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QUESTION 142
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
A medium-sized network with a redundant topology that uses core and access switches is experiencing intermittent end-station accessibility. The root bridge is on one of the core switches. It is determined that the problem occurs during STP convergence and that accessibility issues depend on the STP state of the individual switch port. What is the best way to decrease STP convergence time in this situation?
A. Enable PortFast on the core switches to accelerate the choice of a new root port.
B. Enable UplinkFast on the VLAN that is having the most accessibility problems.
C. Enable UplinkFast on the wiring closet switches at the edge of the network.
D. Enable PortFast on all IOS based switches that have been configured for bridge priority.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Switch S1 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
C. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port.
E. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F.     DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to prevent VLAN attacks. Ports 0/20 – 24 are not currently used on switch Cat2. VLAN 50 is an unused VLAN. How does the configuration in the exhibit improve security on the switch Cat2?

A. The native VLAN is different from any data VLAN.
B. Trunking is negotiated rather than on.
C. DTP is turned off.
D. The ports have been configured as a primary PVLAN.
E. The ports have been configured as a secondary PVLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 169.254.23.59
B. 223.254.255.254
C. 225.1.1.1
D. 227.43.34.2
E. 238.3.3.3
F. 249.1.2.3

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Switch C is configured with UplinkFast. How much time will expire after a failure in L2 before switch C activates the port connected to L3?

A. 1-5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. It must be used with the PortFast feature enabled.
B. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F.     The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F.     process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F.     protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F.     An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?

A. On External_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
C. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
D. On External_B remove the command standby 1 preempt

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two statements characterize VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same broadcast domain.
B. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same collision domain.
C. VLAN membership is based upon port membership or assigned dynamically based on MAC.
D. It is a physical network segment.
E. They must be created in the vlan database mode on all IOS and Cat OS based Catalyst Switches.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which statement about VTP is false?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) operation? (Choose two.)
A. CEF supports per packet load balancing.
B. The CEF switching process can perform packet fragmentation.
C. CEF processed packets forwarded to a tunnel interface create separate lookup table entries.
D. access control lists should be avoided when utilizing CEF because they cause the forwarding decision to bypass CEF and use process switching.
E. CEF can be used to forward packets when an ACL is involved since CEF tables include access control list information.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Which statement correctly describes the extended system ID?
A. It is the 2-bit number of the MSTP instance.
B. It is the VLAN identifier value and allows for 4096 BIDs to be uniquely identified.
C. It is a bridge MAC address which is allocated from a pool of MAC addresses that are factory assigned.
D. It is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Frames from Workstation 1 are given the proper priority through Switch A, but Switch B handles Workstation 1 frames as if they have no precedence. Which of the following actions will allow traffic from Workstation 1 to be given the proper priority?

A. configure qos all command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
B. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
C. configure mls qos trust cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
D. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
E. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
F. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch A fa0/1 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F.     Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F.     ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

e
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2,
and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement
can be derived from the exhibit?

A. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
B. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which two statements are true about CEF switching? (Choose two.)
A. The CEF data plane is responsible for the fragmentation of outgoing packets.
B. The CEF control plane builds the FIB table. The data plane builds the adjacency table and forwards traffic.
C. The CEF control plane builds the FIB and adjacency tables. The data plane forwards IP unicast traffic.
D. IP packets with the IP header options set are process switched.
E. Packets with the TCP header options set are process switched.
F. The adjacency table is derived from next hop IP addresses in the routing table.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
A switch sends BPDUs with which destination address upon initial bootup?
A. a well-known STP multicast address
B. the IP address of its default gateway
C. the MAC addresses stored in the CAM table
D. the MAC address of neighbors discovered via CDP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is initially the root bridge. Switch D with bridge priority of 0 is added to the network. Which port should the Root Guard feature be configured on to prevent Switch D from becoming the root?

A. Switch A fa0/2
B. Switch C fa0/1
C. Switch C fa0/3
D. Switch D fa0/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 121
Which specification can associate VLAN groups to Spanning Tree instances to provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
D. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
What is advertised by a Catalyst switch in a VTP domain?
A. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch
B. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CFI Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number
C. the management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters
D. a 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three.)
A. the use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic
B. the use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic
C. the proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible
D. the use of 802.1QinQ trunking for VoIP traffic
E. the use of WRED for the VoIP traffic

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which four protocols have been developed for IP routing redundancy to protect against first-hop router failure? (Choose four.)
A. HSRP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. VRRP
E. MSTP
F. GLBP

Correct Answer: ABDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 82
Switch CK1 is configured to use the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP). What does CK1 advertise in its VTP domain?
A. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CF1 Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number.
C. The management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
D. A 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Each switch participating in VTP advertises VLAN information, revision numbers, and VLAN parameters

on its trunk ports to notify other switches in the management domain.
VTP advertisements are sent as multicast frames. The switch intercepts frames sent to the VTP multicast
address and processes them with its supervisory processor VTP frames are forwarded out trunk links as a
special case.
The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:

1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: page 115, David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7 Incorrect Answers: A: The total number of trunk links is not advertised.
B: A CFI is not advertised.
D: The TPID is not advertised. The value of 0x8100 is used to identify an 802.1Q trunking tag.
QUESTION 83
VTP switches use advertisements to exchange information with each other. Which of the following advertisement types are associated with VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. Domain advertisements
B. Advertisement requests from clients
C. Subset advertisements
D. Summary advertisements

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP advertisements include:

1.
Summary Advertisements – These go out every 5 minutes or ever time the VLAN
topology changes, and lists of information about the management domain (VTP version, domain name,
configuration revision number, timestamp, MD5 encryption hash code, & number of subset advertisements
incoming). When there is a configuration change, summary advertisements are complimented by or more
subset advertisements.
2.
Subset advertisements – These are sent out by VTP domain servers after a
configuration change. They list the specifics of the change (VLAN creation / deletion / suspension /
activation / name change / MTU change) and the VLAN parameters (VLAN status, VLAN type, MTU, VLAN
name, VLAN number, SAID value).
3.
Advertisement Requests from Clients- VTP clients request specific VLAN information
that they’re lacking (ie. Client switch is reset and loses its database, or VTP domain membership changes)
so they can be responded by summary and subset advertisements.
Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: pages 116-117 David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco
Press 2001, ISBN 1-58720 000-7

QUESTION 84
Switch CK1 is part of the Certkiller VTP domain. What’s true of VTP Pruning within this domain? (Select all that apply)
A. It does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
B. VLAN 1 is always pruning-eligible
C. it will prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
D. VLAN 2 is always pruning-ineligible
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By definition, pruning-ineligible VLANs can not be pruned. You can make specific VLANs pruning ineligible
with the clear vtp pruneeligible vlan_range command. By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since
the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: VLAN 1 is always pruning-ineligible
C: The opposite is true.
D: By default, VLANs 2-1000 are eligible to be pruned.
QUESTION 85
What action should you execute if you wanted to enable VTP pruning on your entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the management domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
E. Disable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server allows pruning for the entire management domain. Enabling this on the VTP server will mean that the VTP pruning configuration will be propagated to all VTP client switches within the domain. VTP pruning takes effect several seconds after you enable it. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 are pruning-eligible. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 117
QUESTION 86
Switch CK1 is configured with VTP. Which two VTP modes will make CK1 capable of creating and deleting VLANs on itself? (Select two)
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. No-negotiate

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP Modes
You can configure a switch to operate in any one of these VTP modes:

1.
Server-In VTP server mode, you can create, modify, and delete VLANs and specify other configuration parameters (such as VTP version) for the entire VTP domain. VTP servers advertise their VLAN configuration to other switches in the same VTP domain and synchronize their VLAN configuration with other switches based on advertisements received over trunk links. VTP server is the default mode.

2.
Client-VTP clients behave the same way as VTP servers, but you cannot create, change, or delete VLANs on a VTP client.

3.
Transparent-VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based
on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP
advertisements that they receive out their trunk interfaces.
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: Clients can not modify, add, or delete any VLAN information. D, E: These options are not valid VTP modes.
QUESTION 87
When the Catalyst switch CK1 is enabled to use VTP, which information does it advertise on its trunk ports? (Select two)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VTP protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout the network by distributing VLAN information to the network. VLAN information is sent to network devices in advertisements that contain the VTP management domain name, the current configuration revision number, the VLANs that the server knows about, and certain VLAN parameters. Any time you change a VLAN, VTP automatically sends an advertisement to update all other network devices. The following global configuration information is distributed in VTP advertisements:
1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (for ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format Reference: Cisco, Configuring VTP http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/lan/cat5000/rel_6_1/config/vtp.htm
QUESTION 88
Is the following statement True or False?
MLS requires that MLS components be in the same VTP domain.

A. False
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. True
D. It could be true or false, depending on the type of switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
MLS requires that MLS components, including the end stations, must be in the same Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP) domain. VTP is a Layer 2 protocol used for managing VLANs on several Catalyst switches from a central switch. It allows an administrator to create or delete a VLAN on all switches in a domain without having to do so on every switch in that domain. The MultiLayer Switching Protocol (MLSP), which the MLS-SE and the MLS-RP use to communicate with one another, does not cross a VTP domain boundary.
QUESTION 89
Which of the following VTP modes receives and forwards VTP updates, but does NOT participate in VTP synchronization?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pass-through
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transparent-VTP transparent network devices do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent network device does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements. However, in VTP version 2, transparent network devices do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunking LAN ports.
QUESTION 90
How can VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. By limiting the spreading of VLAN information.
B. By reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs.
C. By disabling periodic VTP updates.
D. By restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains.
E. By updating unicast traffic periodically.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.
Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a0080091

QUESTION 91
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding VTP?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.
E. All of the above are true statements.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
For VTP pruning to be effective, all devices in the management domain must either support VTP pruning
or, on devices that do not support VTP pruning, you must manually configure the VLANs allowed on
trunks.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: This statement is true. Transparent VTP switches do not participate in the VTP process, but they do forward VTP information to other switches. B, C: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices.
QUESTION 92
By what condition can a VTP version 2 switch operate in the same domain as a switch running VTP version 1?
A. VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
B. VTP version 2 is enabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
C. VTP version 1 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch
D. None of the above. VTP version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1
provided VTP version 2 is disabled on the VTP version 2-capable switch (VTP version 2 is disabled by
default). With VTP version 2 disabled, the switch will revert to version 1 to become backward compatible.

QUESTION 93
Is the following statement True or False?
If you modified a VTP transparent switch, the changes you implement will affect all the switches in the
network?

A. True
B. There is not enough information to determine
C. False

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
If you configure the switch as VTP transparent, you can create and modify VLANs but the changes affect
only the individual switch. Transparent switches do not participate in VTP. Only changes made to a VTP
switch in server mode will be propagated to all the other client switches within the network.

QUESTION 94
Which of the following message types are associated with VTP header fields on a Cisco switched network? (Select all that apply)
A. Summary advertisements
B. Advertisement requests
C. VTP Join messages
D. Subset advertisement
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The format of the VTP header can vary depending on the type of VTP message.
However, they all contain the following fields in the header: VTP protocol version: 1 or 2 VTP Message
Types: Summary advertisements, Subset advertisement, Advertisement requests, VTP join messages,
Management domain length, and Management domain name.

QUESTION 95
In order for the Certkiller network to use VTP, which of the following conditions have to be met? (Select all that apply)
A. Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
B. The Catalyst switches must be non-adjacent for trunking to be possible between them
C. The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
D. Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same VTP domain name.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the online documentation provided by Cisco: In order to use VTP, you must assign a VTP
domain name to each switch. VTP information will remain only within the same VLAN domain. The
following are conditions for a VTP domain: -Each Catalyst switch in a domain should be assigned the same
VTP domain name.
-The Catalyst switches must be adjacent.
-Trunking must be enabled between all Catalyst switches.
If any one of the previous conditions is not met, the VTP domain is broken and information will not travel
between the two separate parts.

