[2017 New Updated] The Most Effective Cisco CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps Verison 2.0 Exam Questions Preparation Materials Youtube Try

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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QUESTION 30
A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
Reference:
QUESTION 32
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
QUESTION 33
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
Reference:
QUESTION 34
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
acquisition?
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
corporation?
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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Question No : 116  Click the Exhibit button.
What type of power problem does the exhibit illustrate?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Impulsive transient
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 117 What is a measure of heat intensity?
A. Volume
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
Question No : 118  According to the Ideal Gas Law, as the pressure inside a balloon increases to a point that it
exceeds the pressure on the outside of the balloon, which property of the balloon also
increases?
A. Color Intensity
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Temperature
210-250 dump  Answer: C
Question No : 119  What is a property of heat transfer?
A. Heat is destroyed.
B. Heat is transferred in the direction from hot to cold.
C. Heat is transferred in the direction from cold to hot.
D. Heat is transferred in both directions (hot to cold and cold to hot).
Answer: B
Question No : 120  Which method transfers heat through a solid material?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
210-250 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 121 Which method of heat transfer occurs when stepping barefoot onto hot pavement?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: C
Question No : 122 Which substance transfers heat most efficiently?
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Vapor
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 123 Which method transfers heat through the movement of a liquid or gas?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Question No : 124 Which method transfers heat by electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 125 Which method of heat transfer causes electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 126 What percentage of electricity used to power IT equipment is typically converted into heat?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 127  What is the most common direction of airflow through a rack mount blade server assembly?
A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to front
D. Bottom to top
Answer: B
Question No : 128 The Ideal Gas Law governs the relationship of which three state variables? (Choose three.)
A. Volume
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure
D. Conductivity
E. Temperature
210-250 dump Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 129 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the pressure when the temperature is
increased and the volume is held constant?
A. The pressure does not change.
B. The pressure initially increases and then decreases.
C. The pressure increases.
D. The pressure decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 130 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the temperature and pressure inside an aerosol can that is being sprayed?
A. Temperature and pressure both increase.
B. Temperature and pressure are decreased.
C. Temperature and pressure are unchanged.
D. Temperature is unchanged and pressure is decreased.
210-250 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 131 Which temperature range is optimal for the proper function of a data center?
A. 62-65F (17-18C)
B. 72-75F (22-24C)
C. 82-85F (28-29C)
D. 92-95F (33-35C)
Answer: B
Question No : 132 What is the correct order of the refrigeration cycle datacenter precision cooling?
A. Condensation > evaporation > expansion > compression
B. Compression > condensation > evaporation > expansion
C. Evaporation > expansion > condensation > compression
D. Evaporation > compression > condensation > expansion
210-250  vce Answer: D
Question No : 133  What is the historical / traditional architecture of data center cooling?
A. Rack
B. Row
C. Room
D. Building
Answer: C
Question No : 134 Which is an example of a row-oriented cooling architecture?
A. Each cooling unit works to cool the load through a raised floor plenum.
B. Each cooling unit is ceiling mounted and targets cool air to the cold aisles.
C. Each cooling unit works directly to cool the heat load of a specific equipment rack.
D. Each cooling unit is placed along the data center wall and cools the general air space.
210-250  exam Answer: B
Question No : 135 What are three benefits of row-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Predictable cooling
B. Ease of deployment
C. No raised floor required
D. Reduced sensible heat ratio
E. Increased mixing of air streams
Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 136 What are three benefits of rack-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It reduces CRAC fan power required.
B. It utilizes the entire rated CRAC capacity.
C. It eliminates the need for humidity control.
D. It is easy to deploy for high density applications.
E. It reduces the number of air conditioning devices.
210-250 dump Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 137 What characteristic is common to all cooling architectures?
A. Deployable with on a raised floor
B. Top or bottom airflow configuration
C. Cooling equipment occupies white space
D. Easily adaptable with changes in infrastructure
Answer: A
Question No : 138 Which two cooling architectures are flexible enough to adapt to ever-changing data center requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B
Question No : 139  Which is an example of a rack-oriented cooling architecture?
A. A cooling unit is located in the ceiling plenum to cool the data center racks.
B. A cooling unit is located within the rack itself to cool the contents of that rack.
C. A cooling unit utilizes perforated raised floor tiles to deliver cool air to the rack.
D. A cooling unit is located along the perimeter wall of the data center to cool a specific
zone of racks.
Answer: B
Question No : 140 Which cooling architecture has the shortest air flow paths between the cooling unit and the IT equipment?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 141 Which cooling architecture attempts to eliminate hot spots within the data center by utilizing large volumes of air mixing throughout the space?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Ceiling
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Cisco CCIE Collaboration 400-051 Dumps Exam Real Questions Answers Youtube Study

