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QUESTION 124
Which type of classification mechanism does the Cisco IP phone use?
A. ISL
B. Q.931
C. G.729a
D. 802.1p/Q
E. Spanning Tree

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Streaming video applications, such as IPTV video on demand (VoD) programs, are relatively high bandwidth applications with a high tolerance for loss, delay, and delay variation. As such, significant QoS tools are not required to meet the needs of these applications. However, in most enterprise environments, these types of applications are considered more important than regular background applications (such as e-mail and web browsing) and should be given preferential treatment. A Layer 2 classification of CoS 1 in 8021.Q/802.1p environments should be used for these applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-48
QUESTION 125
What problem does WFQ introduce when used in networks that have delay sensitive traffic like voice and video?
A. WFQ weights by giving preference to TCP-based flows whereas voice and video is UDP/RTP-based.
B. WFW weights by giving preference to UDP-based flows whereas voice and video is TCP/RTP-based.
C. WFQ becomes too fair in the presence of many flows so that an individual flow might not get enough bandwidth.
D. WFQ provides configuration settings that only permit data traffic, which is the root cause of WFQ’s inability to provide good service to voice and video traffic.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
WFQ is to fair.
WFQ classifies traffic into different flows based on such characteristics as source and destination address,
protocol, and port and socket of the session. WFQ is a default queueing discipline on links at and below

2.048 Mbps.
QUESTION 126
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS or TFP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 127
When working in a Cisco environment, which of the following models would be utilized when you connect to a PBX system that uses non-standard signaling?
A. Translate model
B. Cross over model
C. Interprete model
D. Transport model
E. Trans-cross model

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 128
Both incoming and outgoing calls for a voice system are governed by rules. Which set of rules governs the handling of voice system calls?
A. Voice plan
B. Route plan
C. Route pattern
D. Dial pattern
E. Call handler
F. Dial plan

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 129
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know in which of the following Frame Relay PVC configurations that are able to carry both voice and data, is the potential voice load better understood and partially isolated from the data load.
What would your reply be?
A. Simplex PVCs
B. Separate PVCs
C. Half Duplex PVCs
D. Duplex PVCs
E. Combined PVCs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which codec you would recommend for higher quality voice over a data network. What would your reply be?
A. G.711
B. G.714
C. G.723
D. G.726
E. Q.728
F. G.729

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 131
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 132
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 133
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 134
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. Transcoder
D. Coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression, compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).
QUESTION 135
What type of protocol is SIP?
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard.
The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability.
SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers.
The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 136
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. Be
D. CIR
E. LMI
F. DLCI

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 137
Your boss at Certkiller.com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast.
What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. Low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. High bandwidth web serving applications
C. Video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. Scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. Live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. High bandwidth, high volume transactional applications

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 138
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 139
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 140
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 141
You are the network administrator at Certkiller.Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?
A. The assigned IP address of the source host
B. A reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. A GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization
D. A source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 142
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees:
1) Uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source)
2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers
3) Minimizes delay

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20

QUESTION 143
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 144
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which VNP management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the
device.
Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17

QUESTION 146
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?
A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even repeated, thereby minimizing disruption to the communication. An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.
QUESTION 147
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links.
What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 149
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 150
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?
A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 151
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 154
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. Route list
B. Route group
C. Gateway list
D. Route keeper
E. Route pattern
F. First digit pattern

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 155
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
QUESTION 156
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content Engines to end-user desktops.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 157
You are a technician at Certkiller. You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network.
Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 112
Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of a network that is well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router within the network. The classification is based on as many details as possible, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets.
B. Packets are classified based on their position from the hub and the closeness to the router. All the packets are manually classified based on their positioning and flow of the router.
C. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closets to the source of the traffic. The packets are characterized automatically based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
E. Packets are classified based on variable parameters, but close to the edge of the network. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Network design practice emphasizes that you should classify or mark traffic as close to the edge of the network as possible. Traffic class is a criterion for queue selection in the various queuing schemes used at interfaces within the campus switches and WAN devices. When you connect an IP phone using a single cable, the phone becomes the edge of the managed network. As the edge device, the IP phone can and
should classify and mark traffic flows so that network QoS mechanisms can correctly handle the packets.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would you use in the CPE to make sure that voice packets are limited to the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and do not expand beyond the CIR of Frame Relay links?
A. Prioritization
B. Traffic shaping
C. Traffic policing
D. Segmentation
E. Classification
F. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 114
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why CBWFQ is not recommended for voice traffic.
What will your reply be?
A. CBWFQ does not support FIFO
B. CBWFQ allows queue starvation
C. CBWFQ guarantees delay but does not guarantee bandwidth
D. CBWFQ guarantees bandwidth but does not guarantee delay
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 115
Within the IP header, which fields of the ToS byte provide Layer 3 classification? (Choose two.)
A. CoS
B. TTL
C. SNAP
D. DSCP
E. IP Precedence

