AZ-700 Exam Dumps, AZ-700 Exam Questions, AZ-700 Free Dumps, AZ-700 Practice Test, MB-340 Exam Dumps, MB-340 Exam Questions, MB-340 Free Dumps, MB-340 Practice Test, Microsoft, MS-740 Exam Dumps, MS-740 Exam Questions, MS-740 Free Dumps, MS-740 Practice Test, Uncategorized

2021 Microsoft new free dumps collection

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We all know that Microsoft will add some certifications every year and eliminate a batch of old certifications. Of course, there will be a certain period of transition for the certifications obtained early, but you will definitely need to take a new exam to face the later work.

2019-2021 is the period where Microsoft has changed the most. Microsoft has eliminated many exam certifications, but these eliminated certifications have corresponding replacement exams. These are the progress of the times. We should not complain, we should Accept it, and this is also a very good opportunity. Let more people participate in new challenges.

exam expited

For certifications earned before June 30, 2021

Certifications earned prior to June 30, 2021 @12am GMT (June 29, 2021 @5pm PT) are valid for two (2) years from the date that all requirements for the certification are completed. Certifications earned after this date and time are valid for one (1) year. For more information, read the announcement about the policy change.

Hey, brothers, you heard it right. This is a very challenging one, especially when a person has a lot of certificates to re-verify.

My share:

Today I will share three very important Microsoft exams, Microsoft Certified: Azure Network Engineer Associate (AZ-700), Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Support Engineer Associate (MS-740), Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate (MB-340).

These three exams are released in 2021. Each of the three exams has its own professional knowledge.

AZ-700: Possess the subject expertise of planning, implementing, and maintaining Azure network solutions, including hybrid networks, connections, and routing Security, and private access to Azure services.

MS-740: Support engineers who use advanced troubleshooting methods to support the Microsoft Teams environment, analyze telemetry and log data, troubleshoot deployments, and adjust performance. Candidates should review logs and other data, infer the root cause of the problem, and provide repairs.

MB-340: Set up and use application functions in Dynamics 365 Commerce, and provide support for the application. These are the prerequisites for passing the exam.

All three exams require 700 points and a total score of 1000 points. It’s not that difficult, right? But if you need to take multiple exams, it must be a headache. I must smile badly here. Is it difficult again?

These are some of my collated information. Next, I will share AZ-700 Free Dumps, MS-740 Free Dumps, MB-340 Free Dumps. I will share them in order.

Here I have made an anchor list, you can click on the area you want to go to (and at the bottom of each area I will share an exam PDF and a complete Lead4Pass exam dumps)

Microsoft AZ-700 Free Dumps

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps

Microsoft free dumps

Microsoft AZ-700 Free Dumps

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure environment shown in the following exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-peering-gateway-transit?toc=/azure/virtual-network/toc.json

Question 2:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure private DNS zone named contoso.com that is linked to the virtual networks shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2

You manually add the following entry to the contoso.com zone:

Name: VM1

IP address: 10.1.10.9

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2-2

Explanation:

Box 1: No

The manual DNS record will overwrite the auto-registered DNS record so VM1 will resolve to 10.1.10.9.

Box 2: No

The DNS record for VM1 is now a manually created record rather than an auto-registered record. Only auto-registered DNS records are deleted when a VM is deleted.

Box 3: No

This answer depends on how the IP address is changed. To change the IP address of a VM manually, you would need to select ‘Static’ as the IP address assignment. In this case, the DNS record will not be updated because only DHCP

assigned IP addresses are auto-registered.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-faq-private

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

Your company has an Azure virtual network named Vnet1 that uses an IP address space of 192.168.0.0/20. Vnet1 contains a subnet named Subnet1 that uses an IP address space of 192.168.0.0/24.

You create an IPv6 address range to Vnet1 by using a CIDR suffix of /48.

You need to enable the virtual machines on Subnet1 to communicate with each other by using IPv6 addresses assigned by the company. The solution must minimize the number of additional IPv4 addresses.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q3

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q3-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/ipv6-overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/ipv6-add-to-existing-vnet-powershell

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You plan to deploy Azure Virtual WAN.

