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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility. CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This  is the default version on all switches.
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: C
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Which of the following groups would NOT be considered to be subject matter experts (SME’s) of a job function?
A. Current incumbents
B. Direct reports
C. Trained job analysts
D. D.Supervisours
Answer: B
Let’s assume you need to develop a strategic employer branding program. Which of the following
is one of the LEAST effective methods in prositive employer branding?
A. Providing above-market compensation packages
B. Gathering local confidence by socially responsible actions, ie environmentally conscious
C. Winning the Malcolm Baldrge National Quality Award
D. Implementation of flexible work arrangements that reduce turnover by 10%
300-115 vce 
Answer: A
What are the 4P’s in Marketing?
A. Place, Product, Promotion, Partnership
B. Price, Place, Product, Promotion
C. Price, Product, Promotion, Productivity
D. Price, Product, Promotion, Partnership
Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a reason why a company would pursue moving forward with an
A. Improve customer relations
B. Increase their current market share
C. Acquire new skills and talents
D. Expand their product protfolio
300-115 exam 
Answer: A
Which of the following criteria is NOT a factor in determining the level of control of a non-U.S.
A. Labor relations centrally controlled
B. Principal place of business
C. Shared management
D. Interrelation of operations
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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Question No : 116  Click the Exhibit button.
What type of power problem does the exhibit illustrate?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Impulsive transient
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 117 What is a measure of heat intensity?
A. Volume
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
Question No : 118  According to the Ideal Gas Law, as the pressure inside a balloon increases to a point that it
exceeds the pressure on the outside of the balloon, which property of the balloon also
A. Color Intensity
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Temperature
210-250 dump  Answer: C
Question No : 119  What is a property of heat transfer?
A. Heat is destroyed.
B. Heat is transferred in the direction from hot to cold.
C. Heat is transferred in the direction from cold to hot.
D. Heat is transferred in both directions (hot to cold and cold to hot).
Answer: B
Question No : 120  Which method transfers heat through a solid material?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
210-250 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 121 Which method of heat transfer occurs when stepping barefoot onto hot pavement?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: C
Question No : 122 Which substance transfers heat most efficiently?
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Vapor
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 123 Which method transfers heat through the movement of a liquid or gas?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Question No : 124 Which method transfers heat by electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 125 Which method of heat transfer causes electromagnetic waves?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
Answer: A
Question No : 126 What percentage of electricity used to power IT equipment is typically converted into heat?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%
210-250 exam Answer: D
Question No : 127  What is the most common direction of airflow through a rack mount blade server assembly?
A. Side to side
B. Front to back
C. Back to front
D. Bottom to top
Answer: B
Question No : 128 The Ideal Gas Law governs the relationship of which three state variables? (Choose three.)
A. Volume
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure
D. Conductivity
E. Temperature
210-250 dump Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 129 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the pressure when the temperature is
increased and the volume is held constant?
A. The pressure does not change.
B. The pressure initially increases and then decreases.
C. The pressure increases.
D. The pressure decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 130 According to the Ideal Gas Law, what happens to the temperature and pressure inside an aerosol can that is being sprayed?
A. Temperature and pressure both increase.
B. Temperature and pressure are decreased.
C. Temperature and pressure are unchanged.
D. Temperature is unchanged and pressure is decreased.
210-250 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 131 Which temperature range is optimal for the proper function of a data center?
A. 62-65F (17-18C)
B. 72-75F (22-24C)
C. 82-85F (28-29C)
D. 92-95F (33-35C)
Answer: B
Question No : 132 What is the correct order of the refrigeration cycle datacenter precision cooling?
A. Condensation > evaporation > expansion > compression
B. Compression > condensation > evaporation > expansion
C. Evaporation > expansion > condensation > compression
D. Evaporation > compression > condensation > expansion
210-250  vce Answer: D
Question No : 133  What is the historical / traditional architecture of data center cooling?
A. Rack
B. Row
C. Room
D. Building
Answer: C
Question No : 134 Which is an example of a row-oriented cooling architecture?
A. Each cooling unit works to cool the load through a raised floor plenum.
B. Each cooling unit is ceiling mounted and targets cool air to the cold aisles.
C. Each cooling unit works directly to cool the heat load of a specific equipment rack.
D. Each cooling unit is placed along the data center wall and cools the general air space.
210-250  exam Answer: B
Question No : 135 What are three benefits of row-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Predictable cooling
B. Ease of deployment
C. No raised floor required
D. Reduced sensible heat ratio
E. Increased mixing of air streams
Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 136 What are three benefits of rack-oriented cooling architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It reduces CRAC fan power required.
B. It utilizes the entire rated CRAC capacity.
C. It eliminates the need for humidity control.
D. It is easy to deploy for high density applications.
E. It reduces the number of air conditioning devices.
210-250 dump Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 137 What characteristic is common to all cooling architectures?
A. Deployable with on a raised floor
B. Top or bottom airflow configuration
C. Cooling equipment occupies white space
D. Easily adaptable with changes in infrastructure
Answer: A
Question No : 138 Which two cooling architectures are flexible enough to adapt to ever-changing data center requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B
Question No : 139  Which is an example of a rack-oriented cooling architecture?
A. A cooling unit is located in the ceiling plenum to cool the data center racks.
B. A cooling unit is located within the rack itself to cool the contents of that rack.
C. A cooling unit utilizes perforated raised floor tiles to deliver cool air to the rack.
D. A cooling unit is located along the perimeter wall of the data center to cool a specific
zone of racks.
Answer: B
Question No : 140 Which cooling architecture has the shortest air flow paths between the cooling unit and the IT equipment?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Building
210-250 vce Answer: B
Question No : 141 Which cooling architecture attempts to eliminate hot spots within the data center by utilizing large volumes of air mixing throughout the space?
A. Row
B. Rack
C. Room
D. Ceiling
Answer: C

