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QUESTION 1 What is the recommended QoS marking for desktop video endpoints? A. AF31 B. AF41 C. DSCP 26 D. DSCP 46 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which protocol can Cisco Unified Communications Manager not use to monitor the status of the gateway? A. H.323 B. SIP C. MGCP D. SCCP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the output displayed on the IP phone when the incoming calling number is 00492288224002 and has a TON =unknown? A. +49122288224002 B. +492288224002 C. 00492288224002 D. +49128822400 E. 491288224002 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping? A. switch B. router C. firewall D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. bridge Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking? A. codec configuration B. dial peers C. SIP trunks D. CTI integration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses? A. H.323 B. E.164 C. DNS D. URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What is the process of digit matching? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.) A. direct mode B. H.225-routed mode C. H.265-routed mode D. H.245-routed mode E. full proxy mode F. partial proxy mode Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 9 Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.) A. Device type B. Class of service C. Geographic proximity D. Extension mobility CSS E. User hold MOH source F. auto-registration CSS Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 10 Which two options can belong to specific partitions? (Choose two.) A. voice-mail servers B. directory numbers C. gateways D. IP phones E. route patterns Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco products allow the use of a dial plan with E.164, H.323, SIP, and DNS? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Expressway B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. Cisco Unified Border Element D. Cisco IM and Presence E. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12 If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124? A. 5XXX B. 51XX C. 513X D. 5134 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What happens when you try to configure the fourth member of a Cisco Unified CallManager group? A. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error and replace the last entered member of the Cisco Unified CallManager group with the new entry. B. Cisco Unified CallManager Administration will display an error message when you attempt to add the fourth member. C. The fourth member will be added to the sequential list. D. The new member will replace the first member on the list. Correct Answer: B
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Free Cisco 300- 465 exam practice questions( updates 2019/11)
QUESTION 1 Which three infrastructure security elements are important when designing a secure mufti tenant environment? (Choose three.) A. internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels B. NGPS C. high availability and redundancy D. storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) E. physical firewalls F. VSG Correct Answer: ACD Internal and external separation using 802.1q and virtual port channels (vPCs) Storage separation, redundancy, and security (data-at-rest encryption) High availability (HA) and redundancy Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/Cloud_Security/1-0/DG/ICSecurity/ICSecurity2.pdf
QUESTION 3 In which situation should a cloud engineer deploy application stack as a service for developers in a self-service model? A. A security officer wants to deploy a virtual firewall in front of all dynamically created applications B. A development manager wants to spin up new code in the public cloud and migrate it in-house before moving it into production C. Developers are bypassing the recently IaaS self-service portal in favor of public cloud PaaS offerings D. A helpdesk manager requests self-service, in order to offload helpdesk calls about LoB application installation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A cloud administrator is considering deep packet inspection to secure the cloud infrastructure. Which three statements about DPI are true? (Choose three.) A. The use of DPI makes it possible to find, identify, classify, reroute, or block packets with specific data or code payloads. B. DPI does not require updates and revisions to remain optimally effective. C. DPI is an advanced method of packet filtering that functions at the application layer of the OSI. D. DPI examines only packet headers. E. DPI is essential in protecting the cloud against malicious threats such as web exploits, zeroday attacks, data exfiltration, and malware-based botnets. F. DPI can increase computer speed because it decreases the burden on the processor. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to interconnect two geographically separated private clouds. A V-Block design is running in both locations. The customer wants to provide IP connectivity between remote data center sites via the MPLS core of their ISP. The connection must meet these requirements: Maintain loop prevention Ensure that storage and data center traffic are load-balanced between both locations Ensure that disaster recovery is easily managed and implemented at Layer 2 and Layer 3 throughput. Which DCI technology satisfies these requirements? A. PVC B. IPsec VPN C. SSL VPN D. L2VPN E. OTV Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A cloud administrator is designing role-based access control security policies for a private Cloud. Which two statements are the goals of these policies? (Choose two.) A. to ensure that no known security vulnerabilities are present B. to protect data center integrity in case of a link failure in any layer C. to provide content security services D. to reduce security risks when accessing the data center E. to control access so that administrators have access only to systems for which they have administrative responsibilities Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Which large-scale Layer 2 connectivity protocol is best for VLAN address space that is limited in large networks? A. VXLAN B. OTV C. LISP D. VPN E. NvGRE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A cloud administrator is considering the appropriate solution to automate a hybrid cloud deployment. The solution requires a single pane of glass infrastructure management, monitoring, health dashboard, orchestration and a selfservice portal. Which solution is most appropriate for this environment? A. PSC B. Cisco UCS Director C. Cisco IAC D. Cisco Enablement Platform Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which three statements about thick provisioning are true? (Choose three.) A. Unused space is available for use by other virtual machines. B. Disk has all space allocated at creation time. C. Before writing to a new block, a zero must be written. D. The entire disk space is reserved and is unavailable for use by other virtual machines. E. The size of the VMDK, at any point in time, is as much as the amount of data written out from the VM. F. Operates by allocating disk storage space in a flexible manner among multiple users, based on the minimum space required by each user at any given time. Correct Answer: BCD Explanation: A thick disk has all space allocated at creation time. This space may contain stale data on the physical media. Before writing to a new block a zero has to be written, increasing the IOPS on new blocks compare to Eager disks. The entire disk space is reserved and unavailable for use by other virtual machines. Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2014/05/thick-vs-thin-disks-flash-arrays.html
QUESTION 10 Which three statements about block-level storage are correct? (Choose three.) A. It is less expensive and simple to implement. B. Block-level storage systems are very popular with SAN. C. It can be treated as an independent disk drive and is controlled by external Server OS. D. Each block can be controlled like an individual hard drive. E. Network attached storage systems usually depend on this file level storage. F. This level storage is inexpensive to be maintained, when it is compared to its counterpart. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11 An engineer is designing a new public cloud infrastructure. Which two compliance standards are met if the engineer deploys according to the Cisco VMDC architecture? (Choose two.) A. GLBA B. PCI C. ISO 27001 D. HIPAA E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which two Cisco products can help an organization move toward an automation-driven policy model? (Choose two.) A. UCS Director B. VM-FEX C. UCS Performance Manager D. Nexus 1000V E. ACI Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 Which statement about VACS is true? A. It provides centralized provisioning and orchestration for physical and virtual networking. B. It is designed around open standards and open APIs. C. It provides scalable and multi protocol controller infrastructure for supporting multiple service providers and services. D. Delivers a comprehensive cloud management solution spanning service offerings from underlying infrastructure to anything-as-a-service platforms. Correct Answer: D
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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate MB-240 Exam pdf
Exam MB-200: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: perform discovery, planning, and analysis; manage user experience design; manage entities and data; implement security; implement integration; and perform solutions deployment and testing.