You need to deploy a virtual WAN hub that meets the following requirements:

Supports 10 sites that will connect to the virtual WAN hub by using a Site-to-Site VPN connection

Supports 8 Gbps of ExpressRoute traffic

Minimizes costs

What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q4

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-wan/virtual-wan-about

Question 5:

HOTSPOT You are planning an Azure solution that will contain the following types of resources in a single Azure region: Virtual machine

Azure App Service Virtual Network gateway Azure SQL Managed Instance

App Service and SQL Managed Instance will be delegated to create resources in virtual networks.

You need to identify how many virtual networks and subnets are required for the solution. The solution must minimize costs to transfer data between virtual networks.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q5-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-for-azure-services#services-that-can-be-deployed-into-a-virtual-network

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains the route tables and routes shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6

There is a Site-to-Site VPN connection to each local network gateway.

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure Traffic Manager parent profile named TM1. TM1 has two child profiles named TM2 and TM3.

TM1 uses the performance traffic-routing method and has the endpoints shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8

The App2, App4, and App6 endpoints have a degraded monitoring status.

To which endpoint is traffic directed? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q7-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-nested-profiles

Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure Front Door instance that provides access to a web app. The web app uses a hostname of www.contoso.com.

You have the routing rules shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8

Which rule will apply to each incoming request? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/frontdoor/front-door-route-matching

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure virtual network named Vnet1 that contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2.

You have the NAT gateway shown in the NATgateway1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9

You have the virtual machine shown in the VM1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-1

Subnet1 is configured as shown in the Subnet1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-3

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-4

Explanation:

Box 1: No

VM1 is in Zone2 whereas the NAT Gateway is in Zone1. The VM would need to be in the same zone as the NAT Gateway to be able to use it. Therefore, VM1 cannot use the NAT gateway.

Box 2: Yes

NATgateway1 is configured in the settings for Subnet2.

Box 3: No

The NAT gateway does not have a single public IP address, it has an IP prefix which means more than one IP address. The VMs the use the NAT Gateway can use different public IP addresses contained within the IP prefix.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/nat-gateway/nat-gateway-resource

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains the virtual machines shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10

Subnet1 and Subnet2 are associated to a network security group (NSG) named NSG1 that has the following outbound rule:

Priority: 100 Port: Any Protocol: Any Source: Any Destination: Storage Action: Deny

You create a private endpoint that has the following settings:

Name: Private1 Resource type: Microsoft.Storage/storageAccounts Resource: storage1 Target sub-resource: blob Virtual network: Vnet1 Subnet: Subnet1

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/disable-private-endpoint-network-policy

Microsoft AZ-700 Exam PDF

Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1DTZ5QcmrjD76CbO5Vj8QQy3lYOXP7pvP/view?usp=sharing

Microsoft AZ-700 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft AZ-700 certification dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/az-700.html

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps is being sorted out and waiting for subsequent updates, of course, you can follow fulldumps.com for the first update

Microsoft MS-740 Exam PDF

Subsequent updates…

Microsoft MS-740 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft MS-740 certification dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-740.html

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps is being sorted out and waiting for subsequent updates, of course, you can follow fulldumps.com for the first update

Microsoft MB-340 Exam PDF

Subsequent updates…

Microsoft MB-340 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft MB-340 certification dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/mb-340.html

These three exams are all-new exams in 2021. Through data viewing, there are not many people participating in the exams. This is a process. Except for the expired replacement products of Microsoft, the new exams require a certain amount of time to observe. I know that these three exams will be very popular in the future, so I made a collection so that you can get them all at once.

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da-100 dumps, da-100 dumps pdf, da-100 exam, da-100 exam dumps, da-100 exam questions, da-100 practice exam, da-100 study guide, Microsoft

[2021.7] Microsoft DA-100 study materials free share | Real Microsoft DA-100 practice test, Microsoft DA-100 pdf questions

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Aspiring participants before taking the Microsoft DA-100 real exam,
Need to learn a variety of exam study materials.
But our experts say that candidates should try to obtain validated preparation materials for the DA-100 exam, https://www.pass4itsure.com/da-100.html which may help pass the exam.