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[2017 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Cisco CCIE Collaboration 400-051 Dumps Exam Real Questions Answers Youtube Study

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Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration
Q&As: 615

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Refer to the Exhibit.
400-051 dumps

An agent initiated a video call but was establish as audio only. The support engineer collected and analyzed the Cisco Unified CM traces. Which two options caused this problem? (Choose two)
A. A hardware MTP was assigned to the call.
B. SIP Notify DTMF was requested and negotiated.
C. MTP Required was checked on the SIP Trunks.
D. Use Trusted Relay Point is set on one of the phones.
E. MRGL assigned to phones with Trusted Relay Point.
400-051 exam 
Correct Answer: DE
An engineer is setting up a proxy TFTP between multiple Cisco communication Manager clusters. Drag the step from the left to the correct order on the right to properly configure the certificates for the proxy TFTP. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
400-051 dumps

Correct Answer:
400-051 dumps

Multiple users report that when they try to login to Cisco Unified Communications Extension Mobility Manager this error is retrieved? “Error:-[26] Busy, please try again” Which description of the cause is true?
A. The intracluster Multiple Login Behaviour is set to Multiple Logins Not Allowed.
B. The Validate IP Address parameter is set to false, so the IP is not found in the trust list.
C. The number of concurrent log in and logout requests is higher than the Maximum Concurrent Requests service parameter.
D. The Extension Mobility Cache size has been lowered to 1000 and no more logins are allowed beyond this number.
400-051 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Which option describes how NVF, OpenStack and KVM relate to each other?
A. OpenStack and KVM can be used to provide NVF.
B. OpenStack and KVM are not related to NVF.
C. NVF and KVM are based on OpenStack.
D. OpenStack and NVF enable KVM.
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps

Site A and site B have a 3-hour time difference. An administrator has time-of-day routing configured at site A and site B for all incoming calls to the main phone number, DN 8000. Two hunt pilots with the same DN are configured with the time periods of site A and B. Which Statement about the incoming calls is true?
A. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Wednesday after 1500 PST are answered by the site B IP phone.
B. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday are answered by the site A IP phone.
C. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Saturday after 17:00 PST are answered by the site A and site B IP phones.
D. Incoming calls to hunt pilot 8000 on Sunday are answered by the site B IP phone.
400-051 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
A client wants to play and compose voice messages from Microsoft Outlook. What is required for this functionality?
A. single inbox synchronisation with send and draft messages
B. single inbox with ViewMail
C. single inbox with mailboxes larger than 2 GB
D. single inbox user message delivery with folder deletion
Correct Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 2)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?
B. 180 Ringing
C. 200 OK
E. RTP Media
400-051 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation: 200 OK Indicates the request was successful.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 2)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?
A. The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C. The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D. The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
E. The MGCP gateway is responding to a CRCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a call setup.
Answer: D
See MGCP packet debugging examples and their meanings at the Reference link below. Reference: Sample of Debug MGCP Packets
Question No : 24 – (Topic 2)  Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?
A. Terminal Capability Set
B. Open Logical Channel
C. Master-Slave Determination
D. Call Setup
E. Call Progress
400-051 exam 
Answer: B
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round-trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

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Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)
Describe how Azure 70-695  dumps uses Global Foundation Services (GFS) datacenters
Understand Azure datacenter architecture, regional availability, and high availability
Design Azure virtual networks, networking services, DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration
Extend on-premises Active Directory, deploy Active Directory, define static IP reservations, understand ACLs and Network Security Groups
Design Azure Compute
Design Azure virtual machines (VMs) and VM architecture for IaaS and PaaS; understand availability sets, fault domains, and update domains in Azure; differentiate between machine classifications
Describe Azure virtual private network (VPN) and ExpressRoute architecture and design
Describe Azure point-to-site (P2S) and site-to-site (S2S) VPN, understand the architectural differences between Azure VPN and ExpressRoute
Describe Azure services
Understand, at a high level, Azure load balancing options, including Traffic Manager, Azure Media Services, CDN, Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), Azure Cache, Multi-Factor Authentication, and Service Bus
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Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BCD
Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
B. SAP Business All-In-One

D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D
You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B
You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: CE
Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE
You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
70-695 vce Correct Answer: BDE
Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BC
How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: A
You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC
Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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