QUESTION 96
The Certkiller switches are all VTP enabled. What is true about VTP? (Select all that apply)
A. VTP version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
B. you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2.
C. VTP version 1 is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later
D. VTP version 1 is supported in ATM software release 3.1 or later.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco Documentation:
If you use VTP in your network, you must decide whether to use VTP version 1 or version 2. VTP version 1
is supported in supervisor engine software release 2.1 or later and ATM software release 3.1 or later. VTP
version 2 is supported in supervisor engine software release 3.1(1) and later.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps679/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007
d

QUESTION 97
In the Certkiller switched network VTP pruning has been enabled. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
A. Enhancing network integrity
B. Enhancing network bandwidth use
C. Deploying AAA
D. Enhancing network security
E. Enhancing network load balancing
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to Cisco:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices.

QUESTION 98
Switches CK1 and CK2 are both configured for transparent mode in the VTP domain. Which statement accurately describes these transparent VTP switches? (Select all that apply):
A. They do not synchronize VLAN configuration based on received advertisements
B. They do not participate in VTP
C. They do not advertise VLAN configuration
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN
configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements.
However, in VTP version 2, transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out
their trunk ports.

QUESTION 99
You are configuring switch CK1 for VTP. Which of the following are valid VTP operating modes that can be configured on CK1 ? (Select all that apply)
A. Server
B. Front-end
C. Client
D. Transparent
E. Backbone

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are only three VTP operating modes:
1) Server: These switches have full control in the creation and modification of VLANs.
Servers advertise out all the VLAN information they receive, and they configure

themselves in accord with whatever information they hear. Switches are in server mode by default.
2) Client: These switches listen to VTP advertisements, they modify their configuration as a result of what
they hear, and they forward out VTP information to neighboring switches; but they don’t have the ability to:
create, change, or delete VLANs.
3) Transparent: These switches don’t participate in the VTP process. They don’t advertise their VLAN
configurations and they don’t synchronize their database when they receive advertisements. In VTP
version 1 a switch doesn’t relay information it gets to the other switches but in VTP version 2 they do.

QUESTION 100
Which of the following are true regarding the default values of a switch that is configured for VTP pruning? (Select two).
A. VLAN 1-1000 are pruning-eligible
B. VLAN 2-1000 are pruning-eligible
C. VLAN 1 is pruning-eligible
D. VLAN 1 is pruning-ineligible
E. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-eligible
F. VLAN 1-1023 is pruning-ineligible

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, VLANs 2-1000 are pruning-eligible. Since the default VLAN for any switch port in a Catalyst
switch is VLAN 1, it is not eligible for pruning.

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QUESTION 1
Which address type does the IPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A. unspecified
B. aggregable global unicast
C. link local
D. site local unicast
E. multicast
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: All IPv6 multicast addresses start with the first 8 bits of the address set to 1. Thus all multicast addresses start with the hexadecimal notation FF (1111 1111). The multicast range is as follows: FF00::/8 FFFF::/8 The second octet, following to the first octet of FF, identifies both the scope and the lifetime of the multicast address. In this way, IPv6 has millions of group multicast addresses to use in current and emerging technologies. Reference: CCNP Self-Study CCNP BSCI Exam Certification Guide p.112
QUESTION 2
In IS-IS routing, which level is used to route between different areas within the same domain?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which statement is true about the Certkiller .com network?

A. There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement.
B. All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000.
C. There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement.
D. All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded.
E. The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
Exhibit, Network topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, default information-originate, is added to the OSPF configuration on Certkiller 1, what will the neighboring routers see in their route table?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
B. O E1 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
C. O E2 0.0.0.0 [1/0] via 6.0.0.3, 00:28:00
D. No default routes will be propagated to neighboring routers.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 3, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?

A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Both Certkiller 5 and Certkiller 2 are performing two-way IGRP/RIP route redistribution. What behavior will Certkiller 2 use with the given Certkiller 2 configurations?
A. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through RIP will be ignored.
B. Updates about 192.168.1.0 will be advertised out the s0 interface.
C. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are heard through the s1 interface will be ignored.
D. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through IGRP will be added to the routing table, but not advertised to Certkiller 1.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Exhibit, Network Topology You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. Which command will Certkiller 2 use to summarize routes for the 192.168.16.0/22 supernet before injecting them into Area 0?

A. area 10 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
B. summary-address 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
C. ip summary-address ospf 101.192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
D. area 0 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
E. ip summary-address area 0 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three are advantages to creating multiple areas in OSPF? Select three.
A. less frequent SPF calculations
B. fewer hello packets
C. smaller routing tables
D. reduced LSU overhead
E. fewer adjacencies needed
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Exhibit, Network Topology

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the following command, variance 2, were added to Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
B. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
C. Only Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
D. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1
E. Both Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1
F. All available paths.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Exhibit interface serial0 bandwidth 40 ip bandwidth-percent eigpr 1 200 In the configuration in the exhibit, how much bandwidth will be used by the EIGRP updates?
A. 40 kbps
B. 60 kbps
C. 80 kbps
D. 200 kbps
E. 40 Mbps
F. 60 Mbps
G. 80 Mbps
H. 200 Mbps
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor?
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? Select three.
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 address is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 13
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? Select three.
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Exhibit, Network Topology

Exhibit You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Studyy the exhibit carefully. What is the effect of the distribute list command in the Certkiller 1 configuration?

A. Certkiller 1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
B. Certkiller 1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
C. Certkiller 1 will filter 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the Certkiller 2 RIP updates.
D. Certkiller 1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the following diagram:

When performing a show run on router Certkiller 1, you notice that two static entries shown above were
configured for the 10.0.0.0 network.
Which path will be selected by the router as the best path?

A. Per-destination load sharing will be implemented.
B. The path through Certkiller 2 will be used.
C. The path through Certkiller 3 will be used.
D. Per-packet load sharing will be implemented.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A static route configured using the interface is considered to be a directly connected route. Directly connected
routes have an administrative distance of 0, while all other static routes have and AD of 1. In this case, the route specifying the interface will be chosen over a static route that specifies the IP address of the next hop, because of the lower AD.
QUESTION 16
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. one update package
B. two update package
C. three update package
D. four update package
E. five update package
F. six update package
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP 2 Packet Format:
The RIP 2 specification (described in RFC 1723) allows more information to be included in RIP packets
and provides a simple authentication mechanism that is not supported by RIP. Figure 47-2 shows the IP
RIP 2
packet format.
The following descriptions summarize the IP RIP 2 packet format fields illustrated in Figure 47-2:
1.
Command-Indicates whether the packet is a request or a response. The request asks that a router send all or a part of its routing table. The response can be an unsolicited regular routing update or a reply to a request. Responses contain routing table entries. Multiple RIP packets are used to convey information from large routing tables.

2.
Version-Specifies the RIP version used. In a RIP packet implementing any of the RIP 2 fields or using authentication, this value is set to 2.

3.
Unused-Has a value set to zero.

4.
Address-family identifier (AFI)-Specifies the address family used. RIPv2’s AFI field functions identically to RFC 1058 RIP’s AFI field, with one exception: If the AFI for the first entry in the message is 0xFFFF, the remainder of the entry contains authentication information. Currently, the only authentication type is simple password.

5.
Route tag-Provides a method for distinguishing between internal routes (learned by RIP) and external routes (learned from other protocols).

6.
IP address-Specifies the IP address for the entry.

7.
Subnet mask-Contains the subnet mask for the entry. If this field is zero, no subnet mask has been specified for the entry.

8.
Next hop-Indicates the IP address of the next hop to which packets for the entry should be forwarded.

9.
Metric-Indicates how many internetwork hops (routers) have been traversed in the trip to the destination. This value is between 1 and 15 for a valid route, or 16 for an unreachable route. NoteUp to 25 occurrences of the AFI, Address, and Metric fields are permitted in a single IP RIP packet. That is, up to 25 routing table entries can be listed in a single RIP packet. If the AFI specifies an authenticated message, only 24 routing table entries can be specified. Given that individual table entries aren’t fragmented into multiple packets, RIP does not need a mechanism to resequence datagrams bearing routing table updates from neighboring routers. Since a single update packet can contain at most 25 route entries, 4 packets will be needed to advertise 77 routes.
QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single interface is used to route between subnets or networks, this is know as a router-on-a-stick.
To assign multiple IP addresses to the same interface, secondary addresses or subinterfaces are used.
The Advantage is that it is useful when there are limited Ethernet interfaces on the router.
The Disadvantages to this design are:
subnets. resources that will be consumed on the router can become an issue.

QUESTION 18
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three)
A. Supports variable-length subnet mask by default.
B. Does not support variable-length subnet mask by default.
C. Supports discontiguous networks by default.
D. Multicast updates to 224.0.0.9.
E. Broadcast updates.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Features of RIP v2 To help today’s IP internetworks minimize broadcast traffic, use variable length subnetting to conserve IP addresses, and secure their routing environment from misconfigured or malicious routers, several key features were added to RIP v2. Multicasted RIP Announcements Rather than broadcasting RIP announcements, RIP v2 supports sending RIP announcements to the IP multicast address of 224.0.0.9. Non-RIP nodes are not disturbed by RIP router announcement traffic. Subnet Masks RIP v2 announcements send the subnet mask (also known as a network mask) along with the network ID. RIP v2 can be used in subnetted, supernetted, and variable-length subnet mask environments. Subnets of a network ID do not have to be contiguous (they can be disjointed subnets).
QUESTION 19
The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used by the grand majority of distance vector routing protocols in DUAL (diffusing update algorithm). Which of the following routing protocols is it?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DUAL is used by EIGRP. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur.
QUESTION 20
The Certkiller EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command “variance 3” was added to the EIGRP configuration of Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Complex, redundant EIGRP networks can cause scalability problems. The best solution to this is to provide a means within the context of the EIGRP protocol itself to control traffic flows and limit query depth. TheEIGRP Stub Router functionality in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(7)T can achieve this solution. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
QUESTION 22
The Certkiller OSPF network is displayed below: Refer to the exhibit. All routers have converged and neighbor relationships have been established. Which state is Certkiller 4 in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment. The same process is repeated for the BDR. In case of a tie, the router with the highest RID will win. The default for the interface OSPF priority is one. Based on the output above, the dead timer shows that the neighbor relationships have already been established, so the state will be Full for all neighbors, and since the OSPF priorities are all set to 1, the router with the highest router ID will be the DR.
QUESTION 23
The Certkiller backbone OSPF network is shown below:

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Certkiller 1 RID is 1.1.1.1.
B. The Certkiller 1 RID is 10.1.1.1.
C. The Certkiller 1 RID is 192.168.1.1.
D. The Certkiller 2 RID is 10.1.1.2.
E. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.1.2.
F. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.2.1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Remember that the RID is the highest IP address on the box or the loopback interface, calculated at boot time or whenever the OSPF process is restarted. Although the other interfaces on routers Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are higher, the loopback interface is always used as the router ID. If more than one loopback interface is configured, the loopback interface with the highest IP address is chosen as the Router ID.
QUESTION 24

Which type of Link State Announcement will Certkiller E use to announce changes in network 22 to Area 1?
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The external link LSA is originated by AS boundary routers and is flooded throughout the AS. Each external advertisement describes a router to a destination in another autonomous system. Default routes for the AS can also be described by AS external advertisements. This is identified as a Type 5 LSA.
QUESTION 25
What is the OSPF cost for the 100 Mbps Ethernet media type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
E. 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, OSPF uses the formula of 100,000,000 (100M) divided by bandwidth, or 100,000,000/BW. For
a
100M fast Ethernet connection, the formula is 100M/100M = 1.

