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Cisco 642-591 Certification Exam, Up To Date Cisco 642-591 Study Material Online

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QUESTION 30
Which two of the following are Cisco Unity Connection components that, when changed, will not affect the settings of existing users? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Templates
B. Users Templates
C. Enterprise Parameters
D. Service Parameters
E. Call Handlers

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which of the following applications collects, distributes, and aggregates user attributes and capabilities?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unified Presence
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Personal Communicator

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
When using Cisco Unity Connection, which call handler type offers different call actions based on the digits that are selected?
A. digit analysis
B. system
C. directory
D. interview
E. call management

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which five of the following commands will integrate a Cisco Unity Express module with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router. (Choose five.)
Exhibit:

A. ip route 10.1.131.2 255.255.255.255 interface Service-Engine 1/0
B. service-module ip address 10.1.130.2 255.255.255.0
C. ip unnumbered Loopback0
D. service-module ip address 10.1.131.2 255.255.255.0
E. service-module ip default-gateway 10.1.131.1
F. ip unnumbered vlan130
G. service-module ip default-gateway 10.1.30.1.1
H. interface lntegrated-Service-Engine1/0

Correct Answer: ACDEH Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Cisco, Wireless LAN

Cisco 642-587 Exam Questions, Buy Discount Cisco 642-587 Exam Q&As Are Based On The Real Exam

June 14, 2016 No Comments

Passed with high score today for Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-587.html Exam. Windows 8.1 new questions will be added so I’m lucky to pass today.Almost all questions were the same includes the new question, DirectAccess, EFS, AD CS..Only used Flydumps premium vce file.

QUESTION 40
A Cisco WCS version 4.0 has been installed on a server with a dual Pentium
3.0 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM, and an 80 GB hard drive. A location appliance has been incorporated into the network and is being monitored by the Cisco WCS. There are 3000 devices to be tracked but not all of them are being tracked on the Cisco WCS. What can be done to correct the problem?
A. Add 4 GB of RAM to the Cisco WCS.
B. Add a 120 GB hard drive to the Cisco WCS.
C. Add a new location appliance.
D. Add a new Cisco WCS server dedicated to the location appliance.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
When optimizing a standalone point-to-multipoint bridge installation with eight non-root bridges, which of the following RTS threshold and CWmin settings would be correct for the non-root bridges?
A. RTS threshold=4000, CWmin=3
B. RTS threshold=1, CWmin=4
C. RTS threshold=4000, CWmin=5
D. RTS threshold=1, CWmin=5

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Your customer has deployed a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance within its warehouse environment. However, employees there have been experiencing problems when tracking objects using active RFID tags. You use an access point scan to determine if the Location Appliance has been deployed correctly. Making which change to warehouse deployment location services will most likely correct the problem?
A. allow for the automatic containment of rogue access points
B. ensure each area is covered by a minimum of three access points
C. ensure channels are deployed such that they do not overlap
D. ensure a minimum RSSI value of -50
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which of the following parameter sets must be configured on the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance?
A. location views
B. object definitions
C. access points
D. network connections

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
What is the correct order of steps for upgrading a Cisco WCS?
A. back up the database, stop the WCS, upgrade the WCS, restore the database, start the WCS
B. stop the WCS, back up the database, upgrade the WCS, restore the database, start the WCS
C. back up the database, stop the WCS, upgrade the WCS, start the WCS, restore the database
D. stop the WCS, back up the database, upgrade the WCS, start the WCS, restore the database

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which protocol does the RADIUS server use inside the secure tunnel of EAP-FAST to authenticate the client when one-time passwords are in use?
A. MS-CHAP v2
B. PAP
C. GTC
D. MD5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
When configuring a WLAN controller for a voice application using Cisco 7920 wireless IP phones, which two general control settings should you select? (Choose two.)
A. Aggressive Load Balancing on
B. Aggressive Load Balancing off
C. Multicast on
D. Multicast off
E. AP Fallback on
F. AP Fallback off

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
You are charged with implementing a secure wireless installation which will provide Internet access to client devices but will not allow communications between wireless clients. In addition to implementing PSPF or peer-to-peer blocking on the wireless side, which of the following actions should you perform on the wired infrastructure?
A. Take no action, you have achieved your goal.
B. Implement a Cisco Secure IPS sensor.
C. Implement a protected port on the access switches.
D. Implement 802.1X on the switch ports.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
EAP-FAST provides a secure tunnel during Phase One to protect the user’s authentication credentials. Which of these entities initializes the secure tunnel?
A. generic token card
B. x.509 certificate
C. preshared key
D. Protected Access Credential

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
You are troubleshooting a problem with a Cisco 7920 wireless IP phone that is causing the phone to drop calls. The problem appears to be a roaming bandwidth issue. In order to verify what kind of issue it is, you decide to increase the bandwidth reserved for roaming on the WLAN controller to the maximum. What level do you set the bandwidth to?
A. 5 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 35 percent

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Using the WLSE, you are trying to push out a configuration job to a standalone access point, but the job does not start. Which of the following would cause this failure?
A. invalid parameter in the template
B. pop-up blocker enabled in the browser
C. incorrect SNMP communities on the access point
D. unsupported version of IOS firmware in the access point