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which of the following represent the advantages of implementing QoS in Enterprise Networks? (Choose two.)
A. It decreases propagation delay
B. It provides predictable response times.
C. It supports dedicated bandwidth per application.
D. It prevents the need to increase bandwidth when adding applications.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 117
With regard to classification and marketing, which of the following statement is true?
A. When classifying packets at Layer 3, only Layer 3 IP Precedence markings can be used.
B. Marking features allows a router to mark any field that the classification features can examine
C. Classification features can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, unless the packet has already been marked, in which case only the marked field can be examined
D. Although classification can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, it is useful to mark the packet, so that switches and routers that later receive the packet can apply features based on the market field.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Packet classification features provide the capability to partition network traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. For example, by using the three precedence bits in the type of service (ToS) field of the IP packet header (two of the values are reserved for other purposes), you can categorize packets into a limited set of up to six traffic classes. After you classify packets, you can utilize other QoS features to assign the appropriate traffic handling policies, including congestion management, bandwidth allocation, and delay bounds for each traffic class.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.7-18.
QUESTION 118
Certkiller, the CEO of Toronto division of Certkiller.com, want to know what the characteristics of RSVP are.
What should you tell Mrs. Bill?
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Resource Reservation Protocol. Protocol that supports the reservation of resources across an IP network.
Applications running on IP end systems can use RSVP to indicate to other nodes the nature (bandwidth,
jitter, maximum burst, and so on) of the packet streams they want to receive. Also known as Resource
Reservation Setup Protocol.
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is an IETF-draft networking protocol dedicated to being the
facilitator and carrier of standardized QOS information and parameters.

RSVP carries generic (industry-defined) QOS parameters from end nodes (inclusive) to each QOS-aware
network device included in the path between RSVP session members.
That is, RSVP is a means by which end nodes and network devices can communicate and negotiate QOS

parameters and network usage admission.
Reference: Arch student guide p. B-23.
QUESTION 119
Which two of the following factors are typically used to determine QoS requirements for real-time applications such as IP Telephony?
A. Latency
B. Jitter
C. Echo delay
D. Two-way latency
E. Propagation delay

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Voice, as a class of IP network traffic, has strict requirements concerning delay and delay variation (also known as jitter). Compared to most data, it is relatively tolerant of loss. To meet the requirements for voice traffic, the Cisco AVVID IP telephony solution uses a wide range of IP QoS features such as classification, queuing, congestion detection, traffic shaping, and compression.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76.
QUESTION 120
Which speed links is recommended for link efficiency tools to be used?
A. Links below 10 Mbps
B. Links above 2.0 Mbps
C. Links equal to 1.5 Mbps
D. Links at or below 768 Kbps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Link efficiency interleaving is used on links at or below 768 Kbps.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-29
QUESTION 121
The ITU G.114 recommendation specifies which end-to-end delay as the threshold for high-quality voice.
A. 125 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When addressing the QoS needs of voice traffic, keep in mind.
1) One-way latency should be no more than 150-200 ms.
2) Jitter should be no more than 30 ms.
3) Loss should be no more than one percent.

Reference: Arch student guide p.7-45

QUESTION 122
What can be done when voice frames are delayed by large numbers of data packets at an interface?
A. Implement random early detection.
B. Implement prioritized queue service.
C. Implement aggressive fragmentation.
D. Implement token-bucket prioritization.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Allow applications to reserve bandwidth to meet their requirements. For example, a Voice over IP (VoIP) applications can reserve 32 kbps end-to-end using this kind of service. Cisco IOS QoS uses weighted fair queueing (WFQ) with RSVP to provide this kind of service. Guaranteed rate service is implemented using a queue-service discipline.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-12
QUESTION 123
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?
A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiffServ and IntServ are not IOS enhancements, but models of QoS implementations. WFQ is a basic queueing mechanism.

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QUESTION 45
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when HSRP is not supported by the design
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
F. when the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode? (Choose two.)

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
E. Traffic switched between VLANs is subject to state tracking and other firewall configurable options.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)
A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
E. Bridge mode passive
F. Combo Bridge router mode

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type.
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated.
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE wireless standard will allow backward compatibility with 802.11b.
What would your reply be?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.1g
E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11g standard operates in the same unlicensed portion of the 2.4-GHz spectrum as 802.11b. Both the IEEE 802.11g and 802.11a standards provide a 54-Mbps data rate. IEEE 802.11g provides the benefit of backward compatibility with IEEE 802.11b equipment, preserving users investment in their existing WLAN infrastructure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-10
QUESTION 61
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of wireless IP phones that can register with an Access point is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
E. 33
F. 35
G. 40
H. 57

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum data rate of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 2.4 Mbps data
B. 54 Mbps data
C. 1.44 Mbps data
D. 11 Mbps data
E. 2.4 Mbps data

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11b Standard Long established, the 802.11b standard is used today by the majority of installed
wireless LANs.
General Features:

Has a maximum transmission rate per channel of 11Mbps (actual throughput is about 6 to 7Mbps).
Operates in the 2.4GHz radio band.
Supports three channels at distances up to 350 feet.