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement functional consultants with Field Service expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that manage resources that complete the field service lifecycle.
Candidates implement the field service processes designed in collaboration with internal and external teams. This collaboration includes configuring the default administration areas of the Field Service application, deploying the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution and the mobile application, and implementing any additionally needed customizations. Candidates are responsible for the configuration and deployment of the Field Service application in conjunction with the core customer service application.
Skills measured
Configure field service applications (20-25%)
Manage work orders (15-20%)
Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate MB-240 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable materials and a separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport. These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance and repairs. You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for each of the sub-components. A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent component level. C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level. D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-up-customer-assets
QUESTION 2 The field service team manager needs you to give a new technician user access to the system. The technician will use the mobile application to fill out work orders when they are onsite doing filed work to repair factory motors at customer sites. When the dispatcher takes vacation, the new technician user will manage dispatcher functions. Which two field service security roles will the new technician user need? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Field Service-Dispatcher B. Field Service-App Access and Field Service -Resource C. Field Service-Mobile User D. Field Service-User Correct Answer: AB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/view-user-accounts-security-roles#field-service-roles
QUESTION 3 You are Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing company. The company provides customers with large power systems for sophisticated data centers. The power systems are serviced by a field engineering team. The field engineering team documents work done on repairs and maintenance by completing Work Orders within Dynamics 365. You need to easily schedule work orders for the field engineering team via the schedule and enable geocoding. Which two steps must you take to schedule resources via the schedule board and enable geocoding? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Connect to Maps in Resource Scheduling. B. Configure the map on the Schedule Board. C. Set Auto Geo Code Addresses to Yes in Resource Scheduling. D. Set Auto Geo Code Addresses to Yes in Field Service Settings. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor. You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an inventory transfer record. What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse. B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer. C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer. D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location. Correct Answer: AB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventory-transfer
QUESTION 5 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service scheduler using the Schedule Assistant. You notice the Schedule Assistant always sets the Default Radius to 25 KM. Which two options should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Field Service Settings, Work Order/Booking section. B. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Scheduling Parameters. C. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Field Service Settings, Work Order/ Booking section. D. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Scheduling Parameters. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator. You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be entered in the attribute. What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions. B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data. C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute. D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data. E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer. Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses. You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate information. Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync. B. Update entity Sync Filter. C. Update View filters. D. Update the Max Sync Records setting. E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 8 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Billing Administrator. Your customer wants to purchase a series of quarterly preventative maintenance visits as well as bi-weekly site visits. The customer wants to be billed for the preventative maintenance quarterly but billed for the site visits monthly. What are two ways that this can be completed against a single Agreement? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Create Invoice Setup for preventative maintenance, with Invoice Products tied to Quarterly Price List. B. Create Invoice Setup for preventative maintenance with Invoice Recurrence of every three months. C. Create Invoice Setup for site visits, with Invoice Recurrence of each month. D. Create Invoice Setup for site visits, with Invoice Products tied to Monthly Price List. Correct Answer: BC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/set-up-customer-agreements#add-invoice-setup
QUESTION 9 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer. Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app. You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings. What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource. B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View. C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode. D. Check that FSM app is synching to server. E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode. Correct Answer: ACE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-not-showing
QUESTION 10 You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company. You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or months. How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)? A. Use Facility Scheduling B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resource-scheduling-requirement-groups
QUESTION 11 Contoso, Ltd has just acquired a new company in order to increase the services it offers to its customers. Contoso, Ltd. wants to ensure that it is able to track all of the stages in its service management workflow, including the services offered by the new service company. You need to configure Dynamics 365 CE for Field Services to ensure that all of the necessary status values are configured correctly to track your company\\’s unique business process. Which action must you perform? A. Edit the existing system status field values. B. Create the necessary sub-status values. C. Create the necessary system status values. D. Create the necessary service task values. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the best customer service experience. Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service management processes. You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box capabilities. Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work order? A. Resources B. Work Order Types C. Booking Rules D. Incident Type Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types
QUESTION 13 Your company is expanding nationally. You need to configure tax codes for a new territory, so the company can start to operate in the new territory. Which three Field Service record types are taxable within the new tax code? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Agreements B. Services C. Purchase Orders D. Products E. Work Orders Correct Answer: ABD
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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 Exam pdf
Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translates those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses, customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.
Skills measured
Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
Perform data migration (15-20%)
Validate and support the solution (15-20%)
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-300 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: In the Data management framework parameter screen, refresh the Entity list. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator. You have 50 identified purchase order numbers that are not used in the system and are not being recycled. Why they are missing is unknown. Purchasing operations is currently operating around the clock and no downtime can occur. You need to use the missing numbers in the system. What should you do? A. Run the Number sequence wizard for the purchase order number sequence B. Change the number sequence to continuous and create the new purchase orders C. Run Automatic cleanup of number sequence and create the new purchase orders D. Change the number sequence to non-continuous and create the new purchase orders E. Change the number sequence to manual, then manually assign the number sequences to the new purchase orders Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. The expense department relies heavily on properly operating workflows. If there is a failure in the workflow, the issue needs to get resolved quickly. You need to make sure that the system actively tracks the status, so the support team can monitor and take actions against any failures. What should you do? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Set the monitoring category of the Workflow message processing batch job to Workflow. B. Set the critical job flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to True. C. Set the Ignore task failure flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to False. D. Set the batch job named Workflow message processing to send an email when the status of the batch job is Error. E. Set the priority field of the Workflow message processing batch job to 1. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator. An issue has been reported that appears to be a base Dynamics 365 bug. The system was last updated three weeks ago. Searching for the issue by description in Lifecycle Services is not working. You need to determine other ways to search for similar issues to help narrow down the search before opening a Microsoft ticket. What are two ways to search for a released hotfix? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. By industry B. By Microsoft support ticket number C. By AOT object name D. Date range for release Correct Answer: BC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/issue-search-lcs
QUESTION 5 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for two weeks. You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000. What should you do? A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator. Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system. You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of action for granting access. What should you do? A. Security duty assignments report B. Security role access report C. Security development tool D. Security diagnostics E. Maintenance mode Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have production and testing environments. You move the workflow from the testing environment to the production environment. The workflow in the production environment is stuck in a wait state. You need to resolve the issue with the workflow in the production environment. What should you do? A. Set the workflow batch job to critical B. Set the workflow messaging batch job group C. Grant the user workflow permissions D. Set the workflow execution account in the workflow parameters Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. Data is being migrated from a customized version of a legacy application to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Some of the fields in the entity are the same, and some are different. As a starting point, you need to automatically map as many fields as possible within Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which feature or tool should you use? A. Use the Mapping visualization tool B. Generate source mapping C. Use Data templates D. Use the Data task automation tool E. Copy configuration data Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/data-entities/data-entities-data-packages?toc=/fin-and-ops/toc.json#mapping
QUESTION 9 You plan the migration from Dynamics AX 2009 to a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment. You will be moving data. You need to create a data package from a group of entities in Dynamics AX 2009. What should you use? A. Upgrade analyzer B. Code upgrade estimation tools C. Dynamics AX 2009 Data migration tool (DMT) D. Data Import/Export Framework (DIXF) Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/migration-upgrade/ax2009-upgrade-export-package
QUESTION 10 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You have a requirement that the component data for address structure in the system be available in Portuguese (Brazil). You need to provide address and contact information purpose with translation. What should you do? A. Under Organization administration, on the Global addresses tab, enter the appropriate translation value in the translations form B. In User options, set the language preference to Portuguese pt-BR and enter addresses for customers and vendors C. Upload files to Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) for conversion D. Apply return from Dynamics 365 Translation Services (DTS) to the system by submitting a support ticket Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 You implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT). You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with Microsoft Azure DevOps. You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps Correct Answer: ACD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
QUESTION 12 You are a systems administrator at a company that has implemented Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. New employees are starting at the company. You need to extend the electronic signatures functionality to them. Which two actions should you perform? Each answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. On the Email parameters page, specify that SSL is required B. Specify the user\\’s email address C. In License configuration, enable Maintenance mode D. Select the Electronic signature check box Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organization-administration/tasks/set-up-electronic-signatures
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at any given time. You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment, you are unable to find the data entity in the list. You need to locate the data entity. Solution: Reopen the client browser. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
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Exam 70-412: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to perform the advanced configuring tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services, and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
pass4itsure 70-412 exam Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.