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
You want to dynamically assign users to an 802.1Q VLAN as a result of their authentication. In order to accomplish this, which two IETF RADIUS attributes should you configure on the Cisco Secure ACS? (Choose two.)
A. 064 Tunnel-Type
B. 066 Tunnel-Client-Endpoint
C. 067 Tunnel-Server-Endpoint
D. 081 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID
E. 082 Tunnel-Assignment-ID
F. 083 Tunnel-Preference

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
In a deployment using standalone access points, clients set up to authenticate with EAP-PEAP or EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco-LEAP) cannot authenticate. When you inspect the Failed Attempts report on the Cisco Secure ACS, you find this error: “Unknown network access server NAS.” Which problem may have caused this failure?
A. misconfigured EAP type on the access point
B. misconfigured EAP type on the AAA server
C. misconfigured IP address of the access point on the AAA server
D. misconfigured IP address of the AAA server on the access point

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What is the maximum number of hexadecimal characters allowed when configuring the WPA or WPA2 passphrase in Cisco ADU?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A client roams from H-REAP AP1 to H-REAP AP2. The client is unable to associate to H-REAP AP2. H-REAP AP2 has six other clients associated to it, which continue to pass traffic. What has caused this problem?
A. H-REAP AP1 lost its connection to the controller.
B. H-REAP AP2 lost its connection to the controller.
C. H-REAP AP1 has reached its client limit.
D. H-REAP AP2 has reached its client limit.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You are configuring a wireless LAN controller for QoS. Which 802.11e user priority tag should you apply to voice applications?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
You are using ADU and are authenticated and associated to an access point.
However, you are unable to obtain an IP address. Which of these has caused this problem?
A. invalid SSID
B. invalid 802.1X authentication type
C. invalid encryption type
D. invalid WEP key

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which parameter, when enabled on a standalone access point, gives the highest priority to a voice packet even when QoS is not enabled?
A. QoS Element for Wireless Phones
B. IGMP Snooping
C. WMM
D. AVVID Priority Mapping

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You review the Failed Attempts logs on an AAA server and find: “unknown network access server error.” Which failure could produce this error?
A. failure of the wireless client and AAA server handshake
B. supplicant authentication failure
C. AAA client and AAA server handshake failure
D. wrong password used by the supplicant

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
If it is properly deployed, a controller-based access point is capable of monitoring all VLANs on a network when you select which of the following modes from the AP Mode drop-down menu on the controller?
A. Monitor
B. Rogue Detector
C. Sniffer
D. Mirror

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
On a WLAN controller, what is the default limit on the number of entries in the database that will be used for local authentication?
A. 50
B. 128
C. 512 D. 1024

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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CCSP, Cisco

Cisco 642-513 Actual Questions, High Pass Rate Cisco 642-513 Real Exam Questions And Answers Covers All Key Points

June 14, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 31
What happens if the Agent UI control rule is not present in any active rule modules?
A. The Agent UI becomes present on the system.
B. The Agent UI is not present on the system.
C. The Agent UI is visible on the system.
D. The Agent UI is not visible on the system.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What are the three options that can be given to a user when a Query User window appears? (Choose three.)
A. allow
B. accept
C. deny
D. kill E. terminate

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see a view of event records based on filtering criteria such as time and severity?
A. Event Summary
B. Event Log
C. Event Monitor
D. Event Sets
E. Event Alerts

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
When a rule is cloned, which part of the rule is not cloned?
A. sets
B. rule modules
C. hosts
D. variables

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
What is the purpose of the network interface control rule?
A. to prevent applications from opening devices and acting as a sniffer
B. to provide protocol stack hardening rules
C. to prevent users from opening devices that can act as a sniffer
D. to provide filtering of undesired traffic at the network interface level

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
What action must happen before a system that has CSA can download policies configured for it?
A. The system must be rebooted.
B. The system must install Agent kits.
C. The system must be polled by the CSA MC.
D. The system must register with the CSA MC.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which rules will not be enforced if you fail to reboot a Windows system following installation of the CSA?
A. network access control rules
B. buffer overflow rules
C. COM component access control rules
D. network shield rules

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see overall system status information, including a summary of recorded events, agent configuration, and activity?
A. Status Summary
B. Event Log
C. Event Monitor
D. Event Sets
E. Alerts

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which operating system does not allow Query User options?
A. OS2
B. Windows
C. Linux
D. Solaris
E. HPUX

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40
For which layers of the OSI reference model does CSA enforce security?
A. Layer 1 through Layer 4
B. Layer 1 through Layer 7
C. Layer 2 through Layer 4
D. Layer 3 through Layer 7

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see a continuously refreshed view of the most recently logged event records?
A. Event Log
B. Event Monitor
C. Event Sets
D. Event Alerts

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What are the three CSA MC administrator roles? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. configure
C. deploy
D. view
E. monitor
F. administer

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What can you optionally install when you choose the Quiet Install option when creating a new Windows Agent kit?
A. the Agent kit shim
B. the protocol shim
C. the network shim
D. the policy shim

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
When you choose the Log All Deny Actions option within a group, how are deny actions logged?
A. Deny actions are logged every 5 minutes.
B. Deny actions are logged every 10 minutes.
C. Every deny action is logged regardless of the specific rule settings.
D. Only those deny actions that are configured within specific rules are logged.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
For which operating system is the system API control rule available?
A. OS2
B. Windows
C. Linux
D. Solaris

