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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction
principle? Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
70-742 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also
composed by other service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be
composed.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service
compositions to become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.

A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and
its underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering “loose state” in
support of runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an
agnostic abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship
between the service contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details,
whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in
relation to the service implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of
the other depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation
and SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms
and practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical
(short- term) requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service
orientation is required.
70-742 pdf Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 6
The decoupling of a service contract from the service’s underlying implementation results in
a(n) in the service’s level of abstraction because service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly
couple to the underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding

D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle:
“Services are supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively
and .” Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
70-742 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract
principle is not followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the
purchase of legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the
Service Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.

70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the
initial delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a
constant emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather
than strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure
that may introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of
applying the Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or
contract of a service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract

Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract
receives a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract
content to only what is deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service’s Service
Level Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be
easily located by those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles
directly supports these design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
70-742 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD). What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Your company uses 70-243 dumps System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
In an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. The AS ABAP message server
B. The AS Java central service instance
C. The AS Java message server
D. Both the AS ABAP and the AS Java message server
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Who participates in SAP Ramp-Up programs?
A. Customers who applied and were accepted for participation
B. All SAP partners and internal SAP departments
C. Only internal SAP departments
D. All customers with SAP Enterprise Support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
For which purposes can property variants in CCMS monitoring be used? (Choose three)
A. To enable cross-system monitoring
B. To transport sets of threshold values from one SAP system to another SAP system
C. To allow users to use different sets of threshold values at the same time
D. To switch between different sets of threshold values triggered by a switch of the operation mode
E. As containers for threshold values
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12
SAP provides a vast range of software for companies of all sizes. Which of the following are SAP offerings?
(Choose three)
A. SAP Business ByDesign
B. SAP Business ByEvolution
C. SAP Business Suite
D. SAP Business All-in-One
E. SAP Business End-to-End
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a background job
in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
70-243 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
An SAP system’s Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs.
Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next online
redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What does SAP recommend when importing transport requests? (Choose three)
A. Transport requests should only be imported if the software component vector of the transport requests
fit to the software components and their Support Package level of the target system.
B. Transport requests should be imported into the productive system one by one in the order of their
sequence in the import queue.
C. Transport requests should always be imported into the productive system in the sequence of their export
from the development system.
D. In general importing transport requests into the productive systems requires a maintenance window
(downtime window).
E. Transport requests should be imported project wise into the productive system.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 16
You want to reduce the fragmentation of a tablespace by using BR*TOOLS. Which methods can you use to
achieve this? (Choose two)
A. Online shrinking of tables
B. Update statistics
C. Online backup
D. Online redefinition of tables
E. Coalesce tables
Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) Topic 1, Volume A
You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:
An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example,
[email protected]) A nine-digit number that allows 70-480 exam optional hyphens after the second and fifth
character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55- 5555)
You need to use the correct expression to validate the input. Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

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Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a
company’s website. The page collects 70-480  dumps information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The
query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the
correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
70-480  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
70-480  vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
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70-480  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
70-480  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 113

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the new data source.
Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. LINQ to XML
B. ADO.NET Entity Framework
C. ADO.NET DataSets
D. WCF Data Services
70-487 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Errors occasionally occur when saving data using the FlightInfoContext ADO.NET Entity Framework context. Updates to the data are being lost when an error occurs. You need to ensure that data is still saved when an error occurs by retrying the operation. No more than five retries should be performed.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the SaveChanges() method in the FlightInfoContext.es file?
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller. It returns flights from the consolidated data sources only for flights that are late. You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required 70-487 dumps  data. Which code segment should you use? 70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D is right because you send result as REST so if you use “AsQueryable” the result is deferred to the next enumeration of your result.
D is not optimized but will works.
A will break at runtime.
Credits to Rem
QUESTION 4
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 5
An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide to move
schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses their concerns about
having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still decide to implement your off-schedule
shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
70-487 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Who is ultimately responsible for an employee’s success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee’s mentor
C. the employee’s manager
D. the employee’s team leader
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
70-487 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System produces
performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the phone, performing wrap
up work, and not available. Reports also show the number of calls taken and the average talk-time
per agent. Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization’s performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has theleast :not available” time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the
morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
70-487 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What should be addressed in a support center’s marketing plan?
A. the support center’s budget requirements
B. the support center’s staffing requirements
C. the support center’s implementation timelines
D. the support center’s role in the corporate vision
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods? (Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
70-487 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals? (Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by their
company.
70-487 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
70-764 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
70-764 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
70-764 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
70-764 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
70-764 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
70-764 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 10
To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the configure
method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of the
mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of
the mapper.
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Consider the following two relations, A and B.
Which Pig statement combines A by its first field and B by its second field?
A. C = DOIN B BY a1, A by b2;
B. C = JOIN A by al, B by b2;
C. C = JOIN A a1, B b2;
D. C = JOIN A SO, B $1;
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
What is the disadvantage of using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner and distributing your
workload across you cluster?
A. You will not be able to compress the intermediate data.
B. You will longer be able to take advantage of a Combiner.
C. By using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner, output files may not be in globally sorted
order.
D. There are no concerns with this approach. It is always advisable to use multiple reduces.
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Multiple reducers and total ordering
If your sort job runs with multiple reducers (either because mapreduce.job.reduces in mapred-site.xml has
been set to a number larger than 1, or because you’ve used the -r option to specify the number of reducers
on the command-line), then by default Hadoop will use the HashPartitioner to distribute records across the
reducers. Use of the HashPartitioner means that you can’t concatenate your output files to create a single
sorted output file. To do this you’ll need total ordering,
Reference: Sorting text files with MapReduce
QUESTION 13
Identify the MapReduce v2 (MRv2 / YARN) daemon responsible for launching application containers and
monitoring application resource usage?
A. ResourceManager
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationMaster
D. ApplicationMasterService
E. TaskTracker
F. JobTracker