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Q&As: 615

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QUESTION 16
Refer to the Exhibit.
400-051 dumps

An agent initiated a video call but was establish as audio only. The support engineer collected and analyzed the Cisco Unified CM traces. Which two options caused this problem? (Choose two)
A. A hardware MTP was assigned to the call.
B. SIP Notify DTMF was requested and negotiated.
C. MTP Required was checked on the SIP Trunks.
D. Use Trusted Relay Point is set on one of the phones.
E. MRGL assigned to phones with Trusted Relay Point.
400-051 exam 
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 17
An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-051 dumps

Correct Answer:
400-051 dumps

QUESTION 18
Multiple users report that when they try to login to Cisco Unified Communications Extension Mobility Manager this error is retrieved? “Error:-[26] Busy, please try again” Which description of the cause is true?
A. The intracluster Multiple Login Behaviour is set to Multiple Logins Not Allowed.
B. The Validate IP Address parameter is set to false, so the IP is not found in the trust list.
C. The number of concurrent log in and logout requests is higher than the Maximum Concurrent Requests service parameter.
D. The Extension Mobility Cache size has been lowered to 1000 and no more logins are allowed beyond this number.
400-051 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which option describes how NVF, OpenStack and KVM relate to each other?
A. OpenStack and KVM can be used to provide NVF.
B. OpenStack and KVM are not related to NVF.
C. NVF and KVM are based on OpenStack.
D. OpenStack and NVF enable KVM.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps

Site A and site B have a 3-hour time difference. An administrator has time-of-day routing configured at site A and site B for all incoming calls to the main phone number, DN 8000. Two hunt pilots with the same DN are configured with the time periods of site A and B. Which Statement about the incoming calls is true?
A. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Wednesday after 1500 PST are answered by the site B IP phone.
B. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday are answered by the site A IP phone.
C. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday after 17:00 PST are answered by the site A and site B IP phones.
D. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Sunday are answered by the site B IP phone.
400-051 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
A client wants to play and compose voice messages from Microsoft Outlook. What is required for this functionality?
A. single inbox synchronisation with send and draft messages
B. single inbox with ViewMail
C. single inbox with mailboxes larger than 2 GB
D. single inbox user message delivery with folder deletion
Correct Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?
A. INVITE
B. 180 Ringing
C. 200 OK
D. ACK
E. RTP Media
400-051 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation: 200 OK Indicates the request was successful.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?
A. The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D. The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
E. The MGCP gateway is responding to a CRCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
Answer: D
Explanation:
See MGCP packet debugging examples and their meanings at the Reference link below. Reference: Sample of Debug MGCP Packets
Question No : 24 – (Topic 2)  Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?
A. Terminal Capability Set
B. Open Logical Channel
C. Master-Slave Determination
D. Call Setup
E. Call Progress
400-051 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round-trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-135 pdf Answer: B
Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. SOAP
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-135 vce Answer: C, E
Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
components?
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D
QUESTION 9
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-135 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 12
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 966

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1. What are three roles in HFM security? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Run Allocation
B. Delete Journals
C. Create Unbalanced Journals
D. Save System Report on Server
200-125 exam Answer: ACD
2. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are Export Data Criteria options?
A. Scenario, Year, View, Entity, Accounts
B. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Value, ICP
C. Scenario, Year, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: A
3. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are valid Import Data Method options?
A. Replace, Merge, Aggregate
B. Merge, Accumulate, Remove
C. Accumulate, Replace, Clear
D. Merge, Replace, Accumulate
200-125 dumps Answer: D
4. You are extracting information using Extended Analytics. Which list shows all the dimensions that allow
for multiple members?
A. Scenario, Year, Period, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
B. Scenario, Year, Period, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
C. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Value, Account, ICP, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: D

