Adobe 9A0-061 Preparation Materials Free Dowload, The Most Recommended Adobe 9A0-061 Practice Exam On Sale

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 300-320 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-320.html

Pass4itsure presents the highest quality of Adobe 9A0-061 practice material which helps candidates to pass the Adobe 9A0-061 exams in the first attempt.The Pass4itsure are the latest,authenticated by expert and covering each and every aspect of Adobe 9A0-061 exam.

QUESTION 108
Which is a system requirement for the use of a GPU transition?
A. a CPU that is at least 3.0 gigahertz
B. at least 512 MB of system memory
C. a graphics card that supports Direct X and hyperthreading
D. a graphics processing unit that supports Pixel Shader 1.3 or higher

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button.
You have a video clip in Video Track 1. You have a white title in Video Track 2. You apply the Track Matte Key effect to the clip in Video Track 1 and set the Matte parameter to a value of Video 2 as shown in the exhibit.
What composited effect does this create?

A. a white title over a video clip
B. a black title over a video clip
C. video showing through the letters of the title
D. video showing everywhere except through the letters of the title

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
You want to overlay a timecode display on a video clip. What should you do?
A. apply the Timecode effect to the clip
B. generate timecode text with the Titler
C. choose the appropriate settings in the Playback Settings dialog box
D. drag the timecode display from the Timeline to the Program Monitor

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
Where is the default anchor point from which the position of the clip is measured?
A. the center of the clip
B. the upper left corner of the clip
C. the upper right corner of the clip
D. the center of the top edge of the clip

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
Which option in the Project Manager dialog box specifies extra frames in the Trimmed Project to permit minor edits?
A. Make Offline
B. Include Handles
C. Include Preview Files
D. Exclude Unused Clips

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
Which option in the Project Manager panel allows you to have extra footage at each end of your trimmed clips?
A. Include Handles
B. Include Preview Files
C. Include Audio Conform Files
D. Rename Media Files to Match Clip Names

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
You want to create a video project that does NOT conform to common DV, HD or HDV settings. You want to use this project as a template for future projects. What should you do?
A. click the Load Preset tab; expand the DV-NTSC folder; select the settings that match your video
B. click the Load Preset tab; expand the Adobe HDV folder; select the settings that match your video
C. click the Custom Settings tab; choose the settings that most closely match the attributes of your clip
D. click the Load Preset tab; select the appropriate preset that most closely matches the attributes of your clips

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
You want to create a still picture montage in your video. You also want all of the pictures to fit in the viewable frame. What should you do?
A. re-size the pictures to the desired scale by using Photoshop
B. use project settings that will match the size of most of your stills
C. choose Edit > Preferences > General > Default Scale to Frame Size
D. import the pictures and re-size them on an individual basis by using the Scale parameter in the Effect Controls panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
You want to ensure that your video playback is displayed in the Program Monitor. What should you do?
A. select the Desktop Video checkbox in the Playback Settings dialog box
B. select Compatible in the Desktop Display Modes area of the Playback Settings dialog box
C. select None from the Export External Device dropdown menu in the in the Playback Settings dialog box
D. select the Disable Video Output When Premiere Pro is in the Background checkbox in the Playback Settings dialog box

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
You have created an offline project. You need to bring this project into an online editing system, and you need to re-capture the files with high-quality settings. To accomplish this, you should use the Project Manager and create a Trimmed Project _____.
A. excluding unused clips
B. selecting Make Offline
C. selecting Include Handles
D. selecting Rename Media Files to Match Clip Names

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
You want to play your NTSC video on a CD-ROM. Which export option reduces the data rate significantly without making the motion appear too choppy?
A. 24P
B. 30 fps
C. 15 fps
D. 29.97 fps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
You want to hide the preview thumbnail in the Project panel. What should you do?
A. choose View > Icon from the Project panel menu
B. choose Edit Columns from the Project panel menu
C. choose Thumbnails > Off from the Project panel menu
D. choose View from the Project panel menu and deselect Preview Area

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
How does Adobe Premiere Pro treat 24P footage when you import it?
A. as 24 fps interlaced footage
B. as 23.976 fps interlaced footage
C. as 24 fps progressive scan footage
D. as 23.976 fps progressive scan footage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
What is the relationship between rendering a source clip and a nested sequence it is within?
A. A sequence is always rendered separately from the source clip.
B. Rendering the sequence will also render the source clip it contains.
C. Rendering the source clip will always render the sequence it is within.
D. Rending the source clip will render the sequence it is within as long as there are no effects or filters on the sequence.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
You are editing footage using the Multi-Camera Monitor. Which color is the active camera’s border while it is in Playback Mode?
A. red
B. blue
C. green
D. yellow

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 123
Which statement about a rolling edit is true?
A. It changes a clip’s speed to fit a duration.
B. It trims a clip and shifts subsequent clips in the track by the amount you trim.
C. It shifts a clip in time, while trimming adjacent clips to compensate for the move.
D. It trims an adjacent Out point and In point simultaneously and by the same number of frames.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
What should you do to change the order in which your clips are playing in a sequence?
A. use the Ripple Edit tool; move the clip to the new position
B. use the Selection tool; press the Alt key; drag the clip to the new position
C. use the Selection tool; press the Control key; drag the clip to the new position
D. select the clip; drag it to a different layer; move the appropriate clips; position the clip in the new position

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 125
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Clips will be in sync if they start at the point in time where the CTI is.
B. The starting point of the master clip is used to synchronize the clips.
C. Synchronize the clips by placing the clips at the start of the sequence.
D. The In point of the clips in the sequence are used to synchronize the clips.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 126
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which display format is used to signify 30 fps drop-frame timecode?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
What happens when you use the Slip tool to drag the center clip of three clips to the left?
A. The duration of the center clip changes.
B. The In and Out points of the center clip change.
C. The Out point of the clip to the left is shortened.
D. The In point of the clip to the right is lengthened.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
Which statement is true?
A. All the sequences in a project share the same timebase.
B. Only PAL projects can have different timebases in their sequences.
C. Only NTSC projects can have different timebases in their sequences.
D. Different sequences in the same project can have their own timebase.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
You have a timecode value selected in the Timeline panel. Which keyboard sequence takes you directly to the 1450th frame of the clip?
A. :1450
B. +1450
C. ;1450
D. .1450
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
Which function is performed when the Show Video option is selected in the Adobe Title Designer?
A. The video output is toggled on or off to an external monitor.
B. The frame of video where the CTI rests is overlaid on the title.
C. The title is overlaid on the frame of video where the CTI rests.
D. The frame of video where the CTI rests is displayed and saved in the backgroud of the title.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the image shown in the exhibit, what happens if you click and drag the cursor to the right in the Effects Control tab?

A. Only the Wipe transition shifts to the right.
B. Only the position of the cut between the two clips shifts to the right.
C. The length of the movie increases by the amount dragged to the right.
D. Both the Wipe transition and the cut between the two clips shift to the right.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
You are using the Adobe Title Designer. Which title property should you change to increase the space between lines of text in a title?
A. Aspect
B. Leading
C. Kerning
D. Tracking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 133
What happens when you use the Slip tool to drag the center clip of three clips to the left?
A. The duration of the center clip changes.
B. The In and Out points of the center clip change.
C. The Out point of the clip to the left is shortened.
D. The In point of the clip to the right is lengthened.
Correct Answer: B
We help you do exactly that with our high quality Adobe 9A0-061 Certification using the above training materials.Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many Adobe 9A0-061 PDF readers that are available for free.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 300-320 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-320.html

Adobe 9A0-061 Preparation Materials Free Dowload, The Most Recommended Adobe 9A0-061 Practice Exam On Sale

Continue Reading

Adobe 9A0-060 Exam Dumps, New Release Adobe 9A0-060 Practice Exam Are The Best Materials

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 200-101 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-101.html

We are committed on providing you with the latest and most accurate Adobe 9A0-060 exam preparation products.If you want to pass Adobe 9A0-060 exam successfully, do not miss to read latest Flydumps Adobe 9A0-060 on Flydumps.

QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button.
You create the composition shown in the exhibit. You want to play the movie inside the foot and use the
beach image as the background.
What should you do?
A. choose Alpha Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
B. choose Luma Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
C. choose Alpha Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
D. choose Luma Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When should you use a Silhouette Alpha?
A. when you want to cut a hole through all layers below your silhouette using the alpha channel of that layer
B. when you want to cut a hole through all layers above your silhouette using the alpha channel of that layer
C. when you want to alter the alpha channel for all layers above your silhouette layer by using the luma levels of the image
D. when you want to alter the alpha channel for all layers below your silhouette layer by using the luma levels of the image
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which statement about masks is true?
A. Default temporal interpolation for Mask Shape keyframes is Bezier.
B. You CANNOT change the designation of the first vertex position on a mask.
C. You can copy a Mask Shape keyframe into an effect point property of an effect.
D. Mask Shape keyframes can all be selected at once by double clicking on the Layer Name.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
You mask a video clip in the Composition window with a rectangular mask that is approximately half the height of the video and the same width as the video. You want to feather only the right-hand edge of the mask. What should you do?
A. decrease the Feather Property value in the mask options until you have the desired result
B. extend the width of the mask off the left hand side; unlink the X and Y feather in the mask options; increase feather width
C. scale the mask down vertically, and unlink the X and Y feather in the mask options; then increase feather width
D. increase the feather property value in the mask options; raise the mask expansion property value until you have achieved the desired result

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
You create a composition that contains a video footage layer of a specific play in a football game. You want to adjust both playback speed and direction and add audio commentary. The output will be a DVD. You enable time remapping for the video layer and notice that in the places the video has been stretched, the action appears jerky.
What should you do?
A. choose Effect > Time > Timewarp; under the Timewarp pulldown, select Whole Frames; under the Tuning pulldown, set keyframes for Vector Detail
B. choose Layer > Frame Blending > Frame Mix; set the quality setting to Draft quality for the layer; enable the Frame Blend switch in the Timeline panel
C. choose Effect > Time > Timewarp; under the Motion Blur option, turn on Enable Motion Blur; select Manual from the Shutter Control pulldown; set keyframes for Shutter Angle and Shutter Samples
D. choose Layer > Frame Blending > Pixel Motion; set the quality setting to Draft quality in the switches column of the Timeline panel; enable Motion Blur for the layer; enable the Motion Blur and Frame Blend switch in the Timeline panel

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
When should you use the Time Warp effect?
A. when you want a mixture of both Pixel Motion and Frame Mix
B. when you have 32-bpc footage in which you are playing with time
C. when you want to smooth out the motion of only one color channel
D. when you want to decrease render time caused by Frame Mix frame blending
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
When should you use Frame-Mix method of frame blending?
A. when you want to speed up render time at the cost of lower quality Motion Blur
B. when you have interpreted your footage at double its frame rate and want to keep the motion smooth
C. when you are time stretching video footage and want to use motion vectors to smooth out the motion
D. when you are time-stretching video footage, and want to create interim frames during repeated footage frames

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
You have taken video of a person examining a 2 X 2 foot piece of cardboard to which you have pasted bright yellow ping pong balls at each of the corners. This person is moving the cardboard as they examine it. You want to track the motion of the cardboard so that you can play a movie in its place. Which Track type should you select from the Tracker Controls panel?
A. Stabilize
B. Transform
C. Parallel Corner Pin
D. Perspective Corner Pin

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 125
You want to create the effect of a magician waving a magic wand through the air so that you can attach an effect to the tip of the wand. You have appropriate footage but did NOT mark the effect point prior to shooting. The black wand has a white tip and you decide to use the footage as is. You track the motion and notice that even though the tip of the wand is visible throughout the shot, the track point drifts from the tip point of the wand. You also notice that the footage is grainy in some areas.
What should you do?
A. reshoot the footage after first attaching a brightly colored ping pong ball to the tip of the wand
B. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box under Channel, select RGB; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward
C. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box under Channel, select Saturation; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward
D. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box, select Process before Match; click Blur; type a value of 2 to 3 pixels; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward

Correct Answer: D

Adobe 9A0-060 using the training resources which are the best for Adobe 9A0-060 and to get certified by Microsoft Windows Store apps.It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. Now we add the latest Adobe 9A0-060 content and to print and share content.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 200-101 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-101.html

Adobe 9A0-060 Exam Dumps, New Release Adobe 9A0-060 Practice Exam Are The Best Materials

Continue Reading

Adobe 9A0-062 Vce & PDF, High Success Rate Adobe 9A0-062 PDF Dumps With Accurate Answers

Each Answers in Adobe 9A0-062 study guides are checked by the concerned professional to provide you the best quality dumps. If you are looking to get certified in short possible time, you will never find quality product than Flydumps.

QUESTION 117
You are editing a menu in Photoshop. Which type of layer is created when you place an (!) in front of a layer name?
A. a button set
B. a background
C. a highlight layer
D. a replacement layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
In Photoshop, the prefix (%) is used for an Image layer within a button group (set) to designate a layer as _____.
A. a Chapter button
B. a video thumbnail
C. a button subpicture
D. an image within a button

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which statement is true about building a dual layer DVD in Adobe Encore DVD?
A. The maximum size of a dual layer DVD is approximately 4.7 GB.
B. Dual layer discs from Adobe Encore DVD require using -R DVDs.
C. To replicate dual layer DVDs at a replication facility, you first must write your project to a single digital linear tape.
D. Adobe Encore DVD allows for the manual setting of the point at which the DVD player switches from the first layer to the second.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which Build setting in the Build DVD panel is used for writing to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT)?
A. DVD Disc
B. DVD Folder
C. DVD Image
D. DVD Master

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which DVD format should you use to ensure compatibility with the greatest number of stand-alone set top DVD players?
A. DVD+R
B. DVD-R
C. DVD+RW
D. DVD-RW
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
Which copy protection setting restricts the number of copies that can be made of your disc?
A. CSS
B. CBR

C. CGMS
D. Macrovision
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Which Build setting in the Build DVD panel is used to create a file on a hard drive for local replication using a third-party mastering application?
A. DVD Disc
B. DVD Folder
C. DVD Image
D. DVD Master

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 124
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which Preview Control button will exit and return (close the preview and return to the project)?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Projects written directly to DVD-R will automatically have which region code enabled?
A. Region 0
B. Region 1
C. Region 7
D. Region 8

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 126
Which statement is true about the use of a layer break?
A. It is best to specify a layer break where content is playing.
B. Encore DVD always creates the layer break automatically.
C. A layer break is the point at which the DVD player switches from the first side of the DVD to the second.
D. A layer break can be Automatic or Manual and can be found under the Settings section of the Build DVD panel.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about building a dual sided DVD?
A. To create a dual sided DVD, you must create two separate projects.
B. A dual sided DVD containing one layer per side is referred to as a DVD-5.
C. To create a dual sided DVD, one project must be written to two separate DLTs.
D. The second side of a dual sided DVD does not provide as much storage capacity as the first.

Correct Answer: A

Flydumps.com New Adobe 9A0-062 dumps are designed to help you to out in a short time. You can get Adobe 9A0-062 dumps to pass your exam. To be a Microsoft professional makes you a better future.

Adobe 9A0-062 Vce & PDF, High Success Rate Adobe 9A0-062 PDF Dumps With Accurate Answers

Continue Reading

Adobe 9A0-061 Dump, The Best Adobe 9A0-061 Guide Provider Online Shop

Flydumps is providing complete solutions for Adobe 9A0-061 that will help the candidates learn extensively and score exceptional in the Adobe 9A0-061 exam. Passing the Microsoft is not a dream anymore as our user friendly learning resources ensure guaranteed success.

QUESTION 75
What do you do to convert your static title into a rolling title?
A. choose Title > New Title > Default Roll
B. choose Title > Roll / Crawl Options > Roll
C. choose Title > New Title > Based on Template
D. choose Title > New Title > Based on Current Title

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
You want to export a small portion of your Timeline to a movie file. To accomplish, this you should _____ and choose Work Area Bar as the Range to export in the Export Movie Settings panel.
A. select the clips you want to export
B. group the clips together that you want to export
C. scale the Timeline panel to show the clips you want to export
D. set the Work Area Bar over the portion of the Timeline you want to export

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
To export only a portion of a clip, you select the clip and _____.
A. choose File > Export > Trimmed Clip
B. place it in the sequence and then export the sequence
C. choose File> Export> Movie, then set the In and Out points
D. set In and Out points, choose File > Export > Adobe Media Encoder and set Range to In to Out

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
What do you do to export a movie to be played on a CD-ROM?
A. choose a codec that will work best in your system
B. choose a codec that will work best at slower bit rates
C. identify the limits of the fastest / newest system and encode the file, based on this system
D. identify the limits of the slowest/older system configuration and encode the file, based on this system

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
You want to crop a few pixels from the edges of a video that will be encoded to Windows Media format using the Adobe Media Encoder. Where is this function enabled in the Adobe Media Encoder Panel?
A. on the Video tab
B. on the Others tab
C. on the Source tab
D. on the Audiences tab

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
To make Clip Notes comments, you should play the video embedded in the PDF file, _____.
A. set markers and write comments on the markers
B. pause when needed, and write comments in the Text Box
C. write comments in the appropriate parts of the video image
D. write comments on a separate file, and combine them during export

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 81
How does enabling the Video Noise Reduction Filter in the Adobe Media Encoder Export Settings reduce noise?
A. by softening the image
B. by using 2 pass encoding
C. by increasing the bandwidth the file requires
D. by sharpening the images in the exported video file