Configure and Manage High Availability
Configure File and Storage Solutions
Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
Configure Network Services
Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions
Latest Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-412 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All servers have the Hyper-V server role and the Failover Clustering feature installed.
You need to replicate virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.) A. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2, create three virtual machines. B. From Cluster2, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role. C. From Failover Cluster Manager on Cluster1, configure each virtual machine for replication. D. From Cluster1, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role. E. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2 modify the Hyper-V settings. Correct Answer: CDE D. You must configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker for cluster1. E. We must configure configure the Replica server to receive replication from primary servers: In Hyper-V Manager, click Hyper-V Settings in the Actions pane. In the Hyper-V Settings dialog, click Replication Configuration. In the Details pane, select Enable this computer as a Replica server. C. Enable virtual machine replication. Once the hosting server is configured for Replica, you can enable replication for each virtual machine that you want to be replicated. Reference: Deploy Hyper-V Replica https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134207.aspx
QUESTION 2 Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.1. The domain contains 10 domain controllers and a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC01. All domain controllers and RODCs are hosted on a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to identify which domain controllers are authorized to be cloned by using virtual domain controller cloning. Which cmdlet should you use? A. Get-ADGroupMember B. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicy C. Get-ADDomainControllerPasswordReplicationPolicyUsage D. Get-ADDomain E. Get-ADOptionalFeature Correct Answer: A If you want to be able to clone a Domain Controller, then authorize the original source Domain Controller to be used as the source for cloning by adding its computer object into the new “Cloneable Domain Controllers” Active Directory group. The Get-ADGroupMember cmdlet gets the members of an Active Directory group. Members can be users, groups, and computers. We use the Get-ADGroupMember cmdlet to retrieve the members of the “Cloneable Domain Controllers” Active Directory group. References: http://blogs.technet.com/b/keithmayer/archive/2012/08/06/safely-cloning-an-active-directory-domain-controller-with-windows-server-2012-step-by-step-ws2012-hyperv-itpro-vmware.aspx
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site. Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site. Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses. The solution must meet the following requirements: -The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. -Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline. – Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline. Which configuration should you use? A. load sharing mode failover partners B. a failover cluster C. hot standby mode failover partners D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB)cluster Correct Answer: C Needs to be a DHCP Failover option
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. The forest functional level is Windows 2000. The contoso.com domain contains domain controllers that run either Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2008. The fabrikam.com domain contains domain controllers that run either Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003. The domain functional level is Windows 2000 native. The contoso.com domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to add Server1 as a new domain controller in the contoso.com domain. What should you do first? A. Raise the functional level of the contoso.com domainto Windows Server 2008 R2. B. Upgrade the domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 to Windows Server 2008 R2. C. Raise the functional level of the fabrikam.com domain to Windows Server 2003. D. Decommission the domain controllers that run Windows 2000. E. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2003. Correct Answer: D Server 2003 is the minimum Domain Functional level for any domain in the forest Windows Server 2012 R2 requires a Windows Server 2003 forest functional level. That is, before you can add a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 to an existing Active Directory forest, the forest functional level must be Windows Server 2003 or higher.
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You are creating a central access rule named TestFinance that will be used to grant members of the Authenticated users group access to a folder stored on a Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 server. You need to ensure that the permissions are granted when the rule is published. What should you do? A. Set the Permissions to Use the following permissions as proposed permissions. B. Set the Permissions to Use following permissions as current permissions. C. Add a Resource condition to the current permissions entry for the Authenticated Users principal. D. Add a User condition to the current permissions entry for the Authenticated Users principal. Correct Answer: B To create a central access rule (see step 5 below): 1. In the left pane of the Active Directory Administrative Center, click Tree View, select Dynamic Access Control, and then click Central Access Rules. 2. Right-click Central Access Rules, click New, and then click Central Access Rule. 3. In the Name field, type Finance Documents Rule. 4. In the Target Resources section, click Edit, and in the Central Access Rule dialog box, click Add a condition. Add the following condition: [Resource] [Department] [Equals] [Value] [Finance], and then click OK. 5. In the Permissions section, select Use following permissions as current permissions, click Edit, and in the Advanced Security Settings for Permissions dialog box click Add. Note (not A): Use the following permissions as proposed permissions option lets you create the policy in staging. 6 .In the Permission entry for Permissions dialog box, click Select a principal, type Authenticated Users, and then click OK. Incorrect Answers: A: Proposed permissions enable an administrator to more accurately model the impact of potential changes to access control settings without actually changing them.
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP. Which tool should you use? A. Services B. Authorization Manager C. Active Directory Sites and Services D. TMP Management E. Active Directory Users and Computers F. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Correct Answer: C References: https://kb.watchfulsoftware.com/pages/viewpage.action?pageId=1999181
QUESTION 7 You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes. You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime. Which tool should you use? A. Shadow B. Vssadmin C. Wbadmin D. Diskpart Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754968(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 8 Which of the following CA types must be deployed on domain-joined computers? A. Enterprise root B. Enterprise subordinate C. Standalone root D. Standalone subordinate Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
DC1 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for contoso.com. You add the DNS Server server role to DC2. You discover that the contoso.com DNS zone fails to replicate to DC2. You verify that the domain, schema, and configuration naming contexts replicate from DC1 to DC2. You need to ensure that DC2 replicates the contoso.com zone by using Active Directory replication. Which tool should you use? A. Ntdsutil B. Repadmin C. Dnslint D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts Correct Answer: B If you see questions about AD Replication, First preference is AD sites and services, then Repadmin and then DNSLINT.