5. You are performing a data extract using the Extract Data module. From which three dimensions can
you make multiple selections? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: BCD
6. Extended Analytics uses which format for the extracted information?
A. ASCII File
B. Star Schema
C. Snow Flake Diagram
D. Comma Delimited File
Answer: B
7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB
8. What are three available methods for the HFM HAL adapter? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Import Data
B. Import Journals C.
Export Journals D.
Open Application

E. Set Logon Information
200-125 exam Answer: ADE
9. What types of documents can be selected as related content in Financial Reporting? (SELECT
THREE)
A. An Interactive Reporting Report
B. Any web page
C. A Web Analysis Report D. An HFM Web Form
E. A Planning form
Answer: ABC
10. Which two must be selected to enable the Data Audit feature for selected accounts? (SELECT TWO)
A. DataAuditTrail in the ApplicationSettings
B. Data Auditing in the Data Audit Window
C. EnableDataAudit on the selected Accounts
D. Y for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
E. O for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
Answer: CE
11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
200-125 dumps Answer: B
12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.

D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C
13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
Answer: ABD
14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
TWO)
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: CD
15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD
16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only

C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
200-125 exam Answer: D
17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE
18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C
19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
THREE)
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: ACD
20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?

A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C

21.Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause
of the problem?

200-125 dumps

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
22.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
23.Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port
security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

200-125 dumps

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[2017 New Cisco Updated] The Most Effective Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Update 2017 with CCNA Security Video Series Is What You Need To Take (From Google Drive)

Are there any good Cisco 210-260 dumps exams available? “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The most effective Cisco 210-260 dumps IINS exam update 2017 with CCNA Security video series is what you need to take. Pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (80 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-260 dumps is CCNA Security.  Pass4itsure provide CCNA Security https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html IINS exam questions and answers, which only needs 20 hours to complete and can help you well consolidate the related IT professional knowledge to let you have a good preparation for your first time to participate in Cisco certification 210-260 dumps.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Question: 14
Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A – Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B – Both come into being by operation of law.
C – Both are monitored by the courts.
D – Both are required to file income tax returns.
210-260 exam Answer: D
Question: 15
A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year:
Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A – $23,000
B – $45,000
C – $52,000
D – $95,000
Answer: A
Question: 16
A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint
of providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best
choice of trustee?
A – The grantor of the trust
B – The grantor’s 70-year-old father
C – The grantor’s 22-year-old son
D – A bank or trust company
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Question: 17
A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter 10,000

What amount must be brought back to the man’s estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the
calculation of his federal estate taxes?
A – 0
B – $ 90,000
C – $280,000
D – $320,000
Answer: A
Question: 18
A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his
descendants are as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower’s will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his
children, per stripes, which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will
receive?
A – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C – $ 75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D – $ 60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate
planner?
A – Contracts
B – Compatibility
C – Consistency
D – Compensation
Answer: D
Question: 20
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when
the gift was made in 1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift
tax because of the applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s
death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for
$200,000. She had a gain of
A – 0
B – $130,000
C – $160,000
D – $200,000

210-260 vce Answer: A
Question: 21
The Decedent, T, died this year. The facts concerning T estate are:
Gross estate $2,700,000
Marital deduction 900,000
Charitable deduction 110,000
Gifts made after 1976 130,000
State death taxes payable 165,000
What is T taxable estate?
A – $1,285,000
B – $1,395,000
C – $1,525,000
D – $1,655,000
Answer: C
Question: 22
When the owner of a closely held business dies, the payment of a portion of the federal estate tax
may be deferred for a period of several years if the estate otherwise qualifies under the provisions
of IPC Section 6166. Which of the following statements concerning this deferral of federal estate
tax is correct?
A – The interest rate on the deferred tax is determined by the prime rate in effect on the date of
death.
B – The interest on the unpaid estate tax is payable over the first 10 years, after which the tax
plus interest on the balance is payable in equal installments for the last 5 years.
C – To qualify for the tax deferral, the closely held business must represent more than 50 percent
of the value of the decedent’s adjusted gross estate.
D – Under certain circumstances, the estate will forfeit its right to tax deferral, and all the
remaining unpaid estate tax will become due and payable immediately.
210-260 exam Answer: D