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
What do you do to view Clip Notes comments that are inside a Clip Notes comments file?
A. choose File > Open and choose the Clip Notes file
B. choose File > Import and choose the Clip Notes file
C. choose Clip > Overlay; choose the Clip Notes file; double-click the Clip Note icons that appear in the Program Monitor or Timeline
D. choose Sequence > Import Clip Notes Comments; choose the Clip Notes file; double-click the sequence markers that appear in the Time Ruler

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
What should you do to export your sequence as a series of bitmaps?
A. choose File > Export > Bitmap
B. choose File > Export > Movie > Bitmap
C. choose File > Export > Frame > Bitmap
D. choose File > Export > Adobe Media Encoder > Bitmap

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Which is the primary advantage of VST plug-in support in Premiere Pro?
A. VST effects do NOT need to be rendered.
B. VST effects may be applied to any audio clip.
C. VST effects may be applied to any audio track.
D. VST effects may be downloaded from third parties.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
You have a stereo audio clip that was recorded with narration in the left channel and ambient sound in the right channel. You want to be able to easily adjust narration and ambient sound independently. What should you do?
A. send the clip to a Submix Track
B. use the Balance control in the Audio Mixer
C. use the Source Channel Mappings to map the source to Mono
D. use the Source Channel Mappings to map the source to Stereo

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
Where do you apply an Audio Track effect, without using keyframes?
A. in the Timeline panel
B. in the Audio Mixer panel
C. in the Effect Controls panel
D. in the Audio Waveforms panel

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
You want to adjust the levels of an audio track by using the automation modes of the Audio Mixer. During Timeline playback, you want the automation to begin recording volume keyframe adjustments when you drag the volume slider. You want to stay at that volume until you drag the slider to a new position. Which automation mode of the Audio Mixer accomplishes this?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Latch
D. Touch

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
Your workstation has an ASIO capable sound card which you want to use to record input audio devices directly to a sequence. Where should you set the input volume for these devices prior to recording?
A. the Audio Mixer
B. the Audio Hardware preferences
C. the audio track in the destination sequence
D. the audio settings for your ASIO capable sound card

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
What should you do to pan a track that is mastered to 5.1 surround?
A. use the Timeline and create Pan keyframes
B. use the Timeline and adjust the Pan keyframes
C. use the Audio Mixer and use Pan left / Pan Right
D. use the Audio Mixer and drag the puck anywhere within the square

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
How should you use the audio mixer to control all audio tracks, project-wide?
A. use only the Master Track settings in the Audio Mixer
B. set up a Master Sequence and nest the other sequences within it
C. set In and Out points in the Audio Mixer that surround the entire project
D. use the Show/Hide Tracks menu selection to make sure all the tracks in the project are visible

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 91
How should you edit an audio track that needs to be trimmed an amount less than a single frame?
A. set the timecode display to use audio units
B. adjust the timecode to display in fractional frames
C. zoom in on the audio track to get more resolution in the Timeline
D. set the work area to surround only the frame that contains the edit point

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
You want to move many of your audio clips to different locations in a sequence. You also need to adjust the volume of all of the clips. To accomplish this, you should adjust the volume _____.
A. on the clips then move the clips to the new locations
B. on the track then move the clips to the new locations
C. in the Master track then move the clips to the new location
D. using the Audio Mixer then move the clips to the new locations Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
What should you do to add a DVD marker to the Timeline?
A. drag the marker from the DVD Layout panel
B. drag the marker from the Tools panel to the sequence
C. place the CTI where you want the marker to be; right-click; choose Set DVD Marker
D. place the CTI where you want the marker to be; choose File > DVD > Set DVD Marker

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
What is the maximum number of numbered sequence markers you can place in an individual sequence?
A. 64
B. 100
C. 128
D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Why would you choose to burn a DVD to an ISO Image rather than directly to Disc or Folder?
A. The encoding quality is better.
B. The encoding process goes faster.
C. You have the capability to burn the image to disk using other DVD burning tools.
D. Burning to an ISO Image supports more features than directly to Disc or Folder.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 96
How can you change a static DVD scene button to an animated button?
A. use the Flyout menu of the DVD Layout menu
B. import an animation sequence into the layer above the Timeline
C. double-click on the DVD scene marker on the Timeline and select the Motion Menu button
D. click on the Change Template button in the DVD Layout menu to find a menu that supports animated buttons
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
What should you do to create a DVD menu?
A. choose DVD >Template > Apply
B. choose Template> Apply to Current Sequence
C. choose DVD markers from the DVD layout panel and choose Apply
D. choose Change Template from the DVD Layout panel and select a menu
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
What happens when you double-click a text label on a DVD Layout?
A. You are able to assign links to the text.
B. The text opens in the Change Text dialog box.
C. The text color and font attributes may change.
D. The menu opens in the application designated as Edit Original.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
Which statement about HDV editing in Premiere Pro is true?
A. HDV video must be converted before being captured.
B. HDV video may be captured via OHCI-compliant 1394 and edited in real time.
C. HDV video must be converted before being captured or exported back to tape.
D. HDV video may be captured via OHCI-compliant 1394 and can only be edited in real time with third-party plug-ins.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
You want to capture video without audio by using the Capture panel. Where do you configure the settings to capture only video?
A. the General Preferences panel
B. the Logging tab on the Capture panel
C. the flyout menu on the Capture panel
D. the Device Control options in the Settings tab of the Capture panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
You want to record a sequence to videotape. Your device supports the RS-422 protocol. To accomplish this you go to the Preference files and choose _____ from the Device menu.
A. VTR Control
B. DV Deck Control
C. IEEE 1394 Control
D. Serial Device Control

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 102
What is the function of batch capture?
A. recaptures logged clips that are offline
B. captures multiple scenes simultaneously
C. detects scene changes for automated capture
D. applies filters to clips in batch as they are captured

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 103
Empty areas in an Adobe Illustrator file are converted to _____ when imported into Adobe Premiere Pro.
A. an alpha channel
B. a vector based mask
C. a solid colored background
D. an antialiased cropped area Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which value will change when you drag the outer edge of the Fast Color Corrector wheel clockwise?

A. Hue Angle
B. Balance Gain
C. Balance Angle
D. Balance Magnitude

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
You want to add borders to the Iris Star transition. What should you do?
A. select the transition and add a border with the Lens Flare effect
B. select the transition and adjust its properties in the Effect Controls panel
C. create a star in the Titler, and apply the Track Matte Key effect to the clip
D. add two transitions, one larger than the other, and make the larger one a different color
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the Program Monitor for the selected clip. The motion path indicates that this animation is using _____ interpolation.

A. Spatial Linear
B. Spatial Bezier
C. Temporal Ease In
D. Temporal Ease Out

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 107
Which statement is true?
A. Single-sided transitions fade to and from black.
B. You CANNOT use single-sided transitions in Premiere Pro.
C. Single-sided transitions are only possible in tracks 2 and up.
D. Single-sided transitions fade to or from a transparent state.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108

Flydumps.com New Adobe 9A0-061 exam materials provided eliminates the tacky and laborious process of studying and memorization as it provides direct Adobe 9A0-061 questions and answers that will help you feel confident.

Adobe 9A0-061 Dump, The Best Adobe 9A0-061 Guide Provider Online Shop

Continue Reading

Adobe 9A0-060 Dumps, The Most Recommended Adobe 9A0-060 Demo Download Online Sale

Flydumps practice test training resources are versatile and highly compatible with Microsoft exam formats. We provide up to date resources and comprehensive coverage on Adobe 9A0-060 exam dumps help you to advance your skills.

QUESTION 96
Click the Exhibit button.
Your project will be output to film and contains a sequence where images fly from behind and through the center of a candle flame. You are working with HDR footage. Upon viewing the final output your shadows appear to lack detail.
What should you do?

A. open the Project Settings dialog box and select Depth 16 bits per channel
B. open the Project Settings dialog box and select Depth 32 bits per channel
C. open the Project Settings dialog box and select the Linear Blending option D. open the Project Settings dialog box and select Working Space: sRGB IEC6 1966-2.1

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
You want to edit a motion path directly in the Composition window. As you advance through your composition, you notice that you can no longer access the motion path at the beginning of the timeline. What should you do?
A. choose Edit > Preferences > Display and select All Keyframes
B. choose Edit > Preferences > General and select Synchronize Time of All Related Items
C. choose Edit > Preferences > Memory & Cache and increase the Maximum RAM Cache Size
D. choose Edit > Preferences > General and select Preserve Constant Vertex Count when Editing Masks

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to export your composition with an alpha channel for reuse in another composition in your project. Your composition contains NO audio. You want to apply compression to keep file size within prespecified limits. You want to import the file, but NOT replace usage in your project.
What should you do?