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
How can you configure a host to poll in to the CSA MC before its scheduled polling interval using the CSA MC?
A. Click the Poll button on the Agent UI.
B. Choose the Poll Now button on the CSA MC.
C. Choose the Send Polling Hint option in the CSA MC.
D. Enter a polling interval in the appropriate box on the CSA MC.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
In which type of rules are file sets used?
A. COM component access control rules
B. resource access control rules
C. file version control rules
D. file access control rules

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
What status is shown when an Agent kit is prepared for downloading to hosts?
A. prepared
B. ready
C. needs rule generation
D. complete

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 50
Which protocol is required for the administrative workstation to communicate with the CSA MC?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SSL
D. IPSec

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
How can the Agent kit be sent out to host machines?
A. via a URL that is e-mailed to clients
B. via a TFTP server
C. via an FTP server
D. via a Telnet server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of the sniffer and protocol detection rule?
A. to stop sniffers from running on a network
B. to allow sniffers to run on a network
C. to cause an event to be logged when non-IP protocols and sniffer programs are detected running on systems
D. to deny non-IP protocols and sniffer programs from running on systems

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What are three types of variables used for CSA? (Choose three.)
A. global sets
B. file sets
C. API sets
D. data sets
E. network address sets

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
What is the purpose of connection rate limit rules?
A. to limit the number of connections to an application
B. to limit the number of calls to the kernel in a specified time frame
C. to limit the number of network connections within a specified time frame
D. to limit the number of malformed connection requests to a web server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which port is used to access the CSA MC from the administrative workstation?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 1741
D. 1802

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which two of the following file access rule criteria can you use to allow or deny the operations that the selected applications can perform on files? (Choose two.)
A. the application attempting to access the file
B. the application attempting to access the service or address
C. the operation attempting to act on the file
D. the direction of the communications
E. the address with which a system is attempting to communicate

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
What action is taken on user query windows when the Agent UI is not present on a system?
A. The default action is always taken.
B. All actions are denied.
C. All actions are allowed.
D. All actions are allowed and logged.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which three make up the CSA architecture model? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Trust Agent
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Agent Management Center
D. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
E. an administrative workstation
F. a syslog server

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two of the following network access rules can you use to control access to specified network services? (Choose two.)
A. the application attempting to access the file
B. the application attempting to access the service or address
C. the operation attempting to act on the file
D. the direction of the communications

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Apple

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QUESTION 11
You have replaced the video card in a Power Macintosh G4 (FW 800). In what THREE ways should you test the repair before running the system to the customer? (Choose three)
A. Leave the computer on overnight.
B. Verify that the original symptom is resolved.
C. Verify that no new symptoms have occurred.
D. Start up the computer in Target Disk Mode to test the internal hard drive.
E. Run all Apple Service Diagnostic tests for the Power Mac G4 (FW 800).
F. Run Apple Service Diagnostic video tests for the Power Mac G4 (FW 800).

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 12
An eMac has no video, but powers on with a normal startup chime, and normal startup sounds from the hard drive. Which of the following steps should you try next?
A. Update the eMac firmware.
B. Replace the eMac logic board.
C. Replace the eMac Display/Analog Assembly.
D. Connect a known-good VGA display to the eMac.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an eMac. Which of the following is them most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.
D. Replace the Display/Analog Assembly inside the eMac.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?
A. No video display
B. Low disk space warning
C. Single beep at startup
D. No Internet connectivity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You are troubleshooting a Power Mac G5 that will not boot, and emits error tones when powered on. You suspect that the customer may have installed incompatible or faulty RAM, but you are not sure. What should you do to verify the RAM requirements for this Power MAC G5?
A. Call Apple
B. Order Apple RAM
C. Check Specifications
D. Count the RAM sockets on the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
You are troubleshooting a Power Mac G5 that has the following symptom: The power-on LED illuminates when the power button is pressed, fans spin, and the boot tine chimes, but there is no video displayed on the attached know-good display. Rank the following possible causes from First to Last, in the order you should check them:
1.
Crashed PMU

2.
Faulty logic board

3.
Corrupted PRAM

4.
Video card not fully seated in logic board connector

5.
Faulty video card
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
E. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An eMac (USB 2.0) is displaying a flashing question mark at startup. When you start up the computer from a known-good bootable external FireWire hard drive the internal hard drive does not appear on the desktop. What is the recommended order in which to attempt the following troubleshooting steps on the internal hard drive?
1.
Replace the hard drive.

2.
Reinitialize the hard drive.

3.
Replace the hard drive cable.

4.
Verify the hard drive’s cable connections.

5.
Reinstall the software drivers for the hard drive.
A. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
E. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other AppleWorks files?
C. What version of AppleWorks are you using?
D. In your Mac connected to a network?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A hard dive in a Power Mac G4 (QuickSilver) is not spinning after the computer is powered on. You have verified that the drive power cable connector has no voltage by using a voltmeter. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. Hard Drive
B. Hard Drive Data Cable
C. Power Supply Assembly
D. Cable Harness Assembly

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which THREE of the following computers uses Serial ATA hard drive technology? Select three.
A. Power Mac G4 (FW 800)
B. Power Mac G5 (Uni 1.6GHz)
C. Power Mac G5 (Dual 2.0 GHz)
D. Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Drive Doors)
E. Power Mac G5 (June 2004 Dual 2.5 GHz)