QUESTION 63
With regard to wireless enterprise networks, which of the following is true?
A. Routing protocols is the most important consideration
B. Power of the transmitter is the most important consideration
C. RF interference is the most important consideration
D. STP domains is the most important consideration
E. Geological environment is the most important consideration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
It is very important, since the performance of the network depends of it.
You can use RF design to minimize the RF radiation in coverage areas or directions not required. For
example, if WLAN coverage is required only in the buildings, then you can minimize the amount of RF
coverage outside the building through access-point placement and direction antennas.
The performance of the WLAN and its equipment depends upon its RF environment.

Reference: Arch student guide p.10-23.

QUESTION 64
Your Certkiller.com trainee Sandra is curios about Cisco wireless LAN.
What should you tell Sandra? (Select two.)
A. Only IP can be transmitted over a wireless LAN
B. All stations in a wireless cell share the bandwidth
C. Wireless LANs use CSMA/CD access method
D. Only one station can send at one time
E. Wireless LANs use a token sharing access method.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A WLAN consists of an access point communicating over radio frequency to wireless clietnts. The data rate, power level, and antenna choice affect the size of the coverage area of a single wireless cell, which in turn affects how many access points are required in a specific implementation. This topic describes the wireless communication architecture. Only one station in a wireless cell, including the access point, can send data at any one time (D). The bandwidth is shared among all stations (B). If a station wishes to send, it listens and waits for an available slot. WLANs use carrier sense multiple access collision avoidance (CSMA/CA).
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-6.
QUESTION 65
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an IEEE 802.11b wireless environment. What is the maximum recommended number of calls using G.711 per access point?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The maximum recommended number of phones per access point is seven. This limitation is due to the number of packets that can be forwarded per second over an 802.11 link and minimizing transmission delays, rather than a bandwidth limitation of the link.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.10-35
QUESTION 66
What can be done to ensure connections to workstations that are placed on the edge of a wireless access point’s coverage area?
A. Lower data rates
B. Increase data rates
C. Group access point frequency channels together for increased range
D. Enable multicasting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Data rates affect cell size. Lower data rates (such as 1 Mbps) can extend farther from the access point than can higher data rates (such as 11 Mbps). Therefore, the data rate (and power level) affects cell coverage and consequently the number of access points required.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-21
QUESTION 67
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the frequency of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 5 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 1.4 GHz
D. 11 MHz

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Both 802.11b and 802.11g use frequency 2.4GHz. 802.11b is rated at 11Mbps while 802.11g is rated at 54 Mpbs. 802.11g is backwards capable with 802.11b.
Incorrect:
A. 5 GHz – 802.11A
QUESTION 68
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

What is the Certkiller VPN topology as shown in the illustration?
A. Full-mesh VPN
B. Hub-and-spoke VPN
C. Hierarchical VPN
D. Token Ring
E. Private WAN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which of the following types of VNP technology is needed when multicast, broadcast and non-IP packets needs to be tunneled?
A. IPSec
B. GRE
C. Triple-DES
D. IKE
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In site-to-site VPNs, the principal tunneling is generic routing encapsulation (GRE). If only IP-unicast packets are being tunneled, simple encapsulation provided by IPSec is suffiecient. GRE is used when multicast, broadcast, and no-IP packets need to be tunneld.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-7
QUESTION 70
Which of the following will cause Egress Blocking?
A. Packet flooding.
B. Re-transmission of packets blocking all traffic.
C. Large data packets blocking voice packets.
D. Large voice packets blocking data packets.
E. Excessive data fragmentation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
Certkiller Ltd. is a medium-sized company with 12 stationary offices and one head office, where every office is several hundred miles away from the next. You are the network administrator and the CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a VNP. Considering the scenario, what type of VNP would you design?
A. Enterprise remote access VPN
B. Wireless VPN
C. Remote access VPN
D. Site to site VPN
E. Wide area wireless VNP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Since the company is not big the solution may be cost effective. The offices are very far so the internet connection may be used. The best solution here would be site-to-site VPN. Site-to-Site VPNs are an alternative WAN infrastructure used to connect branch offices, home offices, or business partners sites to all or portions of an enterprise’s network. VPNs do not inherently change private WAN requirements, such as support for multiple protocols, high reliablility, and extensive scalability, but instead meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility. Site-to-site VPNs utilize the most pervasive transport technologies available today, such as the public Internet or service provider IP networks, by employing tunneling and encryption for data privacy and QoS for transport reliability.
QUESTION 72
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. You have designed a high availability network based on a redundant network topology. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the advantages of this design are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. It reduces the cost of the network.
B. It can guarantee Quality of Service.
C. Redundant topologies are easier to configure.
D. It allows the secondary path to automatically take over for the primary path.
E. It reduces the impact of individual network device failure.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Loss of IP connectivity can be caused by local-link failure, full-loss connectivity by the service provider, or device failure. For a typical remote site, an alternate path (dedicated or dial-on-demand) to the head-end site can protect against local-link failure or loss of service provider connectivity. Protection against a local-device failure at a remote site I is not usually provided unless the importance of connectivity for the remote site warrants the cost. For a typical head-end site, you can achieve redundancy by implementing multiple provider connections and by deploying multiple head-end routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-34
QUESTION 73
You work as a network administrator at the small real estate company Certkiller.com located in Toronto area. Certkiller.com has two locations 100 miles apart. Each site has 10 computers attached to a LAN with high speed Internet access. There is a need to securely transmit large amounts of customer data from one office location to the other.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual remote access VPN
B. Leased point-to-point connections
C. ISDN dial-up access
D. Site-to-site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which IP NAT implementation allows IPSec peers to establish a connection through a NAT device?
A. PAT
B. PAT-T
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IPSec ESP NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
NAT Traversal (NAT-T) lets IPSec peers establish a connection through a NAT device.
It does this by encapsulating IPSec traffic in UDP datagrams, using port 4500, thereby providing NAT
devices with port information. NAT-T autodetects any NAT devices, and only encapsulates IPSec traffic
when necessary.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-64