A. For Post- Render Action: select Import, Under Video Output, Channels: select RGB + Alpha
B. For Post- Render Action: select Import, Under Video Output, Channels: select RGB + Alpha, Depth: select Millions of Colors
C. Under Format: Select a format which supports both Alpha Channels and lossless compression, for Post-Render Action: select Import, Under Video Output; click on Format Options and configure compressor, under Channels: select RGB + Alpha
D. Under Format: Select a format which supports both Alpha Channels and lossless compression, for Post-Render Action: select Import, under Video Output; click on Format Options and configure compressor, Channels: select RGB + Alpha, Depth: select Millions of Colors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You add a composition to the render queue. The elements are DV source footage. It will be imported into Encore DVD and used as a motion background. Which render settings should you use?
A. Color Depth: 8 bits per channel, Field Render: Off, select Use comp’s frame rate (29.97)
B. Color Depth: 16 bits per channel, Field Render: Off, select Use comp’s frame rate (29.97)
C. Color Depth: 8 bits per channel, Field Render: Lower Field First, select Use comp’s frame rate (29.97)
D. Color Depth: 16 bits per channel, Field Render: Lower Field First, select Use comp’s frame rate (29.97)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 100
You want to apply the Lightning effect to an existing text layer. You also want to rotate the text layer. The Lightning effect should rotate with the text layer. What should you do?
A. add the Lightning effect and Rotation keyframes to the text layer
B. add the Lightning effect and Rotation keyframes to the text layer; pre-compose the text layer; select “Move all attributes into the new composition”
C. add Rotation keyframes to the text layer; pre-compose the text layer; select “Move all attributes into the new composition”; add the Lightning effect to the pre-composition layer
D. add the Lightning effect to the text layer; pre-compose the text layer; select “Move all attributes into the new composition”; add Rotation keyframes to the pre-composition layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
You are rendering a single PNG frame with a transparent background that you will then work with in Photoshop. Which settings should you use to ensure RGB and alpha channels are included in the output frame?
A. RGB, Straight
B. RGB+A, Straight
C. RGB+A Premultiplied
D. PNG Alpha settings cannot be adjusted.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
Which statement about rendering with a watch folder is true?
A. All render engines must be using the same operating system.
B. You can use a watch folder and multiple render engines to render a single movie file.
C. All computers monitoring the render folder must have a hard disk with a unique name.
D. To optimize multiple renders, render engines each work on a different render item at the same time.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to render a complex composition for final output to film. The composition has been set up as follows: several effects including the Timewarp effect for time remapped layers have been turned off in the timeline to speed preview; Draft 3D has been activated; you have used several proxies; you have used several HDR footage items; you have used Guide Layers that are currently NOT visible; Motion Blur has been disabled in the timeline.
In the Render Settings dialog box you set Quality to Best; set Resolution to Full; enable Use OpenGL Renderer.
What should you do next?

A. set Proxy Use to Use All Proxies; set Effects to All On; set Motion Blur to On for Checked Layers; set Color Depth to16 bits per channel; select Length of Comp for Time Span
B. set Proxy Use to Use No Proxies; set Effects to All On; set Motion Blur to On for Checked Layers; set Color Depth to16 bits per channel; select Length of Comp for Time Span
C. set Proxy Use to Use All Proxies; set Effects to All On; set Motion Blur to On for Checked Layers; set Color Depth to 32 bits per channel; select Length of Comp for Time Span
D. set Proxy Use to Use No Proxies; set Effects to All On; set Motion Blur to On for Checked Layers; set Color Depth to 32 bits per channel; select Length of Comp for Time Span

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
Click the Exhibit button.
You are working on a composition that contains four layers as shown in the exhibit. The top two layers are 2D and the bottom two layers are 3D.
Which statement about the order in which After Effects renders these layers is true?

A. The 3D layers are rendered first as a set according to their spatial order. 2D layers are rendered next in the order in which they are listed in the Timeline panel, starting at the top of the list.
B. The 3D layers are rendered first as a set according to their spatial order. 2D layers are rendered next in the order in which they are listed in the Timeline panel, starting at the bottom of the list.
C. The 2D layers are rendered first in the order in which they are listed in the Timeline panel, starting at the top of the list. 3D layers are rendered next according to the order they are listed in the Timeline panel, starting at the top of the list.
D. The 3D layers are rendered first according to the order they are listed in the Timeline panel starting at the bottom of the list. 2D layers are rendered next in the order in which they are listed in the Timeline panel, starting at the bottom of the list.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
By default, which color space setting does After Effects use?
A. None
B. SDTV
C. Adobe RGB
D. sRGB IEC61966-2.1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
Which statement about the HDR Compander effect is true?
A. The HDR Compander works with both 8bpc and 16bpc footage.
B. The HDR Compander effect does NOT affect the range of values in the footage.
C. The HDR Compander effect gives you a way to work with effects that do not support HDR without sacrificing the high dynamic range of your image.
D. The HDR Compander effect works by first expanding the shadow values in the HDR image. When you are finished, the effect is applied to adjust the dynamic range back to the original value.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
When applying a 16bpc effect to HDR footage, _____.
A. pixels may blur
B. color channels may shift
C. HDR values may be removed
D. color channels may become inverted

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
How should you pre-compose if you want to allow a solid layer with the Fractal Noise effect applied to be used as a displacement map for video footage?
A. pre-compose just the solid layer using the Move All Attributes option and apply the Displacement Map effect to the footage layer, using the new nested composition as the displacement map
B. pre-compose just the solid layer using the Leave All Attributes option and apply the Displacement Map effect to the footage, using the new nested composition as the displacement map
C. pre-compose both layers together using the Leave All Attributes option, and then apply the Displacement Map effect to the new nested layer, using itself as the displacement map
D. pre-compose just the footage layer using the Move All Attributes option and apply the Displacement Map effect to the new nested composition, using the solid layer as the displacement map

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
How many available markers does the Composition Marker Bin contain?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 128
D. unlimited

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
The composition’s rendering plug-in directly affects the way in which After Effects handles _____.
A. the interaction of all 3D layers
B. the rendering quality of any third-party plug-ins
C. compression algorithms when rendering the final video
D. the precision of color and brightness seen in a RAM Preview

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
You are given a 150-frame 3D logo animation in PAL format to be used in the corner of a Standard Definition Widescreen PAL video, using the SMPTE time code base. Which settings should you use?
A. Duration: 00:00:05:00, FPS: 24, Resolution 720×576 (PAR 1.42)
B. Duration: 00:00:05:00, FPS: 30, Resolution 720×576 (PAR 1.2)
C. Duration: 00:00:06:00, FPS: 25, Resolution 720×576 (PAR 1.2)
D. Duration: 00:00:06:00, FPS: 25, Resolution 720×576 (PAR 1.42)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 112
You want to create a QuickTime animation that will be composited later.
How should you set up the background of your composition to ensure the best compositing results?

A. You must use a single-color solid layer as your background.
B. You must have NOTHING visible in the background of your composition.
C. You must ensure that your background color is set to either pure blue or green.
D. You must enable the toggle transparency grid option so that NO BG color is displayed.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
What is the purpose of the Composition button in the Timeline?
A. it opens or closes the current composition window
B. it brings forward the Composition window associated with the current timeline
C. it creates a new composition the same size and length as the current composition
D. it creates a composition from the currently selected layers by pre-composing them while nesting them in the current composition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
What is the purpose of the Shutter Angle in the Composition Settings dialog box?
A. It affects the shadow intensity cast by a Light layer.
B. It affects the shadow diffusion cast by a Light layer.
C. It affects the intensity of Motion Blur applied to a layer.
D. It affects the brightness intensity applied to a Light layer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
Which statement about transparency in After Effects is true?
A. If you import one layer from a Photoshop file, After Effects imports the layer mask as a straight alpha channel.
B. After Effects does NOT support Hue, Saturation, Color, or Exclusion blending modes applied to a Photoshop file.
C. If you import a layered Photoshop file as footage, After Effects merges the transparent areas and layer masks of all layers into one alpha channel premultiplied with black.
D. When you import a Photoshop file as a composition, vector masks are NOT converted to After Effects masks. You must copy and paste masks from Photoshop to After Effects to edit them.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
You have unchecked the preference Preserve Constant Vertex Count When Editing Masks. If you delete any mask vertices at a given keyframe, how will it affect the overall animation of the mask?
A. It will create a new mask on the same layer containing only the deleted points.
B. It will delete every iteration of the same vertices throughout the mask’s animation.
C. It will tell After Effects to alter only the number of mask vertices at the current frame.
D. It will delete the vertices, but keep the order of the vertex points the same, preserving interpolation.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button.
You create the composition shown in the exhibit. You want to play the movie inside the foot and use the
beach image as the background.
What should you do?
A. choose Alpha Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
B. choose Luma Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
C. choose Alpha Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
D. choose Luma Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer

Correct Answer: D

With the complete collection of Adobe 9A0-060 Questions and Answers, Flydumps has assembled to take you through Questions and Answers to your Adobe 9A0-060 Exam preparation. In the Adobe 9A0-060 exam resources, you will cover every field of Adobe 9A0-060 exam helping to ready you for your successful Adobe Certification.