Question: 23 Which of the following could be used by Duane to attempt hiding files within the file
system?
A.Attrib
B.HideNSeek
C.Chgrp
D.Alternate Data Stream
Answer: D
Question: 24.Which of the following 210-260 dumps penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A.CANVAS
B.CORE IMPACT
C.METASPLOIT
D.DEEP HOLE
Answer: C
Question: 25.Software Restriction Policies,if implemented correctly,can help protect against what kinds of threats?
Choose two.
A.Trojans
B.Malware
C.Spam
D.Smurf Attacks
Answer: A,B
Question: 26.If the DS Client software has been installed on Windows 95,Windows 98,and NT 4 comptuers,what
setting of the LanMan Authentication level should be applied to counteract LanMan hash sniffing and
offline cracking? Choose the best Answer.
A.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM & NTML
B.Send NTLM only
C.Send LM & NTLM responses
D.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM
210-260 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
Question: 27. Ping utilities can be used for basic network connectivity test; the ping command sends out an ICMP
Echo Request packets and the destination host will reply with an ICMP Echo Reply packets if the host is
alive.However,in some cases the host might be alive and responses are not received.What is the most
likely cause of such behavior?
A.The packet suffers from time exceeded in transit
B.The packet did not reach the destination gateway
C.A filtering device is dropping the packets
D.The remote device OS does not support the ping command.
Answer: C
Question: 28. When doing a Half-Open Scan what packet type would be expected as a response if the port being
probed is closed?
A.FIN
B.ACK
C.RST
D.RST/ACK
210-260 vce Answer: D
Question: 29. Mae i a keen system administration; she constantly monitors the mailing list for best practices that are
being used out in the field.On the servers that she maintains,Mae has renamed the administrator account
to another name to avoid abuse from crackers.However,she found out that it was possible using the
sid2user tool to find the new name she used for the administrator account.Mae does not understand; she
has NOT shared this name with anyone.How can this be?What is the most likely reason?
A.Her system have been compromised
B.Renaming the administrator account does not change the SID
C.She has not applied all of the patches
D.Someone social engineered her
Answer: B
Question: 30.What built-in Windows command can be used to help find remote access trojans?Choose the best
Answer. A.Netstat a
B.Ipconfig/displaydns
C.Nbtstat c
D.Netdiag
210-260 exam Answer: A
Question: 31.Under the Windows platform,there is something refered to as Null Session.
Which of the following statements would best describe what a null session consists of?
A.It is a session where zero bytes of traffic have been transferred
B.It is a session where erroneous commands are being used showing the a lack of knowledge of the user
connected.
C.It is a remote session that is established anonymously to a window machine
D.It is a anonymous FTP session under the Windows platform
Answer: C
Question: 32.Why is tunneling-based trojan software so useful for hackers if it is installed inside a
corporate network?Choose the best 210-260 dumps Answer.
A.Tunneling software uses ports that are not well knwon,eg.12345
B.Stateful inspection firewalls can only filter Server ports of 1-1023
C.It makes network penetration trivial the tunneling occurs using Whatever port(s) the firewall is
configured to allow
D.Anti-trojan software do not have signatures for tunneling trojans,therefore it is easy to have end-users
install tunneling trojans.

Answer: C
Question: 33.On a Linux system,which of the following files would contain the list of user
accounts,their shell,and their home directories?
A.useradd
B.shadow
C.passwd
D.group
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated From Google Drive] Latest Updated CCDP ARCH v3 300–320 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Download for Cisco Network Service Architectures

Pass4itsure has more than 10 years experience in IT certification Cisco 300-320 dumps exam training, including questions and answers. Pass4itsure latest updated CCDP ARCH v3.0 300–320 dumps pdf questions and answers free download for Cisco Network Service Architectures.

Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 389

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QUESTION 1
When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is the
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning Tree Protocol but one of
the big advantages of EAPS is
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring defaultgateway redundancy.
300-320  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin authentication. Extreme
provides a vendor specific attribute ExtremeExtreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
300-320  vce Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path tree. This switch over
will be initiated by
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
300-320  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Exhibit
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host A (10.10.10.100) and
Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
300-320  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration that allows you to connect
active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet from host A to any of the
switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the Radius and Tacacs
+features.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all attachments are made with
a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port Translation Mode the
physical Port where the node connects to must be configured as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
An IP-only IS-IS router (or “IP-only” router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS

B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by the BSR towards
all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are activeIt is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by RP towards all
PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band management port and VLAN.
The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the
switch. If you want the switch to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to
enable ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 27
How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
300-320 dumps

Correct Answer:

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[2017 New Updated] How to Get Best DCUCD v5.0 642-998 Dumps-PDF in Short Time to Guaranteed 642-998 Study Guide Pass Results Success

How to get best Pass4itsure DCUCD v5.0 642-998 dumps  pdf in short time to guaranteed 642-998 study guide pass results success. Passing the https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html dumps (Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCD) v5.0) certification exam is not an easy task because of the extensive course material.

Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 2
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998  dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 5
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
two.)
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool

642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
gateways?
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Updated] Most Popular 200-155 PDF with Verified CCNA Data Center 200-155 Exam Issuu Free Dowload Guaranteed Success

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jun 07, 2017
Q&As: 61
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DCICT exam domains comparison
640-916 DCICT exam Pass4itsure 200-155 DCICT exam
1.0 Cisco Data Center Fundamentals Concepts 30% 1.0 Unified Computing 25%
2.0 Data Center Unified Fabric 20% 2.0 Network Virtualization 17%
3.0 Storage Networking 18% 3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
4.0 Data Center Virtualization 14% 4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
5.0 Unified Computing 17% 5.0 Application Centric Infrastructure 17%
6.0 Data Center Network Services 1%

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 24
What must a system administrator do to reconcile BlackBerry devices with email messages that have been permanently deleted from Microsoft Outlook? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server properties.
B. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Domain properties.
C. Create a new group, add BlackBerry device users to the group, and enable the hard delete option for the group.
D. Change the IT policy for the hard delete option and apply the IT policy to the all users.
E. Use the BlackBerry Resource Kit to apply the hard delete option to all users.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
A custom application has been developed for a group of BlackBerry device users. The organizations management staff require that all users in the group have the custom application installed on their BlackBerry devices. Which method can the system administrator use to prevent the custom application from being uninstalled by users? (Choose one.)
A. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Required.
B. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Optional.
C. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Disallowed.
D. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, an allow list or white list for third-party application control is created.
E. The custom application is signed by Research In Motion Limited so that the application is part of the system software.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which type of confirmation does the Message Receipt Confirmation tool in the BlackBerry Resource Kit monitor? (Choose one.)
A. Email messages to a BlackBerry device
B. PIN messages to a BlackBerry device
C. SMS messages to a BlackBerry device
D. Unread status for email messages sent to a BlackBerry device
E. Message receipts for all email messages sent to a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which two delivery methods are available to push applications to a BlackBerry device using a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless
B. Wireline only
C. Wi-Fi
D. BlackBerry device user initiated download
E. BlackBerry MDS Push Server

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
A company does not want their BlackBerry device users to be able to send PIN messages outside of their company. Which option in the BlackBerry Manager can be used to prevent PIN message communication outside of the company? (Choose one.)
A. Enable Enterprise Service Policy
B. Update Peer-to-Peer Encryption Key
C. Import IT Policy Definitions
D. Disable the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
E. Disable message redirection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
The database administrator for the BlackBerry Configuration Database has advised the system administrator that the Microsoft SQL Server was shut down for maintenance the previous night for approximately two hours. In the application log, from which three BlackBerry Enterprise Server components would the system administrator expect to see warnings when the connection to the Microsoft SQL Server was lost? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Router
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Controller
E. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service