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of choosing a site-to-site VPN instead of a private WAN? (Choose two)
A. Usually less expensive.
B. Guaranteed bandwidth.
C. Globally available.
D. Increased reliability.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Site-to-site VPNs are primarily deployed to connect office locations of an enterprise. They provide an alternative to the WAN infrastructure, while offering significant cost benefits. They enable new infrastructure applications such as extrantet, and extend and enhance network connectivity. Enterprise WAN requirements for traditional private WAN services, such as multiprotocol support, high -availability, scalability, and security, are also requirements for VPNs. VPNs can often meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility than private WAN services using leased lines or virtual circuit technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-27,9-28.
QUESTION 76
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications and that data flows within the required time frames?
A. Availability
B. Performance
C. Functionality
D. Manageability
E. Scalability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which of the following characteristics determines the choice of Layer 1 technology for WAN, remote, or Internet access at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose Two.)
A. Scalability.
B. Transportability
C. Loss
D. Layer 2 technology
E. Layer 1 media
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following application characteristics are significant and must be taken into account in the Enterprise Edge design process.
What would your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Database magnitude
B. Delay sensitivity
C. Data content
D. Bandwidth usage
E. Loss tolerance
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
You are contracted as a network administrator for a small newly established company, Certkiller.com. The network consists of three buildings that 150 hundred feet apart that are connected via fast Ethernet single-mode fiber. 10Mbps hubs with 100Mbps Ethernet uplinks over multi-mode fibers to a switch in each building provide access to the network. Category 5 wiring connects over 200 users to the hubs.
The CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a new network that will take scalability, performance, manageability, security and availability into account, while still keeping costs low as the company is still relatively new.
What recommendation regarding wiring infrastructure would you include in your network design?
A. Install Category 5e copper to the desktop from the wiring closets.
B. Replace the copper wiring with fiber optic cables will save costs over a longer period.
C. Maintain the current wiring structure.
D. Install multi-mode fiber to the desktop from the wiring closets.
E. Replace the multi-mode fiber within the buildings with single-mode fiber.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following would you select to keep VLAN design complexity to a minimum? (Choose one option.)
A. Use campus wide VLANs.
B. Use building distribution level VLANs.
C. Use VLANs in the campus backbone.
D. Use per-switch VLANs at the access layer.
E. Use VLANs in the core.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Under which of the following circumstances would you consider using OSPF to be a viable choice for use as a routing protocol. (Choose four.)
A. Authentication is required.
B. NBMA connections exist.
C. The network is non-hierarchical.
D. Only internal routes should be considered.
E. Load balancing between multiple routes is required.
F. Fast convergence is necessary.
G. External routes are not an issue.

Correct Answer: ABEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
OSPF offers these features: 1) With OSPF, there is no limitation on the hop count. The intelligent use of VLSM is very useful in IP address allocation. 2) OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Updates are only sent when routing changes occur rather than periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth. 3) OSPF offers fast convergence because routing changes are propagated instantaneously and not periodically (a characteristic of distance vector routing protocols). 4) OSPF allows for effective load balancing 5) OSPF allows for routing authentication by using different methods of password authentication 6) OSPF allows for the transfer and tagging of external routes injected into an autonomous system. This keeps track of external routes injected by exterior protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-49
QUESTION 82
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the objectives mentioned below meet the requirements for the Server Farm module.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. Provide availability with overall network design.
B. Provide medium switch port density.
C. Provide remote dial-up access.
D. Provide up to 100 Gbps of outbound capacity.
E. Provide scalability with switches and server load balancing.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 83
In which networks would it be the norm to use Static Routing? (Choose two.)
A. Dial-on-demand networks
B. Smaller expanding networks
C. Stub networks
D. Token ring networks.
E. Multi-homed networks
F. Not so stubby network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static routing is primarily use for:
1) Routing to and from stub networks. A stub network only carries traffic for local hosts, and typically has
only one entry/ exit point. Even if it has paths to more than one other network, it does not carry traffic for
other networks.
2) Smaller network that are noet expected to grow significantly.
3) Supporting special features such as dial-on-demand routing (DDR) and on-demand routing 4)
Specifying routes toward dialing peers in dial-in environments.

