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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Jul 08, 2017
Q&As: 86

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-696  Dumps Exam Q&As:

Which of the following International Telecommunication Union (ITU) recommendations defines
the standard for store-and-forward fax transmission over IP networks?
A. T.37
B. S.47
C. V.235
D. Q.931
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
Which media protocol is commonly used for Voice over IP (VoIP) solutions?
Answer: C
Users are reporting problems with voice delays on telephone calls on the corporate Voice over
IP (VoIP) network. Which of the following is a possible cause of this problem?
A. Large data packets are causing the voice packets to exceed their delay budget.
B. Echo cancellation has been enabled on the voice coders without configuring phase shifting.
C. The destination number is not contained in the local dial plan, forcing the gateway to do a
recursive number lookup.
D. The voice codec is unable to properly compress the voice stream into packets because the
sampling rate has been set too high.
70-696 dumps 
Answer: A
What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in packet-voice networks?
A. Applies differential routing to voice packets
B. Improves encoding performance for voice packets
C. Reduces serialization and propagation delay to voice packets
D. Increases the amount of available bandwidth of voice packets

Answer: A
Using a T1 circuit to connect a North American company to its European branch, a technician
may choose an E1 carrier trunk. How many total and usable data and/or voice channels can be
A. 23 channels
B. 24 channels
C. 30 channels
D. 32 channels
70-696 pdf 
Answer: B
Which of the following is a common characteristic of circuit-switched networks?
A. A call uses multiple circuits, releasing them during periods of silence for maximum
B. A call has exclusive use of the entire circuit for the duration of the call but is inherently
C. A call can be completed without the need for any signaling because it uses PSTN circuits
instead of TCP/IP.
D. A call has a very robust set of Quality of Service (QoS) options that allows it to overcome
congestion and latency problems.
Answer: B
Which Quality of Service (QoS) technology is used by applications to signal QoS requirements
to the network?
C. 802.1P
D. IP Precedence
70-696 vce 
Answer: B
What is the function of a gatekeeper in a converged network?

A. Provides network connectivity for legacy systems
B. Provides admission control and address translation between endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between packet-switched and circuit-switched
Answer: B
What is a function of a gateway in a converged network?
A. Provides Quality of Service (QoS) to converged networks
B. Provides admission translation and address control between IP endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between circuit-switched and packet-switched
70-696 dumps 
Answer: D
Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard defines PCM voice
coding at 64 Kbps?
A. G.711
B. G.726
C. G.728
D. G.729
Answer: A
Which is a variable delay component in packet-voice networks?
A. Routing-queuing delay
B. Bit-serialization delay
C. End-point processing delay
D. Encoding and compression delay
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?

A. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
B. No more than 80 percent of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. The connection will be transparent to the technician.
D. No less than 80 percent of the T1 can be used or the connection will fail.
Answer: B
A company has complained that its voice quality is poor and would like to switch the codec used
by its on-premise Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway from G.723.1 to G.711. How will changing the
customer’s gateway to G.711 impact the overall bandwidth consumption?
A. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will increase latency
B. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will reduce jitter
C. Decreases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 8 Kbps (plus any overhead)
D. Increases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 64 Kbps (plus any overhead)
70-696 pdf 
Answer: D
Which standards body is responsible for publishing the Requests For Comments (RFCs) that
establish TCP/IP specifications?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
Answer: A
Through troubleshooting, a technician determines that there is a degraded clocking source on a
customer’s wide area network (WAN). Which term would that troubleshooter use to describe this
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Latency
D. Attenuation

70-696 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-443 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question: 1
This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: E
Question: 2
The transaction number assigned to the Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction is:
A. 270
B. 276
C. 834
D. 835
E. 837
Answer: D
Question: 3
Select the correct statement regarding the 834 – Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance transaction.
A. It cannot be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It cannot be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
1Z0-443 pdf 
Answer: E
Question: 4
Implementation features of the Security Management Process include which one of the following?
A. Power Backup plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Security Testing
D. Risk Analysis
E. Authorization and/or Supervision
Answer: D
Question: 5
The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: B
Question: 6
This transaction type may be used in three ways:
1. Reply to a Health Care Claim Status Request.
2. Unsolicited notification of a health care claim status.
3. Request for additional information about a health care claim.
A. 837.
B. 820.
C. 277.
D. 835.
E. 278.
Answer: C
Question: 7
The scope of the Privacy Rule includes:
A. All Employers.
B. The Washington Publishing Company
C. Disclosure of non-identifiable demographics.
D. Oral disclosure of PHI.
E. The prevention of use of de-identified information.
1Z0-443 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 8
The Privacy Rule has broad administrative requirements. Which one of the following requirements is
defined under the Privacy Rule?
A. Designate a security officer.
B. Document termination procedures.
C. Use biometrics to authenticate transactions.
D. Deploy tokens and smart cards to all medical personnel.
E. Verify that business associates treat patient information respectfully.
Answer: E
Question: 9
The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:
A. Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.
B. Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law.
C. Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPA4.
D. Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.
E. Establishing a ‘floor” for privacy protection.
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: E
Question: 10
The code set that must be used to describe or identify inpatient hospital services and surgical
procedures is:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
Answer: D
Question: 11
The Privacy Rule’s penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 12
ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of its workforce have
appropriate access to electronic protected health information. These policies and procedures satisfy
which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D
Question: 13
Performing a periodic review in response to environmental or operational changes affecting the
security of electronic protected health information is called:
A. Transmission Security
B. Evaluation
C. Audit Control
D. Integrity
E. Security Management Process
1Z0-443 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 14
Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B
Question: 15
An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
1Z0-443 vce 
Answer: C


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