QUESTION 10 You work as an administrator at contoso.com. Contoso.com network consists of a single domain named contoso.com. All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. Contoso.com has a server, named SERVER1, which has the AD DS, DHCP and DNS server roles installed. Contoso.com also has a server named SERVER2, which has the DHCP and Remote Access Server Role installed. You have configured a server,which has the File and Storage Services Server role installed.to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named Server3. You then create a filter on SERVER1. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration? A. To make sure that SERVER1 issues Server3 an IP address. B. To make sure that SERVER1 does not issue SERVER3 an IP address C. To make sure that SERVER3 acquires a constant IP address from SERVER2 only. D. To make sure that SERVER3 is configured with a static IP address Correct Answer: B Deny Filter would not allow SERVER1 to issue SERVER3 an IP
QUESTION 11 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. A two-way forest trusts exists between the forest. Selective authentication is enabled on the trust. The contoso.com forest contains a server named Server1. You need to ensure that users in litwareinc.com can access resources on Server1. What should you do? A. Install Active Directory Rights Management Services on a domain controller in contoso.com. B. Modify the permission on the Server1 computer account. C. Install Active Directory Rights Management Services on a domain controller in litwareinc.com. D. Configure SID filtering on the trust. Correct Answer: B Selective authentication between forests If you decide to set selective authentication on an incoming forest trust, you need to manually assign permissions on each computer in the domain as well as the resources to which you want users in the second forest to have access. To do this, set a control access right Allowed to authenticate on the computer object that hosts the resource in Active Directory Users and Computers in the second forest. Then, allow user or group access to the particular resources you want to share. Reference: Accessing resources across forests
QUESTION 12 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 fails. You identify that the master boot record (MBR) is corrupt. You need to repair the MBR. Which tool should you use? A. Bcdedit B. Bcdboot C. Bootrec D. Fixmbr Correct Answer: C Repairing an unbootable Windows installation with bootrec.exe If the boot/recovery partition is corrupted or lost, you can modify your Windows OS partition to boot. Boot from your Windows Vista/7/Server2008/R2/2012 media and choose the “Repair Windows” option. Open the command prompt. Using diskpart, mark your Windows partition as bootable. If your windows partition does not have it, copy the “boot” folder from the installation media. Run the following commands: >c: >cd boot >attrib bcd -s -h -r >ren c:\boot\bcd bcd.old >bootrec /RebuildBcd Reboot and Windows should boot normally. If not, return to the command prompt and run: >bootrec /FixMBR >bootrec /FixBoot Incorrect Answers: A: BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu options, and so on. BCDEdit serves essentially the same purpose as Bootcfg.exe on earlier versions of Windows B: The BCDboot tool is a command-line tool that enables you to manage system partition files D: Fixmbr is not a tool. Fixmbr is an option when using the bootrec tool. References: Windows BCD Store http://www.itsgotme.com/wiki/Windows_BCD
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need ensure that all Active Directory changes are replicated to all of the domain controllers in the forest within 30 minutes. What should you use? A. Set-ADSite B. Set-ADReplicationSite C. Set-ADDomain D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink E. Set-ADGroup F. Set-ADForest G. Netdom Correct Answer: D This command gets all the site links in the directory with replication frequency greater than or equal to 60minutes, and then sets the Cost property on these sitelink objects to 200. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/%5Clibrary/Hh852257(v=WPS.630).aspx
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together? A. LISP B. OTV C. FabricPath D. vPC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true? A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport. B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info. C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS. D. It supports FCoE. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center? A. Hadoop clusters B. VDI C. vPC D. VSAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment? A. distributed load processing B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers C. reduced power and cooling requirements D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center? A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server. B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility. C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers. D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see? A. rack-mountable to blade servers B. physical to virtual machines C. Fibre Channel to FCoE D. iSCSI to NAS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Token Ring B. FDDI C. Ethernet D. MPLS E. Frame Relay F. APPN/APPI Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.) A. proprietary and secure B. fast route convergence C. support for ECMP D. support for LACP E. support for large hop limit Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9 Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.) A. OTV B. FabricPath C. BPDU D. vPC E. VDC F. MPLS Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.) A. port channel B. static pinning C. virtual port channel D. dynamic pinning E. Equal-Cost Multipath F. RPVST Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? A. port channel B. static pinning C. virtual port channel D. dynamic pinning E. Equal-Cost Multipath F. RPVST Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation. B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces. C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues. D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points. E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 3548 B. Cisco UCS 6248UP C. Cisco UCS 2208XP D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP E. Cisco UCS 6296UP Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14 What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Consolidate servers through virtualization. B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v. C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric. D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution. E. Stop using redundant power supplies. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15 Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.) A. VDC B. VSAN C. LUN D. L2 firewall E. GLBP F. ECMP Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16 What technology is necessary to support vPC+? A. MPLS B. OTV C. FabricPath D. vCenter E. RPVST F. MST Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down? A. BPDU B. weight C. interface priority D. object tracking E. local preference F. cost Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7010 B. Cisco Nexus 5548 C. Cisco Nexus 5596 D. Cisco Nexus 5020 E. Cisco Nexus 3016 F. Cisco Nexus 2248 Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 19 What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure? A. LACP B. OTV C. vPC D. vPC+ E. FabricPath Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20 Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.) A. OSPF B. HSRP C. VRRP D. GLBP E. OCSP F. EIGRP G. MPLS Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 21 Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions. Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing? A. Transparent B. One-Arm C. Routed D. Inline E. Clustered Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server? A. Transparent B. One-Arm C. Routed D. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 24 Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25 Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP B. Cisco Nexus 4004 C. Cisco Nexus 3064 D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP E. Cisco Nexus 2248T Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26 Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 1010 B. VSM C. VEM D. host vPC E. MPIO Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 27 Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.) A. VM-FEX B. NPIV C. Adapter-FEX D. NIV E. host vPC F. NIC teaming Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28 Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC? A. VM-FEX B. NPIV C. Adapter-FEX D. NIV E. host vPC F. NIC teaming Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.) A. Cisco UCS 5108 B. Cisco UCS 2204XP C. Cisco UCS 6248UP D. Cisco UCS 5596UP E. Cisco UCS P81E F. Cisco UCS 2208XP G. Cisco UCS 6110XP H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280 Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 30 Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client’s data center with context-aware identity validation and Layer 2 port authentication? A. Cisco Security Manager B. Cisco NAC Profiler C. Cisco TrustSec D. Cisco Anti-X E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 Which two views from the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager provide a graphical view of Cisco devices? (Choose two.) A. Device B. Configuration C. Log D. Ports E. Summary Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 32 Which two platforms are supported by Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Catalyst switches B. Cisco Nexus switches C. Cisco ACE D. Cisco Aironet E. Cisco MDS switches Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. What four protocols are valid to mount vMedia? (Choose four.) A. NFS B. Fibre Channel C. SFTP D. CIFS E. HTTP F. SCP G. HTTPS Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 34For a Cisco UCS 2208XP with the number of links illustrated in Exhibit 3, which four options are valid in the Chassis/FEX Discovery global policy? (Choose four.) A. 1 Link B. 2 Link C. 3 Link D. 4 Link E. 8 Link F. Platform Min G. Platform Max Correct Answer: ABDG
QUESTION 35Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension update? A. Adds support for new management access protocols B. Adds support for new SAN protocols C. Adds support for new LAN protocols D. Adds support for new hardware Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. There are two interfaces in Port Channel. Assuming you are creating this Port Channel on a Cisco UCS 6248, how many additional interfaces can be added to the Port Channel? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 14 E. 18 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which item is a valid IPv6 Link Local address? A. 2001:4070:1:1408::2 B. fe80::41dc:79e1:5c7b:b270 C. d772:4f0b:aaec:e8f0:fde9::8dcd:a2ec D. 0718:564a:dc94::9a34:9fc6:5b3b Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which IPv6 destination address is scoped as globally routable? A. ff01::101 B. ff02:101 C. ff05::101 D. ff08::101 E. ff0e::101 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
What prefix in the IPv6 address does the Interface ID begin? A. /32 B. /48 C. /64 D. /96 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