Reference: Arch student guide p.2-46.

QUESTION 84
When selecting a router for an Edge solution, which is the first step that you, the Certkiller technician, would use Cisco Product Advisor for?
A. To determine the environment in which the router will be used.
B. To select the number of WAN ports required.
C. To determine types of protocols to be supported.
D. To select the appropriate switches.
E. To select the number of LAN ports required.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which of the following are characteristic in defining a Campus Backbone submodule? (Choose Three.)
A. Partial mesh generally used to avoid redundant links.
B. Usually, no policy enforcement.
C. Provides high speed, low overhead of low latency switching.
D. Full mesh to allow redundancy.
E. Implements policy-based filtering.
F. Transports aggregate traffic from the other submodules and functional areas.
G. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 86
What are the design options that will allow network segmentation? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs
B. Token Ring
C. Ethernet Trunking
D. Separate, flat networks
E. Rapid Spanning Tree (RST)

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which of the following application characteristics are important to the Enterprise Edge design process? (Choose three.)
A. Data content
B. Bandwidth usage
C. Database size
D. Delay sensitivity
E. Loss tolerance

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 88
Which two routing protocols are more appropriate in an NBMA environment? (Choose two)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
D: Intitialy OSPF was designed for networks that consisted of point-to-point links, but later it was successfully adapted for operation in LAN and NBMA environments.
C: EIGRP is suitable for nonbroadcast multi-access (NBMA) environments where there are split horizon issues, such as with Frame Relay or ATM multipoint interfaces. Not B or A: Use of RIP and RIPv2 in NBMA networks is not appropriate because of large bandwidth requirements at the Network Management module of a campus network design
QUESTION 89
Cisco has various management tools aimed at various markets. Which of the following Cisco network management tools is targeted toward small to medium-size business?
A. Netsys
B. CiscoWorks Lite
C. CiscoWorks Standard
D. CiscoWorks Premium
E. CiscoWorks for Windows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Certkiller has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network.
LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application.

What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Inventory Manager: Inventory Manager provides current inventory of all Cisco devices (routers, switches, firewalls) in the network, including support for Cisco CallManager, VPN concentrator, and WAN switches. Hardware and software summary information, includes detailed reports for groups of devices, memory, flash, software version, interface, and stack modules.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-19
QUESTION 92
According to good network design practices, what should be done to segment a physical network? (Choose three)
A. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of broadcast domains.
B. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of failure domains.
C. Use a Layer 2, switched domain to reduce the size of a collision domain.
D. Use Layer 2 switched domains to increase the size of a policy domain.
E. Use access control list to define policy domains.
F. Use access control lists to define failure domains.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which factors in a business environment will increase the need for remote access? (Choose Two.)
A. The ability to provide a more flexible work environment.
B. The need for authentication.
C. The rising costs of office space.
D. The need for a means of charging back leasing costs.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A. Having remote users will decrease the need for additional office space.
C. Allowing users to work from home provide a more flexible work environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B. The need for authentication would not suggest a need for remote access.
D. Irrelevant
QUESTION 94
What are the features that influence Redundancy requirements of a WAN from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose Two.)
A. Impact if the site is an aggregation point.
B. Impact of the site is non-existent or unavailable.
C. Routing and switching requirements
D. Critical importance of the site and the number of users.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The correct answers should be:
-criticality of the site – number of users According to Cisco.
Not A: The official Cisco course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2”
states on page 3-16 “Branch offices normally do not act as aggregation points. Redundancy depends on
the criticality of the site and the number of users”.