Latest Microsoft DA-100 practice test

QUESTION 1
You need to create a calculated column to display the month based on the reporting requirements.
Which DAX expression should you use?
A. FORMAT(\\’Date\\'[date], “MMM YYYY”)
B. FORMAT(\\’Date\\’ [date], “M YY”)
C. FORMAT(\\’Date\\'[date_id], “MMM”) and “” and FORMAT(\\’Date\\'[year], “#”)
D. FORMAT(\\’Date\\’ [date_id], “MMM YYYY”)
Correct Answer: D
Scenario: In the Date table, the date_id column has a format of yyyymmdd. Users must be able to see the month in
reports as shown in the following example: Feb 2020.


QUESTION 2
You have the tables shown in the following table.

……

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Real Microsoft DA-100 practice test 1-13 for free

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts.
You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data.
You receive the following email message: “Hi. I\\’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File
Transactions201901.csv through Transactions201912.csv have the latest set of columns, but files
Transactions201801.csv
to Transactions201812.csv have an older layout without the extra fields needed for analysis. Each file contains 10 to 50
transactions.”
You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click
the Exhibit tab.)

da-100 exam questions-q1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

da-100 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You need to create a visualization to meet the reporting requirements of the sales managers.
How should you create the visualization? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

da-100 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:
da-100 exam questions-q2-2

Scenario: The sales managers require a visual to analyze sales performance versus sales targets.
Box 1: KPI
A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a visual cue that communicates the amount of progress made toward a
measurable goal.
Box 2: Sales[sales_amount]
Box 3: Date[month]
Time > FiscalMonth. This value will represent the trend.
Box 4: Targets[sales_target]
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-kpi

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a report page that contains the visuals shown in the following exhibit.

da-100 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a table that contains the following three columns:
1.
City
2.
Total Sales
3.
Occupation
You need to create a key influencers visualization as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

da-100 exam questions-q4

How should you configure the visualization? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

da-100 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Total Sales Box 2: Occupation Box 3: City You can use Expand By to add fields you want to use for setting the
level of the analysis without looking for new influencers.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-influencers

QUESTION 5
You need to provide a solution to provide the sales managers with the required access. What should you include in the
solution?
A. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = UserName()
B. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Region_Manager table where sales_manager_id =
UserPrincipalName().
C. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where name = UserName().
D. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = sales_manager_id.
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: The region_id column can be managed by only one sales manager.
You can use Username() or userprincipalname() in DAX with Row-Level Security.
Within Power BI Desktop, username() will return a user in the format of DOMAIN\User and userprincipalname() will
return a user in the format of [email protected].
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

QUESTION 6
You have four sales regions. Each region has multiple sales managers. You implement row-level security (RLS) in a
data model. You assign the relevant distribution lists to each role. You have sales reports that enable analysis by region.
The
sales managers can view the sales records of their region. The sales managers are prevented from viewing records
from other regions.
A sales manager changes to a different region.
You need to ensure that the sales manager can see the correct sales data.
What should you do?
A. From Microsoft Power Bl Desktop, edit the Row-Level Security setting for the reports.
B. Change the Microsoft Power Bl license type of the sales manager.
C. Manage the permissions of the underlying dataset
D. Request that the sales manager be added to the correct Azure Active Directory group.
Correct Answer: D
Using AD Security Groups, you no longer need to maintain a long list of users. All that you will need to do is to put in the
AD Security group with the required permissions and Power BI will do the REST! This means a small and simple
security file with the permissions and AD Security group. Note: Configure role mappings Once published to Power BI,
you must map members to dataset roles. Members can be user accounts or security groups. Whenever possible, we
recommend you map security groups to dataset roles. It involves managing security group memberships in Azure Active
Directory. Possibly, it delegates the task to your network administrators.
Reference: https://www.fourmoo.com/2018/02/20/dynamic-row-level-security-is-easy-with-active-directory-securitygroups/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/guidance/rls-guidance

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You need to calculate the last day of the month in the balance sheet data to ensure that you can relate the balance
sheet data to the Date table. Which type of calculation and which formula should you use? To answer, select the
appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

da-100 exam questions-q7

Box 1: A DAX Calculated measure
Box 2: Date.EndofQuarter(#date([Year],[Mont],1))
ENDOFQUARTER returns the last date of the quarter in the current context for the specified column of dates.
The following sample formula creates a measure that returns the end of the quarter, for the current context.
= ENDOFQUARTER(DateTime[DateKey])
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dax/endofquarter-function-dax