Adobe 9A0-060 Dumps, The Most Recommended Adobe 9A0-060 Demo Download Online Sale

Continue Reading

Apple 9L0-004 PDF-Answers, Recenty Updated Apple 9L0-004 Certification Material Provider For Download

We are committed on providing you with the latest and most Apple 9L0-004 exam preparation products.If you want to pass Apple 9L0-004 exam successfully, do not miss to read latest Apple 9L0-004 Questions Answers on Flydumps.

QUESTION 94
An eMac (USB 2.0) is displaying a flashing question mark at startup. When you start up the computer from a known-good bootable external FireWire hard drive the internal hard drive does not appear on the desktop. What is the recommended order in which to attempt the following troubleshooting steps on the internal hard drive?
1.
Replace the hard drive.

2.
Reinitialize the hard drive.

3.
Replace the hard drive cable.

4.
Verify the hard drive’s cable connections.

5.
Reinstall the software drivers for the hard drive.
A. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
E. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 95
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other AppleWorks files?
C. What version of AppleWorks are you using?
D. In your Mac connected to a network?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
A hard dive in a Power Mac G4 (QuickSilver) is not spinning after the computer is powered on. You have verified that the drive power cable connector has no voltage by using a voltmeter. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. Hard Drive
B. Hard Drive Data Cable
C. Power Supply Assembly
D. Cable Harness Assembly

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Which THREE of the following computers uses Serial ATA hard drive technology? Select three.
A. Power Mac G4 (FW 800)
B. Power Mac G5 (Uni 1.6GHz)
C. Power Mac G5 (Dual 2.0 GHz)
D. Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Drive Doors)
E. Power Mac G5 (June 2004 Dual 2.5 GHz)

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 98
A customer states that he has never been able to burn DVD’s with his eMac (USB 2.0), yet his friend has an identical-looking eMac (USB 2.0) that can burn DVD’s. You have verified that the customer’s eMac (USB 2.0) has a DVD / CD-RW Combo optical drive and is running the latest version of Mac OS X. The eMac has no other problems. What is the probable cause is this issue?
A. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires more RAM.
B. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires a firmware update.
C. The Combo drive is not capable of burning DVD’s.
D. The eMac (USB 2.O) optical drive is malfunctioning.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You are working on an eMac that has no video on its built-in display. The fan is spinning, and there is drive activity present. You have tried resetting PRAM, booting to a known-good CD, and resetting the PMUm but the issue persists. You have also connected a known-good external VGA monitor to the eMac’s video out port, but failed to see any video on the external display. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. CRT
B. Logic Board
C. Power Supply
D. Display / Analog Assembly

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Which THREE of the following symptoms would be best resolved by performing a PMU reset as a first step? (Choose three)
A. Network / Internet connectivity issue.
B. No power / computer does not function.
C. Cursor randomly freezes on the display.
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function.
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 101
Which TWO of the following features are part of the Universal Motherboard Architecture in Apple desktop computers? (Choose two)
A. VGA
B. USB
C. FireWire
D. Target Disk Mode
E. Power Manager 2.0
F. Hardware DVD decoding

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 102
A Power Mac G5 fails to start up, and the status light on the front of the computer flashes three times. What does this indicate?
A. Thermal failure
B. No startup disk found
C. Firmware v3.0 upgrade required
D. No RAM bank passed memory testing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Which of the following Power Mac G5 internal fans can only be replaced by replacing the entire G5 enclosure?
A. Front inlet fan
B. Rear exhaust fan
C. Media blower / fan
D. Speaker / fan assembly
E. Power supply fan assembly
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which TWO of the following computers can accept a 184-pin DDR333 PC2700 SDRAM DIMM? (Choose two)
A. iMac (Flat Panel)
B. eMac (USB 2.0)
C. Power Mac G5 (Uni 1.6Ghz)
D. Power Mac G5 (Dual 2.0 Ghz)
E. Power Mac G5 (June 2004 Dual 2.5 Ghz)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 105
What is the function of the PMU in an Apple desktop computer?
A. The PMU controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The PMU controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The PMU manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The PMU manages all communication with attached peripherals.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
A Power Mac G5 sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an application. You have verified the symptom, have already attempted to force the application to quit, but the computer remains unresponsive.
What should you try next?
A. Hold the mouse button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
B. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
C. Disconnect and reconnect all peripherals to reset the Open Firmware Device Tree.
D. Disconnect the power cord and the backup battery for several minutes to reset the PMU.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
The fans inside a customer’s Power Mac G5 seem to constantly run at full speed after a repair involving logic board replacement. What should be done FIRST to correct this problem?
A. Replace the processor(s).
B. Run Apple Service Diagnostic.
C. Replace the fans inside the Power Mac G5.
D. Replace the Power Mac G5 logic board again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting an eMac system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profile
E. Apple Hardware Test
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
A Macintosh can start up from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of MAC OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and the option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
What is the first step to take if you have an iMac (Flat Panel) that constantly ejects any CD / DVD that is inserted?
A. Replace the optical drive.
B. Replace the optical drive cable.
C. Replace the optical drive bezel.
D. Disconnect all peripheral devices, especially the mouse.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 111
A customer needs to transfer data from her eMac for use on her Power Mac G5, but the eMac fails to start up completely due to a video issue.
Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive from the eMac and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The eMac will need to be replaced before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the eMac into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the eMac and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the eMac into Target Disk Mode and connect the eMac and Power Mac G5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 112
A Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM.
B. Try to start up from a bootable CD or DVD.
C. Reinitialize the hard disk and reinstall the Mac OS.
D. Replace the internal hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an eMac (USB 2.0)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 114
You have just completed replacing a logic board in an iMac (Flat Panel) and are reassembling the computer. Which of the following special tools is recommended during this reassembly?
A. CRT discharge tool
B. Torque screwdriver
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by _________.
A. Visually inspecting them for damage.
B. Replacing them with known-good parts in any order.
C. Adding more known-good parts in a specified order.
D. Replacing them with known-good parts in specified order.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. Logic Board
E. Power Cable
F. Power Supply
G. Front Panel Board
H. Processor with Heatsink

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of ______ within computers.
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to_____.
A. Boot the system into Mac OS 9.
B. Boot the system into Mac OS X.
C. Boot the system into Open Firmware diagnostics.
D. Hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 119
You are using component isolation to troubleshoot a Power Mac G4 (Quicksilver).
You have already reduced the computer to the appropriate minimal configuration.
You have just installed a known-good video card and have attached a known-good external VGA display to it. Upon startup, you see a flashing question mark on the VGA display, but you hear no startup chime. What signals or power could be missing to cause this problem?
A. Timing signals to the processor through the logic board.
B. Power to the memory subsystem through the logic board.
C. Backup battery voltage to the PMU through the logic board.
D. Audio signals to the speaker through the front panel board.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 120
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wriest strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 75%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 122
Which FOUR of the following actions helps reduce the risk of damage from ESD? (Choose four)
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ACDE

All our Cisco products are up to date! When you buy any Apple 9L0-004 product from Certpaper, as “Apple 9L0-004 Questions & Answers with explanations”, you are automatically offered the Apple 9L0-004 updates for a total of 90 days from the day you bought it. If you want to renew your Apple 9L0-004 purchase during the period of these 90 days, your Apple 9L0-004 product is renewed and you are further enabled to enjoy the free Cisco updates.

Continue Reading

Cisco 642-996 PDF Dumps, Prepare for the Cisco 642-996 Exam Download With Low Price

Flydumps Cisco 642-996 exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books,but logic is the main key of success,and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION: 20
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. LISP
C. HSRP
D. VDC
E. VRF

Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 22 The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. Cisco ISO ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 23 The classical access layer has its limitations due to a high value in which of the following items?
A. oversubscription
B. jitter
C. cost
D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet links

Answer: A
QUESTION: 24 Your customer is designing a new data center and would like the aggregation layer to be able to route and have Layer 3 capability. What Cisco platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5596 without Layer 3 daughter card
C. Cisco MDS 9506 chassis with supervisor engine
D. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with Enterprise Services Package

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25 Which technology provides additional scalability and simplification of an Ethernet network, providing more efficient forwarding and eliminating the need for the Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. OTV
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. FabricPath

Answer: D
QUESTION: 26 Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active- active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 27 Classical aggregation layer designs do not provide isolation of the control and data planes. What provides a solution to this limitation?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. ISSU
D. HSRP

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28 What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 29
What are the benefits of an Adapter FEX?

A. requires fewer adapters, cables, network ports, and network devices
B. provides the ability to VMware VMotion across data centers
C. reduces complexity in the data center
D. works with the IEEE 802.1RB standard

Answer: A
QUESTION: 30
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?

A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?