How many bits are available for group IDs in an IPv6 Multicast IP address? A. 65 B. 96 C. 112 D. 128 Correct Answer: C
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-997 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Refer to the command below. When configuring an SVS connection on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which device is being referenced as the remote IP address? nexus5500-2(config-svs-conn)# remote ip address 10.10.1.15 port 80 vrf management A. ESX or ESXi host B. vCenter C. vPC peer switch D. Cisco IMC management Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: This command specifies the hostname or IP address for the vCenter Server. Optionally, specifies the port number and VRF. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/layer2/6x/b_5500 _Layer2_Config_6x/b_5500_Layer2_Config_602N12_chapter_010000.html
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.) A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC. B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity. C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity. D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set. E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC. Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco is introducing a new line card called as F3 Module which has rich feature set and offers high performance 40G/100G port density to the Nexus 7000 product family. Cisco also introduced a new feature in NX-OS 6.2(2) where the F2e line card can be in the same VDC as M1 or M2 Line Card. The objective of this session is to cover detailed steps and methodology of migrating Nexus 7000 with VDC types prior to NX-OS 6.2 to the newer F3 or M/F2e VDC types. The session also covers the effect of VDC migration with commonly used Network features, firewall and load balancer services. M-Series XL modules support larger forwarding tables. M-Series modules are frequently required at network core, peering, and aggregation points. When used with the F1-Series, the M-Series modules provide inter-VLAN services and form a pool of Layer 3 resources for the system. Reference: https://www.ciscolive2014.com/connect/sessionDetail.ww?SESSION_ID=2244 And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/2- 6/vmdctechwp.html
QUESTION 3 Which protocol is the foundation for unified fabric as implemented in Cisco NX-OS? A. Fibre Channel B. Data Center Bridging C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet D. N proxy virtualization E. N Port identifier virtualization Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is one of the major components of a Unified Fabric. FCoE is a new technology developed by Cisco that is standardized in the Fibre Channel Backbone 5 (FC-BB-5) working group of Technical Committee T11 of the International Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS). Most large data centers have huge installed bases of Fibre Channel and want a technology that maintains the Fibre Channel model. FCoE assumes a lossless Ethernet, in which frames are never dropped (as in Fibre Channel) and that therefore does not use IP and TCP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series- switches/white_paper_c11- 495142.html
QUESTION 4 By default it will take 10 seconds for authentication to fail due to an unresponsive RADIUS server before a Cisco Nexus series switch reverts to another RADIUS server or local authentication. What is one efficient way to improve the reaction time to a RADIUS server failure? A. Decrease the global RADIUS retransmission count to 1. B. Decrease the global RADIUS timeout interval to 5 seconds. C. Configure the RADIUS retransmission count and timeout interval per server, versus globally. D. Configure per server a test idle timer, along with a username and password. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: You can monitor the availability of RADIUS servers. These parameters include the username and password to use for the server and an idle timer. The idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests before the Nexus 5000 Series switch sends out a test packet. You can configure this option to test servers periodically. The test idle timer specifies the interval during which a RADIUS server receives no requests before the Nexus 5000 Series switch sends out a test packet. The default idle timer value is 0 minutes. When the idle time interval is 0 minutes, the Nexus 5000 Series switch does not perform periodic RADIUS server monitoring. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_radius.html
QUESTION 5 Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true? A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided. B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability. C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported. D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device can manage and support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2 and Layer 3. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html
QUESTION 6 Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true? A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed. C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence. D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: CFS does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. The keys are unique to the Cisco NX-OS device and are not shared with other Cisco NX- OS devices. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_6-x_chapter_0101.html
QUESTION 7 Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.) A. port profile B. DVS C. data center D. folder E. vCenter IP address F. VM port group Correct Answer: BCD ExplanationExplanation/Reference: After associating an ESX host to a DVS, you can migrate existing VMs from the vSwitch to the DVS, and you can create VMs to use the DVS instead of the vSwitch. With the hardware-based VN-Link implementation, when a VM uses the DVS, all VM traffic passes through the DVS and ASIC-based switching is performed by the fabric interconnect. In Cisco UCS Manager, DVSes are organized in the following hierarchy: vCenter Folder (optional) Datacenter Folder (required) DVS At the top of the hierarchy is the vCenter, which represents a VMware vCenter instance. Each vCenter contains one or more datacenters, and optionally vCenter folders with which you can organize the datacenters. Each datacenter contains one or more required datacenter folders. Datacenter folders contain the DVSes. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3- 1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter28.html
QUESTION 8 Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true? A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4. B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC. C. SNMP is not VRF-aware. D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license. E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context (VDC). By default, Cisco NX-OS places you in the default VDC. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities. SNMP is also VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP notification host receiver. You can also configure SNMP to filter notifications to an SNMP host receiver based on the VRF where the notification occurred. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_9snmp.html
QUESTION 9 Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network? A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks. B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated. C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device. D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: In Cisco Unified Computing System environments, two Ethernet switching modes determine the way that the fabric interconnects behave as switching devices between the servers and the network. In end-host mode, the fabric interconnects appear to the upstream devices as end hosts with multiple links. In end-host mode, the switch does not run Spanning Tree Protocol and avoids loops by following a set of rules for traffic forwarding. In switch mode, the switch runs Spanning Tree Protocol to avoid loops, and broadcast and multicast packets are handled in the traditional way. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 10 Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address? A. vmac-weighted B. dedicated-vmac-mode C. shortest-path and weighting D. host-dependent Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Host dependent–GLBP uses the MAC address of the host to determine which virtual MAC address to direct the host to use. This algorithm guarantees that a host gets the same virtual MAC address if the number of virtual forwarders does not change. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_glbp.html
QUESTION 11 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true? A. When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported. B. HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers. C. HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times. D. The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: VRRP allows for transparent failover at the first-hop IP router by configuring a group of routers to share a virtual IP address. VRRP selects a master router in that group to handle all packets for the virtual IP address. The remaining routers are in standby and take over if the master router fails. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_vrrp.html
QUESTION 12 After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords? A. switch# key config-key ascii B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated D. switch# encryption decrypt type6 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: This command converts existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter_010101.html
QUESTION 13 Which statement about implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 5546 or 5548 switches are true? A. Cisco TrustSec support varies depending on Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch model. B. The hardware is not able to support MACsec switch-port-level encryption based on IEEE 802.1AE. C. The maximum number of RBACL TCAM user configurable entries is 128k. D. The SGT Exchange Protocol must use the management (mgmt 0) interface. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://scadahacker.com/library/Documents/Manuals/Cisco%20- %20TrustSec%20Solution%20Overview.pdf
QUESTION 14 How is a dynamic vNIC allocated? A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter. B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template. C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile. D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: The dynamic vNIC connection policy determines how the connectivity between VMs and dynamic vNICs is configured. This policy is required for Cisco UCS domains that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs andconfigured dynamic vNICs. Each dynamic vNIC connection policy includes an Ethernet adapter policy and designates the number of vNICs that can be configured for any server associated with a service profile that includes the policy. For VM-FEX that has all ports on a blade in standard mode, you need to use the VMware adapter policy. For VM-FEX that has at least one port on a blade in high-performance mode, use the VMwarePassThrough adapter policy or create a custom policy. If you need to create a custom policy, the resources provisioned need to equal the resource requirements of the guest OS that needs the most resources and for which you will be using high-performance mode. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VM- FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html