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 21
A customer states that he has never been able to burn DVD’s with his eMac (USB 2.0), yet his friend has an identical-looking eMac (USB 2.0) that can burn DVD’s. You have verified that the customer’s eMac (USB 2.0) has a DVD / CD-RW Combo optical drive and is running the latest version of Mac OS X. The eMac has no other problems. What is the probable cause is this issue?
A. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires more RAM.
B. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires a firmware update.
C. The Combo drive is not capable of burning DVD’s.
D. The eMac (USB 2.O) optical drive is malfunctioning.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
You are working on an eMac that has no video on its built-in display. The fan is spinning, and there is drive activity present. You have tried resetting PRAM, booting to a known-good CD, and resetting the PMUm but the issue persists. You have also connected a known-good external VGA monitor to the eMac’s video out port, but failed to see any video on the external display. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. CRT
B. Logic Board
C. Power Supply
D. Display / Analog Assembly

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which THREE of the following symptoms would be best resolved by performing a PMU reset as a first step? (Choose three)
A. Network / Internet connectivity issue.
B. No power / computer does not function.
C. Cursor randomly freezes on the display.
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function.
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 24
Which TWO of the following features are part of the Universal Motherboard Architecture in Apple desktop computers? (Choose two)
A. VGA
B. USB
C. FireWire
D. Target Disk Mode
E. Power Manager 2.0
F. Hardware DVD decoding

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 25
A Power Mac G5 fails to start up, and the status light on the front of the computer flashes three times.
What does this indicate?
A. Thermal failure
B. No startup disk found
C. Firmware v3.0 upgrade required
D. No RAM bank passed memory testing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following Power Mac G5 internal fans can only be replaced by replacing the entire G5 enclosure?
A. Front inlet fan
B. Rear exhaust fan
C. Media blower / fan
D. Speaker / fan assembly
E. Power supply fan assembly

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which TWO of the following computers can accept a 184-pin DDR333 PC2700 SDRAM DIMM? (Choose two)
A. iMac (Flat Panel)
B. eMac (USB 2.0)
C. Power Mac G5 (Uni 1.6Ghz)
D. Power Mac G5 (Dual 2.0 Ghz)
E. Power Mac G5 (June 2004 Dual 2.5 Ghz)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 28
What is the function of the PMU in an Apple desktop computer?
A. The PMU controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The PMU controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The PMU manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The PMU manages all communication with attached peripherals.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A Power Mac G5 sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an application. You have verified the symptom, have already attempted to force the application to quit, but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Hold the mouse button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
B. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
C. Disconnect and reconnect all peripherals to reset the Open Firmware Device Tree.
D. Disconnect the power cord and the backup battery for several minutes to reset the PMU.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
The fans inside a customer’s Power Mac G5 seem to constantly run at full speed after a repair involving logic board replacement. What should be done FIRST to correct this problem?
A. Replace the processor(s).
B. Run Apple Service Diagnostic.
C. Replace the fans inside the Power Mac G5.
D. Replace the Power Mac G5 logic board again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
You are troubleshooting an eMac system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profile
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
A Macintosh can start up from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of MAC OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and the option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
What is the first step to take if you have an iMac (Flat Panel) that constantly ejects any CD / DVD that is inserted?
A. Replace the optical drive.
B. Replace the optical drive cable.
C. Replace the optical drive bezel.
D. Disconnect all peripheral devices, especially the mouse.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
A customer needs to transfer data from her eMac for use on her Power Mac G5, but the eMac fails to start up completely due to a video issue.
Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive from the eMac and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The eMac will need to be replaced before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the eMac into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the eMac and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the eMac into Target Disk Mode and connect the eMac and Power Mac G5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
A Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM.
B. Try to start up from a bootable CD or DVD.
C. Reinitialize the hard disk and reinstall the Mac OS.
D. Replace the internal hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36

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QUESTION 11
Which format should you use to export your Illustrator document to a vector file format that can be viewed in a Web browser?
A. GIF
B. EPS
C. SVG
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
Which export format allows you to embed ICC profiles?
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. JPEG
D. Enhanced Metafile Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What should you do to vertically dock one palette to another? Exhibit:

A. drag the Palette tab of one palette to the bottom of the other palette
B. drag the Palette tab of one palette into the Palette tab area of the other palette
C. use the Palette Options command on the Palette menu to designate the desired docked position
D. Alt-drag (Windows) or Option-drag (Mac OS) the Palette tab of one palette into the Palette tab area of the other palette

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You want to have Adobe Bridge act as a floating palette to easily drag assets into your Illustrator document. Which mode should you toggle?
A. Compact mode
B. Thumbnail mode
C. Details View mode
D. Ultra-compact mode

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You are using the Paintbrush tool to create paths with an Art brush applied to them. Every time you drag the Paintbrush tool over an existing selected path, the path shape changes. You want to be able to create a new path instead of changing an existing path. What should you do?
A. set Fidelity to zero
B. set Smoothness to zero
C. turn off Edit Selected Paths
D. turn on Fill New Brush Strokes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
You are creating artwork for animation and will export the artwork as a SWF file.
Which type of object should you use to greatly reduce the output size of the SWF file?
A. Mesh
B. Patterns
C. Symbols
D. Gradients

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
When making default color management decisions, to what does a color management policy compare profiles?
A. the RGB working space
B. the CMYK working space
C. the current working space
D. the rendering intent that is currently selected
E. the color management engine that is currently selected