A. Cisco Adapter FEX extends the Cisco FEX technology into a traditional rack servers MoR design.
B. An EoR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX extends VDCs across multiple Cisco Nexus switches.
D. A ToR design is not permitted with Cisco Adapter FEX.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 33
What is one required component to run FCoE?

A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
C. HBA
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34 Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR

Answer: A
QUESTION: 35 Which two technologies can overcome the link blocking feature that STP implements to ensure a loop-free topology? (Choose two.)
A. vPC
B. ISSU
C. MEC
D. NX-OS HA
E. GLBP

Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 36 Your customer would like to run FCoE in the access layer. Which fabric extender should the customer utilize in its design?
A. Cisco Nexus 2148T
B. Cisco Nexus 2224TP
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-F
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
Which Cisco Nexus switch offers possibilities for implementation of the virtual switching layer in VMware?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 2248 FEX

Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which item represents a method of increasing storage utilization efficiency?

A. thin provisioning
B. thick provisioning
C. transparent provisioning
D. hold-back provisioning
E. weighted provisioning

Answer: A
QUESTION: 39
Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
F. iSCSI

Answer: F
QUESTION: 40
What is required to allow for FCoE multihop prior to the ratification of FC-BB-6?

A. VN to VF encapsulation
B. FIP snooping
C. FCoE proxy
D. Fibre Channel bridging at FC-2
E. VE to VE tunneling

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41 What is required to be configured in VMware vCenter to allow a VM direct access to a Fibre Channel LUN?
A. DirectPath I/O
B. VM-FEX
C. Adapter FEX
D. Raw Device Mapping
E. Solid State Drive

Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one.
Which SAN topology is Cisco recommended?

A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge

Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which two Cisco MDS 9500 line cards support SME? (Choose two.)

Worried about Cisco 642-996 exam pass results? Adopt most reliable way of exam preparation that is Cisco 642-996 Questions & Answers with explanations to get reliable high Cisco 642-996 exam pass result.Flydumps definitely guarantees it!

Continue Reading

Adobe 9A0-310 Vce & PDF, First-hand Adobe 9A0-310 Exam Guide Are The Best Materials

Flydumps Adobe 9A0-310 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert, Moreover, they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the Adobe 9A0-310 exam objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the Adobe 9A0-310 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Adobe expert professionals.

QUESTION 86
What is the default resultFormat when complex data is returned by the <mx:HTTPService> class?
A. Plain text
B. Raw XML
C. An ArrayCollection.
D. A generic ActionScript tree of objects.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
You are creating a consumer object. Which event is used to handle the data that is received?
A. result
B. receive
C. message
D. subscribe

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
What type of ActionScript object is returned by default when XML data is retrieved from an HTTPService call?
A. XML
B. Array
C. URLRequest
D. ArrayCollection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
Which property of the Data Management Service causes a limited number of records to be returned from a large data set?
A. control
B. limitSet
C. paging
D. recordSetControl

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which term describes the path on which messages travel?
A. proxy
B. adapter
C. channel
D. destination

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
Which two statements about the result event in the HTTPService class are true? (Choose two.)
A. The event object generated contains a result property
B. The event object generated contains a lastResult property
C. The event is fired whether data is returned successfully or not.
D. The target property of the event object refers to the data returned.
E. The data type of the event object created is mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 92
Which is NOT a client-side RPC component?
A. AMF
B. WebService
C. HTTPService
D. RemoteObject
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
Which term describes an endpoint for a message (data) where the message will be acted upon?
A. proxy
B. adapter
C. channel
D. destination

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
You want to track information about an object that is manipulated by the Data Management Service. Which class should you use?
A. LoadEvent
B. DataStore
C. AsyncToken
D. AsyncMessage

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
You are using ActionScript 3.0. You want a property to be visible only in the class that defines it. You do NOT want this property to be inherited by any subclasses. Which access modifer should you use?
A. public
B. private
C. internal
D. protected

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Which statement declares a valid constructor for the Person class?
A. public function Person() { }
B. public static Person():void { }
C. public function Person():Void { }
D. public const function Person() { }

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
Which IViewCursor interface method moves the cursor to a bookmark?
A. seek()
B. insert()
C. findLast()
D. moveNext()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Which two statements about using custom components are true? (Choose two.)
A. Custom components do NOT need to be in a separate file.
B. Custom components can be written in either MXML or ActionScript.
C. Custom components do NOT need to define the mx namespace if it has been defined in the main application.
D. There must be a file with an <mx:Application> tag that loads the individual components.
E. Custom components do NOT require that namespaces be redefined if they are already defined in the main application.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 99
You want to use data binding with a custom property of a custom component. What must you do?
A. Use an ArrayCollection.
B. Specify the [Bindable] metatag before the property.
C. Set the source and destination using the <mx:Binding> tag
D. You should NEVER bind to custom properties of a component because this results in tight coupling.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
Which line of code correctly binds the text property of a label to the selectedValue of a RadioButtonGroup with an id of cardType?
A. <mx:Label text=cardType.selectedValue />
B. <mx:Label text=[cardType.selectedValue] />
C. <mx:Label text={cardType.selectedValue} />
D. <mx:Label text={cardType.selectedValue} />

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 101
You have retrieved this XML file using an HTTPService object with an id of myData:
<?xml version=1.0?> <employees> <dept name=Marketing><employee>Joe</employee><employee>Mary</employee> </dept> <dept name=Shipping><employee>Alice</employee><employee>Harry</employee> </dept></employees>
The resultFormat property of the HTTPService object is set to e4x. You want to extract all <employee> elements into an XMLList object regardless of which <dept> element is their parent.
Which two E4X expressions will return the desired data? (Choose two)
A. ..employee
B. myData..employee
C. myData.dept.employee
D. myData.employees..employee
E. myData.employees.dept.employee

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 102
What are two reasons for using the event based programming model in Adobe Flex? (Choose two.)
A. To identify the system resources of a user.
B. To identify the IP address of an application user.
C. To stream data synchronously into Flash Player
D. To identify when a user has interacted with the interface.
E. To identify when a component has been created, destroyed or resized.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 103
You want to handle the click event of a Button control. The id property of the Button is set to myButton. You are dispatching the event object to a custom handler method with this call to the addEventListener() method:
myButton.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, clickHandler);
You want to be able to determine whether the user held down the Alt, Shift or Ctrl keys when clicking the Button.
Which is the correct signature of the clickHandler()method?
A. clickHandler(event:Event):void
B. clickHandler(event:Event):Boolean
C. clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void
D. clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):Boolean

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
You want to call the findFirst(), findLast(), or findAny() methods of the Cursor class. Which statement must be true?
A. the ArrayCollection must be sorted
B. the ArrayCollection must be marked as [Managed]
C. the ArrayCollection must be marked as [Bindable]
D. the ArrayCollection must contain strongly typed objects

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
Your want to add your companys stock information to your Web site.
Which two types of charts are best suited to display this financial information? (Choose two.)
A. Pie
B. Plot
C. Area
D. HLOC
E. Bubble
F. Candlestick

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 106
You are creating a method named myFunction, that is designed to be used with the filterFunction property of an ArrayCollection. Which method signature should you use?
A. myFunction():Boolean { }
B. myFunction(item:Object):Boolean { }
C. myFunction(isFiltered:Boolean):Object { }
D. myFunction(item:Object, column:DataGridColumn):String

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You want improve the performance of the following simple component while maintaining the functionality of
the component. What should you do? <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<mx:VBox xmlns:mx=”http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml”>
<mx:HBox>
<mx:Label text=First Name/>
<mx:TextInput/>
<mx:Label text=Last Name>
<mx:TextInput/>
</mx:HBox> </mx:VBox>

A. Do NOT make this a separate MXML component.
B. Make the <mx:TextInput> the root of the component.
C. Replace the <mx:HBox> tag with a <mx:Canvas> tag.
D. Make the <mx:HBox> tag the root tag of the component.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
You are sorting or filtering a collection view Which method should you use to update any control or container bound to the data?
A. sort()
B. refresh()
C. initialized()
D. itemUpdated()

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 109
You want to create a new custom validator class. Which protected method of the superclass is overridden?
A. validate()
B. doValidation()
C. createChildren()
D. updateDisplayList()

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Which statement about event handlers is true?
A. Event handlers only respond to user events.
B. Event handlers only respond to system events.
C. Custom event handlers are NOT allowed in Flex.
D. Event handlers respond to system events and user events.

Correct Answer: D

Adobe 9A0-310 Questions & Answers with explanations is all what you surely want to have before taking Adobe 9A0-310. Adobe 9A0-310 Testing Engine is ready to help you to get your Adobe 9A0-310 by saving your time by preparing you quickly for the Cisco exam. If you are worried about getting your Adobe 9A0-310 certification passed and are in search of some best and useful material,Adobe 9A0-310 Q&A will surely serve you to enhance your Adobe 9A0-310 study.