QUESTION 15 In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important? A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool. B. They enable hardware-based failover. C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs. D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Number of Dynamic vNICs ?This is the number of vNICs that will be available for dynamic assignment to VMs. Remember that the VIC has a limit to the number of vNICs that it can support and this is based on the number of uplinks between the IOM and the FI. At least this is the case with the 2104 IOM and the M81KR VIC, which supports ((# IOM Links * 15) ?2)). Also remember that your ESXi server will already have a number of vNICs used for other traffic such as Mgmt, vMotion, storage, etc, and that these count against the limit. Adapter Policy ?This determines the vNIC adapter config (HW queue config, TCP offload, etc) and you must select VMWarePassThru to support VM-FEX in High Performance mode. Protection ?This determines the initial placement of the vNICs, either all of them are placed on fabric A or Fabric B or they are alternated between the two fabrics if you just select the “Protected” option. Failover is always enabled on these vNICs and there is no way to disable the protection. Reference: http://infrastructureadventures.com/2011/10/09/deploying-cisco-ucs-vm-fex-for- vsphere-%E2%80%93-part-2-ucsm-config-and-vmware-integration/
QUESTION 16 Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true? A. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both roles (logical AND). B. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command. C. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrator (superuser). D. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces. E. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDCs. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute a combination of all the commands permitted by these roles. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command. For example, suppose a user has RoleA, which denied access to the configuration commands. However, the users also have RoleB, which has access to the configuration commands. In this case, the users have access to the configuration commands. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_rbac.html
QUESTION 17 Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true? A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec) support is available only on the M module. B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco TrustSec. C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server. D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: The M-Series modules on the Nexus 7000 support 802.1AE MACSEC on all ports, including the new M2-series modules. The F2e modules will have this feature enabled in the future. It is important to note that because 802.1AE MACSEC is a link-level encryption, the two MACSEC-enabled endpoints, Nexus 7000 devices in our case, must be directly L2 adjacent. This means we direct fiber connection or one facilitated with optical gear is required. MACSEC has integrity checks for the frames and intermediate devices, like another switch, even at L2, will cause the integrity checks to fail. In most cases, this means metro-Ethernet services or carrier-provided label switched services will not work for a MACSEC connection. Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2065720
QUESTION 18 Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.) A. IP source guard B. traffic storm control C. CoPP D. DHCP snooping E. Dynamic ARP Inspection F. NAC Correct Answer: BF Explanation Explanation/Reference: A traffic storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. You can use the traffic storm control feature to prevent disruptions on Layer 2 ports by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic storm on physical interfaces. Traffic storm control (also called traffic suppression) allows you to monitor the levels of the incoming broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic over a 10-millisecond interval. During this interval, the traffic level, which is a percentage of the total available bandwidth of the port, is compared with the traffic storm control level that you configured. When the ingress traffic reaches the traffic storm control level that is configured on the port, traffic storm control drops the traffic until the interval ends. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x_chapter17.html And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configurati on/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5- x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter1.html
QUESTION 19 When a local RBAC user account has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, what happens when a user with that name logs into a Cisco Nexus switch? A. The user roles from the remote AAA user account are applied, not the configured local user roles. B. All the roles are merged (logical OR). C. The user roles from the local user account are applied, not the remote AAA user roles. D. Only the roles that are defined on both accounts are merged (logical AND). Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: If you have a user account configured on the local Cisco NX-OS device that has the same name as a remote user account on an AAA server, the Cisco NX-OS software applies the user roles for the local user account to the remote user, not the user roles configured on the AAA server. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_rbac.html
QUESTION 20 Which statement is true if password-strength checking is enabled? A. Short, easy-to-decipher passwords will be rejected. B. The strength of existing passwords will be checked. C. Special characters, such as the dollar sign ($) or the percent sign (%), will not be allowed. D. Passwords become case-sensitive. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: If a password is trivial (such as a short, easy-to-decipher password), the cisco NX_OS software will reject your password configuration if password-strength checking is enabled. Be sure to configure a strong password. Passwords are case sensitive. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7- x/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_01000.pdf
QUESTION 21 Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?A. load-balancing host-dependent B. load-balancing mac-pinning C. load-balancing round-robin D. load-balancing weighted Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 22 Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.) A. AES-GMAC B. key C. salt D. AAA E. group Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 23 Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices? A. radius server radius-server-name B. aaa session-id common C. radius-server vsa send authentication D. aaa new-model Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 24 Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site? A. #feature lisp B. #ipv6 lisp itr C. #ip lisp database-mapping D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.) A. cleartext B. DES-SHA1 C. DES-CBC3-SHA D. Cisco Type 7 E. RC4-SHA F. 3DES Correct Answer: ADF Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the status of FCoE license on Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? A. FCoE license is not installed B. FCoE license is installed, but it is expired C. FCoE license is installed and status is enabled D. FCoE license does not need to be installed because it is part of ENTERPRISE_PKG Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 27 In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.) A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch. B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports. C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time. D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature. E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance. F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN. Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.) A. CiscoTAC-1 B. full-text-destination C. pager-xml-destination D. short-text-destination E. xml-text-destination F. pager-json-destination Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
QUESTION 29 What configuration is required when implementing FCoE? A. disable LAN traffic on the interface B. configure PortFast on the access port C. permit all VLANs on the interface D. permit all VSANs on the interface Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html
QUESTION 30 Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.) A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field. B. Devices can only belong to one zone. C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. D. A zone can only be a member one zone set. E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric. F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive. Correct Answer: CF Explanation Explanation/Reference: A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/ guide/qcg_zones.html
QUESTION 31 Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.) A. group-size B. deadtime C. timeout D. keep-alive E. retransmit Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover? A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding B. Cisco Stateful Switchover C. Cisco Express Forwarding D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 33 Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.) A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed. B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96. C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default. D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range. E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128. F. A reload is needed for changes to take place. G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place. Correct Answer: CEFG Explanation
QUESTION 34 Which two items are services that are provided by Cisco Fabric Services? (Choose two.) A. device alias distribution B. VLAN database distribution C. Kerberos proxy distribution D. RSA key pair distribution E. DPVM configuration distribution Correct Answer: AE Explanation Explanation/Reference: The device alias application uses the Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) infrastructure to enable efficient database management and distribution. Device aliases use the coordinated distribution mode and the fabric-wide distribution scope. DPVM can use CFS to distribute the database to all switches in the fabric. This allows devices to move anywhere and keep the same VSAN membership. You should enable CFS distribution on all switches in the fabric. Using the CFS infrastructure, each DPVM server learns the DPVM database from each of its neighboring switches during the ISL bring-up process. If you change the database locally, the DPVM server notifies its neighboring switches, and that database is updated by all switches in the fabric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guid e/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/ddas.html and http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter4.html#concept_2B83E16506C845B39 BDF96F9CAFFAEC3