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
You are configuring your Color Settings. You want to utilize color management but want CMYK values to be preserved when opening untagged documents. You also want to use an RGB working color space that is well suited for documents that will be converted to CMYK. Which default setting should you choose?
A. Monitor Color
B. North America Prepress 2
C. Emulate Adobe Illustrator 6.0
D. North America General Purpose 2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
You have an Illustrator document that you need to save as a legacy Illustrator document. Which is the oldest version that will preserve transparency?
A. Illustrator 8
B. Illustrator 9
C. Illustrator 10
D. Illustrator CS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
You want to add a gradient fill to your type. Which two menu options could you use? (Choose two.)
A. Type > Glyphs
B. Object > Expand
C. Type > Create Outlines
D. Object > Compound Path
E. Type > Area Type Options
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 21
In which palette do you find the option to align the stroke of your closed path to the outside?
A. Align palette
B. Stroke palette
C. Attributes palette
D. Appearance palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
You are saving a file to an Illustrator version earlier than 9.0. An option field within the dialog becomes active to allow you to determine what will happen to objects _____.
A. with links
B. containing type
C. containing PDF data
D. containing transparency

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
You are using the Transform palette to scale a selected object. You notice the warning icon shown in the exhibit, at the bottom of the palette. What does this icon indicate will happen when you attempt to scale the object? Exhibit:

A. Only the object will be transformed.
B. Only the pattern of the object will be transformed.
C. Only the object and its strokes and effects will be transformed.
D. Both the object and the pattern of the object will be transformed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which Web graphic format is resolution-independent?
A. PNG
B. SVG
C. JPEG
D. WBMB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
How should you display the alternate glyphs for a highlighted character?
A. select Access All Alternates in the Show list of the Glyphs palette
B. select Alternates for Current Selection in the Show list of the Glyphs palette
C. select Substituted Fonts in the Highlight area of the Document Setup dialog box
D. select Substituted Glyphs in the Highlight area of the Document Setup dialog box

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which category of print options enables you to create color separations?
A. Setup
B. Output C. Advanced
D. Color Management

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
How should you create a clipping mask by using the Layers palette?
A. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
B. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the bottom, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
C. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select each separate object (not the layer) and choose Make Clipping Mask fromthe Layers palette menu
D. arrange the objects to be clipped on one layer and the clipping path on a separate layer above, select both layers and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
Image A in the exhibit has no transparency applied. Which statement about Image B is true? Exhibit:

A. An opacity mask was applied.
B. Isolate blending was turned on.
C. The objects were grouped first, then transparency was applied.
D. The objects were selected individually and transparency was applied to each.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
You are printing a file with gradients, meshes, or color blends to a device that supports Postscript Language Level 2. You choose to rasterize these objects to improve print quality. To which format does Illustrator convert these objects?
A. GIF
B. EPS
C. TIFF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
You are preparing an Illustrator file for color separation. Which color mode should your document be using?
A. RGB color
B. LAB color
C. HSB color
D. CMYK color

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which icon should you click repeatedly to cycle through the views of a palette? Exhibit:

A. OPTION A
B. OPTION B
C. OPTION C
D. OPTION D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You create an object using the Symbol Sprayer tool and change the color of several of the symbols within the object. What should you use to change a symbol back to the original color value?
A. Symbol Styler tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
B. Symbol Shifter tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
C. Symbol Stainer tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. Symbol Screener tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You want to export your Illustrator document to a raster file format that allows you to control image compression while retaining all of the color information. Which format should you choose?
A. GIF
B. EPS
C. PSD
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
What does Adobe Bridge allow you to do?
A. browse files of all Adobe file formats
B. convert from one Adobe file format to another
C. edit metadata of any file format, Adobe or other
D. convert non-Adobe files to the most closely related Adobe file format

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
You are converting several vector objects to raster. Which should you select in the Rasterize dialog box so that you can control the resolution globally?
A. Screen (72 ppi)
B. High (300 ppi)
C. Anti-aliasing: None
D. Use Document Raster Effects Resolution

Correct Answer: D

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Apple, Photoshop

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QUESTION 11
You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image’s magnification to be adjusted to fit the image on screen.
What should you do?
A. choose View > Fit on Screen
B. when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D. Use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Exhibit.

The three images in the exhibit were scanned together. You apply the File>Automate>Crop and Straighten Photos command.
What is the result?
A. A separate layer is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
B. A separate layer is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
C. A separate document is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.
D. A separate document is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for its crookedness.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
You want to modify the tonal range of an image without permanently affecting the pixels. What should you do?
A. use Variations
B. use Auto Levels
C. use a layer style
D. use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using BicubicInterpolation?
A. Blur
B. Sharpen
C. Add Noise
D. Auto Levels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box preserves the overall color relationship while making highlights appear lighter and shadows appear darker?
A. Snap NeutralMidtones
B. Find Dark & Light Colors
C. Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D. Enhance Monochromatic Contrast Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You are trying to lighten only the darkest shadows in an image by choosing Image > Adjustments > Shadow/Highlight. You notice that lighter areas are being affected as well.
What should you do?
A. increase the Radius setting
B. decrease the Radius setting
C. increase the Tonal Width setting
D. decrease the Tonal Width setting

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
You are using the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image. Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A. Radius
B. Amount
C. Tonal Width
D. MidtoneContrast

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
An overexposed photograph has nearly no detail in its highlights, but otherwise has acceptable tonal balance.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use to reveal the details in the highlights?
A. Gradient Map
B. Channel Mixer
C. Shadow/Highlight
D. Brightness/Contrast

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
You want to crate a diagonal elliptical marquee. What should you do?
A. hold down the spacebar and rotate the marquee while dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool
B. create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Edit > Free Transform
C. create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Select > Transform Selection
D. While dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool, hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and rotate the marquee

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
You have a photo of a green leaf. The leaf is in sharp focus and is against a blurred green background.
You want to make a selection that follows the contour of the leaf.
What should you do?