QUESTION 26
As a Certkiller .com network technician you are required to drag the appropriate IS-IS routing item to its correct definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Given the NSAP 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A NET is a NSAP where the last byte is always zero. On a router running IS-IS, a NET can be 8 to 20 B in length. The last byte is always the n-selector and must be zero. The n-selector indicates which transport entity the packet is sent to. An n-selector of zero indicates no transport entity, and means that the packet is for the routing software of the system. The six bytes directly preceding the n-selector are the system ID. The system ID length is a fixed size and cannot be changed. The system ID must be unique throughout each area (Level 1) and throughout the backbone (Level 2). All bytes preceding the system ID are the area ID. The area ID field is the portion of the NSAP preceding the system ID. The following example shows a router with area ID 47.0004.004d.0001 and system ID 0001.0c11.1110: 47.0004.004d.0001.0001.0c11.1110.00 In our example, the six bytes preceding the N selector is 0001.0c00.1211 which is the system ID. The portion preceding this, 39.0100.0102, is the area ID.
QUESTION 28
Which two commands can be used to verify that RIPv2 authentication is working properly to ensure that RIP neighbors form adjacencies properly? (Choose two.)
A. show interface
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip rip authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Verifying Plain Text Authentication RIP version 2 routers can use either plain text or MD5 authentication. By configuring the routers using RIPv2 authentication, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from thedebugip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3
02:11:39.207: RIP: received packet with text authentication 234 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: received v2 update from 141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:25, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C
80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 Using plain text authentication improves the network design by preventing the addition of routing updates originated by routers not meant to take part in the local routing exchange process. However, this type of authentication is not secure. The password (234 in this example) is exchanged in plain text. It can be captured easily and thus exploited. As mentioned before, MD5 authentication must be preferred over plain text authentication when security is an issue. Verifying MD5 Authentication By configuring the RA and RB routers as shown above, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received packet with MD5 authentication *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received v2 update from
141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 20:48:37.050: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:03, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 MD5 authentication uses the one-way, MD5 hash algorithm, acknowledged to be a strong hashing algorithm. In this mode of authentication, the routing update does not carry the password for the purpose of authentication. Rather, a 128-bit message, generated by running the MD5 algorithm on the password, and the message are sent along for authentication. Thus, it is recommended to use MD5 authentication over plain text authentication since it is more secure. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f1c.shtml#veri
QUESTION 29

1.
all routers are using BGP

2.
synchronization is OFF in AS 647000
A. Router CK6
B. Routers CK2 and CK6
C. Routers CK2 , CK4 , and CK6
D. Routers CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
F. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6
G. It will not be propagated to any other router

Correct Answer: FEACDGB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The AS PATH is a well known mandatory attribute. Mandatory means that it is required by all routers.
These
attributes are required and are therefore recognized by all BGP implementations.

QUESTION 32
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:

7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if bestpath is already selected.

9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath. Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.

10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).

11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 33
The Certkiller WAN is displayed below:

You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully.
BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and one of the default attributes have
been changed except the MED attribute on Certkiller 5.
Which path is preferred by Certkiller 2 to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24?

A. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it is the shortest path.
B. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it has a higher metric.
C. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower administrative distance.
D. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In BGP, the lowest MED metric is preferred over a higher metric. By default, the value of the metric is 0, so
for AS 200, the path via Certkiller 5 will have a metric of 0, and the path via Certkiller 1 will have a metric of
150, so the path from Certkiller 5 will be preferred.

QUESTION 34
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The WEIGHT attribute is a Cisco proprietary feature used to measure a route’s preference. The WEIGHT inbound route maps. Use the WEIGHT attribute to influence routes from multiple service providers to a central location. Like LOCAL_PREF, assigning a higher weight to a route makes that route more preferred. The WEIGHT attribute also has the highest precedence of any BGP attribute. Reference: CCIE Practical Studies: Configuring Route-Maps and Policy-based Routing, Karl Solie, Cisco Press.
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QUESTION 78
You are the network administrator at Flydumps. You are in the planning stages of upgrading the Certkiller network, and need to decide which protocol to use. You need to choose a protocol that will meet the following goals: Supports classless routing Supports VLSM Does not rely on TCP/IP to exchange routing information Performs auto-summarization by default Allows for manual route summarization Which routing protocol should you implement on the Certkiller network?
A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
E. IGRP
F. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: EIGRP is a classless protocol that supports VLSM and performs auto-summarization of subnets by default. The subnet routes are summarized into a single network number aggregate. In addition, IP-EIGRP will allow aggregation on any bit boundary in an IP address and can be configured on a network interface for additional granularity. EIGRP also supports automatic summarization of network addresses at major network borders. There is an automatic redistribution mechanism used so IGRP routes are imported into EIGRP and vice versa. Since the metrics for both protocols are directly translatable, they are easily comparable as if they were routes that originated in their own AS.
QUESTION 79
Which routing protocol: (1) is intended to support large routing domains consisting of combinations of many media types, (2) may be used as an IGP, and (3) supports multiple routed protocols in an integrated manner rather than “Ships in the Night” method?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EIGRP is a very scalable Interior Routing Protocol (IGP) that supports large networks. In
addition to support for IP, EIGRP can be used for routing IPX and Appletalk networks.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C: Although OSPF and IS-IS are link state protocols that are used as IGPs and are highly
scalable, they do not provide support for routed networks such as those used by Novell and
Apple.

D: BGP only supports IP, and is generally used only for external routing.
QUESTION 80
Match the correct routing protocol on the left to its characteristics on the right side. Note that not all answer choices will be used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
PDR is being used as the routing protocol for a new Certkiller network. Which network topology is best suited for ODR?
A. highly redundant
B. fully meshed
C. dual self-healing ring
D. hub and spoke
E. NBMA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: On Demand Routing (ODR) is a mechanism that provides minimum-overhead IP routing for stub sites. The overhead of a general dynamic routing protocol is avoided, without incurring the configuration and management overhead of using static routing. A stub router is the peripheral router in a hub and spoke network topology. Stub routers commonly have a WAN connection to the hub router and a small number of LAN network segments (stub networks) that are connected directly to the stub router. To provide full connectivity, the hub routers can be statically configured to know that a particular stub network is reachable via a specified access router. However, if there are multiple hub routers, many stub networks, or asynchronous connections between hubs and spokes, the overhead required to statically configure knowledge of the stub networks on the hub routers becomes too great. ODR simplifies installation of IP stub networks in which the hub routers dynamically maintain routes to the stub networks. This is accomplished without requiring the configuration of an IP routing protocol at the stub routers. With ODR, the stub advertises IP prefixes corresponding to the IP networks that are configured on its directly connected interfaces. Because ODR advertises IP prefixes, rather than IP network numbers, ODR is able to carry Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM) information. Once ODR is enabled on a hub router, the router begins installing stub network routes in the IP forwarding table. The hub router can also be configured to redistribute these routes into any configured dynamic IP routing protocols. IP does not need to be configured on the stub router. With ODR, a router is automatically considered to be a stub when no IP routing protocols have been configured on it.
QUESTION 82
Your company, Certkiller Inc, has a central office and a remote branch office. Each site has a separate autonomous system (AS) as well as a separate Internet connection. In this network, what is the best method to route Internet traffic.
A. IGP routing
B. BGP routing
C. Configure “ip route prefix mask”
D. Configure “ip default-gateway ip address”
E. Configure IS-IS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used to exchange routing information for the Internet and is the protocol used between Internet service providers (ISP). In order to take full advantage of multiple Internet connections, as well as multiple Internet providers, BGP is the best choice to ensure full redundancy. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/cisintwk/ito_doc/bgp.htm Incorrect Answers:
A: Customer networks usually employ an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) such as RIP or OSPF for the exchange of routing information within their networks. C, D: Using statically assigned default routes and default gateways is a simplistic approach that works well in many situations, but will not provide for automatic failover and does not provide the routing options that BGP provides.
E: IS-IS is used exclusively as an IGP.
QUESTION 83
The Certkiller network is in the process of migrating the IP address scheme to use IPv6. Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Select three)
A. Unicast
B. Private
C. Broadcast
D. Public
E. Multicast
F. Anycast

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP version 6 introduced the concet of anycasts. The three IP address types used for IPv6 are:

Unicast – An IPv6 unicast address is an identifier for a single interface, on a single node. A packet that is
sent to a unicast address is delivered to the interface identified by that address.
Anycast – An anycast address is an address that is assigned to a set of interfaces that typically belong to
different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to the closest interface-as defined by the
routing protocols in use-identified by the anycast address.
Multicast – An IPv6 multicast address is an IPv6 address that has a prefix of FF00::/8 (11111111). An IPv6
multicast address is an identifier for a set of interfaces that typically belong to different nodes. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1839/products_feature_guide_chapter0918
6a0080110dd2.html#99899

QUESTION 84
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F:0:0:AB/56
B. 200F:0:AB00::/56
C. 200F::AB00/56
D. 200F:AB/56

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Due to the method of allocating certain styles of IPv6 addresses, it will be common for addresses to contain long strings of zero bits. In order to make writing addresses containing zero bits easier a special syntax is available to compress the zeros. The use of “::” indicates multiple groups of 16-bits of zeros. The “::” can only appear once in an address. The “::” can also be used to compress the leading and/or trailing zeros in an address. For example the following addresses: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01:0:0:0:0:0:0:43 a multicast address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 the loopback address
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 the unspecified addresses may be represented as: 1080::8:800:200C:417A a unicast address FF01::43 a multicast address ::1 the loopback address :: the unspecified addresses In our example, the trailing zero’s can be compressed into ::, giving us 200F:0:AB00:: as the address.

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QUESTION 66
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What are three possible router states of HSRP routers on a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. established
C. active
D. idle
E. backup
F. init

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
D. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
About how long does it take for the port to change from blocking to forwarding when spanning-tree PortFast is enabled?
A. immediately
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands would both produce the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. show standby
B. show standby group 10
C. show glbp 10
D. show glbp disabled
E. show glbp active
F. show glbp standby

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which two statements are true concerning an Ethernet MAC address that maps to a Layer 3 multicast address? (Choose two.)
A. The first 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
B. The last 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
C. When assigning a Layer 3 multicast address, an Ethernet Layer 2 address is automatically generated from the hardcoded MAC address.
D. The multicast address copies the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 23 bits of the Ethernet multicast MAC address.
E. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the last 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.
F. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the first 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
What does the following command accomplish? Switch(config-mst)#instance 10 vlan 11-12
A. enables a PVST+ instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
B. enables vlan 11 and vlan 12 to be part of the MST region 10
C. maps vlan 11 and vlan 12 to the MST instance of 10
D. creates an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
E. creates a Common Spanning Tree (CST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
F. starts two instances of MST, one instance for vlan 11 and another instance for vlan 12

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
LAB
Refer to question 13.

Router name and IP address may be different.
e
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT1. What will be the result?

e A. The command will be rejected by the switch.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will no longer be bundled.
C. Dynamic Trunking Protocol will be turned off on interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will only allow traffic from the native VLAN.
E. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will continue to pass traffic for VLANs 88,100,360.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1. Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Observe the above diagram. Spanning tree is enabled on all devices. Currently either Switch B or C can serve as the root should Switch A fail. A client recently connected Device D, a PC running switching application software, to Switch C port P3/3. The administrator would like to configure Root Guard to ensure that Device D does not assume the role of root. All other parameters must stay the same. On which interface(s) must Root Guard be enabled?

A. P1/2
B. P2/2
C. P3/3
D. P1/1 and P1/2
E. P1/2 and P2/2
F. P1/2, P2/2 and P3/3

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial output, which statement is true?

A. The console port will require authentication through TACACS+.
B. The console port will not require any authentication.
C. Users logging in through the network ports will have authentication verified through TACACS+.
D. PPP authentication will be authenticated through the TACACS+ server first.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true if the spanning tree enhancement Root Guard is enabled?
A. If BPDUs are not received on a nondesignated port, the port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocked state.
B. If BPDUs are received on a PortFast enabled port, the port is disabled.
C. If superior BPDUs are received on a designated port, the interface is placed into the root-inconsistent blocked state.
D. If inferior BPDUs are received on a root port, all blocked ports become alternate paths to the root bridge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interfaces of Switch1 and Switch2 have been properly configured to support trunking. On the basis of the VTP configuration commands that have been issued on Switch1, which command set is required to properly configure VTP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1
B. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2 (config)# vtp password switch1
C. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch2
D. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which three conditions need to be present for UplinkFast to trigger a fast reconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. The switch must have at least one unblocked port.
B. The switch must have UplinkFast enabled.
C. The switch must be configured for one VLAN.
D. The switch must have at least one blocked port.
E. The failure must be on the root port.
F. The switch must be enabled on a VLAN with switch priority configured.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration provided, how will the user be authenticated?

A. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the local database policy.
B. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the CON list.
C. The CON list will be used only if the default local authentication failed.
D. No authentication will be required for the console port.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
What are three functional areas of the Enterprise Composite Network Model? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Service Provider Edge
D. Building Access
E. Server Farm
F. Campus Backbone
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the line protocol down on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1?

A. Switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must use ISL encapsulation for these configurations to work.
B. The interfaces on switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must be in access mode for these configurations to work.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2 are in different native VLANs.
D. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface Port-channel1 on switch CAT1 are in different native VLANs.
E. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1.
F. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. All switches must be part of a common MST region. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The configuration must be implemented on the MST root switch only.
B. The configuration is optional on the MST root switch.
C. The configuration is mandatory on all MST switches in the MST region.
D. The configuration is optional on all MST switches in the MST region.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A. It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
B. It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C. Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
D. When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch
B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is true?

A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
A new workstation has consistently been unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server when the workstation boots. Older workstations function normally, and the new workstation obtains an address when manually forced to renew its address. What should be configured on the switch to allow the workstation to obtain an IP address at boot?
A. UplinkFast on the switch port connected to the server
B. BackboneFast on the switch port connected to the server
C. PortFast on the switch port connected to the workstation
D. trunking on the switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
In a static VLAN environment, how does a host join a VLAN?
A. It must be assigned to a VLAN dynamically by the VLAN Server.
B. It automatically assumes the VLAN of the port.
C. It will be assigned to a VLAN based on the username.
D. It will automatically be assigned a VLAN based on its MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A brand new stand alone Catalyst 3550 switch is being installed. Multiple VLANs will be configured on the switch. What needs to be configured before adding any VLAN to the VLAN database if VTP is in server mode?
A. VTP pruning
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP version number
D. ISL or IEEE 802.1Q trunking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
What would happen to a frame if a VLAN port configured as a trunk on the Catalyst switch CK1 were to receive an untagged frame?
A. The frame will cause an error message to be sent.
B. The frame will be dropped.
C. The frame will be processed as a native VLAN frame.
D. The frame will be tagged, and then processed as a native VLAN frame.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On an IEEE 802.1Q trunk port, all transmitted and received frames are tagged except for those on the
VLAN configured as the native VLAN for the port. Frames on the native VLAN are always transmitted
untagged and are normally received untagged. The default native VLAN is VLAN 1.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/optical/ps2006/
products_module_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a

QUESTION 61
Switch CK1 has a trunk link configured with IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation. What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on this trunk port?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 802.1q tag is 4 bytes; hence the resulting ethernet frame can be as large as 1522 bytes (1518 for the
maximum Ethernet frame size plus the 4 byte 802.1Q tag). The minimum size of the Ethernet frame with
802.1q tagging is 68 bytes.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 89/ CK3 90/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094665.shtml

QUESTION 62
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over a trunk link. At the receive end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Assuming you have an IOS based switch; which command would you execute if you
wanted to specify IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation on a trunked port?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot1q
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation isl
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ethernet Trunk Encapsulation Types:

1.
switchport trunk encapsulation isl – Specifies ISL encapsulation on the trunk link.

2.
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q – Specifies 802.1Q encapsulation on the trunk link.

3.
switchport trunk encapsulation negotiate – Specifies that the interface negotiate with the neighboring interface to become an ISL (preferred) or 802.1Q trunk, depending on the configuration and capabilities of the neighboring interface. The trunking mode, the trunk encapsulation type, and the hardware capabilities of the two connected interfaces determine whether a link becomes an ISL or 802.1Q trunk. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps700/ products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007 f
QUESTION 64
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:
Which statements are true regarding the configuration of the above pair of switches? (Select two)
A. The trunk is currently using the ISL trunking protocol.
B. The trunk is currently using the 802.1q trunking protocol.
C. By default, all VLANs will be transmitted across this trunk.
D. By default, Switch CK1 and Switch CK2 ‘s Fast Ethernet 0/1 port will not generate DTP messages.
E. By default, the trunk can only support one VLAN, and only that single VLAN is transmitted across the trunk.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The second line in each configuration (#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q) proves that B is correct, as
dot1q is Cisco IOS for 802.1q trunking.

A trunk allows inter-VLAN traffic to flow between directly connected switches. By default, a trunk port is a
member of all VLANs, so traffic for any and all VLANs can travel across this trunk. That includes broadcast
traffic! Reference:
http://www.mcmcse.com/cisco/guides/trunking_and_trunking_protocols.shtml

QUESTION 65
Switches Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are connected as shown in the diagram below:
Use the following output taken from each port Certkiller 1: show config: interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode dynamic auto no ip address show interface gig0/1 switchport: Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic auto Operational Mode: down Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Certkiller 2: show interface gig0/1 switchport: Name: Gi0/1 Switchport Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic auto Operational Mode: down Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) In accordance with the above exhibit: what’s preventing the two switches from trunking on the link between them?
A. There is no IP address denied.
B. no shutdown needs to be entered on the interfaces.
C. Both sides are in auto negotiation mode.
D. ISL should be used instead of 802.1q.
E. Access mode VLAN must be different from native mode VLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the switchport mode command, you can set the trunking mode to any of the following:

1.
trunk-This setting places the port in permanent trunking mode. The corresponding

switch port at the other end of the trunk should be similarly configured because negotiation is not allowed. You should also manually configure the encapsulation mode.

2.
dynamic desirable (the default)-The port actively attempts to convert the link into
trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode,
trunking is successfully negotiated.
3.
dynamic auto-The port converts the link into trunking mode. If the far-end
switch port is configured to trunk or dynamic desirable, trunking is negotiated.
Because of the passive negotiation behavior, the link never becomes a trunk if both ends of the link are left
to the dynamic auto default.

QUESTION 66
You have just configured an ISL trunk line over Ethernet media between two Cisco Switches, each switch having identical modules, software revisions, and VLAN configurations. Which of the following variables are NOT necessary for the ISL trunk to operate properly? (Select all that apply)
A. Identical trunk negotiation parameters at each end of the link
B. Identical duplex at each end of the link
C. Identical speed at each end of the link
D. Identical native VLAN parameters at each end of the link

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In order for a trunk connection to function properly, it is not necessary for the trunking negotiation parameters to be identical. For example, one end could be configured as “on” and the other could be configured for “auto-negotiate” and the trunk would be operational. Similarly, it is not necessary for the native VLAN parameters to be the same at each end. Incorrect Answers: B, C: One of the requirements for trunking to work is to have both sides of the trunk agree on the speed and duplex settings. Both sides must be configured with identical speed and duplex settings.
QUESTION 67
An ISL trunk connects switches CK1 and CK2 . What is the numerical range of user-configurable ISL VLANs on these switches?
A. 1-1001
B. 0-4095
C. there is no range
D. 0 – 1000
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The valid range of user-configurable ISL VLANs is 1-1001. The valid range of VLANs specified in the IEEE 802.1Q standard is 0-4095. In a network environment with non-Cisco devices connected to Cisco switches through 802.1Q trunks, you must map 802.1Q VLAN numbers greater than 1000 to ISL VLAN numbers. 802.1Q VLANs in the range 1-1000 are automatically mapped to the corresponding ISL VLAN. 802.1Q VLAN numbers greater than 1000 must be mapped to an ISL VLAN in order to be recognized and forwarded by Cisco switches.
QUESTION 68
An ISL trunk connects switches CK1 and CK2 . What is true about the Inter-Switch Link (ISL) protocol? (Select two)
A. ISL can be used between Cisco and non-Cisco switch devices.
B. ISL calculates a new CRC field on top of the existing CRC field.
C. ISL adds 4 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.
D. ISL adds 30 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: A second frame check sequence (FCS) field lies at the end of the frame.
D: ISL is an external tagging process: new 26-byte ISL header is added to the original Ethernet frame. A second 4-byte frame check sequence (FCS) field is added at the end of the frame so 30 bytes of total overhead is added. Incorrect Answers:
A: Cisco’s propriety version of frame tagging is ISL. ISL can only be used between Cisco routers.
C: 30 bytes are added to the Ethernet frame, not 4 bytes. 4 bytes are added using 802.1Q encapsulation.
QUESTION 69
Which of the commands below enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet when applied to the Certkiller switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ISL is made up of three major components: a header, the original Ethernet frame, and a frame check sequence (FCS) at the end. With ISL, an Ethernet frame is encapsulated with a header that transports VLAN IDs between switches and routers. The 26-byte header containing a 10-bit VLAN ID is added to each frame. In addition, a 4-byte tail is added to the frame to perform a cyclic redundancy check (CRC). This CRC is in addition to any frame checking that the Ethernet frame performs. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 99
QUESTION 70
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 802.1q tag is 4 bytes; hence the resulting ethernet frame can be as large as 1522 bytes. The minimum

size of the Ethernet frame with 802.1q tagging is 68 bytes. ISL frames are the standard MTU used in Ethernet frames, which is 1518 bytes. If one end of the trunk is configured for ISL frames of up to 1518 bytes will be expected on it, while the other end will be sending frames up to 1522 bytes in length. On the ISL configured end, these incoming frames will be considered as giants. This is just one of the reasons why ISL and 802.1Q are incompatible. Incorrect Answers:
A: Not every Cisco switch model supports ISL.
C: In ISL, it is not necessary for the native VLANs to match.
D: Although it is true that each end of a trunk should be configured using the same encapsulation types, it is possible for a switch to have an ISL trunk configured on one port and an 802.1Q trunk on another port.
QUESTION 71
Two Certkiller switches are connected via a trunk using VTP. Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Select two)
A. STP root status
B. VTP mode
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is to maintain VLAN configuration consistency across the
entire network. VTP is a messaging protocol that uses Layer 2 trunk frames to manage the addition,
deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis from a centralized switch that is in the VTP
server mode. VTP is responsible for synchronizing VLAN information within a VTP domain. This reduces
the need to configure the same VLAN information on each switch.
Using VTP, each Catalyst Family Switch advertises the following on its trunk ports:

1.
Management domain

2.
Configuration revision number

3.
Known VLANs and their specific parameters
QUESTION 72
You need to investigate a VTP problem between two Certkiller switches. The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Select two)
A. A root VTP server
B. A trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. VLAN 1
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Switch tow types of links are available, access and trunk. The interface is in access mode can carry the information of only one VLAN and trunk can carry the information of more than one VLAN. VTP carry the information of more than one vlan so Switch port should be in trunk mode. VLAN1 is the default VLAN on Cisco Switch, by default all interface belongs to VLAN 1.
QUESTION 73
CK1 and CK2 are switches that communicate via VTP. What is the default VTP advertisement intervals in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 30 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 10 seconds
E. 5 seconds
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Periodic ( default is 5 minutes) VTP advertisements are sent out each trunk port with the multicast
destination MAC address 01-00-0C-CC-CC-CC. VTP advertisements contain the following configuration
information:

1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format
QUESTION 74
On the network shown below, VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch Certkiller 1 and port 2 on Switch Certkiller 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch Certkiller 1.
Where will the broadcast propagate?
A. Switches Certkiller 1, Certkiller 2 , and Certkiller 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch Certkiller 4 will forward it out port 2.
B. Only Switch Certkiller 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
C. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
D. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch Certkiller 4 will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default behavior of a switch is to propagate broadcast and unknown packets across the network. This
behavior results in a large amount of unnecessary traffic crossing the network.