QUESTION 35 Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.) A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front. B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear. C. single power supply only D. multiple power supply option for redundancy E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches Correct Answer: ADF Explanation
QUESTION 36 Drag the network characteristics on the left to the most appropriate design layer on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37 Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate Nexus product on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38 Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39 Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40 VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router? A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area B. ASBR on NSSA C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area D. ABR on stubby OSPF area E. ABR on a normal OSPF area Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path? A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers. B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area. C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA. D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.) A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2. B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1. C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only. D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1. E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2. F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy? A. Level 1 only B. Level 2 only C. Level-1-2 only D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.) A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1. B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1. C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router. D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance. E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6. F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6 In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important? A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-ISC. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made? A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks. B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering. C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS. D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family. E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election? A. point-to-point networks B. mutli-access broadcast networks C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type D. All networks type Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose? A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP D. To indicate the status of the LSP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.) A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers C. to improve BGP convergence time D. to tune the BGP update interval E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate? A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer. B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer. C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer. D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.) A. peer-group B. af-group C. bgp-group D. session-group E. neighbor-group F. as-group Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 13 Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS? A. ip as-path access-list permit.* B. ip as-path access-list permit^$ C. ip as-path access-list permit _$ D. ip as-path access-list permit _^ E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny * F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit * Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work? A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP. B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP. C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP. D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP. E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number? A. AS 65001 to 65535 B. AS 65512 to 65535 C. AS 12345 D. AS 23456 E. AS 64001 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16 Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers? A. AS path B. MED C. weight D. communities E. route tags Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers. B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric. C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider. D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.) A. using the neighbor router BGP command B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software C. using route redistribution into BGP D. using the network router BGP command E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500? A. 192.168.101.11 B. 192.168.101.10 C. 10.1.1.1 D. 10.0.1.1 E. 10.1.10.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default? A. IPv4 unicast B. IPv6 unicast C. VPNv4 D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4 F. No address-family is enabled by default. Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 21 An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1? A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 route-map PBR permit 20 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 110 set next-hop 192.168.55.1 route-map PBR permit 20 interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ip policy route-map PBR Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100? A. ^100$ B. ^$ C. _100$ D. ^[0-9]*$ Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other? A. ORF B. ACL C. prefix list D. route map Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal? A. router eigrp 100address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1 B. router eigrp 100 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155 C. router eigrp 100 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155 D. router eigrp 100 default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500 redistribute ospf 1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP? A. metric B. bandwidth C. delay D. MTU E. reliability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24? A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN” D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass else drop end-policy prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX 10.10.10.0/24 end-set router bgp 65000 vrf TEST rd 65000:10000 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process? A. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets B. router ospf 1 redistribute static C. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets default-information originate always D. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 area 0 redistribute static subnets Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit.
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reachability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.) A. Router B: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 tag 20 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2 B. Router B: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 router bgp 200address-family ipv4 unicast redistribute ospf 200 C. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 D. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 match external 2 E. Router C: router ospf 200 redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200 address-family ipv4 redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200 Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29 Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.) A. NSF B. NSR C. BFD D. fast hellos E. sham-links Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30 Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.) A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported. B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported. C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported. D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported. E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only. F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only. Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 31 Which two mandatory tasks must an IS-IS NSF-capable router perform for RP switchover? (Choose two.) A. Relearn the available IS-IS neighbors. B. Reacquire the contents of the LSD. C. Reset peering with the available IS-IS neighbors. D. Keep the existing contents of the LSD. E. Rediscover DIS for each link segment. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32 Which option is where BGP graceful restart is negotiated between peers? A. open message B. keep-alive message C. notification message D. update message Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 A Cisco IOS XR router must be configured with BFD for OSPF. Which configuration is correct? A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 ip ospf bfd B. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 bfd fast-detect C. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 bfd fast-detect ipv4 D. router ospf 1 bfd all-interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 A network engineer is configuring IS-IS in Cisco IOS XR. Where is BFD configured? A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-isis-if)# B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config)# C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-bfd)# D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:router(config-isis-if-af)# Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Drag the BGP attributes on the left to match the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 36 Drag the regular expression special character used in AS-Path access-list configuration on the left to match the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 37 Drag the list of OSPF route type on the left to match the correct OSPF area type on the right. Not all options on the left are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 38 Drag the router on the left to match the most optimal IS-IS router type it should use on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 39 Drag the prefix list configuration on the left to match the correct description on the right. Not all options on the left are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 40 Drag the BGP attributes on the left to the boxes on the right in the correct order. The attribute that is used first during the BGP route selection process should be the top box on the right, and attribute that is used last should be the bottom box on the right. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1
What are two major opportunities of selling security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. There is less competition in the security industry
B. The number of unsecuredevices is estimated to be over 75 billion by 2020
C. The security market is estimated to grow to S106B by 2020
D. Partner security services make up 63% of the total market
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
What are three options that Cisco provides tocustomers for Visibility & Control’ against today’s threats?