QUESTION 95
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which ATM service class will not allow delay or loss and is the most appropriate for traffic.
What would your reply be?
A. Real Time Variable Bit Rate (rt-VBR)
B. Constant Bit Rate (CBR)
C. Virtual Time Variable Bit Rate (vt-VBR)
D. Available Bit Rate (ABR)
E. Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)
F. Non-Real Time Bit Rate (nrt-VBR)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Constant bit rate (CBR): This traffic category has a bandwidth guarantee. Use it for traffic least tolerant of delay or loss.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-35.
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following application requirements would make DSL an inappropriate choice for a Layer 1 technology?
A. Low cost
B. High bandwidth
C. High link quality
D. Always on
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprises are increasingly turning to DSL to expand the use of telecommuting, reduce costs, and provide Internet-based services. DSL offers always-on access, allowing users to work at remote offices as if they were on site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-66
QUESTION 97
When designing a network for an online bookstore, the availability of which two Enterprise Edge modules would be the most critical issue? (Select two)
A. WAN module
B. Internet Connectivity module
C. Remote Access and VNP module
D. E-commerce module

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
For book store the most critical are E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity module.
E-Commerce: Enables enterprises to deploy e-commerce applications and take advantage of the Internet.
All e-commerce transactions pass through a series of intelligent services to provide performance,
scalability, and availability within the overall e-commerce network design.

Internet connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network (VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module.

Reference: Arch student guide p.3-5

QUESTION 98
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an ATM network.
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which method is used to prevent large data volumes from delaying voice packets on the Certkiller network.
What will your reply be?
A. CCS
B. FRF.11
C. Increased MTU
D. Separate VCs for data and voice

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
All other answers are wrong. With separate Vc you could easily assign different QOS parameters
QUESTION 99
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has a regional office in London and branch offices in Newcastle, Oxford, and Liverpool. You need to provide redundancy from Oxford office to the office in London.
What two choices can you make? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Dual Wan links to the regional office
C. Dual Wan links to another branch office
D. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another office

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
If the branch office requires redundant links, the design will use either dual WAN links to two different regions or connect to another branch that connects to a regional site. The link between two branch offices is generally the minimum amount of bandwidth to support each branch. In that case, oversize the link between the branch and regional site to support a fraction of the bandwidth (usually half) of the other branch site. A third method is to implement a dial-on-demand circuit through either ISDN or the PSTN.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-22.
QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are no longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other. Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirement of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
QUESTION 101

A network administrator is designing the routing schema to be used for the WAN connections between the corporate headquarters and the branch offices. Each of the branch offices has its own network server providing most of the local services needed. The branch offices need only periodic connectivity to the corporate headquarters, so ISDN BRI in a DDR configuration was chosen for WAN connectivity.
Which two routing protocols are most appropriate for this network? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPD
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because both these routing protocol have a feature call snapshot routing.

The following routing protocols are supported for snapshot routing :

1 – RTMP.
2 – RTP.
3 – RIPv2.
4 – IGRP.
5 – Novel IPX – RIP and SAP

QUESTION 102
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has been issued a portion of a Class C address from their ISP. There are 320 users that will need access to the Internet. The CEO now wants you to design a network that requires private internal addressing for the users within the company and also requires a website for external users.
Which types of Network Address Translation would you propose? (Choose two.)
A. Static
B. Overlapping
C. Persistent
D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static NAT would be good for the Web server. Dynamic NAT should be used for the 320 users of the
company.
Static NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT
is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network.
Dynamic NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP
addresses.

QUESTION 103
Certkiller has obtained a block of public Internet addresses to provide addresses for their publicly accessed services. Part of the Certkiller.com corporate network is illustrated in the network topology exhibit.

Which one of the following statements is the best design for the Internet connectivity solution?
A. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, static routing should be used on the Internet routers, with static routes on each Internet router pointing to the networks hosted by the ISP connected to the router.
B. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made to ISP A, and floating static routes should be installed to direct traffic to ISP B.
C. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made both ISP A and ISP B.
D. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, the Internet routers should be configured to run HSRP.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Certkiller.com, an insurance company, has a single link to the Internet through a local ISP. The ISP provides web hosting for Certkiller.com. E-mail is the main application for 175 users at Certkiller.com’s single office. The remaining 750 employees at Certkiller.com are involved in the manufacturing process and do not have network access. Fifteen host devices, available in kiosks to all employees, are used for internal human resource applications.
You are now required to recommend a suitable routing mechanism for the Certkiller.com enterprise edge.
A. RIP V2
B. BGP
C. Default route
D. IBGP
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When Implementing a single-homed system, the routing decision is to use default routes pointing to the network that connects the site to the ISP. The default route is then advertised throughout the corporate site, so that any packets with an unknown destination are forwarded to the ISP.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-57.
QUESTION 105
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity.
What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89
QUESTION 106
In an Internet e-commerce, browser-based application, which method can have the greatest impact on optimizing WAN bandwidth usage?
A. Multiplexing
B. Compression
C. Content networking
D. Secure sockets layer (SSL)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Content networking with its WCCP mechanism provides cashing of web pages and pictures which user already loaded so if he want to load the webpage again it loads from the local cash, not from the Internet.
This optimizes WAN bandwidth usage.
QUESTION 107
The SAFE medium network design suggest which of the following modules?
A. Campus infrastructure and Internet connectivity.
B. Campus infrastructure, Internet connectivity, and network management.
C. Corporate Internet, campus, and WAN.
D. Frame/ATM and ISP edge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.6-82
QUESTION 108
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. Host security
B. Perimeter security
C. Security monitoring
D. Policy management