QUESTION 8
You have a report that contains three pages. One of the pages contains a KPI visualization. You need to filter all the visualizations in the report except for the KPI visualization. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add the same slicer to each page and configure Sync slicers.
B. Edit the interactions of the KPI visualization.
C. Configure a page-level filter.
D. Edit the interactions of the slicer that is on the same page as the KPI visualization.
E. Configure a report-level filter.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Your company has employees in 10 states.
The company recently decided to associate each state to one of the following three regions: East, West, and North.
You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information.
You have a report that shows the employees by state.
You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by employee.
B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.
C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.
D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.
Correct Answer: C
With grouping you are normally working with dimensional attributes. Here we add three new groups (East, West, and
North) and add each state to the appropriate group.
Reference: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You are creating a column chart visualization.
You configure groups as shown in the Groups exhibit. {Click the Groups tab.)

da-100 exam questions-q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

da-100 exam questions-q10-2

Correct Answer:

da-100 exam questions-q10-3

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to
return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have several reports and dashboards
in a workspace. You need to grant all organizational users read access to a dashboard and several reports.
Solution: You create an Azure Active Directory group that contains all the users. You share each report and dashboard
to the group. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead assign all the users the Viewer role to the workspace. Note: The Viewer role gives a read-only experience to its
users. They can view dashboards, reports, or workbooks in the workspace, but can\\’t browse the datasets or dataflows.
Use the Viewer role wherever you would previously use a classic workspace set to “Members can only view Power BI
content”.
Reference: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/announcing-the-new-viewer-role-for-power-bi-workspaces/

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard.
You need to ensure that consumers of the dashboard can give you feedback that will be visible to the other consumers
of the dashboard.
What should you use?
A. Feedback
B. Subscribe
C. Comments
D. Mark as favorite
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/consumer/end-user-comment

QUESTION 13
You open a query in Power Query Editor.
You need to identify the percentage of empty values in each column as quickly as possible.
Which Data Preview option should you select?
A. Show whitespace
B. Column profile
C. Column distribution
D. Column quality
Correct Answer: D
Column quality: In this section, we can easily see valid, Error and Empty percentage of data values associated with the
Selected table. Note: In Power Query Editor, Under View tab in Data Preview Section we can see the following data
profiling functionalities:
1.
Column quality
2.
Column distribution
3.
Column profile
Reference:
https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Community-Blog/Data-Profiling-in-Power-BI-Power-BI-Update-April-2019/bap/674555

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

100% Pass Rate 70-412 Exam New Microsoft Guide Configuring Advanced Microsoft Windows Server 2012 Services

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Are you studying for the Microsoft 70-412 exam?  I presented the 70-412 Exam Prep session at Pass4itsure and the session is now available online.  If you are planning to take the exam, it would be worth the 75 minutes to check it out.  This session also covers part of the 070-412 exam.

Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Apr 04, 2017
Q&As: 424

The MCSE Desktop Infrastructure certification validates your skills in desktop virtualization, remote desktop services and application virtualization. Show that you can deploy and manage desktops and devices that provide 70-412 exam access from anywhere, while maintaining security and compliance.

70-412 exam

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-412 Exam Q&As   

QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.

Correct Answer: A

352-001 pdf  QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one minute.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address coded in the network interface card?
A. MAC
B. TCP
C. IP
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
A. 1977
B. 1984

C. 1967
D. 1940

Correct Answer: A

70-412 exam

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

Guaranteed 100% Pass Microsoft 70-417 Exam

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70-417 Exam

QUESTION 90
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that the next time. VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization

Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.

QUESTION 91
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains the servers shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that you can use Server Manager on DC1 to manage DC2.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on DC1.
B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on DC2.
C. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on DC2.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC1.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC2.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, you can use Server Manager to perform management tasks on remote servers.
Remote management is enabled by default on servers that are running Windows Server 2012. To manage
a server remotely by using Server Manager, you add the server to the Server Manager server pool.
You can use Server Manager to manage remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Server 2008 R2, but the following updates are required to fully manage these older operating
systems.
Windows Management Framework 3.0 To use this release of Server Manager to access and manage
remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2, you must first install
.NET Framework 4.0, and then install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on those servers.