Continue Reading

SAP P_SD_64 Sample Questions, Most Reliable SAP P_SD_64 Exam Guide Is Your Best Choice

Do not you know how to choose the SAP P_SD_64 exam dumps? Being worried about the changed questions? Just try Flydumps new version SAP P_SD_64 exam dumps. All the new questions and answers were added to the new dumps,visit Flydumps.com to free download SAP P_SD_64 exam!

QUESTION: 1 Your customer has added fields to the sales order item table. These should be included into Sales Information System (SIS) and SAP BW reports. How do you ensure data accuracy before activating the respective DataSource?
A. Prevent document updates
B. Lock setup table
C. Delete BW data
D. Deactivate RFC connections
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 SAP credit management allows you to use predefined analyses in the SAP BW. What is a key benefit of this strategic reporting?
A. Automatic handling of the order to cash process in managing the credit limit.
B. Monitoring credit risks and analysis of customer payment and order behavior.
C. Immediate analysis of customers to trigger alerts in the invoicing process.
D. Monitoring of delivery processes to reduce the risk of supplying a bankrupt customer.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 3 A customer is still using the Logistic Information System (LIS) but considers introducing SAP BW. After analyzing the reports, what would be a reason to keep LIS for some of the reports?
A. The BW reports are unable to handle more than twelve dimensions.
B. These LIS reports already contain interactive visual analytical views.
C. The BW is unable to handle the required authorization concept.
D. The posting of data to LIS is event controlled and allows real-time reporting.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
Sales documents are extracted from SAP ERP to SAP BW using the Logistics Cockpit.
How do you ensure that only changed documents are extracted?
A. Implement a User Exit.
B. Activate the supplied Business Add-In.
C. This requirement is met by standard functionality.
D. Reduce the frequency of extracts for sales, billing, and delivery documents.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
How do you characterize the principle of the availability check?

A. First Come – First Served
B. Last In – First Out
C. First In – First Out
D. First Expired – First Out

Answer: A
QUESTION: 6 Your customer is planning to replace the current Excel based capacity planning with an SAP based ATP solution. How do you prevent overbooking of the plant?
A. Implement an ATP check against product allocations which are designed as production capacity.
B. Implement an ATP check against replenishment lead time.
C. Implement a multi-level ATP check against component availability in PP.
D. Implement a rescheduling with ATP check.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 7 What are the advantages of an ATP check in SAP SCM compared to an ATP check in SAP ERP? (Choose two)
A. Higher system performance
B. Simultaneous access to identical products
C. Reduced master data maintenance
D. Elimination of stock shortage
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 8
Which object do you use to switch on the ATP check?

A. Requirement class
B. Checking rule
C. Requirement type
D. Strategy group

Answer: A
QUESTION: 9 Your customer is unable to post goods issue, although material availability is confirmed with ATP for that date. Shipment scheduling is carried out in SAP ECC. What is the reason?
A. The scheduling is progressive and planned receipts are evaluated at the beginning of the day.
B. The scheduling is conservative and planned receipts are evaluated at the end of the day.
C. The scheduling is total conservative and planned receipts with confirmed material availability after 12:00 p.m. are evaluated on the next day.
D. The scheduling is exact and planned receipts are evaluated at 12:00 p.m. of the day.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 10 Your customer is using ATP check including replenishment lead time which is not maintained in material master. Which time indicators are used in this case?
A. In-house production: goods receipt processing time + pick/pack time
B. External procurement: purchasing department processing time + planned delivery time
C. In-house production: in-house production time + pick/pack time
D. External procurement: planned delivery time + loading time
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Your customer is regularly facing long time periods between the creation of the delivery and the creation of the invoice for export customers. They are asking you for an option to update the export data in export invoices. What is a possible solution?
A. Activate customer BAdI in the invoice.
B. Configure standard copy control.
C. Define commodity codes.
D. Enable direct billing type access to the material export data.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
Your customer created FI documents but forgot to maintain some foreign trade data.
Where can you add missing foreign trade data?

A. It is not possible anymore
B. In the accounting document
C. In the foreign trade cockpit
D. In the controlling document

Answer: C
QUESTION: 13
How can foreign trade data be determined in a sales document?

A. They can only be determined during sales order creation.
B. They can only be maintained by master data maintenance.
C. They can be added later on in the accounting document.
D. They can be taken over from customized default values.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 14 In which areas does the Business Content that is delivered with SAP Global Trade Services (GTS)enable your customer to perform strategic reporting? (Choose two)

A. Transport processing
B. Customs processing
C. Duty rate procedure
D. Transit procedure

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 15 Your customer has implemented sales order management using all available scenarios in SAP ERP. They plan to extend their business processes by using SAP CRM. For which scenario do you advise them to use CRM?
A. Contract Management
B. Inquiry Management
C. Opportunity Management
D. Quotation Management

Answer: C
QUESTION: 16 How do you enable campaign determination for sales orders in SAP ERP using campaigns from SAP CRM? (Choose two)
A. Maintain the campaign determination procedure in ERP.
B. Download the campaign determination procedure from CRM to ERP.
C. Maintain condition records for campaign determination in ERP.
D. Activate campaign determination in ERP.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 17
The customer wants to exclude taxes for special transactions like goods movement,
goods receipt purchase order, and goods receipt production order. What is required to
implement this?

A. Define tax determination for each tax condition.
B. Define tax codes for non-tax relevant transactions.

C. Exclude tax codes using responsibilities in an access sequence.
D. Exclude tax codes in the condition type using formulas.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 18 The customer wants to see the reference number of the SD billing documents in the FI documents. Which implementation strategy do you recommend?
A. Use the foreseen customer exit to provide the number to the FI document.
B. Use a modification with a user exit to include the number in the FI document.
C. Use the customizing of the copy control to copy the number from the billing document.
D. Use one of the standard fields that are not used in the billing and the FI document to store and populate the number.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 19 A customer uses make-to-order production with assembly processing. How do you schedule a sales order when components are already produced and procured?
A. Create a production order directly from the sales order.
B. Use a planning run to generate a planning order for the sales order.
C. Explode the bill of material and plan dependent demands for the sales order.
D. Use heuristic planning for material reservation of the sales order.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 20 Your customer uses make-to-order production and assembly. When an item is deleted from a sales order, the production order for this item is not deleted. What do you identify as the reason?
A. The stock level is high enough that the receipt is not necessary for order fulfillment.
B. The production order was created manually for the sales order.
C. The production order was created from the sales order.
D. The production order was created through a planning run in PP.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21 A customer orders a product with customer specific features. A bill of material and routing exist, so the product can be produced. Which process ensures that receipts will be reserved for this sales order?
A. Demand planning in the individual customer segment
B. Sales order check against planning so that the independent customer requirement will reserve the receipt
C. Order processing without rescheduling with fixed delivery date and quantity indicator
D. Product allocation for the sales area to limit the availability check

Answer: A
QUESTION: 22 Since release 4.5A, you can valuate the materials for the sales order together with the materials for the make-to-stock inventory. Prerequisite is that the costs have been collected on a specific order. Which one?
A. Sales Order
B. Planned Order
C. Purchase Order
D. Production Order

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 For which type of products does it makes sense to do an availability check against forecast?
A. Products for which enough independent demand is available to meet the customer demand.
B. Bottleneck products.
C. Products for which demand and production planning are strongly connected.
D. Products with low demand.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
What is the goal of the planning strategy ‘Planning with final assembly’?

A. To execute the planning once a year
B. To meet the requirements after creating a delivery
C. To trigger the procurement for specific sales orders
D. To trigger the provisioning without a specific sales order

Answer: D
QUESTION: 25
What differentiates consumption based planned and demand-driven planned material?

A. For consumption based planned material, the whole order quantity is always confirmed.
B. For demand-driven planned material, the whole order quantity is always confirmed.
C. For consumption based planned material, a production order is always created.
D. For demand-driven planned material, a production order is always created.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
What is the main goal of introducing the make-to-stock process?

A. To enable planning for a long period
B. To be independent from customers orders
C. To be always able to deliver
D. To have a high efficiency

Answer: C
QUESTION: 27 Your customer has implemented a manual order-to-cash process. What is required to automate order creation and processing?

A. Set up EDI input handling and automate background jobs.
B. Implement a user exit and automate copy control.
C. Set up EDI input handling and automate pricing.
D. Automate background jobs and copy control.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 28 How do you recommend reducing delivery delays in the supply chain to avoid increased cost and customer dissatisfaction?
A. Improve the service level by increasing the safety stock.
B. Introduce supplier and vendor managed inventory.
C. Outsource component manufacturing to the suppliers.
D. Increase stock monitoring through online ATP check.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
What is a result of introducing EDI?

A. Increased billing performance
B. Increased data quality
C. Increased reporting capabilities
D. Increased delivery performance

Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
A company asks for an automatic availability check for stock in different locations.
Which SAP solution do you recommend that they introduce?

A. ECC
B. SCM
C. CRM
D. BI
Answer: B

QUESTION: 31 Retrieving inbound delivery schedules for a scheduling agreement takes a very long time. What do you identify as possible reason for the low performance?
A. The scheduling agreement has different items.
B. The inbound delivery schedules are checked by ATP.
C. The inbound delivery schedules have many items.
D. The scheduling agreement still refers to a previously rejected scheduling agreement.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
Today, companies have to act similarly to a bank and give credit to their customers.
How can SAP Credit Management support this role?

A. By doing online identification of bankrupt companies via standard connection to the commercial register
B. By enabling online credit check at order, delivery, and goods issue for fast credit decisions
C. By checking the reliability of the business partner during the order to cash process
D. By checking online the revenue recognition of new customer prior to doing business with them

Answer: B
QUESTION: 33 Your customer is considering the introduction of the Extended Rebate processing functionality and wants to ensure a payment to more than one rebate recipient. How do you fulfill this requirement?
A. Implement a customer hierarchy and use variable keys.
B. Enhance the range of the assigned partner roles.
C. Specify a verification level that is related to Extended Rebate.
D. Set up the Pendulum List component.
Answer: A

In addition to ensuring that you are presented with only the best and the most updated SAP P_SD_64 study materials, we also want you to be able to access them simply, whenever you need. Flydumps.com offers all our SAP P_SD_64 exam training material in Engine and PDF formats, which is a very common format found in all computers. Regardless of whichever computer you have.

SAP P_SD_64 Sample Questions, Most Reliable SAP P_SD_64 Exam Guide Is Your Best Choice

Continue Reading

Apple 9L0-207 Guide Provider, Most Popular Apple 9L0-207 Vce Files With The Knowledge And Skills

New VCE and PDF– You can prepare Apple 9L0-207 exam in an easy way with Flydumps Apple 9L0-207 questions and answers.By training our vce dumps with all Apple 9L0-207 the latest questions,you can pass the exam in the first attempt.

QUESTION 65
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You can start up a Macintosh from either Software Restore or Software Install discs.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
A customer brings her iBook G4 (Late 2004) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known-good disc to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
What is the purpose of Sudden Motion Sensor technology used in the newer PowerBook G4 models?
A. It physically locks the PowerBook down while it is activated.
B. It helps prevent hard drive failures if the computer is dropped.
C. It helps conserve energy by sensing when the hard disk spins up too often.
D. It Changes all Mac OS X location settings based upon your current GPS location.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
A customer’s iBook G4 (Late 2004) will not charge when the AC adapter is plugged in.
You test the iBook with a known good battery and known good A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. DC board
B. Logic board
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Exhibit:

What is the module shown in the exhibit?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Wrist strap and cord
D. Static-shielding bags
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 79
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode?
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 82
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disk to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) fails to start up completely due to a video issue. Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power MacG5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
A Macintosh can startup from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of Mac OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM
B. Try to startup from a bootable CD or DVD
C. Reinitialize the hard disk rein stall the Mac OS
D. Replace the internet hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You are replacing the logical board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). Which of the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Torque screwdriver
B. Nylon probe tool
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
A customer reports that her PowerBook G4 (DVI) shuts down intermittently – sometime immediately after startup. Which of the following is the FIRST step you should take to correct the issue?
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Rest the PMU.
C. Disconnect all external peripherals.
D. Check battery connection to the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBook and iBook?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his iBook G4 using a dialup modem connection. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the iBook’s modem port.
B. The customer’s iBook is not configured with a modem.
C. The iBook is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
You are attempting to share between your iBook (Early 2004) and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend still cannot access files on your iBook. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The file on your iBook must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your iBook and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the iBook and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary screen of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? (Select three)
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave, oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 96
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? (Select two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with.
A. tow wires (one pair) present.
B. four wires (two pairs) present.
C. six wires (three pairs) present.
D. all eight wires (four pairs) present.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly install AirPort Extreme Card?
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 99
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires ________.
A. two or more AirPort clients
B. two ore more AirPort Base Stations
C. version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software
D. an AirPort Base Station and AirPort client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSLor Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Exhibit

What is the module shown in this picture?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
A customer brings her iBook (32 VRAM) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known- – good CD to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet after connecting his new PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1GHz) to his cable modem via Ethernet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the computer’s Ethernet port.
B. The computer is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
C. A faulty cable was used to connect the computer and the cable modem.
D. The cable modem’s Ethernet port is not computer with the computer ‘s Ethernet port.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which THREE of the following iBook or PowerBook can accept a 144-pin DDR266PC2100 SDRAM SO-DIMM?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook (Early 2003)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
E. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
F. PowerBook G4 (12-inch DVI)
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 106
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 107
A customer’s iBook will not charge when the A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. Logic board
B. DC-in switch
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his iBook G4(Early 2004). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. User’s Manual
C. Specifications
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s iBook G4. Which of the following would be the choice Apple recommends for you to research the problem and possibly locate a solution or workaround for the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s Manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which section of the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.33GHz) Service Manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a DC-in board?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
According to apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Where is the BEST place to look for information about any special hardware repair tool required for disassembly of an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service Name
C. User’s Manual
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. Is this the first time you have had this problem?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
To isolate a video problem to hardware or software on a PowerBook G4 (17-inch), which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Connect an external VGA display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup disc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
An iBook (900MHz 32 VRAM) powers on with a normal startup chime. But the LCD display seems dark. Upon closer examination with a flashlight you notice that
the LCD is displaying a faint image of the finder desktop. Which one of the following modules is MOST likely at fault?
A. LCD display panel
B. Inverter board
C. DC in board
D. Logic board

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
A PowerBook G4 (17-inch) has a malfunctioning logic board. You replace the logic board. Which of the following diagnostic utilities should you run to verify that the new logic board is functioning properly?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Disk First Aid
C. Tech Tool Deluxe
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that ______
A. No new issues have arisen.
B. Third-party software is working.
C. The original issue has been resolved.
D. The computer falls under service warranty.
E. System Preferences settings are set correctly.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 118
Which of the following is the best way to eject a disc when normal methods for ejecting it, such as using the Mac OS Desktop or the keyboard, have not succeeded?
A. Boot into Open Firmware and type ‘reset-nvram’.
B. Restart the computer while holding down the track pad button.
C. Remove and disassemble the optical drive to remove the disk.
D. Remove the computer’s front bezel and manually pry the disc out of the drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which one of the following troubleshooting steps is NOT appropriate when
troubleshooting an iBook or PowerBook with on video on its built-in display?
A. Hold a bright light against the screen.
B. Check if brightness settings are all the way down.
C. Connect an external display to the iBook or PowerBook.
D. Check the network setting on the iBook or PowerBook.
E. Check the internal video cables & connectors for damage.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
A customer’s PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) fails to power on with a known-good power adapter connected and plugged in. Which of the following steps should be tried FIRST?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the DC-in Board.
C. Run Apple Service diagnostic.
D. Perform a keyboard PMU reset.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
You are troubleshooting an iBook (G4) that will not boot, and emits error tones when powered on. You suspect that the customer may have installed incompatible or faulty RAM, but you aren’t sure. What should you do to verify the RAM requirements for this iBook (G4)?
A. Call Apple
B. Order Apple RAM
C. Check Specifications
D. Count the RAM sockets on the logic board.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 122
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTIANLY a software-related problem?
A. No video on display
B. Low disk space warning
C. Single beep at startup
D. No Internet connectivity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other AppleWorks file?
C. What version of AppleWorks are you using?
D. Is your Mac connected to network?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You have replaced the optical drive in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). In what THREE ways should you test the repair before returning the system to the customer?
A. Leave the computer on overnight.
B. Verify that the original symptom is resolved.
C. Verify that no new symptoms have occurred.
D. Start up the computer in target Disk mode to test the internal hard drive.
E. Run all Apple Service Diagnostic tests for the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz)
F. Run Apple Service Diagnostic optical drive tests for the PowerBook G4(12-inch 1 GHz)

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 125
A PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) has the following symptom: The cursor does not move when the trackpad is used. You have verified that all peripherals have been disconnected and have booted from the Software Install all and restore DVD to verify that it is not a software problem. What is the recommended order in which to attempt the next troubleshooting steps? <1> Replace logic board <2> Check trackpad flex cable connection to logic board.
<3> Reset Power Manager.
<4>
Replace top case.

A.
1,4,3,2

B.
2,3,1,4

C.
3,2,4,1

D.
4,3,1,2

Correct Answer: C

Looking to become a certified Cisco professional? Would you like to reduce or minimize your Apple 9L0-207 certification cost? Do you want to pass all of the Apple 9L0-207 certification? If you answered YES, then look no further. Flydumps.com offers you the best Microsoft exam certification test questions which cover all core topics and certification requirements.

Apple 9L0-207 Guide Provider, Most Popular Apple 9L0-207 Vce Files With The Knowledge And Skills

Continue Reading