MCSA, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated] First-hand Microsoft SQL Server 70-764 Dumps PDF Exam Sample Questions Free Download for MCSA Video Series (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
70-764 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
 C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
70-764 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
70-764 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
70-764 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
70-764 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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MCP Microsoft Specialist, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated]Helpful Microsoft Azure 70-533 Dumps Practice Test Questions Guaranteed Microsoft Certification for Full Microsoft Video Series [2017 New Updated (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 10
To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the configure
method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of the
mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of
the mapper.
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Consider the following two relations, A and B.
Which Pig statement combines A by its first field and B by its second field?
A. C = DOIN B BY a1, A by b2;
B. C = JOIN A by al, B by b2;
C. C = JOIN A a1, B b2;
D. C = JOIN A SO, B $1;
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
What is the disadvantage of using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner and distributing your
workload across you cluster?
A. You will not be able to compress the intermediate data.
B. You will longer be able to take advantage of a Combiner.
C. By using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner, output files may not be in globally sorted
order.
D. There are no concerns with this approach. It is always advisable to use multiple reduces.
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Multiple reducers and total ordering
If your sort job runs with multiple reducers (either because mapreduce.job.reduces in mapred-site.xml has
been set to a number larger than 1, or because you’ve used the -r option to specify the number of reducers
on the command-line), then by default Hadoop will use the HashPartitioner to distribute records across the
reducers. Use of the HashPartitioner means that you can’t concatenate your output files to create a single
sorted output file. To do this you’ll need total ordering,
Reference: Sorting text files with MapReduce
QUESTION 13
Identify the MapReduce v2 (MRv2 / YARN) daemon responsible for launching application containers and
monitoring application resource usage?
A. ResourceManager
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationMaster
D. ApplicationMasterService
E. TaskTracker
F. JobTracker
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Apache Hadoop YARN ?Concepts&; Applications
QUESTION 14
You have the following key-value pairs as output from your Map task:
(the, 1)
(fox, 1)
(faster, 1)
(than, 1)
(the, 1)
(dog, 1)
How many keys will be passed to the Reducer’s reduce method?
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Two
E. One
F. Three
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Only one key value pair will be passed from the two (the, 1) key value pairs.
QUESTION 15
What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reducing lets you aggregate values together. A reducer function receives an iterator of input
values from an input list. It then combines these values together, returning a single output value.
All values with the same key are presented to a single reduce task.
Reference: Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce
 QUESTION 16
The activity diagram below shows a simplified order processing procedure. Which of the following
statements is correct for this flow?
(2 Points)
A. The flow is not modelled correctly, since no condition (branch)should be present within a fork.
B. The flow is modelled correctly: the goods branch as well as the export and domestic order branch are
processed in parallel to one another.
C. The flow is not modelled correctly, since the branches for the domestic and export orders must be
consolidated via a diamond symbol.
D. The flow is modelled correctly and the “issue invoice” activity is conducted after the “compile goods”
activity.
70-533 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You decide to talk
through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback which must now be
documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to document the details of a
single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Correct Answer: D
 QUESTION 18
What does the Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
70-533 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
What does the Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and
MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression
E. All of the above
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following
features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in
path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
70-533 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the
Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
70-533 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater
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CCDP, Cisco

[2017 New Updated From Google Drive] Latest Updated CCDP ARCH v3 300–320 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Download for Cisco Network Service Architectures

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 389

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QUESTION 1
When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is the
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning Tree Protocol but one of
the big advantages of EAPS is
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring defaultgateway redundancy.
300-320  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin authentication. Extreme
provides a vendor specific attribute ExtremeExtreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
300-320  vce Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path tree. This switch over
will be initiated by
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
300-320  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Exhibit
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host A (10.10.10.100) and
Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
300-320  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration that allows you to connect
active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet from host A to any of the
switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the Radius and Tacacs
+features.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all attachments are made with
a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port Translation Mode the
physical Port where the node connects to must be configured as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
An IP-only IS-IS router (or “IP-only” router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by the BSR towards
all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are activeIt is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by RP towards all
PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band management port and VLAN.
The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the
switch. If you want the switch to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to
enable ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 27
How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
300-320 dumps

Correct Answer:

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Microsoft, Microsoft Certification

[2017 New Updated] Download Free Microsoft Azure HDInsight 70-775 Dumps and Beta 70-775 Vce Files for Microsoft Certification Is Your Best Choice on Daliymotion

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia When deciding on the players in the lineup, the
coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together. If George starts, Marlene
won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If George is in the starting lineup, who must also start?
A. Marlene or John
B. Dexter or Leanne
C. Dexter or John
D. John or Patricia E.
Marlene or Roger
70-775 exam Answer: D
2.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Which of the following pairs cannot start together?
A. Erwin and Dexter
B. George and John
C. Roger and John
D. John and Bart
E. Patricia and Marlene
Answer: A
3.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from thesecond group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start. The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If Marlene is on the starting lineup, which of the following players will be the first groupplayers who will
also be starting?
A. John
B. John and Dexter
C. John and Bart
D. John, Dexter and Bart
E. John, Erwin and Bart
70-775 pdf Answer: C
4.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Of the following hockey players, who must start?
A. Patricia
B. John
C. George
D. Marlene
E. Bart
Answer: E
5.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill
doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger.
Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not Melville).
What is the name of the Dragon?
A. Audrey
B. Hamish
C. Melville
D. Rex
E. Dave
70-775 dumps Answer: B
6.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Who is the assistant puppeteer for Melville?
A. Dave
B. Gale
C. Pam
D. Tom
E. Ben
Answer: A
7.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom.
Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Which chief puppeteer works with Tom?
A. Ben
B. Jill
C. Paul
D. Sue
E. Rex
70-775 exam Answer: A
8.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
With what kind of animal does Gale work?
A. Dragon
B. Gorilla
C. Kangaroo
D. Tiger E.
Lemur
Answer: C
9.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
What table is Stephen playing at, and what is the score at that table?
A. Table 1, 2.5:1.5
B. Table 1, 3:0
C. Table 2, 3:0
D. Table 2, 2.5:1.5
E. Table 3, 2:1
70-775 dumps Answer: C
10.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1,
1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Whose score is highest?
A. Mike
B. Stephen
C. Richie
D. David
E. Lenny
Answer: D
11.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Which player has black pieces and is tied?
A. Mike
B. David
C. Richie
D. Don
E. Terry
70-775 pdf Answer: A
12.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 [note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike. At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Who is the winning player at table 4?
A. Don
B. Terry
C. David
D. Gerry
E. Richie
Answer: A

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[2017 New Updated] How to Get Best DCUCD v5.0 642-998 Dumps-PDF in Short Time to Guaranteed 642-998 Study Guide Pass Results Success

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How to get best Pass4itsure DCUCD v5.0 642-998 dumps  pdf in short time to guaranteed 642-998 study guide pass results success. Passing the https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-998.html dumps (Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCD) v5.0) certification exam is not an easy task because of the extensive course material.

Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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642-998 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 642-998 Dumps Exam Q&As:

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 2
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998  dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 5
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
two.)
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
gateways?
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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