Reference:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80

QUESTION 92
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You log on to Server1.
You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. netstat> server2
B. winrm get server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This command line tool enables administrators to remotely execute most Cmd.exe commands using the
WSManagement protocol.

References:
QUESTION 93
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Corel to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1. What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Install Windows Management Framework. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you
click View script.

You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller. Which file extension should you use to save the script?
A. .bat
B. .ps1
C. .xml

D. .cmd Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A PowerShell script is the equivalent of a Windows CMD or MS-DOS batch file, the file should be saved with a .ps1 extension, e.g. MyScript.ps1

QUESTION 95
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed.
You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Install-ADDSDomain
B. Install-ADDSForest
C. Install-ADDSDomainController
D. Install-WindowsFeature Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Install-ADDSDomainController Installs a domain controller in Active Directory. Install- ADDSDomain Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration. Install-ADDSForest Installs a new Active Directory forest configuration. Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or features on either thelocal or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This cmdlet is equivalent to andreplaces Add- WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role services, and features.
C:\PS>Install-ADDSForest -DomainName corp.contoso.com -CreateDNSDelegation DomainMode Win2008 -ForestMode Win2008R2 -DatabasePath “d:\NTDS” -SysvolPath “d:\SYSVOL” LogPath “e:\Logs”Installs a new forest named corp.contoso.com, creates a DNS delegation in the contoso.com domain, setsdomain functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2 and sets forest functional level to Windows Server 2008,installs the Active Directory database and SYSVOL on the D:\ drive, installs the log files on the E:\ drive andhas the server automatically restart after AD DS installation is complete and prompts the user to provide andconfirm the Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM) password.

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

[2018 New Updated] 100% Pass Rate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Windows Server 2012 Exam Video Q&As Online (Question 1 – Question 8)

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Where can we download the newest 74-409 dumps, 74-409 exam and 74-409 pdf? pass4itsure 74-409 dumps pdf (Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center) is the part of Microsoft MCP certification. Passing Microsoft 74-409 exam in first attempt is easy with the help of Pass4itsure to become Microsoft certified. The Pass4itsure practice exam software offers you a real exam simulation for 74-409 Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center course exam.

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Exam Code: 74-409
Exam Name: Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-409 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-8)

QUESTION 1
A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
74-409 dumps
You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you do?
A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.
C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.
D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).
74-409 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Requirements
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed. ?A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group.
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations. ?SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.

QUESTION 2
A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:
The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.
You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?
A. Enable the Guest services integration service.
B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.
C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.
D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V?
A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

QUESTION 3
A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time
highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time
highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
74-409 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server.You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs.
B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs.
C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs.
D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
What is SR-IOV
Requires support in network adapter
Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines
Increases network throughput
Reduces network latency
Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server
Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch
Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used

QUESTION 5
You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability.
You need to deploy the VMs. What should you do?
A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value.
B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network.
C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs).
D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set.
74-409 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2. Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates.
What should you do?
A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).
B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection.
Deploy updates to the collection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:
?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode
?Moves the clustered roles off the node
?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
?Performs a restart if necessary
?Brings the node out of maintenance mode
?Restores the clustered roles on the node
?Moves to update the next node
For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case
of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 7
An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper- V host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2. The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the Hyper-V host servers.
You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host servers in the cluster.
B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection.
C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft Update.
74-409 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates
Performs a restart if necessary
Brings the node out of maintenance mode
Restores the clustered roles on the node
Moves to update the next nodeFor many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

QUESTION 8
Your environment contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. All domain controllers are virtualized domain controllers.
You design a disaster recovery strategy. You have the following requirements:
The domain controllers can be recovered in the event that a Hyper-V host server fails.
The AD DS domain must be restorable to a consistent state.
You must minimize the data loss. You need to ensure that the domain controllers can be recovered in the event of a failure. What should you do?
A. Clone the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role to a different Hyper-V host server. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to run the Checkpoint- VM cmdlet on each virtual domain controller.
B. Run Windows Azure Hyper-V Recovery Manager.
C. On each guest operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
D. On the host operating system, run Windows Server Backup.
E. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to back up each domain controller’s virtual hard disk (VHD) file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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[2018 New Updated] Best Quality Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Microsoft Project Exam Qs&As With 100% Pass Rate Youtube (Question 1 – Question 12)