(Choose three)
A. Comprehensive policy enforcement
B. Access to an online attack catalog
C. Granular device visibility and management
D. Unparalleled network and endpoint visibility
E. Fast device policy updates
F. 18-month device release cycle
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
What are three main services Cisco offers through partners? (Choose three)
A. Internet services
B. Application services
C. Advisory services
D. Managed Services
E. Integration services
F. IoT Platform services
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
What are three main customer software buying models? (Choose three)
A. Security ELA Program
B. Security Software Volume Purchasing Program
C. Cisco360
D. Not for Resale Program
E. CiscoONE
F. TechnologyMigration Program
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 5
Which are three key solutions and features of the Datacenter threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. Global ThreatIntelligence
B. Data center defense policy enforcement
C. Constant threat protection at all levels
D. Enhanced visibility of data, user, and device behaviorE. Enabled scalability and capability across the business
F. File Reputation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6
Which three options are Web and E-mail Security products? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cloudlock
C. Web Security Appliance (WSA)
D. Meraki
E. Investigate
F. NGFW
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Next Generation Firewall
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Talos Security
D. Identity Services Engine
E. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three are attack vectors protected by Identity & Access Control? (Choose three.)
A. Voicemail
B. Data Center
C. Campus andBranch
D. Endpoints
E. Remote and Mobile
F. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors protected by Cyber Threat Defense and Network Analytics? (Choose two )
A. Web
B. E-mail
C. Campus and Branch
D. Voicemail
E. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What are three of the main areas of the Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose three.)
A. Comprehensive policy enforcement
B. Advanced Threat ProtectionC. Cloud Security
D. SaaS and Cloud Platform
E. Web and E-mail Security
F. Patchworked applications
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
What NGIPS appliance would you use if your customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular
architecture that is scalable?
A. Cisco 4000 series ISR
B. FirePOWER 8000 series
C. ASA 7000 series
D. Cisco 800 series ISR
E. FirePOWER 2100 series
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
What is a great option for new customers within Platform Selling?
A. Platform sale
B. License sale
C. Platform subscription sale
D. Appliance sale
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which are two key solutions and features of the Campus & Branch threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
A. Behavioral Indication of Compromise
B. File Retrospection and Trajectory
C. Network Analytics
D. Enabled and protected investments
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
Which are three key security vectors customers need to monitor to overcome security challenges?
(Choose three)
A. Campus & Branch
B. Cloud Apps
C. Hackers Device
D. SaaS and Cloud Platform
E. Data Center
F. Malware Protection
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 15
After achieving the Cisco Security Express Specialization what is the next level of security specialization a
partner may attain?
A. Advanced Security Architecture SpecializationB. Master Threat Response Specialization
C. Advanced Threat Analytic Specialization
D. Express Security Architecture Specialization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which are three key solutions and features of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. Identity and Access Control
B. Data loss prevention
C. Web threat defense
D. URL Filtering
E. E-mail Security
F. CTDand Network Analytics
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 17
What ISR appliance would you use if your customer is a small business thatrequires integrated switching
and routing and WAN redundancy?
A. Cisco 4000 series ISR
B. FirePOWER 7000 series
C. Cisco 800 series ISR
D. FirePOWER 2100 series
E. FirePOWER 8000 series
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which are three Cisco Advanced Threat solutions? (Choose three.)
A. AMP
B. Identity and Access Control
C. Remote Access VPN
D. Stealthwatch
E. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cognitive Threat Analytics
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 19
Which are two key solutions and features of the mobilethreat-centric solution?(Choose two)
A. E-mail Security
B. Simplified policy enforcement and management
C. DNS-Layer Security
D. Fuzzy Fingerprinting
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
Which are three major threat areas? (Choose three)
A. Social MediaB. Campus and Physical
C. Instant Messaging
D. Endpoints
E. Data Center
F. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: DEF
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issue and describe the details to help you understand the concept and pass the certification exam.
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QUESTION 1
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing
business models?
A. business model visualization
B. business model framework
C. business model canvas
D. business model agenda
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are proposing a solution to a group that conflicts with a competing intiative of one of the group
members.
Which audience type does this group member belong to?
A. Critical
B. Hostile
C. Uninformed
D. Sympathetic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which purpose is the business architecture domain used for tithing the open group architecture
framework?A. To describe the logical software and hardware capabilities to support the deployment of business
services.
B. To describe the business strategy, governance, organization, and business processes.
C. To identify stakeholders, create the architecture vision, and obtain initial approvals.
D. To create the blueprint for the application system to be deployed to the core business processes.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Stakeholder architecture
B. Digitization
C. Enterprise architecture
D. Business engagement
E. Business acumen
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
You are an account manager and your customer asks whether Cisco can become a strategic partner to
assist solving the business problems your customer is facing. Which two description best describes the
value of the Cisco Business Architecture Methodology? (Choose two.)
A. clearly illustrate product outcomes via a technology roadmap aligned to high level business outcomes
B. ensure that business capabilities and solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term
strategy
C. captures and realizes value from defined business outcomes
D. ensures that product outcomes are aligned to business drivers
E. ensure that business capabilities are identified in product briefing sessions, clearly highlighting the
outcomes the product benefits deliver
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which two options are characteristics of communities leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It involves of high level of communities.
B. A trained and qualifies team lead efforts.
C. The leader provides reward and incentives
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open
group architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint is the perspective of an individual user.
B. A view can be generic and stored in libraries for later reuse.
C. Some views do not have associated viewpoints.
D. A view is perspective of an individual user.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which goal of the business architect in a business architecture engagement is true?
A. Lead post-sales technical support.
B. Provide Cisco specific technology solutions.
C. Become a trusted advisor to the customer.
D. Gain experience in developing low-level designs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which value of enterprise architecture frameworks is true?
A. They describe the arrangement of products to deliver a business outcome.
B. They describe how business outcomes are defined.
C. They provide an overall view of a given problem.
D. They outline how business priorities are reached.
Correct Answer: A
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Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. What four protocols are valid to mount vMedia? (Choose four.)
For a Cisco UCS 2208XP with the number of links illustrated in Exhibit 3, which four options are valid in the Chassis/FEX Discovery global policy? (Choose four.)
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension update?
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. There are two interfaces in Port Channel. Assuming you are creating this Port Channel on a Cisco UCS 6248, how many additional interfaces can be added to the Port Channel?
Explanation
Explanation
Explanation
Explanation
Explanation