A. use the Find Edges filter
B. use the Magic Wand tool
C. use the Magnetic Lasso tool
D. choose Select >ColorRange

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have saved as selection as a channel. You now want to load and reuse the selection. What should you do?
A. drag the alpha channel into the image window
B. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the alpha channel
C. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)click on the alpha channel
D. Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the channel and choose Load Channel as Selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
You have created a rough selection of an object in your image. You want to refine the selection by suing quick mask with its default settings and the Brush tool.
Which statement is true?
A. Painting with white adds to the selection
B. Painting with black adds to the selection.
C. The opacity setting of the brush is irrelevant.
D. The foreground color must be either black or white.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
You have made a feathered selection. You then repeatedly fill the selected area with different colors. Which statement is true?
A. Traces of the earlier color fills remain at the feathered edges of the selection.
B. At the feathered edges of the selection only the image’s luminosityareaffected, not its hue or saturation.
C. At the feathered edges of the selection only the image’s hue and saturation area affected, not its luminosity.
D. Though fading in opacity at the feathered edges of the selection, the newer fills completely overwrite the earlier ones.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Exhibit.

Which tool can completely eliminate the white pixels in the background of the image shown in the exhibit with a single click?
A. Eraser
B. Extract
C. Magic Eraser
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before your last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
You are suing the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image.
Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A. Flow
B. Aligned
C. Impressionist
D. Protect Texture

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Exhibit.

In the exhibit, which gradient was used to create the result to the right?
A. Angle Gradient
B. Redial Gradient
C. Diamond Gradient
D. Reflected Gradient

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a stroke?
A. Texture
B. Scattering
C. Shape Dynamics
D. Brush Tip Shapes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Exhibit.

You want to create a shape layer by drawing in a freeform manner.
Which two buttons from the Vector Tools Options Bar should you choose? (Choose two.)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: AD

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CCSP, Cisco

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QUESTION 45
The Company network is using an 802.IX implementation, in an 802.lx implementation the supplicant directly connects to, and obtains network access permission through which device?
A. Host
B. Authenticator
C. PC
D. Authentication server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
The Easy VPN Server feature allows Cisco IOS routers, Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Cisco PIX Security Appliances to act as head-end devices in site-to-site or remote- access VPNs The feature pushes security policies defined at the central site to the remote device during which of these phases?
A. IKE Phase 1 first message exchange
B. IKE Phase 2 first message exchange
C. IKE Phase 2 last message exchange
D. IKE mode configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 47
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company please point out two benefits of using an IPsec GRE tunnel. (Choose two,)
A. It requires a more restrictive crypto ACL to provide finer security control
B. It has less overhead than runningIPsec in tunnel mode.
C. It allows IP multicast traffic. ActualTests.com
D. It allows dynamic routing protocol to run over the tunnel interface.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which two capabilities are of the Cisco IOS Firewall Feature Set? (Choose two,)
A. protects against worms, malicious users, and denial of service
B. provides for secure connectivity between branch offices
C. provides intrusion protection capabilities
D. interoperates with Network Address Translation to conserve and simplify network address use “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 31 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 49
Which two are typical Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. Route poisoning
D. DHCP Starvation

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 50
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company.Which two commands would you use to only allow SSH traffic to the router EthO interface and deny other management traffic (BEEP, FTP, HTTP, HTTPS, SNMP, Telnet, TFTP) to the router interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. control-plane host
B. interfaceethO
C. policy-map type port-filter policy-name
D. management-interfaceethO allow ssh

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 51
You want to increase the security levels at layer 2 within the Company switched LAN. Which three are typical Layer 2 attack mitigation techniques? (Select three)
A. 802.lx authentication
B. Port security
C. ARP snooping
D. DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which alerting protocol is used by Cisco IOS IPS with a pull mechanism for getting IPS alerts to the network management application?
A. SNMP
B. syslog
C. SDEE
D. POP3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company.When you enter the switch(config)￡aaa authentication dotlx default group radius command on a Cisco Catalyst switch, You get the error message “invalid input detected”, What is the most likely reason?
A. Enable 802.lx.first
B. Define the RADIUS server IP address first, using theswitch(config)# radius-server host ip- address command.
C. Method-list name is missing
D. Enter theaaa new-model command first,

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 54
When configuring FPM, which is the next step after loading the PHDFs?
A. Define a stack of protocol headers. ActualTests.com
B. Define a class map of type “access-control” for classifying packets,
C. Reload the router.
D. Save the PHDFs to startup-config,

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 55
The Company security administrator is in charge of creating a security policy for the company. Which two statements about the creation of a security policy are true? (Choose two)
A. It helps Chief Information Officers determine the return on investment of network security at Company Inc.
B. It defines how to track down and prosecute policy offenders at Company Inc.
C. It provides a process to audit existing network security at Company Inc.
D. It defines which behavior is and is not allowed at Company Inc.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which secure group keying mechanism is used by GET VPN?
A. public and private keys
B. Diffle-Hellman
C. Group Domain of Interpretation
D. group key agreement