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Apache Hadoop YARN ?Concepts&; Applications
QUESTION 14
You have the following key-value pairs as output from your Map task:
(the, 1)
(fox, 1)
(faster, 1)
(than, 1)
(the, 1)
(dog, 1)
How many keys will be passed to the Reducer’s reduce method?
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Two
E. One
F. Three
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Only one key value pair will be passed from the two (the, 1) key value pairs.
QUESTION 15
What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reducing lets you aggregate values together. A reducer function receives an iterator of input
values from an input list. It then combines these values together, returning a single output value.
All values with the same key are presented to a single reduce task.
Reference: Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce
QUESTION 16
The activity diagram below shows a simplified order processing procedure. Which of the following
statements is correct for this flow?
(2 Points)
A. The flow is not modelled correctly, since no condition (branch)should be present within a fork.
B. The flow is modelled correctly: the goods branch as well as the export and domestic order branch are
processed in parallel to one another.
C. The flow is not modelled correctly, since the branches for the domestic and export orders must be
consolidated via a diamond symbol.
D. The flow is modelled correctly and the “issue invoice” activity is conducted after the “compile goods”
activity.
70-533 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You decide to talk
through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback which must now be
documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to document the details of a
single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
What does the Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
70-533 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
What does the Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and
MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression

E. All of the above
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following
features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in
path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
70-533 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the
Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
70-533 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia When deciding on the players in the lineup, the
coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together. If George starts, Marlene
won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If George is in the starting lineup, who must also start?
A. Marlene or John
B. Dexter or Leanne
C. Dexter or John
D. John or Patricia E.
Marlene or Roger
70-775 exam Answer: D
2.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Which of the following pairs cannot start together?
A. Erwin and Dexter
B. George and John
C. Roger and John
D. John and Bart
E. Patricia and Marlene
Answer: A
3.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from thesecond group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start. The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.

If Marlene is on the starting lineup, which of the following players will be the first groupplayers who will
also be starting?
A. John
B. John and Dexter
C. John and Bart
D. John, Dexter and Bart
E. John, Erwin and Bart
70-775 pdf Answer: C
4.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Of the following hockey players, who must start?
A. Patricia
B. John
C. George
D. Marlene
E. Bart
Answer: E
5.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill
doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger.
Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not Melville).
What is the name of the Dragon?
A. Audrey
B. Hamish
C. Melville
D. Rex

E. Dave
70-775 dumps Answer: B
6.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Who is the assistant puppeteer for Melville?
A. Dave
B. Gale
C. Pam
D. Tom
E. Ben
Answer: A
7.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom.
Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Which chief puppeteer works with Tom?
A. Ben
B. Jill
C. Paul
D. Sue
E. Rex
70-775 exam Answer: A
8.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
With what kind of animal does Gale work?
A. Dragon
B. Gorilla
C. Kangaroo
D. Tiger E.
Lemur
Answer: C
9.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
What table is Stephen playing at, and what is the score at that table?
A. Table 1, 2.5:1.5
B. Table 1, 3:0
C. Table 2, 3:0
D. Table 2, 2.5:1.5
E. Table 3, 2:1
70-775 dumps Answer: C
10.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1,

1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Whose score is highest?
A. Mike
B. Stephen
C. Richie
D. David
E. Lenny
Answer: D
11.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Which player has black pieces and is tied?
A. Mike
B. David
C. Richie
D. Don
E. Terry
70-775 pdf Answer: A
12.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 [note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike. At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.

The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Who is the winning player at table 4?
A. Don
B. Terry
C. David
D. Gerry
E. Richie
Answer: A

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[2017 New Updated] Helpful Microsoft Exam 70-696 Dumps Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps on Dailymotion Guaranteed Success

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Jul 08, 2017
Q&As: 86

This Microsoft Microsoft 70-696 Dumps Exam Ref:

  • Organizes its coverage by exam objectives
  • Features strategic, what-if scenarios to challenge you
  • Assumes you have experience with Windows Server, System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, Microsoft Intune, and enterprise client management–plus basic Microsoft SQL Server, Windows PowerShell, and application configuration skills.