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Intrusion protection: To ensure that a network remains secure, it is important to regularly test and monitor the state of security preparation. Network vulnerability scanners can proactively identify areas of weakness, and intrusion detection systems can monitor and respond to security events as the occur. Using security monitoring solutions, organizations can obtain unprecedented visibility into both the network data stream and the security posture of the network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-22
QUESTION 109
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode.
B. IPSec in transport mode.
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode.
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.9-40, 9-41.
QUESTION 110
Which of the following IOS queuing features are recommended at present to use as queuing method when sending voice traffic?
A. WFQ
B. IO RTP Priority
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. Codec
F. LLQ
G. ARQ
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
In choosing from among the many available prioritization sc hemes, the major factors to consider include the type of traffic involved and the type of media on the WAN. For multiservice traffic over an IP WAN, Cisco recommends low-latency queuing (LLQ) for low-speed links. LLQ allows up to 64 traffic classes with the ability to specify, for example, strict priority queuing behavior for voice and interactive video. A minimum bandwidth for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) data and market data feeds, and weighted fair queuing for other traffic types.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-77.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?
A. DTP
B. RPR
C. SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are elements of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture? (Choose three)
A. cell phones
B. remote access
C. mobility services
D. network management
E. network unification
F. network decentralization

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)

A. use a redundant link to the core
B. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C. never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. queuing
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. digitized sampling
E. signal-to-noise ratio ratio

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another
E. has a promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. core layer
B. Internet boundary
C. aggregation layer
D. aggregation and core layers
E. access and aggregation layers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. bridging VLANs on two switches
B. bridging two VLANs on one switch
C. between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
D. between two Layer 2 devices without trunking
E. between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is a virtual firewall?
A. another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
B. another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
C. a separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
D. a firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
E. a firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
In a VoWLAN deployment, what is the recommended separation between cells with the same channel?
A. 19 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 10 dBm
D. 6 dBm
E. 5 dbm to 10 dBm

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. in order to support business applications
D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which site-to-site VPN solution allows Cisco routers, PIX Firewalls, and Cisco hardware clients to act as remote VPN clients in order to receive predefined security policies and configuration parameters from the VPN headend at the central site?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)
A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be no higher than what value?
A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 2.5%
D. 25%

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP addresses.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NetFlow uses five key fields for the flow.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
E. NetFlow examines data in Layers 2 through 4.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. multiple layers of firewalling
B. a method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateways

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled?
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)
A. Flex Links
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
How would you define a fault tolerant device?
A. A backup path exists for every link between the client and the server.
B. Key components can be hot-swapped.
C. A backup device exists for every device between the client and the server.
D. Devices in the network can be hot-swapped without interrupting the network operation.
E. The device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Device fault tolerance and redundancy: This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-tolerant devices provide a high level of reliability. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-13.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following characteristics do you need to take into account when analyzing an application? (Choose three.)
A. Bandwidth, loss tolerance, and delay characteristics
B. Server speed
C. Number of servers and users
D. Application type
E. User’s operating system
F. Server operating system
G. All of the above.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Official Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-12
QUESTION 3
Which of the following metrics are used to measure performance in the Enterprise Edge module of the Enterprise Composite Network model? (Select three.)
A. Grade of service
B. Response time
C. Throughput
D. Transmit jitter
E. Utilization
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Performance might be the least understood term in networking. Typically, performance is defined as
throughput and packets per second (pps). These are easy numbers to gauge and report, but these values
relate to a single switch or router and make no sense when measuring an entire network.

The point is that there is no one metric for determining performance. Instead, gauge network performance
by these three metrics:
1) Responsiveness.
2) Throughput.
3) Utilization.