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
You are the network consultant from your company. Cisco IOS Zone-Based Firewall uses which of the following to identify a service or application from traffic flowing through the firewall?
A. Network Based Application Recognition
B. extended access list
C. deep packet inspection
D. PAM table ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which best practice is recommended while configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS?
A. Synchronize the router’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update,
B. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
C. Clear the router’s flash of unused signature files.
D. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
Router CK1 is configured with the IOS firewall feature set to prevent TCP based attacks. How many incomplete connections must this router have by default before TCP Intercept will start dropping incomplete connections?
A. 500
B. 1100
C. 700
D. 900

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which statement is correct about the GRE tunnel endpoints while configuring GRE over IPsec?
A. For high availability, the GRE tunnel interface should be configured with aprimaty and a backup tunnel destination IP address.
B. A mirror image of theIPsec crypto ACL needs to be configured to permit the interesting end- user traffic between the GRE endpoints.
C. The tunnel interface of both endpoints needs to be in the same IP subnet,
D. The tunnel interface of both endpoints should be configured to use the outside IP address of the router as the unnumbered IP address.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 61
Which of the following represents the behavior of the CBAC aggressive mode in a Cisco IOS firewall?
A. Delete all half-open session
B. Re-initiate half open session
C. Complete all half open sessions make the full open session
D. Delete half-open session as needed to accommodate new connection requests

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 62
You are in charge of Securing Networks Cisco Routers and Switches in your company Given that the faO/1 interface is the trusted interface, what could be a reason for users on the trusted inside networks not to be able to successfully establish outbound HTTP connections based on the following configuration?

A. access-list on the faO/1intetface is not set.
B. The RVRULE inspection policy is not inspecting HTTP traffic.
C. access-list 104 is denying the outbound HTTP traffic.
D. The outgoing inspection rule on the fa0/1 interface is not set, ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
The Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) feature allows users to better scale large and small IP Security (IPsec) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) by combining generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunnels, IPsec encryption, and Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP).Referring to a DMVPN hub router tunnel interface configuration, what will fail if the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is missing on the tunnel interface?
A. The NHRP request and response. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
B. The GRE tunnel
C. The IPsec peering
D. The dynamic routing protocol.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
What is the objective of the Cisco SDM IPS migration tool?
A. to migrate from promiscuous mode IPS to inline IPS
B. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS version 4.0 to Cisco IOS IPS version 5.0
C. to migrate from Cisco IOS IPS to the Cisco AIM-IPS
D. to migrate from the Cisco NM-CIDS to the Cisco AIM-IPS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
What OSI layers can CBAC filter on? Select all that apply.
A. Layer 4
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 7

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 66
Which description is true about the Cisco IOS IPS configuration output shown in the following exhibit?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

A. The SDF will be loaded from the IPS directory in flash.
B. The built-in signatures will be used.
C. The router is using the advanced IPS signature set.
D. The SMEs are stored in the IPS directory in flash.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 67
Router CK1 has been upgraded with the Cisco firewall IOS. Which of the following cannot be configured on a router unless the IOS Firewall feature set is installed? (Select all that apply)
A. PAM
B. Authentication Proxy
C. IDS
D. CBAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
For the following Cisco IOS Firewall features, which one allows the firewall to function as a Layer 2 bridge on the network?
A. firewall ACL bypass
B. zone-based firewall
C. CBAC
D. transparent firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69
While logged into a Company router, which of the following commands specifies that the IOS Firewall IDS engine drops packets and resets TCP connections for information signatures?
A. ip audit name auditi info attack drop reset
B. ip audit name auditi info action drop reset
C. ip audit name auditi info sig action drop reset
D. ip audit name auditi sig info drop reset

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which statement best describes Cisco IOS Firewall URL-filtering services on Cisco IOS Release 12,4(15)T and later?
A. Enabling “allow mode” is required when using an external URL-filtering server.
B. Multiple URL lists and URL filter server lists can be configured on the router.
C. URL filtering with zone-based firewalls is configured using the type “inspect” parameter-map.
D. The services support Secure Computing server orWebsense server and the local URL list.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which command will would you use totrigger the router to request certificates from the CA for the router RSA key pair?
A. cryptopki enroll CA-Name
B. enrollmenturl http://CA-Name:SO
C. cryptopki trustpoint CA-Name
D. cryptopki authenticate CA-Name

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which tow statements are correct according to the CLI configuration displayed in the exhibit? (Choose tow.)

A. SerialO/0/0 is the outside NAT interface.
B. access-list 1 defines the list of inside global IP addresses.
C. The overload option enables static PAT,
D. All HTTP connections to the SerialO/0/0 interface IP address will be translated to the 172.16.1.2 IP address port 8080,

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 73
The Company network is concerned about SPAM and wants to use IDS tools to prevent SPAM attacks. By default, how many message recipients must an email have for the IOS Firewall to consider it a spam attack?
A. 250
B. 500
C. 100
D. 25

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 74
Cisco Easy VPN greatly simplifies virtual private network (VPN) deployment for remote offices and teleworkers. While using Cisco Easy VPN, which three options are for entering the XAUTH username and password for establishing the VPN connection from the Cisco Easy VPN remote router? (Choose three.)
A. using an external AAA server
B. saving the XAUTH credentials to this router
C. entering the information from the router console or SDM
D. entering the information from the PC browser when browsing