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70-696

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-696  Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1
Which of the following International Telecommunication Union (ITU) recommendations defines
the standard for store-and-forward fax transmission over IP networks?
A. T.37
B. S.47
C. V.235
D. Q.931
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Which media protocol is commonly used for Voice over IP (VoIP) solutions?
A. IMP
B. RTMP
C. MGCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Users are reporting problems with voice delays on telephone calls on the corporate Voice over
IP (VoIP) network. Which of the following is a possible cause of this problem?
A. Large data packets are causing the voice packets to exceed their delay budget.
B. Echo cancellation has been enabled on the voice coders without configuring phase shifting.
C. The destination number is not contained in the local dial plan, forcing the gateway to do a
recursive number lookup.
D. The voice codec is unable to properly compress the voice stream into packets because the
sampling rate has been set too high.
70-696 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in packet-voice networks?
A. Applies differential routing to voice packets
B. Improves encoding performance for voice packets
C. Reduces serialization and propagation delay to voice packets
D. Increases the amount of available bandwidth of voice packets

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Using a T1 circuit to connect a North American company to its European branch, a technician
may choose an E1 carrier trunk. How many total and usable data and/or voice channels can be
configured?
A. 23 channels
B. 24 channels
C. 30 channels
D. 32 channels
70-696 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is a common characteristic of circuit-switched networks?
A. A call uses multiple circuits, releasing them during periods of silence for maximum
efficiency.
B. A call has exclusive use of the entire circuit for the duration of the call but is inherently
expensive.
C. A call can be completed without the need for any signaling because it uses PSTN circuits
instead of TCP/IP.
D. A call has a very robust set of Quality of Service (QoS) options that allows it to overcome
congestion and latency problems.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
Which Quality of Service (QoS) technology is used by applications to signal QoS requirements
to the network?
A. DSCP
B. RSVP
C. 802.1P
D. IP Precedence
70-696 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
What is the function of a gatekeeper in a converged network?

A. Provides network connectivity for legacy systems
B. Provides admission control and address translation between endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between packet-switched and circuit-switched
networks
Answer: B
QUESTION: 9
What is a function of a gateway in a converged network?
A. Provides Quality of Service (QoS) to converged networks
B. Provides admission translation and address control between IP endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between circuit-switched and packet-switched
networks
70-696 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard defines PCM voice
coding at 64 Kbps?
A. G.711
B. G.726
C. G.728
D. G.729
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
Which is a variable delay component in packet-voice networks?
A. Routing-queuing delay
B. Bit-serialization delay
C. End-point processing delay
D. Encoding and compression delay
70-696 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?

A. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
B. No more than 80 percent of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. The connection will be transparent to the technician.
D. No less than 80 percent of the T1 can be used or the connection will fail.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A company has complained that its voice quality is poor and would like to switch the codec used
by its on-premise Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway from G.723.1 to G.711. How will changing the
customer’s gateway to G.711 impact the overall bandwidth consumption?
A. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will increase latency
B. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will reduce jitter
C. Decreases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 8 Kbps (plus any overhead)
D. Increases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 64 Kbps (plus any overhead)
70-696 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
Which standards body is responsible for publishing the Requests For Comments (RFCs) that
establish TCP/IP specifications?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 15
Through troubleshooting, a technician determines that there is a degraded clocking source on a
customer’s wide area network (WAN). Which term would that troubleshooter use to describe this
situation?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Latency
D. Attenuation

70-696 vce Answer: A

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100% Pass Rate 70-412 Exam New Microsoft Guide Configuring Advanced Microsoft Windows Server 2012 Services

Are you studying for the Microsoft 70-412 exam?  I presented the 70-412 Exam Prep session at Pass4itsure and the session is now available online.  If you are planning to take the exam, it would be worth the 75 minutes to check it out.  This session also covers part of the 070-412 exam.

Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Apr 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

The MCSE Desktop Infrastructure certification validates your skills in desktop virtualization, remote desktop services and application virtualization. Show that you can deploy and manage desktops and devices that provide 70-412 exam access from anywhere, while maintaining security and compliance.

70-412 exam

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-412 Exam Q&As   

QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.

Correct Answer: A

352-001 pdf  QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one minute.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address coded in the network interface card?
A. MAC
B. TCP
C. IP
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
A. 1977
B. 1984

C. 1967
D. 1940

Correct Answer: A

70-412 exam

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Where Can I find The Reliable Microsoft Exam 70-480 Dumps Download

070-480 dumps

Exam Code: 070-480
Exam Name: Microsoft (Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-28

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070-480 exam is a Microsoft certification exam and IT professionals who have passed some Microsoft certification exams are popular in IT industry. So more and more people participate in 070-480 dumps, but 070-480 certification exam is not very simple. If you do not have participated in a professional specialized training course, you need to spend a lot of time and effort to prepare for the exam. But now Pass4itSure can help you save a lot of your precious time and energy.

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

 

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

 

NO.3 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

 

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D

 

NO.5 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

 

 

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Exam 70-480: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

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