Reference: Arch student guide p. 1-10.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered part of a Fault Tolerant Device? (Choose three)
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Redundant links
C. Redundant cooling fans
D. Service contracts
E. High MTBF
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-tolerant devices provide a high level of reliability. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-13
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the last step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Determining the correct amount of users.
C. Select the different routing protocols to be used.
D. Design the edge distribution module.
E. Characterize applications.
F. Determine the data and application requirements.
G. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Cisco Systems Inc. course material, pages 2-10 and 2-11
QUESTION 6
Which location would be the best locale for the device for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building.
B. In the Information-processing building.
C. In the Accounting Department in the Administration building
D. In the Engineering building.
E. In all buildings.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the first step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Design Methodology?
A. Select a service provider.
B. Determine the data and application requirements.
C. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
D. Characterize applications.
E. Select a Layer 1 technology.
F. Select a Layer 2 technology.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
When working in the Enterprise Composite Network Model environment, which components form part of the Enterprise Edge functional area? (Choose four.)
A. WAN module
B. Server farm
C. E-Commerce module
D. Access server
E. Internet connectivity
F. Management module
G. VPN/Remote access
H. All of the above.
Correct Answer: ACEG Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which step in new network design, follows after the application and data requirements have been determined?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Design the logical network.
C. Select the IP addressing strategy and numbering.
D. Setting priorities with regard to IP addressing
E. Select the routing protocols.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
1) Determine application and data requirements for each campus location on the enterprise network 2) Design the logical network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10.
QUESTION 10
When you design the campus network which of the following modules of the Enterprise Network will you include? (Choose Three.)
A. The Campus Core module
B. The Server Farm module
C. The Building Distribution module
D. The Edge Distribution module
E. The Management Module
F. The Divide and conquer module
G. All of the above
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the seven step enterprise campus design methodology precedes “design the logical network.”
What will your reply be?
A. Design the physical topology
B. Select appropriate system devices and assign IP addresses
C. Assign IP addresses
D. Select routing protocols
E. Create security policy
F. Determine enterprise data requirements
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Your Certkiller trainee is busy with an Enterprise Composite Network design.
Which factors would he consider when analyzing network traffic for this design? (Select three.)
A. User types
B. Traffic types
C. File server types
D. Sampling method
E. Media types
F. Traffic load measurement
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-13
QUESTION 13
You are the network administrator at Certkiller.Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which
components are part of the Internet connectivity module for a network.
What will your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. DNS servers
B. Security servers
C. SMTP servers
D. Management servers
E. Corporate servers

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Internet Connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly-available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network(VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module. The major components of the Internet Connectivity module are:
4) E-mail servers.
5) DNS servers.
6) Public web servers.
7) Security servers.
8) Edge routers.

Reference: Arch student guide p.1-40

QUESTION 14
What is the first step in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. The design of the logical network.
B. The design of the physical network.
C. The selection of the routing protocols.
D. The determination of data and application requirements.
E. The selection of an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10
QUESTION 15
Your Certkiller.com trainee Doug asks you to characterize Layer 3 switching.
What should you tell him? (Select three).
A. Support flat networks
B. Supports complex routing in hierarchical networks
C. Supports simple implementation
D. Supports equal cost routing
E. Supports load balancing

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
B – Cisco considers router configuration as a complex task.
D – Routing protocols support equal cost routing for IP and IPX.
E – Load Balancing is traffic based.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps5304/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007

Switching, and Forwarding
Layer 3 Switching

*
CPU Redundancy for the Catalyst 8540 CSR and Catalyst 8540 MSR

*
IP, IPX, and IP multicast routing and forwarding between Ethernet ports

*
AppleTalk 1 and 2 routing

*
Constrained Multicast Flooding (CMF)

*
Up to 128 IP multicast groups

*
QoS-based forwarding based on IP-precedence-based forwarding

*
Load balancing among equal cost paths based on source and destination IP and IPX addresses
QUESTION 16
Dr Bill your supervisor at Certkiller.com asks you to tell him about the enterprise composite network model. What should you tell him?
A. The enterprise composite network model is made up of three functional areas including the enterprise campus, campus backbone, and enterprise edge.
B. The enterprise composite network model allows easy network topology changes.
C. The enterprise composite network model is composed of a singular access, distribution, and core layer.
D. The enterprise composite network model defines a deterministic network with defined boundaries between modules.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprise Composite Network Model defines a deterministic network with clearly defined boundaries between modules. The model has clear demarcation points to aid the designer in knowing exactly where traffic is.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-31
QUESTION 17
Which architectural design consideration of the Network Composite Model involved administration of network equipment on addition to client server component administration?
A. QoS
B. Connectivity
C. Accessibility
D. Network and system management
E. Topology definition and management
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Network Management Module can support both in-band and out-of-band (OOB) networks for administration and or management of network equipment and client server components. In-band Network management uses bandwidth on the production network.
Out-of-Band (OOB) management uses a separate logical network or in some cases a different logical and additional physical network.
QUESTION 18
A modular design using the Enterprise Composite Model consists of which three functional areas? (Choose three)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Campus Backbone
D. Service Provider Edge
E. Network Management
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Enterprise Composite Network Model introduces additional modularity into the network structure. The
entire network is divided into functional areas that contain the hierarchical model access, distribution, and
core layers.
The Enterprise Composite Network Model contains three major functional areas:
1) Enterprise Campus.
2) Enterprise Edge.
3) Service Provider Edge.

Reference: Arch student guide p.1-30

QUESTION 19
What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. Includes all modules needed to meet any network design.
B. Defined flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements.
C. Clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is.
D. Requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 1-31
QUESTION 20
Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to support the server farm module? (Choose three)
A. Implement highly redundant switching and links with no single points or paths of failure.
B. Implement server load balancing.
C. Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection.
D. Dual home all servers.
E. Implement intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.
F. Deploy caching systems.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
According to Cisco Design standards, the Campus Back Bone must have High Availability. Cisco design best practices guidelines require redundancy for mission critical devices. Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-69

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