pdf
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the benefit of WMM U-APSD over legacy 802.11 power-save mode?
A. Client can burst data without standard interframe spacing.
B. Client can burst data without ACKs.
C. Client no longer sends null frame to notify of sleep mode.
D. Client sleep mode is scheduled by AP to reduce jitter.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two items enable WMM to expedite frames from respective traffic categories? (Choose two.)
Consistent CWmin and CWmax values Dynamic CWmin and CWmax values
A. AIFS
B. SIFS
C. PIFS
D. DIFS
E. U-APSD
F. PS-Poll
Correct Answer: BC

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/iuwvn.html

 

642-742 pdf
QUESTION 5
When a VoWLAN client is in the range of two cells, which two statements describe how the client makes a decision about which cell is the best to associate with? (Choose two.)
A. The client will associate with the cell with the highest RSSI value.
B. The client will associate with the cell with the lowest SNR value.
C. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest 802.11e value.
D. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest TSPEC value.
E. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the lowest mandatory date rate.
F. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest data rate.
G. The client will associate with the first cell that advertises U-APSD.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
The AP has been properly configured for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm. What would be the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -55 dBm
B. -60 dBm
C. -62 dBm
D. -67 dBm
E. -70 dBm
F. -73 dBm

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?
A. 11 Mb/s
B. 12 Mb/s
C. 18 Mb/s
D. 36 Mb/s
E. 54 Mb/s

Correct Answer: B   http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html
QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true about load-based Call Admission Control? (Choose three.)
A. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on the number of active clients associated to the AP
B. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on channel bandwidth capacity
C. uses the 802.11i specifications
D. uses ADDTS action frames
E. requires a WMM-enabled client

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11g cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11a cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20

E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A VoWLAN site survey was performed and equipment installed based on recommended design guidelines. Which two statements describe reasons to perform a post-deployment survey? (Choose two.)
A. There is insufficient information about the number of people in the area when the survey is performed.
B. There is insufficient information by AirMagnet VoFi Analyzer.
C. There are elevator shafts.
D. There are roaming pathways.
E. There are changes in temperature in the indoor environment.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which attribute does the VoWLAN Readiness Tool of WCS v7.0 use to predict acceptable conditions?
A. SNR
B. RSSI
C. PER
D. WMM
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 14
You have recently added Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G to your branch office. The new wireless and wired IP phones are experiencing poor call quality when receiving calls across the IP WAN from the remote HQ. What is the most likely issue?
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth for the IP WAN link is not properly configured and is allowing more calls than the link can accommodate.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth settings have not been increased to support the new wireless IP phones.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth is set too low, resulting in poor call quality.
D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager gatekeeper-controlled CAC has been set too low, resulting in poor call quality.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G are associated with the VoWLAN at your branch office. When they attempt to place a call, the call fails to go through and you receive a fast busy tone. What is the issue?
A. The wireless phones failed to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster invoked CAC to preserve IP WAN voice bandwidth.
C. The local gateway rejected the call because of high IP WAN utilization.
D. Automatic alternate routing has been invoked.

Correct Answer: B

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NO.1  An administrator has recently installed a new ESXi 6.x Host, and during the configuration
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To check whether the issue occurred sometime during the configuration, the administrator would like
to reset the system.
How can this be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?
A. Select the Reset System Configuration option from the vSphere Client when connected directly to
the host.
B. Use a host profile to reset the configuration to a default state.
C. From the Direct Console User Interface, select Reset System Configuration.
D. Run the ESXi installer again and reinstall the host.
Answer: C

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A. Install VMware Tools into the new virtual machines.
B. Copy the Microsoft Sysprep tools onto the vCenter Server system.
C. Customize the guest operating system.
D. Ensure the e1000 vmnic is selected for each new virtual machine.
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

 

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

 

NO.3 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

 

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D

 

NO.5 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

 

 

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Exam 70-480: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

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