VTP pruning increases bandwidth efficiency by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server enables pruning for the entire management domain. VTP pruning
takes effect several seconds after it is enabled. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 or 2 through 1001 are
pruning eligible, depending upon the platform.
VTP pruning does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning ineligible. VLAN 1 is always pruning
ineligible and VLAN 1 cannot be removed from a trunk. However, the “VLAN 1 disable on trunk” feature
available on Catalyst 4000, 5000, and 6000 family switches enables the pruning of user traffic, but not
protocol traffic such as CDP and VTP, for VLAN 1 from a trunk. Use the vtp pruning command to make

VLANs pruning eligible on a Cisco IOS-based switch. Switch(vlan)#vtp pruning Once pruning is enabled, use the switchport trunk pruning command to make a specific VLAN pruning ineligible. Switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/3 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk pruning vlan remove vlan 5
QUESTION 75
You want to configure switch CK1 to propagate VLAN information across the Certkiller network using VTP. What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP mode
B. VTP password
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP pruning
E. VTP domain name
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the switch being installed is the first switch in the network, the management domain will need to be created. However, if the network has other switches running VTP, then the new switch will join an existing management domain. Verify the name of the management domain. If the management domain has been secured, verify and configure the password for the domain. To create a management domain or to add a switch to a management domain, use the vtp domain command in the global configuration mode or VLAN configuration mode. Switch(config)#vtp domain name Switch(vlan)#vtp domain
QUESTION 76
The Certkiller switches have all been upgraded to use VTP version 2. What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 that are not available in VTP Version 1? (Select two)
A. VTP version 2 supports Token Ring VLANs
B. VTP version 2 allows VLAN consistency checks
C. VTP version 2 allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree
D. VTP version 2 reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. VTP version 2 saves VLAN configuration memory

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Understanding VTP Version 2 If you use VTP in your network, you must decide whether to use VTP version1 or version2. Note: If you are using VTP in a Token Ring environment, you must use version2. VTP version 2 supports the following features not supported in version1: Token Ring support-VTP version2 supports Token Ring LAN switching and VLANs (Token Ring Bridge Relay Function [TrBRF] and Token Ring Concentrator Relay Function [TrCRF]). Unrecognized Type-Length-Value (TLV) Support-A VTP server or client propagates configuration changes to its other trunks, even for TLVs it is not able to parse. The unrecognized TLV is saved in NVRAM. Version-Dependent Transparent Mode-In VTP version1, a VTP transparent network device inspects VTP messages for the domain name and version, and forwards a message only if the version and domain name match. Because only one domain is supported in the supervisor engine software, VTP version 2 forwards VTP messages in transparent mode without checking the version. Consistency Checks-In VTP version 2, VLAN consistency checks (such as VLAN names and values) are performed only when you enter new information through the CLI or SNMP. Consistency checks are not performed when new information is obtained from a VTP message, or when information is read from NVRAM. If the digest on a received VTP message is correct, its information is accepted without consistency checks. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2ZY/configuration/guide/ vtp.html#wp1020
QUESTION 77
The Certkiller network administrator needs to enable VTP pruning within the Certkiller network. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
B. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
C. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
D. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The default behavior of a switch is to propagate broadcast and unknown packets across the network. This behavior results in a large amount of unnecessary traffic crossing the network. VTP pruning increases bandwidth efficiency by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled. Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server enables pruning for the entire management domain. VTP pruning takes effect several seconds after it is enabled. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 or 2 through 1001 are pruning eligible, depending upon the platform. VTP pruning does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning ineligible. VLAN 1 is always pruning ineligible and VLAN 1 cannot be removed from a trunk. However, the “VLAN 1 disable on trunk” feature available on Catalyst 4000, 5000, and 6000 family switches enables the pruning of user traffic, but not protocol traffic such as CDP and VTP, for VLAN 1 from a trunk. Use the vtp pruning command to make VLANs pruning eligible on a Cisco IOS-based switch. Switch(vlan)#vtp pruning Once pruning is enabled, use the switchport trunk pruning command to make a specific VLAN pruning ineligible. Switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/3 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk pruning vlan remove vlan 5
QUESTION 78
VTP is configured on switch CK1 . Which of the following features were added in VTP version 2 that were not previously supported in VTP version 1? (Select two)
A. Supports Token Ring VLANs.
B. Allows VLAN consistency checks.
C. Saves VLAN configuration memory.
D. Reduces the amount of configuration necessary.
E. Allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP Version 2 includes the following improvements: Token Ring VLAN support, TLV support, transparent
mode, and Consistency checks.

Incorrect
Answers:
C, D: These were not improvements added to VTP Version 2.

E: STP detects and prevents loops by logically disabling the redundant path ports so there are no active redundant links.
QUESTION 79
The Certkiller switches are configured to use VTP. What’s true about the VLAN trunking protocol (VTP)? (Select two)
A. VTP messages will not be forwarded over nontrunk links.
B. VTP domain names need to be identical. However, case doesn’t matter.
C. A VTP enabled device which receives multiple advertisements will ignore advertisements with higher configuration revision numbers.
D. A device in “transparent” VTP v.1 mode will not forward VTP messages.
E. VTP pruning allows switches to prune VLANs that do not have any active ports associated with them.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP messages are only transmitted across trunk links.
If the receiving switch is in transparent mode, the configuration is not changed. Switches in transparent
mode do not participate in VTP. If you make VTP or VLAN configuration changes on a switch in
transparent mode, the changes are not propagated to the other switches in the network.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: The VTP domain name is case sensitive and it must be identical with the domain name configured on the VTP server.
C: This is incorrect because if a VTP client receives an advertisement with a higher revision number, it won’t ignore it. In fact, the advertisement with a higher revision level takes precedence when the switch is configured in client mode.
E: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. It does not prune the individual VLANs.
QUESTION 80
Switch CK1 and CK2 both belong to the Certkiller VTP domain. What’s true about the switch operation in VTP domains? (Select all that apply)
A. A switch can only reside in one management domain
B. A switch is listening to VTP advertisements from their own domain only
C. A switch is listening to VTP advertisements from multi domains
D. A switch can reside in one or more domains
E. VTP is no longer supported on Catalyst switches

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VTP domain is made up of one or more interconnected devices that share the same VTP domain name.
A switch can be configured to be in only one VTP domain, and each VLAN has a name that is unique

within a management domain.
Typically, you use a VTP domain to ease administrative control of your network or to account for physical
boundaries within your network. However, you can set up as many or as few VTP domains as are
appropriate for your administrative needs. Consider that VTP is transmitted on all trunk connections,
including ISL, IEEE 802.1Q, 802.10, and LANE.
Switches can only belong to one management domain with common VLAN requirements, and they only
care about the neighbors in their own domains.
Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco Press 2001,
ISBN 1-58720 000-7 page 114

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QUESTION 16
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. one update package
B. two update package
C. three update package
D. four update package
E. five update package
F. six update package
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP 2 Packet Format:
The RIP 2 specification (described in RFC 1723) allows more information to be included in RIP packets
and provides a simple authentication mechanism that is not supported by RIP. Figure 47-2 shows the IP
RIP 2
packet format.
The following descriptions summarize the IP RIP 2 packet format fields illustrated in Figure 47-2:
1.
Command-Indicates whether the packet is a request or a response. The request asks that a router send all or a part of its routing table. The response can be an unsolicited regular routing update or a reply to a request. Responses contain routing table entries. Multiple RIP packets are used to convey information from large routing tables.

2.
Version-Specifies the RIP version used. In a RIP packet implementing any of the RIP 2 fields or using authentication, this value is set to 2.

3.
Unused-Has a value set to zero.

4.
Address-family identifier (AFI)-Specifies the address family used. RIPv2’s AFI field functions identically to RFC 1058 RIP’s AFI field, with one exception: If the AFI for the first entry in the message is 0xFFFF, the remainder of the entry contains authentication information. Currently, the only authentication type is simple password.

5.
Route tag-Provides a method for distinguishing between internal routes (learned by RIP) and external routes (learned from other protocols).

6.
IP address-Specifies the IP address for the entry.

7.
Subnet mask-Contains the subnet mask for the entry. If this field is zero, no subnet mask has been specified for the entry.

8.
Next hop-Indicates the IP address of the next hop to which packets for the entry should be forwarded.

9.
Metric-Indicates how many internetwork hops (routers) have been traversed in the trip to the destination. This value is between 1 and 15 for a valid route, or 16 for an unreachable route. NoteUp to 25 occurrences of the AFI, Address, and Metric fields are permitted in a single IP RIP packet. That is, up to 25 routing table entries can be listed in a single RIP packet. If the AFI specifies an authenticated message, only 24 routing table entries can be specified. Given that individual table entries aren’t fragmented into multiple packets, RIP does not need a mechanism to resequence datagrams bearing routing table updates from neighboring routers. Since a single update packet can contain at most 25 route entries, 4 packets will be needed to advertise 77 routes.
QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single interface is used to route between subnets or networks, this is know as a router-on-a-stick.
To assign multiple IP addresses to the same interface, secondary addresses or subinterfaces are used.
The Advantage is that it is useful when there are limited Ethernet interfaces on the router.
The Disadvantages to this design are:
subnets. resources that will be consumed on the router can become an issue.

QUESTION 18
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three)
A. Supports variable-length subnet mask by default.
B. Does not support variable-length subnet mask by default.
C. Supports discontiguous networks by default.
D. Multicast updates to 224.0.0.9.
E. Broadcast updates.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Features of RIP v2 To help today’s IP internetworks minimize broadcast traffic, use variable length subnetting to conserve IP addresses, and secure their routing environment from misconfigured or malicious routers, several key features were added to RIP v2. Multicasted RIP Announcements Rather than broadcasting RIP announcements, RIP v2 supports sending RIP announcements to the IP multicast address of 224.0.0.9. Non-RIP nodes are not disturbed by RIP router announcement traffic. Subnet Masks RIP v2 announcements send the subnet mask (also known as a network mask) along with the network ID. RIP v2 can be used in subnetted, supernetted, and variable-length subnet mask environments. Subnets of a network ID do not have to be contiguous (they can be disjointed subnets).
QUESTION 19
The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used by the grand majority of distance vector routing protocols in DUAL (diffusing update algorithm). Which of the following routing protocols is it?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DUAL is used by EIGRP. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur.
QUESTION 20
The Certkiller EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command “variance 3” was added to the EIGRP configuration of Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Complex, redundant EIGRP networks can cause scalability problems. The best solution to this is to provide a means within the context of the EIGRP protocol itself to control traffic flows and limit query depth. TheEIGRP Stub Router functionality in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(7)T can achieve this solution. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
QUESTION 22
The Certkiller OSPF network is displayed below: Refer to the exhibit. All routers have converged and neighbor relationships have been established. Which state is Certkiller 4 in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment. The same process is repeated for the BDR. In case of a tie, the router with the highest RID will win. The default for the interface OSPF priority is one. Based on the output above, the dead timer shows that the neighbor relationships have already been established, so the state will be Full for all neighbors, and since the OSPF priorities are all set to 1, the router with the highest router ID will be the DR.
QUESTION 23
The Certkiller backbone OSPF network is shown below:

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Certkiller 1 RID is 1.1.1.1.
B. The Certkiller 1 RID is 10.1.1.1.
C. The Certkiller 1 RID is 192.168.1.1.
D. The Certkiller 2 RID is 10.1.1.2.
E. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.1.2.
F. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.2.1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Remember that the RID is the highest IP address on the box or the loopback interface, calculated at boot time or whenever the OSPF process is restarted. Although the other interfaces on routers Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are higher, the loopback interface is always used as the router ID. If more than one loopback interface is configured, the loopback interface with the highest IP address is chosen as the Router ID.
QUESTION 24

Which type of Link State Announcement will Certkiller E use to announce changes in network 22 to Area 1?
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The external link LSA is originated by AS boundary routers and is flooded throughout the AS. Each external advertisement describes a router to a destination in another autonomous system. Default routes for the AS can also be described by AS external advertisements. This is identified as a Type 5 LSA.
QUESTION 25
What is the OSPF cost for the 100 Mbps Ethernet media type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
E. 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, OSPF uses the formula of 100,000,000 (100M) divided by bandwidth, or 100,000,000/BW. For
a
100M fast Ethernet connection, the formula is 100M/100M = 1.