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Exam Code: 74-343
Exam Name: Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013
Q&As: 343

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 74-343 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do?
A. Add a Material Resource named architect.
B. Add a Budget Resource named architect.
C. Add a Work Resource named architect,
D. Add a Cost Resource named architect.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to
display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
74-343 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner. What should you do?
A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013.
B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button.
C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013.
D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are a resource manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage all of your resources in a single plan, which acts as a Shared Resource Pool for other projects in your organization. Each resource needs to pass an annual exam in order to work on construction sites. You need to set up a method that allows you to pick the renewal month for each resource. What should you do?
A. Rename the Resource Text1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Enter the month when the exam expires. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
B. Use the Organizer to copy the Resource Finish1 Custom field from the Global.mpt. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
C. Rename the Resource Date1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with values containing the last date of each month. Select the correct expiration date for each exam.
D. Rename the Resource Month1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with monthly values. Select the correct expiration month for each exam.
E. Rename the Resource Flag1 Custom field to Exam Expired Date. Enter the expiration dates into a Lookup table. Select the correct expiration date for each resource.
74-343 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013, and your task list includes a flag field that indicates, with Yes or No, if a non-summary task represents a physical deliverable. Your project involves several tasks marked as deliverables, and management requires you to track how many deliverables are completed. The deliverable is considered completed when the Percent complete field is 100%. You need to create a formula to calculate the total number of deliverables that are completed. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,1,0).
B. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Sum.
C. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,0,1).
D. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Count All.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do?
A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task.
B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time.
C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure.
D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You manage a project by using Project Standard 2013. You need to use the Baseline2 fields to calculate Variance at Completion (VAC). You have already set Baseline2. What should you do?
A. Enter physical percent complete for the tasks that have actual values. Set the Baseline to the Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
B. Change the Earned Value method to Baseline2 in the Task Information Form.
Enter tracking data, and view the VAC on the Earned Value table.
C. Change the Baseline for Earned Value calculation option to Baseline2, and reschedule uncompleted work based on the status date.
D. Go to the Earned Value table and insert the Baseline2 column. Recalculate the project.
74-343 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. When viewing the critical path, you notice that there are some inconsistencies. To investigate the status of the critical path, you insert the Total Slack column into a task table. You discover that many of the tasks have negative Total Slack values. You need to resolve the negative Total Slack values. What should you do?
A. Remove lag time from task relationships.
B. Remove as many constraints as possible.
C. Re-assign resources that have more availability at the time of the negative slack.
D. Remove lead time from the task relationships.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. The work variance for a task is 48 hours. The remaining work is 25 hours. The work for this task has been completed. You need the work variance to be adjusted to reflect what has occurred during the performance of the task. What should you do?
A. Adjust the value in the Baseline Work column.
B. Enter a 0 in the remaining Duration column.
C. Adjust the value in the Work Variance column.
D. Mark the task inactive.
74-343 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

[2018 New Updated] Helpful Microsoft SharePoint Applications 70-488 Dumps Exam Practice Questions Youtube Try Online Download