200-155 Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
A BlackBerry device is activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, allowing the BlackBerry device user to send and receive email messages and wirelessly update organizer (PIM) data synchronization control. The user wants to synchronize the address book on the BlackBerry device with a new contact that has recently been created in a personal .pst folder file. What must be done before the user can successfully synchronize the BlackBerry device and the new address book? (Choose one.)
A. The new address book must be assigned to the user in the BlackBerry Manager.
B. The user can synchronize the BlackBerry device to a .pst file in the BlackBerry Manager.
C. Wireless synchronization for the address book must be disabled on the BlackBerry device, and then, the BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. The user must disable the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book feature must be selected for synchronization in the BlackBerry Manager.
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book must be selected for synchronization.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What can be configured for the BlackBerry Controller Service in the Microsoft Windows Registry? (Choose one.)
A. Daily restart of the BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. The number of hung threads
C. The wait count of hung threads
D. Maximum number of BlackBerry Messaging Agents
E. BlackBerry Controller Service enabled

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
How many remote components from a BlackBerry Enterprise Server installation can be installed on the same computer? (Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
When planning for disaster recovery, what are the two minimum version requirements to support replication of the BlackBerry Configuration Database? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.0 Service Pack 4
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 2
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 4 or later

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
A system administrator is installing the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server in an environment. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server will be installed on a member server that does not have a Microsoft Exchange Server and the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account will be named BESAdmin. Which two tasks must be performed in the Microsoft Exchange Server environment prior to installing the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the server on which the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software will be installed has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
B. Verify that the Microsoft Exchange Server that the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will connect to has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
C. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Send As, and Receive As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
D. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
E. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write Properties, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
Given the following example of a BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file: Which logging level has been set for this BlackBerry Enterprise Server component?

(Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
The following line appears in the BlackBerry Dispatcher logs from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server:
[30222] (06/12 23:59:39):{0xFE4} {Smith, Donna} MTH: contentType=IPPP, sizeOTA=1228, sizeOTW=2096, TransactionId=201199664, Tag=9979374
Which action is being performed? (Choose one.)
A. An Internet request packet is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
B. An Internet request packet is being received from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. An email message is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. An email message is being received from the BlackBerry device through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
E. An attachment request packet is being sent from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A system administrator has moved the BlackBerry Configuration Database from one Microsof SQL Server to another. The Microsoft SQL database was backed up from the source server and restored on the destination server. The system administrator restores the BlackBerry Configuration Database on the destination Microsoft SQL Server and configures the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to point to the new Microsoft SQL Server using the BlackBerry Config tool. The BlackBerry Dispatcher, the BlackBerry Synchronization Service, and the BlackBerry Policy Service all fail to start. The system administrator has verified connectivity to the destination Microsoft SQL Server by clicking the Test Microsoft SQL Server Connectivity button. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account is not a member of the local administrators group on the Microsoft SQL Server.
B. The BlackBerry Configuration Database schema is not updated.
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account does not have sufficient Microsoft Exchange permissions.
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is pointed at the wrong database.
E. The BlackBerry system errors (syserrors) are not updated in the master database.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
At what level in the BlackBerry Manager are IT policies created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. User
C. Group
D. Domain
E. Device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
A system administrator wants to create a software configuration that prohibits installation of all third-party applications with the exception of a short list of approved applications. Which two options require the shortest steps to achieve the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
B. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
C. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
D. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
E. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.

Correct Answer: AC

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This Pass4itsure 600-509 dumps tests a candidate’s ability to use the programmability of an open infrastructure to develop and deploy business applications. It also tests how well the candidate can build an application with API capabilities to collect information from the network when needed.