QUESTION 26
As a Certkiller .com network technician you are required to drag the appropriate IS-IS routing item to its correct definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Given the NSAP 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A NET is a NSAP where the last byte is always zero. On a router running IS-IS, a NET can be 8 to 20 B in length. The last byte is always the n-selector and must be zero. The n-selector indicates which transport entity the packet is sent to. An n-selector of zero indicates no transport entity, and means that the packet is for the routing software of the system. The six bytes directly preceding the n-selector are the system ID. The system ID length is a fixed size and cannot be changed. The system ID must be unique throughout each area (Level 1) and throughout the backbone (Level 2). All bytes preceding the system ID are the area ID. The area ID field is the portion of the NSAP preceding the system ID. The following example shows a router with area ID 47.0004.004d.0001 and system ID 0001.0c11.1110: 47.0004.004d.0001.0001.0c11.1110.00 In our example, the six bytes preceding the N selector is 0001.0c00.1211 which is the system ID. The portion preceding this, 39.0100.0102, is the area ID.
QUESTION 28
Which two commands can be used to verify that RIPv2 authentication is working properly to ensure that RIP neighbors form adjacencies properly? (Choose two.)
A. show interface
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip rip authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Verifying Plain Text Authentication RIP version 2 routers can use either plain text or MD5 authentication. By configuring the routers using RIPv2 authentication, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from thedebugip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3
02:11:39.207: RIP: received packet with text authentication 234 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: received v2 update from 141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:25, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C
80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 Using plain text authentication improves the network design by preventing the addition of routing updates originated by routers not meant to take part in the local routing exchange process. However, this type of authentication is not secure. The password (234 in this example) is exchanged in plain text. It can be captured easily and thus exploited. As mentioned before, MD5 authentication must be preferred over plain text authentication when security is an issue. Verifying MD5 Authentication By configuring the RA and RB routers as shown above, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received packet with MD5 authentication *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received v2 update from
141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 20:48:37.050: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:03, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 MD5 authentication uses the one-way, MD5 hash algorithm, acknowledged to be a strong hashing algorithm. In this mode of authentication, the routing update does not carry the password for the purpose of authentication. Rather, a 128-bit message, generated by running the MD5 algorithm on the password, and the message are sent along for authentication. Thus, it is recommended to use MD5 authentication over plain text authentication since it is more secure. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f1c.shtml#veri
QUESTION 29

1.
all routers are using BGP

2.
synchronization is OFF in AS 647000
A. Router CK6
B. Routers CK2 and CK6
C. Routers CK2 , CK4 , and CK6
D. Routers CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
F. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6
G. It will not be propagated to any other router

Correct Answer: FEACDGB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The AS PATH is a well known mandatory attribute. Mandatory means that it is required by all routers.
These
attributes are required and are therefore recognized by all BGP implementations.

QUESTION 32
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:

7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if bestpath is already selected.

9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath. Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.

10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).

11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 33
The Certkiller WAN is displayed below:

You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully.
BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and one of the default attributes have
been changed except the MED attribute on Certkiller 5.
Which path is preferred by Certkiller 2 to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24?

A. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it is the shortest path.
B. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it has a higher metric.
C. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower administrative distance.
D. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In BGP, the lowest MED metric is preferred over a higher metric. By default, the value of the metric is 0, so
for AS 200, the path via Certkiller 5 will have a metric of 0, and the path via Certkiller 1 will have a metric of
150, so the path from Certkiller 5 will be preferred.

QUESTION 34
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The WEIGHT attribute is a Cisco proprietary feature used to measure a route’s preference. The WEIGHT inbound route maps. Use the WEIGHT attribute to influence routes from multiple service providers to a central location. Like LOCAL_PREF, assigning a higher weight to a route makes that route more preferred. The WEIGHT attribute also has the highest precedence of any BGP attribute. Reference: CCIE Practical Studies: Configuring Route-Maps and Policy-based Routing, Karl Solie, Cisco Press.

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QUESTION 40
Your OSPF router has one serial interface, and one Ethernet LAN interface. The subinterface is configured in the following manner: interface serial 0.122 point-to-point ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay interface-dlci 122 Your want to allow hosts on your LAN to send and receive data, but you don’t want routing traffic to go through that interface. Which of the following commands should you use to complete your configuration?
A. interface serial 0.122 point-to-point passive-interface ethernet 0
B. interface ethernet 0 ip address 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.0 passive-interface
C. router ospf 172 area 1 nssa network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
D. router ospf 172 passive-interface ethernet 0 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network
192.168.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We use the passive-interface command to configure the ethernet interface to be passive. The passive-
interface router configuration command is used to disable sending routing updates on an interface.
Incorrect Answers:

A: We are not configuring the serial interface. Furthermore, the passive-interface command is a router configuration command, not an interface configuration command.
B: We cannot use the passive-interface command like this.
C: We should configure the Ethernet interface as passive, not the area as a not-so-stubby area (NSSA).
QUESTION 41
You have a named Router CertK running EIGRP that has already been configured with the following: Router CertK (config)#access-list 30 deny any Router CertK (config)#access-list 40 permit ip any Router CertK (config)#router eigrp 1 To complete your configuration you want to configure the serial 0/0 interface to prevent routing updates from going out that interface while still allowing the formation and upkeep of neighbor adjacencies on that interface. Drag the correct command phrase from the bottom and place it in

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
We use distribute list 30, which stops IP traffic, on outward traffic on the serial 0/0 interface.
RouterTK continues receiving routing updates from its neighbor, but the distribute-list prevents routes from
being advertised out of serial 0. Furthermore, neighbor adjacencies are allowed to be formed between
RouterTK and its neighbor on serial 0/0.
Incorrect Answers:
passive interface serial 0/0:

On EIGRP, passive interface causes the router to stop sending and receiving hello packets. This will
prevent the interface from maintaining neighbor adjacencies.
distribute-list 40 out serial 0/0:
We must stop outgoing traffic, not allow it.
distribute-list 30 in serial 0-0:
We must stop outgoing traffic, not incoming traffic.
Reference: How Does the Passive Interface Feature Work in EIGRP?
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/16.html

QUESTION 42
he Certkiller network is displayed below:
You need to configure a static route so that users on the corporate network can reach the 172.27.6.0/24
LAN. Based on the diagram above, which of the following is the correct way to do this?

A. Certkiller 1(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.2
B. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.0.0 172.17.8.2
C. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.2
D. Certkiller 1(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.0.0 172.17.8.1
E. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.1

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only choice E provides the correct network subnet mask and next hop IP address.
IP route prefix mask {address|Interface} [distance] [tag tag] [permanent]
Prefix 172.27.6.0 mask 255.255.255.0 address 172.17.8.2
Address – The IP address of the next hop router that can be used to reach that network.
Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 464

QUESTION 43
The Certkiller network consists of a main office and a single remote office. You need to configure the
remote office in using the following guidelines:
The main office must learn all of its routes from the regional office.
The regional office must not learn routes from the main office.
The most scalable solution should be used.
Which of the following answer choices best describe what should be done to satisfy these
requirements?

A. Configure static routes pointing to the network behind the central office router
B. Configure a default route pointing to the networks behind the central office router
C. Make the interface that is connected to the central office a passive interface to block incoming updates
D. Enable route update filtering on the interface that is connected to the central office to block incoming updates
E. None of the above will work

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only viable solution here is to enable the main office to dynamically learn about all of the regional
office routes, while still not receiving any routes is by enabling incoming route filters.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: Configuring static routes or default routes on the regional office will not enable the main office to
learn about any of the regional office routes.

C: A passive interface would prevent all route updates to the main office. Passive interfaces do not filter incoming routing updates, so the regional office could still learn routes from the main office. Note: Configuring the main office using a passive interface would satisfy the conditions here, but this Qasks us how to configure the regional office, not the main office.
QUESTION 44
You wish to permit all BGP prefixes between /10 and /18 for the 207.0.0.0 network. How should a BGP prefix list be configured to do this?
A. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/8 ge 10 le 18
B. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/8 ge 18 le 10
C. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/24 ge 10 le 18
D. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/24 ge 18 le 10
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With prefix lists, the “ge” means “greater than or equal to” while the le means “less than or equal to.” Here, we want to specify all prefixes greater than or equal to 10 and less than or equal to 18 as specified in choice
A. In addition, we must specify an 8 bit network mask, not a 24 bit network mask.
QUESTION 45
Routers CK1 and CK2 are configured for BGP as shown below: RTR CK1 router bgp 200 neighbor
183.215.22.1 remote-as 200 neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1 RTR CK2 router bgp 200 neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200 These two routers currently have an active BGP peering session between them and they are able to pass routes to each other. Based on these configuration files, which of the following are true? (Select three)
A. RTR CK1 and RTR CK2 are running IBGP inside AS 200
B. The IP address of RTR CK1 ‘s Loopback 1 interface is 147.229.1.1.
C. The IP address of RTR CK1 ‘s Loopback 1 interface is 183.215.22.1.
D. RTR CK1 and RTR CK2 are running EBGP between the autonomous systems.
E. RTR CK1 has forced BGP to use the loopback IP address as the source in the TCP neighbor connection.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: The two statements that define a remote AS (autonomous) use the same AS number. Both routers must belong to the same AS and there IBGP is used.
B: The IP address of the CK1 loopback address is 147.229.1.1 as specified in the neighbor statement of the CK2 router: neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200
E: The “neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1” command issued at CK1 makes CK1 use this loopback for the BGP connection to CK2 . See Note 2 below. Note 1: Syntax of neighbor command: Router(config-router)#neighbor {ip-address | peer-group-name} remote-as as-number This command specifies a BGP neighbor. Note 2: For iBGP, you might want to allow your BGP connections to stay up regardless of which interface is used to reach a neighbor. To enable this configuration, you first configure a loopback interface and assign it an IP address (neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1). Next, configure the BGP update source to be the loopback interface (we have to assume this step – it is not indicated by the exhibit). Finally, configure your neighbor to use the address on the loopback interface (neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200). Incorrect Answers:
C: 183.215.22.1 is the IP address of CK2 , not CK1 .
D: There is only one AS and the routers belong to that AS. Within an AS IBGP is used, not EBGP.
QUESTION 46
The Certkiller BGP router is configured as shown below: router bgp 64000 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 64000 neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 64550 network 200.52.1.192 mask 255.255.255.224 no synchronization aggregate-address 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 The BGP peers 172.16.1.1 and 10.1.1.2 in the above configuration are active, as well as the interface with IP address 200.52.1.192. Based on this information, which statement below is true about your configuration?
A. Router CertK has an IBGP connection with neighbor 10.1.1.2.
B. Router CertK has an EBGP connection with the neighbor 172.16.1.1.
C. Router CertK advertises only a route 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 in BGP.
D. Router CertK advertises only a route 200.52.1.192 255.255.255.224 in BGP.
E. Router CertK advertises both the routes to 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 and 200.52.1.192
255.255.255.224 in BGP.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The aggregate route, 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0, and the more specific route, 200.52.1.192
255.255.255.224, will both be advertised. To only advertise the aggregate route the summaryonly option of
the aggregate-address command must be used.
Note: The aggregate-address command is used to create an aggregate, or summary, entry in the BGP
table.
Incorrect Answers:

A: The neighbor 10.1.1.2 belongs to another autonomous system and is a EBGP neighbor, not an IBGP
neighbor.

B: Router A and neighbor 172.16.1.1 belong to the same autonomous system and is an IBGP neighbor,
not an EBGP neighbor.

C: The summary-only option of the aggregate-address command is used to only advertise the summary
and not the specific routes.