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QUESTION 6
You need to implement term set navigation. Which code segment should you insert at line TN24?
70-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-488 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to complete the code at line LV19 to implement the validation of the app license. Which code segment should you use?
70-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You need to configure navigation for the site. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You need add to code at line IL22 to implement the task list design. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 11
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites. You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Start-SPAssignment Global initiates a new assignment store.
* Stop-SPAssignment .Disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. The Stop SPAssignmentcmdlet disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. Use the Global parameter to dispose of all objects in the global assignment collector and to stop the global store from collecting additional objects. Provide a SemiGlobal assignment collector to dispose of all contained objects.
From scenario:
* Performance Optimization and Memory Usage SPSite objects must be removed from memory immediately after the objects go out of scope.
QUESTION 12
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available. You need to deploy the hotfix. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded: / Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version. / Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.
QUESTION 13
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages. What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You need to set the appropriate permission levels. A variable named customRole references Wholesale. Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
70-488 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Lila has created a display campaign to help support her consulting business. The ad has been running for six months. Her goal of the campaign is to get people to sign up for her newsletter. If Lila has a desire to get more conversions at a lower cost, which Google AdWords tool should she use?
A. My Change History tool
B. Conversion optimizer
C. Display ad builder
D. Keyword tools
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Hal is considering a YouTube masthead for an ad campaign. There are several requirements on size and sound limits for YouTube masthead advertisements, such as the 50KB load size and the 1MB load for animation and autoplay. What is the maximum size for videos (.flv) file size for when a user clicks the masthead to see the video ad?
A. 10MB
B. 1MB
C. 100MB
D. 50MB
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Tom is reviewing his YouTube ad performance through the Google AdWords reporting feature. He would like to review the number of users who clicked his ad and converted to a sale on his Website. What requirement must Tom have satisfied to see the conversion reporting feature for YouTube ads?
A. He must have added the Google AdWords Conversion Tracking code to his Website page.
B. His YouTube ads must be placed through a YouTube reservations agent.
C. His ads must be prepaid.
D. He must have uploaded a promoted video on YouTube.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Bonnie has created a video that she would like to include in the Google Content Network as part of her online marketing. She has chosen the click-to-play with the cost-per-click pricing model. Which one of the following statements best describes when Bonnie will be charged for someone clicking on her advertisement?
A. Every time Bonnie’s video is played, paused, or stopped with the in-ad player she won’t becharged for each click, just one click per user on the advertisement video.
B. Every time Bonnie’s video appears (the opening image) she will be charged.
C. Every time Bonnie’s video is played she’ll be charged for the click.
D. Every click that leads a user to Bonnie’s Website results in a charge to Bonnie’s account.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Henry has created a video that he’d like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Video placement ad
B. Click-to-play video ad
C. In-stream video ad
D. Overlay video ad
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn’t have image editing software. Which of the following is the recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
70-488 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship between the quality score and the cost-per-click of an ad in Google AdWords?
A. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
B. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the higher the ranking of your ad over your competition.
C. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each.
D. The higher a keyword’s Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad position.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Jen has created a YouTube advertisement for her company and she is now interested in reviewing her ad’s performance over the past three weeks. She wants to examine a YouTube metric that will tell her how many times her promoted video ad has been played since it went live on YouTube. What metric will Jen want to create a report for?
A. Clickthrough rate
B. Clicks
C. Play rate
D. Conversions
70-488 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Yolanda is designing an image ad for the Google Content Network. She wants the ad to look crisp and professional and a consultant has recommended that she use transparent PNG format images. Why is this a good idea for image advertisers in the Google Content Network?
A. Transparent background images load faster in browsers.
B. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to fade through the image.
C. Transparent background images allow the ad’s background to be more pleasing to view.
D. Transparent background images appear to float on the ad’s background.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Some advertisers would like to target YouTube through Google AdWords. There are two tools available for these types of advertisers: the placement tool and what other tool?
A. Google Content Network analysis tool
B. Video targeting tool
C. Traffic estimator tool
D. Keyword tool
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Andrew wants to create a reservation for his ad in YouTube. His manager wants to know, however, what is the minimum amount the reservation will cost. Which one of the following represents the minimum media spend on a YouTube reservation will cost?
A. $25,000
B. $35,000
C. $50,000
D. $10,000
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Your client is interested in the Google Content Network’s ability to use an in-stream ad. Which of the following is an example of an in-stream ad in the Google Content Network?
A. It’s an ad that is displayed as part of the DoubleClick partnerships.
B. It’s an ad that is displayed in the middle of a website in a rich-media content placeholder.
C. It’s an ad that shows at the end of a video.
D. It’s an ad that is fed into the Google Content Network of sites partners.
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: C

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MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated] Latest Microsoft Azure 70-695 Dumps Exam Question Answers with 70-534 Exam Video Training Are The Best Materials

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

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Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)
Describe how Azure 70-695  dumps uses Global Foundation Services (GFS) datacenters
Understand Azure datacenter architecture, regional availability, and high availability
Design Azure virtual networks, networking services, DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration
Extend on-premises Active Directory, deploy Active Directory, define static IP reservations, understand ACLs and Network Security Groups
Design Azure Compute
Design Azure virtual machines (VMs) and VM architecture for IaaS and PaaS; understand availability sets, fault domains, and update domains in Azure; differentiate between machine classifications
Describe Azure virtual private network (VPN) and ExpressRoute architecture and design
Describe Azure point-to-site (P2S) and site-to-site (S2S) VPN, understand the architectural differences between Azure VPN and ExpressRoute
Describe Azure services
Understand, at a high level, Azure load balancing options, including Traffic Manager, Azure Media Services, CDN, Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), Azure Cache, Multi-Factor Authentication, and Service Bus
70-695 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-695 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 51
Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 52
Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Business All-In-One
C. SAP CRM
D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 54
Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 56
Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 57
You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
70-695 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 58
Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 60
How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 64
Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
Dispatcher?
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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MCSA, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated] Most Important Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Dumps Real Exam Questions And Answers Free Download Youtube Free Try