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. You are configuring ACS 4.0 Network Access Profiles, which three things can be used to determine how an access request is classified and mapped to a profile? (Choose three)
A. Network Access Filters
B. RADIUS Authorization Components
C. the protocol types
D. advance filtering

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 76
For the following Cisco IOS IPS risk rating components, which one uses a law value of 75, a medium value of 100, a high value of 150, and a mission-critical value of 200?
A. Attack Relevancy Rating
B. Promiscuous Delta
C. Target Value Rating
D. Watch List Rating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 77
The security administrator at Company is seeing a large number of half opened TCP sessions, what are half open TCP sessions?
A. Sessions that were denied,
B. Sessions that have not reached the established state.
C. Sessions where the three-way handshake has been completed.
D. Sessions where the firewall detected return traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which item is true about the zone-based firewall policy while configuring the zone-based firewall feature on a Cisco router?
A. The policy is appliedunidirectionally between two security zones.
B. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and the “self zone is denied by default unless it is explicitly allowed by a used-defined policy.
C. Interfaces in the same zone require that a bidirectional traffic policy be applied to permit traffic flow,
D. Traffic between an interface belonging to a zone and an interface that is not a zone member is allowed to pass without the policy being applied to the traffic,

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company, what additional configuration is required for the Cisco IOS Firewall to reset the TCP connection if any peer-to-peer, tunneling, or instant messaging traffic is detected over HTTP based on the following configuration?
appfw policy-name my policy application http strict-http action reset alarm content-length maximum 1 action reset alarm content-type-verification match-req-rsp action reset alarm max-header-length request 1 response 1 action reset alarm max-url-length 1 laction reset alarm request-method rfc put action reset alarm transfer-encoding type default reset alarm !
ip inspect name firewall appfw mypolicy ip inspect name firewall http ! Interface FastEthernetO/0 ip inspect firewall in
A. class-map configuration
B. the PAM configuration
C. theip inspect name firewall im, ip inspect name firewall p2p, and ip inspect name firewall tunnel commands
D. the port-misuse default action reset alarm command in the HTTP application firewall policy configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
While adding NADs as AAA clients in the ACS, which three parameters are configured for each AAA client? (Choose three,)
A. the NAD IP address
B. theEAPtype
C. the shared secret key
D. the AAA protocol to use for communication with the NADs

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
What command configures the amount of time CBAC will wait for a TCP session to become ActualTests.com established before dropping the connection in the state table?
A. ip inspect global syn-establish (seconds)
B. ip inspect tcp global syn-time (seconds)
C. ip inspect global tcp syn (seconds)
D. ip inspect tcp synwait-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which one of the following Cisco IOS VPN features simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by use of on-demand virtual access interfaces cloned from a virtual template configuration?
A. DMVPN
B. dynamic VTI
C. GRE tunnels
D. GRE overIPsec tunnels

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. What can you determine based on the following configuration? Crypto ipsec transform-set MINE esp-des ! Crypto map MYMAP 10 ipsec-isakmp Set peer 172.30.5.2 Set transform-set MINE Match address 101
A. The authentication method used between theIPsec peers is pre-shared key.
B. ESP tunnel mode will not be used.
C. This is a dynamic crypto map.
D. ESP tunnel mode will be used.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which option is correct about the output of the Cisco IOS IPS configuration displayed in the ActualTests.com following exhibit?

A. Inline IPS is applied in the outbound direction on the interfaces.
B. The router will drop all packets if the IPS engine is unable to scan data,
C. The basic signatures set has been disabled,
D. The signature delta file is stored in the IPS directory in flash.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 85
You have been tasked with setting up a new router with CBAC. How do you configure the CBAC global UDP idle session timeout?
A. ip inspect udp-session-timeout (seconds)
B. ip inspect udp-idle (seconds)
C. ip inspect udp-timeout (seconds)
D. ip inspect udp idle-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-504: Practice Exam
QUESTION 86
While deploying S02.1X authentication on Cisco Catalyst switches, which traffic can be passed between the client PC and the Cisco Catalyst switch over the uncontrolled port?
A. DHCP
B. TACACS+
C. HTTP
D. EAPoLAN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
You have been tasked with setting up a new Company router with CBAC. How do you set the threshold of half-open sessions CBAC will allow per minute before deleting them?
A. ip inspect one-minute incomplete (number)
B. ip inspect one-minute (number)
C. ip inspect one-minute high (number)
D. ip inspect one-minute high incomplete (number)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 88
According to the partial configuration displayed in the following exhibit, which additional ActualTests.com configuration parameter is required under the GET VPN group member GDOI configuration?

A. key server IP address
B. mapping of theIPsec transform set to the GDOI group
C. mapping of theIPsec profile to the IPsec SA
D. local priority

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant in your company. Which TCP port would you use to access the Cisco ACS web interface?
A. 22
B. SO
C. 127
D. 2002

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which action can be enabled by the interface configuration command switchport protected?
A. allows traffic on protected ports to be forwarded at Layer 2
B. configures the interface for the PVLAN edge
C. groups ports into an isolated community when configured on multiplepotts
D. provides isolation between two protected ports located on different switches

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
The Company security administrator is in charge of creating a security policy for the company. Which two statements about the creation of a security policy are true? (Choose two)
A. It helps Chief Information Officers determine the return on investment of network security at Company Inc.
B. It defines how to track down and prosecute policy offenders at Company Inc.
C. It provides a process to audit existing network security at Company Inc.
D. It defines which behavior is and is not allowed at Company Inc.