D:
The aggregate route, 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0, will be advertised as well.
Q304 The Certkiller network consists of two separate autonomous systems as shown below:
You need to configure Router CK2 as a BGP route reflector and Router CK1 as the client. Assuming that
Router CK3 isn’t running BGP, which two of the commands below would you enter on CK2 to satisfy your
goals? (Select two)
A.
neighbor 165.50.12.1 remote-as 65100
B.
neighbor 165.50.12.2 remote-as 64000
C.
neighbor 165.50.12.1 route-reflector-client
D.
neighbor 165.50.12.2 route reflector-client
Answer: B, D
Explanation:

B: Router CK2 (config-router)# neighbor 165.50.12.2 remote-as 64000 We configure router CK1
(165.50.12.2) as a neighbor in AS 64000.
D: Router CK2 (config-router)# neighbor 165.50.12.2 route-reflector-client Configures the router CK2 as a BGP route reflector and configures the specified neighbor CK1 (165.50.12.2) as its client. Incorrect Answers:
A: We must specify router CK1 as neighbor, not CK2 itself (165.50.12.1). Furthermore, we should use the local AS (64000), not the remote AS 65100.
C: We must specify router CK1 as route reflector client, not CK2 itself (165.50.12.1).
QUESTION 47
The Certkiller network consists of a series of routers that are all configured for IBGP. Which one of the following IBGP characteristics is true?
A. The IBGP routers must always be fully meshed.
B. The IBGP routers can be in a different AS.
C. The IBGP routers must be directly connected.
D. The IBGP routers do not need to be directly connected.
E. None of the above are true.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IBGP routers do not have to be directly connected. The remote IBGP peers need only be reachable via a TCP connection. For example, if the network is also running an interior routing protocol such as EIGRP or OSPF, the remote IBGP router could be many hops away, as long as it is reachable via the IGP that is being used. Incorrect Answers:
A: Using route reflectors or confederations a full mesh topology is not necessary.
B: The IBGP routers must be placed in the same AS. Peers that are in different autonomous systems are using EBGP, not IBGP.
C: The IBGP routers do not have to be directly connected.
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements regarding BGP peer groups are true? (Select two)
A. Peer members inherit all options of the peer group.
B. Peer groups can be used to simplify BGP configurations.
C. Peer groups are optional non-transitive attributes for BGP.
D. A peer group allows options that affect outbound updates to be overridden.
E. A common name should be used on all routers because this information is passed between neighbors.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A BGP peer group is a group of BGP neighbors with the same update policies.

A: By default members of the peer group inherit all of the configuration options of the peer group. Note: Members can also be configured to override these options
B: Peer groups are normally used to simplify router configurations when many neighbors have the same policy.
Note: BGP neighbors who share the same outbound policies can be grouped together in what is called a BGP peer group. Instead of configuring each neighbor with the same policy individually, Peer group allows to group the policies which can be applied to individual peer thus making efficient update calculation along with simplified configuration.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The only Optional non-transitive attribute in BGP is MED.
D: Does not apply.
E: Using a common router name provides no BGP benefits at all.
Reference: BGP Peer Groups, http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/459/29.html

QUESTION 49
A BGP router is configured as shown below: interface ethernet 0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.0.0 ! int serial 0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 ! router bgp 65001 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65002 Based on the above configuration, which of the following BGP statements would inject the 10.10.0.0/16 prefix into the BGP routing table?
A. network 10.0.0.0
B. network 10.10.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
C. network 10.10.10.1 mask 255.255.255.255
D. network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
E. network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The /16 mask is equal to 255.255.0.0, so answer choice B matches the address and the mask. To specify the route as classless, the mask keyword should be included or the network will be summarized at the network boundary.
QUESTION 50
Why would a systems administrator enter in the network command when configuring BGP?
A. Local routes matching the network command are filtered from the BGP routing table.
B. Local routes matching the network command can be installed into the BGP routing table.
C. Routes matching the network command will be filtered from BGP routing updates.
D. External routes matching the network command will be installed into the BGP routing table.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the network router configuration command to permit BGP to advertise a network if it is
present in the IP routing table.
Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 342

QUESTION 51
The Certkiller network is depicted in the following diagram: Which of the following command sets would you use if you want Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 to exchange BGP routing information? (Select two)

A. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 200 Certkiller 2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100
B. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#exit Certkiller 1(config)#interface S0
Certkiller 1(config-if)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 200
C. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 200
D. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 2(config-router)exit Certkiller 2(config)#interface S0
Certkiller 2(config-if)#neighbor remote-as 100
E. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 Certkiller 1(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 100
F. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 200 Certkiller 2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)#network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Choices A and C give the correct syntax for configuring EBGP peering sessions.
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: The BGP peering configurations are placed under the BGP routing process, not in
interface configuration mode.
E, F: The network 10.0.0.0 command is not required here, since this is an EBGP peering session using the
directly connected interface. Since each neighbor shares the 10.0.0.0 network they each already know
how to reach this network.

QUESTION 52
Router TK-1 is configured for BGP routing as shown below: router bgp 65300 network 27.0.0.0 neighbor
192.23.1.1 remote-as 65300 From the perspective of router TK-1, what kind of router is the router with IP address 192.23.1.1?
A. A peer router running IBGP
B. A peer router running EBGP
C. A community member running IBGP
D. A peer group member running IBGP E. A peer group member running EBGP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Both the local and remote router is configured with the same autonomous system number so they are peer
routers running IBGP.

QUESTION 53
When you’re configuring BGP on a Cisco router, what is true of the command “network”?
A. Local routes matching the network command are filtered from the BGP routing table.
B. Local routes matching the network command can be installed into the BGP routing table.
C. Sending and receiving BGP updates is controlled by using a number of different filtering methods.
D. The route to a neighbor autonomous system must have the correct MED applied to be installed into BGP routing table.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The network command allows BGP to advertise an IGP route if it is already in the IP table. A matching route must exist in the routing table before the network is announced. The network command is used to permit BGP to advertise a network if it is present in the IP routing table.
QUESTION 54
Router CK1 needs to be configured to advertise a specific network. Which of the following commands would you use if you wanted to advertise the subnet 154.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 to the EBGP neighbors on your subnet?
A. Router (config-router)#network 154.2.1.0
B. Router (config-router)#network 164.2.1.0
C. Router (config-router)#network-advertise 154.2.1.0
D. Router (config-router)#network 154.2.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The network command is used to specify the networks to be advertised by the Border Gateway Protocol
(BGP) and multiprotocol BGP routing processes.
Syntax: network network-number [mask network-mask] [route-map map-name]
Mask and route-map are optional. If the mask keyword is configured, then an exact match must exist in the
routing table.
Incorrect Answers:

A: If we do not specify the subnet mask then additional networks are allowed to be advertised. The classful subnet mask of 154.2.1.0 is 255.255.0.0 – a Class B network.
B: This is using the incorrect IP address, as well as a missing subnet mask.
C: The network-advertise is an invalid command.
QUESTION 55
You are the administrator of a company with BGP connections to multiple ISP’s. How could you configure BGP to make it favor one particular ISP for outbound traffic?
A. Configure weight
B. Enable route reflector
C. Create a distribute list
D. Enable the Longer Autonomous System path option.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the router learns about more than one route to the same destination, the route with the highest weight will be preferred. Weight is a Cisco BGP parameter that is local to the router. When terminating multiple ISP connections into the same router, weight can be used to affect which path is chosen for outbound traffic. Incorrect Answers:
B: A route reflector cannot be used to influence outbound traffic. A route reflector modifies the BGP split horizon rule by allowing the router configured as the route reflector to propagate routes learned by IBGP to other IBGP peers. This saves on the number of BGP TCP sessions that must be maintained, and also reduces the BGP routing traffic.
C: Distribute lists restrict the routing information that the router learns or advertises. By itself a distribute list cannot make routes from one ISP be preferred to routers from another ISP.
D: This choice describes ASD path pre-pending, which would be used to influence the path that incoming traffic takes, not outgoing.
QUESTION 56
What are two solutions to overcome the full mesh requirement with iBGP? (Choose two)
A. BGP groups
B. BGP local preference
C. Route reflector
D. Confederation
E. Aggregate-address

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In general, all IBGP peers must be configured to be fully meshed. If they are not, then all of the IBGP routers will not have the updated information from the external BGP routers. There are two ways to overcome the scalability issues of a full IBGP mesh: route reflectors and confederations. With route reflectors, internal BGP routers peer only with the route reflector. With confederations, the AS is broken up into smaller, more manageable sub autonomous systems.
QUESTION 57
An ISP is running a large IBPG network with 25 routers. The full mesh topology that is currently in place is inefficiently using up bandwidth from all of the BGP traffic. What can the administrator configure to reduce the number of BGP neighbor relationships within the AS?
A. Route reflectors
B. Route maps
C. Route redistribution
D. Peer groups
E. Aggregate addresses
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In general, all IBGP peers must be configured to be fully meshed. If they are not, then all of the IBGP routers will not have the updated information from the external BGP routers. There are two ways to overcome the scalability issues of a full IBGP mesh: route reflectors and confederations. With route reflectors, internal BGP routers peer only with the route reflector, and then the route reflectors connect with each other. This can considerably reduce the number of IBGP sessions. Another solution to the scalability problem of IBGP is the use of confederations. With confederations, the AS is broken up into smaller, more manageable sub autonomous systems.
QUESTION 58
Arrange the BGP attributes on the left in order or priority.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF. Note the following:

Path without LOCAL_PREF is considered as having the value set with the bgp default local-preference command, or 100 by default.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

The AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE and AS_CONFED_SET are not included in the AS_PATH length.

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:
This comparison is only done if the first (neighboring) AS is the same in the two paths; any confederation sub-ASs are ignored. In other words, MEDs are compared only if the first AS in the AS_SEQUENCE is the same for multiple paths. Any preceding AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE is ignored. If bgp always-compare-med is enabled, MEDs are compared for all paths. This option needs to be enabled over the entire AS, otherwise routing loops can occur.
If bgp bestpath med-confed is enabled, MEDs are compared for all paths that consist only of AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE (paths originated within the local confederation).
Paths received from a neighbor with a MED of 4,294,967,295 will have the MED changed to 4,294,967,294 before insertion into the BGP table.
Paths received with no MED are assigned a MED of 0, unless bgp bestpath missing-as-worst is enabled, in which case they are assigned a MED of 4,294,967,294.
The bgp deterministic med command can also influence this step as demonstrated in the How BGP Routers Use the Multi-Exit Discriminator for Best Path Selection.
7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

Note: Paths containing AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE and AS_CONFED_SET are local to the confederation,
and therefore treated as internal paths. There is no distinction between
Confederation External and Confederation Internal.
8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if
bestpath is already selected.
9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath.
Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.
10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step
minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it
would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).
Skip this step if any of the following is true:

o The bgp best path compare-routerid command is enabled.
Note: This command was introduced in Cisco IOS(r) Software Releases 12.0.11S, 12.0.11SC,
12.0.11S3, 12.1.3, 12.1.3AA, 12.1.3.T, and 12.1.3.E.

o The router ID is the same for multiple paths, since the routes were received from the same router.

o There is no current best path. An example of losing the current best path occurs when the neighbor offering the path goes down.
11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command. Note: If a path contains route-reflector (RR) attributes, the originator ID is substituted for the router ID in the path selection process.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 59
The Certkiller BGP routing table consists of the following network routes:

What is the correct command to summarize these prefixes into a single summary prefix of 192.168.12.0/22 while also allowing for the advertisement of the more specific prefixes?
A. network 192.168.12.0 mask 255.255.252.0
B. network 192.168.12.0 mask 0.0.3.255
C. network 192.168.12.0
D. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0
E. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
F. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 as-set

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To summarize BGP prefixes into one aggregated route, use the “aggregate-address” command.
When used alone, this will advertise the aggregate route, along with the individual specific
routing entries. To advertise only the aggregated route, use the “summary-only” keyword, as specified in
choice E.