Exam Code: 600-509
Exam Name: Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/600-509.html

Exam Number Pass4itsure 600-509 NPIBA
Associated Certifications Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist
Available Languages English
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
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600-509

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 600-509 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 49
You are administering aWebLogicdomain that consists of an Administration server and a cluster that consists of two Managed Servers, namedserverAandserverB, respectively. These servers are distributed between two machines,machineAandmachineB. The Administration server andserverAare onmachineA andserverBis onmachineB. Local and remote clients are complaining about sluggish performance. Which of the following could help improve network performance in this cluster?
A. Use SSL on both Managed Servers.
B. Crate a separate network channel for IP Multicast.
C. Allocate more RAM to each server.
D. Add another NIC card for each managed server.
E. B and D

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 50
A JMS message is sent to a consumer that is offline. The consumer comes back online. Under which circumstances does the consumer receive the message?
A. JMS message delivery guarantees that the consumer always receives the message.
B. The consumer receives the message if the destination or session is persistent.
C. The consumer receives the message if the message has not timed out.
D. The consumer does not receive the message.
E. If both B and C are true

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
A Web application is deployed from a WAR file namedAppa.war. How can you set the application context toMyApp?
A. Specify that the Web application is the default Web application
B. Deploy in an Enterprise Application, and set the context root toMyApp
C. Set the application external DNS name in the Administration Console.
D. Undeploythe application, rename the fileMyApp.war, and redeploy.
E. B or D
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following is NOT a security feature ofNodeManger?
A. Limiting connections to specific hosts
B. Password expiration
C. Transport security with SSL
D. Digital Certificates for authentication
E. Reverse DNS for host verification

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
To useWebLogic.Adminin “batch” mode, which command-line switch is required?
A. BatchScript
B. BATCHMODEBatchFile
C. Batch
D. BATCHUPDATEBatchFile
E. BATCHUPDATEBatchScript

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
How can you monitor garbage collection in the JVM of aWebLogicserver instance?
A. When starting the JVM, use the -verbose:gcswitch.
B. Whentartingthe JVM, use theprofswitch.
C. Examine the domain logs.
D. UseWebLogic.Adminwiththe CHECKGC command
E. A and B

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
A clusterisdefinedthat consists of sixWebLogicservers running an enterprise application: a Web application and a JAR file with someEJBs. In-memory session replication is enabled for the Web application and theEJBs. All theEJBsareclusterable(home and remote stubs). The round-robin algorithm is used to balance the load across the servers. If the Web application acquires a remote interface to a Stateless Session Bean and calls one of its methods three times, which of the following is true?
A. Each method call is invoked on an EJB instance that is on the same server as the Web application
B. Each method call is invoked on the same EJB instance, on the same server as the Web application.
C. The method calls are distributed, round-robin styles, among the servers.
D. The behavior depends on theidempotenceof theEJB’smethod.
E. The behavior depends on whether JNDI replication is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
When configuringWebLogicsecurity realms, and administrator can:
A. Configure multiple active realms and perform round-robin load balancing among them.
B. Configure multiple active realms and perform failover to a secondary realm if the first realm fails.
C. Configure only two realms and authenticate users from either realm.
D. Configure multiple realms and select one realm to be active.
E. Configure only one realm.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which of the following is a best practice for tuningWebLogic?
A. In each Execute Queue, assign no more than 15 threads per server.
B. Do not allocate more heap memory than physical memory
C. Create at least as many JDBC connections as threads.
D. Utilize as much virtual memory as possible.
E. Set the minimum heap size to 50% of the maximum heap size

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Consider a JDBC multi-pool with three connection pools (Pool A, Pool B and Pool C). The distribution algorithm is set to High Availability. You attempt to acquire a connection to Pool A. Under what circumstances do you get a connection to Pool B or Pool C?
A. When the connection to Pool A fails a connection test
B. When all the connections in Pool A are in use
C. When Pool B or Pool C is next in the round-robin algorithm
D. You never get a connection from Pool B or Pool C
E. A and B

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
A server with a Message-driven Bean is listening to a JMS queue. It appears that messages are waiting in the queue too long. How can you decrease the time that messages spend in the queue?
A. Increase the Message-driven Bean pool size.
B. Increase the JMS Queue priority.
C. Assign the Message-driven Bean to a prioritized Execute Queue.
D. A and C
E. A and B

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
A JMS producer is overwhelming its destination. How can you help fix this problem?
A. Use a durable subscriber.
B. Enable JMS Flow Control.
C. Configure a JMS store.
D. Use a Message-driven Bean.
E. Enable Message Filtering.

Correct Answer: B

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