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QUESTION 43
How can a variable in Flash movie be dynamically set at the time the movie loads?
A. Use the #include directive
B. Append the variable in URL encoded form (myMovie.swf?foo=bar)
C. Can’t dynamically set at the time of load
D. Use the loadAtRun() function

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
What are correct statements concerning text fields?(Chose two.)
A. Font outlines for dynamic text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
B. Embedded font outlines are shared by text fields using the same font
C. Font outlines for static for static text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
D. Font outlines for input text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
E. Individual font outlines are embedded into the SWF file for each text field in the FLA file.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 45
What assigns the my_mc MovieClip’s height to the value of 100 if the variable myProperty=”_height”;?
A. my_mc.”myProperty” = 100;
B. my_mc[“myProperty”] = 100;
C. my_mc[myProperty] = 100;
D. my_mc.myProperty = 100;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
What statement creates a local variable that is destroyed after the function has completed execution?
A. set myValue=5;
B. var myValue=5;
C. dim myValue=5;
D. local myValue=5;

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
What property of myMC is referenced to rotate a MovieClip instance named myMC using ActionScript?
A. myMC.offset
B. myMC._degrees
C. myMC._rotation
D. myMC.rotate
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct?(Choose two.)
A. The Hit State of a Button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
B. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the Main Timeline or parent MovieClip Symbol instance
C. Graphic symbol instances may be directly controlled using ActionScript
D. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main Timeline
E. If a fill Color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that graphic symbol are changed
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 49
What is true when using the duplicateMovieClip() Method?
A. Duplicated movie clip can have a different parent than the source movie clip
B. _visible property of a movie clip is set to true upon duplication
C. