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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Jun 07, 2017
Q&As: 61
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html

DCICT Pass4itsure 200-155 Vce Domains Comparison

DCICT exam domains comparison
640-916 DCICT exam Pass4itsure 200-155 DCICT exam
1.0 Cisco Data Center Fundamentals Concepts 30% 1.0 Unified Computing 25%
2.0 Data Center Unified Fabric 20% 2.0 Network Virtualization 17%
3.0 Storage Networking 18% 3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
4.0 Data Center Virtualization 14% 4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
5.0 Unified Computing 17% 5.0 Application Centric Infrastructure 17%
6.0 Data Center Network Services 1%

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 24
What must a system administrator do to reconcile BlackBerry devices with email messages that have been permanently deleted from Microsoft Outlook? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server properties.
B. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Domain properties.
C. Create a new group, add BlackBerry device users to the group, and enable the hard delete option for the group.
D. Change the IT policy for the hard delete option and apply the IT policy to the all users.
E. Use the BlackBerry Resource Kit to apply the hard delete option to all users.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
A custom application has been developed for a group of BlackBerry device users. The organizations management staff require that all users in the group have the custom application installed on their BlackBerry devices. Which method can the system administrator use to prevent the custom application from being uninstalled by users? (Choose one.)
A. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Required.
B. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Optional.
C. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Disallowed.
D. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, an allow list or white list for third-party application control is created.
E. The custom application is signed by Research In Motion Limited so that the application is part of the system software.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which type of confirmation does the Message Receipt Confirmation tool in the BlackBerry Resource Kit monitor? (Choose one.)
A. Email messages to a BlackBerry device
B. PIN messages to a BlackBerry device
C. SMS messages to a BlackBerry device
D. Unread status for email messages sent to a BlackBerry device
E. Message receipts for all email messages sent to a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which two delivery methods are available to push applications to a BlackBerry device using a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless
B. Wireline only
C. Wi-Fi
D. BlackBerry device user initiated download
E. BlackBerry MDS Push Server

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
A company does not want their BlackBerry device users to be able to send PIN messages outside of their company. Which option in the BlackBerry Manager can be used to prevent PIN message communication outside of the company? (Choose one.)
A. Enable Enterprise Service Policy
B. Update Peer-to-Peer Encryption Key
C. Import IT Policy Definitions
D. Disable the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
E. Disable message redirection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
The database administrator for the BlackBerry Configuration Database has advised the system administrator that the Microsoft SQL Server was shut down for maintenance the previous night for approximately two hours. In the application log, from which three BlackBerry Enterprise Server components would the system administrator expect to see warnings when the connection to the Microsoft SQL Server was lost? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Router
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Controller
E. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service

200-155 Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
A BlackBerry device is activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, allowing the BlackBerry device user to send and receive email messages and wirelessly update organizer (PIM) data synchronization control. The user wants to synchronize the address book on the BlackBerry device with a new contact that has recently been created in a personal .pst folder file. What must be done before the user can successfully synchronize the BlackBerry device and the new address book? (Choose one.)
A. The new address book must be assigned to the user in the BlackBerry Manager.
B. The user can synchronize the BlackBerry device to a .pst file in the BlackBerry Manager.
C. Wireless synchronization for the address book must be disabled on the BlackBerry device, and then, the BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. The user must disable the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book feature must be selected for synchronization in the BlackBerry Manager.
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book must be selected for synchronization.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What can be configured for the BlackBerry Controller Service in the Microsoft Windows Registry? (Choose one.)
A. Daily restart of the BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. The number of hung threads
C. The wait count of hung threads
D. Maximum number of BlackBerry Messaging Agents
E. BlackBerry Controller Service enabled

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
How many remote components from a BlackBerry Enterprise Server installation can be installed on the same computer? (Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
When planning for disaster recovery, what are the two minimum version requirements to support replication of the BlackBerry Configuration Database? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.0 Service Pack 4
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 2
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 4 or later

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
A system administrator is installing the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server in an environment. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server will be installed on a member server that does not have a Microsoft Exchange Server and the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account will be named BESAdmin. Which two tasks must be performed in the Microsoft Exchange Server environment prior to installing the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the server on which the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software will be installed has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
B. Verify that the Microsoft Exchange Server that the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will connect to has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
C. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Send As, and Receive As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
D. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
E. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write Properties, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
Given the following example of a BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file: Which logging level has been set for this BlackBerry Enterprise Server component?

(Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
The following line appears in the BlackBerry Dispatcher logs from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server:
[30222] (06/12 23:59:39):{0xFE4} {Smith, Donna} MTH: contentType=IPPP, sizeOTA=1228, sizeOTW=2096, TransactionId=201199664, Tag=9979374
Which action is being performed? (Choose one.)
A. An Internet request packet is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
B. An Internet request packet is being received from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. An email message is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. An email message is being received from the BlackBerry device through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
E. An attachment request packet is being sent from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A system administrator has moved the BlackBerry Configuration Database from one Microsof SQL Server to another. The Microsoft SQL database was backed up from the source server and restored on the destination server. The system administrator restores the BlackBerry Configuration Database on the destination Microsoft SQL Server and configures the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to point to the new Microsoft SQL Server using the BlackBerry Config tool. The BlackBerry Dispatcher, the BlackBerry Synchronization Service, and the BlackBerry Policy Service all fail to start. The system administrator has verified connectivity to the destination Microsoft SQL Server by clicking the Test Microsoft SQL Server Connectivity button. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account is not a member of the local administrators group on the Microsoft SQL Server.
B. The BlackBerry Configuration Database schema is not updated.
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account does not have sufficient Microsoft Exchange permissions.
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is pointed at the wrong database.
E. The BlackBerry system errors (syserrors) are not updated in the master database.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
At what level in the BlackBerry Manager are IT policies created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. User
C. Group
D. Domain
E. Device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
A system administrator wants to create a software configuration that prohibits installation of all third-party applications with the exception of a short list of approved applications. Which two options require the shortest steps to achieve the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
B. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
C. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
D. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
E. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.

Correct Answer: AC

200-155

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 60
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-150.html

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing
department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business
department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated
accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining
Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 8
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)
A. Time and Date
B. Management IP address
C. Default Zoneset distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 36
Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. Zone

D. FLOGI
E. LUN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?
A. MDS-A# show vsan 10
B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database
C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports
D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership
E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 4
E. RAID 5
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. better server utilization
B. increased network visibility
C. decreased complexity
D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems
E. physical resource sharing
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 40
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG
QUESTION 43
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vem
B. N1000v-VSM# vem status
C. N1000v-VSM# show module
D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status
E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 14
B. None
C. Ports 16
D. Ports 18
E. Ports 1720

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 49
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI

F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 50
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 51
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 54
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 55
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?
A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.
B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.
C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.
D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?
A. access
B. services
C. aggregation
D. transport
E. network
F. core

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and intrusion prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 62
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC overlay link
B. vPC peer link
C. vPC keepalive link
D. vPC control link
E. vPC management link
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?
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QUESTION 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F QUESTION 6

Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre
Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?
A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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