QUESTION 60
The Certkiller BGP network is displayed below: Certkiller 3 is the hub router and Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. Each router is in a separate AS. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from Certkiller 1?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 1.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 2.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 3.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The following example illustrates the issue:
BGP Next Hop (NBMA)
If the common media as you see in the shaded area above is a frame relay or any NBMA cloud then the exact behavior will occur as if we were connected via Ethernet. RTC will advertise 180.20.0.0 to RTA with a next hop of 170.10.20.3. The problem is that RTA does not have a direct PVC to RTD, and cannot reach the next hop. In this case routing will fail. In order to remedy this situation a command called next-hop-self is created. The next-hop-self Command Because of certain situations with the next hop as we saw in the previous example, a command called next-hop-self is created. The syntax is: neighbor {ip-address|peer-group-name} next-hop-self The next-hop-self command allows us to force BGP to use a specified IP address as the next hop rather than letting the protocol choose the next hop. In the previous example, the following configuration solves our problem: RTC# router bgp 300 neighbor 170.10.20.1 remote-as 100 neighbor 170.10.20.1 next-hop-self RTC advertises 180.20.0.0 with a next hop = 170.10.20.2 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/459/bgp-toc.html#bgpnexthop
QUESTION 61
Exhibit Based on the show ip bgp summary output in the exhibit, which two statements are true? Select two?

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting is attempting to establish a BGP peering to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish BGP peering with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AFCEBD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
we want to hide some of your internal IP subnets from outside networks. By what means can you conceal the details of your IP addressing scheme to the outside world?
A. Subnetting
B. Supernetting
C. Challenge Handshake Protocol
D. Usernames and passwords

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In large internetworks, hundreds or even thousands of networks can exist. In these environments, it is often not desirable for routers to maintain all these routes in their routing table. Route summarization (also called route aggregation or supernetting) can reduce the number of routes that a router must maintain because is it a method of representing a series of network numbers in a single summary address. By advertising only one large supernet to the outise world, the details of your IP network scheme can remain hidden.
QUESTION 63
The Certkiller network will be using a new ISP for their Internet connection. The new Internet provider will be allocating a new registered class C IP address subnet to use. In order to not have to change out the entire internal IP addressing scheme on your network, you plan to use NAT to translate all of the internal IP address to the new IP addresses that are being assigned to Certkiller . You have been assigned the task of making changes so that the following requirements are met: Maintain the current IP addressing scheme Configure Certkiller ‘s router for network address translation (NAT) so all the internal computers use the same external IP address Configure a static translation so Certkiller employees can access their email from the internet. Privileged mode password: Certkiller The IP Addresses are shown below: Name: Certkiller NAT SO 192.168.15.1/24 E0 10.100.5.1/24 E-mail Server’s External Address 192.168.15.5/24 E-mail Server’s Internal Address 10.100.5.5/24 To configure the router click on a host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Certkiller NAT(config-if)#exit Certkiller NAT(config)#exit Certkiller NAT#copy run start Q322

You have been assigned the task of configuring the routers to meet the following requirements:
In the unlikely event that a link goes down, you have to ensure a backup link exists
The proper metrics must be distributed through the IGRP portion of the network Based on this information,
which of the following should you do? (Select two)

A. Apply the distance command to Main
B. Apply the distance command to CK2
C. Apply the distribute-list command to Main
D. Apply the distribute-list command to CK2
Answer: B, C Explanation:
B: Most routing protocols, including IGRP and RIP, use the distance command to modify the administrative distance. We need to change the metric of the RIP routes learned by CK2 .
C: To control the advertising and processing of routes in routing updates the distribute-list
command is used.
Incorrect Answers:

A: We change the administrative distance of RIP routes on CK2 .

D: We should apply the distribute-list command to Main, not to CK2 .

QUESTION 64
Network topology exhibit

Certkiller .com is changing ISPs. As a result, they will need to install an Email server and utilize network address translation (NAT) for the internal network. Certkiller .com does not want to change the IP Addresses on all of the internal routers and servers. The new ISP, Foo Services, will allocate a registered class C address for Certkiller to use. The internal IP Address scheme will remain the same. Configure the router to provide NAT so that all internal Certkiller PCs will use the single external IP Address assigned to the router interface. Configure a static translation so that Certkiller .com’s Email server will be accessible from the Internet. Name: Certkiller NAT S0: 192.168.17.1/24 E0: 10.0.216.1/24 Secret Password: Certkiller
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
192.168.212.5/24 Web Server’s Internal Address 10.0.243.5/24
QUESTION 65
One of the virtues of a Link-State routing protocol is its hierarchical design. What advantages does this equate to in network design? (Select two)
A. It allows link-state protocols to support VLSM.
B. It allows them to support address summarization.
C. It reduces the need to flood LSAs to all devices in the internetwork.
D. Routers are no longer required to keep track of the topology of the entire autonomous system.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Hierarchical design can limit the requirement to notify all devices. The use of areas restricts the flooding to the logical boundary of the area rather than to all devices in the OSPF domain. Another advantage of hierarchical network design is that the entire network is divided into multiple smaller sections, so that much of the routing information is kept within a small area. In a non-hierarchical network, each router is required to maintain routing information for all other routers within the entire network. Incorrect Answers:
A: Although link state protocols do indeed support VLSM, it is not due to a hierarchical network design. For example, RIP version 2 supports VLSM, but it is not hierarchical.
B: Although address summarization can indeed be configured on routers configured in a hierarchical design, it is an independent function and is not related to the fact that a tiered network design is being used.
QUESTION 66
In regards to the three layered hierarchical network design, which of the following are responsibilities of the distribution layer? (Choose 2)
A. Reliable transport structure
B. Route redistribution
C. Optimized transport structure
D. Address aggregation
E. Unauthorized entry access control lists

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The distribution layer is responsible for what enters and exits a network, including the
consolidation of traffic from multiple subnets into a core connection. Route redistribution and address
aggregation happen at this layer.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: This is a function of the core layer.

E. This is a function of the access layer.
QUESTION 67
Which of the following are advantages of implementing a hierarchical IP addressing scheme when designing a large network? (Select two)
A. Smaller routing tables
B. Efficient address allocation
C. Translation of private addresses
D. Support for link-state routing protocols

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Hierarchical IP addressing uses the addresses more conservatively, by planning for the correct use of subnet masks and route summarization. A hierarchical network design facilitates the use of IP routing summarization, which will reduce the size of the routing tables.
QUESTION 68
The Certkiller frame relay network is shown in the diagram below: Based on the information given in this diagram, which of the following are true??

A. The network is using a two-layer full-mesh hierarchical design.
B. The network is using a two-layer hub-and-spoke hierarchical design.
C. To improve scalability, route summarization at Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6 should be performed.
D. Routers A and B are the distribution layer routers.
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 and CK6 are the access layer routers.
F. To improve security, packet filtering that uses ACLs at Routers A and B must be implemented.

Correct Answer: CEADB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The network shown here is using a 3 level tiered approach: Core, Distribution, and Access.
B: Three layers are used, not two.
D: Routers A and B are the Core routers here.
E: These routers make up the Distribution layer.
QUESTION 69
You are trying to determine the best routing protocol to use for the large Certkiller network. Which routing protocols should you avoid when deploying a large network? (Select two)
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Both RIP version 1 and version 2 should only be used in relatively small networks. A large network would be congested by RIP broadcasts. These frequent broadcasts contain the entire routing table, and could saturate links.
QUESTION 70
What are some of the features that are important for designing large, scalable networks? (Select three)
A. A tiered network design model.
B. Sufficient memory on the router.
C. Multiple EIGRP autonomous systems.
D. Good address space allocation scheme.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: A tiered network design model such as Core, Distribution, and Access is also needed for
large networks.

B: Sufficient capacity of the routers, in particular the memory, is required for large networks.

D: Good allocation of address space is required- Each region should have a unique address
space so route summarization is possible.
Incorrect Answers:

C: Configuring multiple EIGRP autonomous systems can add extra overhead and it provides no
additional benefits.

QUESTION 71
Two of the following routing protocols require a tiered, hierarchical topology. Which ones are they? (Select two)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v2

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IS-IS and OSPF both require a hierarchical topology. The use of multiple areas and a core
backbone area means that they are hierarchical by nature.

QUESTION 72
What has become the leading Interior Routing Protocol (IGP) in use by Internet service providers?
A. IS-IS
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIPv2
E. BGP4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In recent years, the IS-IS routing protocol has become increasingly popular, with widespread use among Service Providers. It is a link state protocol, which enables very fast convergence with large scalability. It is also a very flexible protocol and has been extended to incorporate leading edge features such as MPLS Traffic Engineering. It is also chosen because it is an IETF standard based protocol, rather than a proprietary protocol such as IGRP or EIGRP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/ CK3 81/technologies_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sht ml
QUESTION 73
Two of the following routing protocols support load balancing over unequal cost links.Which ones are they? (Select two)
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v2
E. RIP v1

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IGRP and EIGRP support unequal cost path load balancing, which is known as variance. OSPF,
RIP v1 and RIP v2 do not support this.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/19.html

QUESTION 74
You are required to choose a routing protocol that supports variable length subnet masks (VLSM) for your network. Which of the following would meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v1

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IS-IS, EIGRP, OSPF, RIP V2 and static routes all support VLSM.
Incorrect Answers:

B: IGRP is the predecessor to EIGRP and does not support VLSM.
E: RIP version 1 is a distance vector routing protocol that does not support VLSM.
QUESTION 75
Cisco routers automatically perform route summarization for various protocols. Which three of the following routing protocols are they? (Select three)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v.1

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sending route summaries – Routing information advertised out an interface is automatically summarized at

major (classful) network address boundaries by RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP. Specifically, this autonomous summarization occurs for those routes whose classful network address differs from the major network address of the interface to which the advertisement is being sent. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 79

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Cisco 642-811 Dump,Most Important Cisco 642-811 Practise Questions With 100% Pass Rate

Good News! With Cisco 642-811 exam dumps, you will never worry about your Cisco 642-811 exam, all the questions and answers are updated timely by our experts.Also now Flydumps.com is offering free Cisco 642-811 exam VCE player and PDF files for free on their website.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?

A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for
Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
C. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
D. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and
120.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and

110.

E. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
F. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and

120.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
E. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A network is configured with VLANs 1 through 5. 802.1 Q trunking is enabled between all switches. Currently, access ports for VLAN 3 exist only on Switch3 and Switch6. What must the administrator do to ensure that the other switches do not receive unnecessary broadcast packets for VLAN 3 while still allowing all other VLAN packets to cross?

A. Configure VTP pruning.
B. Configure Switch3 and Switch6 as transparent switches.
C. Configure Switch1, Switch2, Switch4 and Switch5 as transparent switches.
D. Nothing is required. Only Switch3 and Switch6 will receive VLAN3 packets by default.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)

A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which spanning-tree feature will disable ports configured for PortFast in the event of a BPDU being received on those ports?
A. BPDUGuard
B. BPDU filtering
C. UDLD
D. Root Guard
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos trust override cos
B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest time to receive BPDUs
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
Correct Answers: vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 14
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the above graphic. Switch A, the root bridge, is connected directly to Switch B over link L1 and to Switch C over link L2. The Layer 2 LAN interface on Switch C that is connected directly to Switch B is in the blocking state. If Switch C detects a link failure on the currently active link L2 on the root port, which spanning tree enhancement will allow Switch C to unblock the blocked port and transition it to forwarding without going through the listening and learning states?

A. PortFast
B. UplinkFast
C. BackboneFast
D. rapid spanning tree
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-a-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three.)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands contains the minimum number of commands necessary on the Cat_3550 switch for the host in VLAN 2 to be able to ping the host in VLAN 3? e
A. ip routing
B. ip routingrouter eigrp 1network 10.0.0.0
C. router eigrp 1network 10.0.0.0
D. ip routingrouter eigrp 1redistribute connectednetwork 10.0.0.0network 200.1.1.0no auto-summary
E. ip routingrouter eigrp 1redistribute connectednetwork 10.0.0.0no auto-summary
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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