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction
principle? Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
70-742 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also
composed by other service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be
composed.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service
compositions to become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-742 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and
its underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering “loose state” in
support of runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an
agnostic abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship
between the service contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details,
whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in
relation to the service implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of
the other depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation
and SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms
and practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical
(short- term) requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service
orientation is required.
70-742 pdf Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 6
The decoupling of a service contract from the service’s underlying implementation results in
a(n) in the service’s level of abstraction because service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly
couple to the underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle:
“Services are supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively
and .” Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
70-742 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract
principle is not followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the
purchase of legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the
Service Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the
initial delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a
constant emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather
than strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure
that may introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of
applying the Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
70-742 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or
contract of a service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract
receives a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract
content to only what is deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service’s Service
Level Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be
easily located by those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles
directly supports these design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
70-742 pdf Answer: C

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Microsoft, Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration

[2017 New Updated] Most Popular Microsoft 70-243 Dumps PDF Exam Questions Youtube Are The Best Materials

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Which are the most valid Microsoft 70-243 dumps for passing Microsoft certification? “Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager” is the name of Microsoft 70-243 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Most popular Microsoft 70-243 dumps pdf exam questions youtube are the best materials. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-243 dumps exam questions answers are updated (112 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-243 dumps is Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration.  We give you the best https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-243.html dumps value of your money.

Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 112

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-243 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD). What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Your company uses 70-243 dumps System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
In an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. The AS ABAP message server
B. The AS Java central service instance
C. The AS Java message server
D. Both the AS ABAP and the AS Java message server
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Who participates in SAP Ramp-Up programs?
A. Customers who applied and were accepted for participation
B. All SAP partners and internal SAP departments
C. Only internal SAP departments
D. All customers with SAP Enterprise Support
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
For which purposes can property variants in CCMS monitoring be used? (Choose three)
A. To enable cross-system monitoring
B. To transport sets of threshold values from one SAP system to another SAP system
C. To allow users to use different sets of threshold values at the same time
D. To switch between different sets of threshold values triggered by a switch of the operation mode
E. As containers for threshold values
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12
SAP provides a vast range of software for companies of all sizes. Which of the following are SAP offerings?
(Choose three)
A. SAP Business ByDesign
B. SAP Business ByEvolution
C. SAP Business Suite
D. SAP Business All-in-One
E. SAP Business End-to-End
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a background job
in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
70-243 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
An SAP system’s Oracle database has four online redo logs, also known as database transaction logs.
Each online redo log has a mirrored copy.
What is the effect of a log file switch?
A. The ARCH process is triggered to write the current online redo log to its mirrored copy. The next online
redo log is opened for writing.
B. The database switches between writing to the original redo log files and the mirrored redo log files.
C. The current online redo log is closed and the next online redo log is opened for writing. The ARCH
process is triggered to begin backing up the recently closed redo log.
D. The database alternates between writing to the online and offline redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What does SAP recommend when importing transport requests? (Choose three)
A. Transport requests should only be imported if the software component vector of the transport requests
fit to the software components and their Support Package level of the target system.
B. Transport requests should be imported into the productive system one by one in the order of their
sequence in the import queue.
C. Transport requests should always be imported into the productive system in the sequence of their export
from the development system.
D. In general importing transport requests into the productive systems requires a maintenance window
(downtime window).
E. Transport requests should be imported project wise into the productive system.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 16
You want to reduce the fragmentation of a tablespace by using BR*TOOLS. Which methods can you use to
achieve this? (Choose two)
A. Online shrinking of tables
B. Update statistics
C. Online backup
D. Online redefinition of tables
E. Coalesce tables
Correct Answer: AD

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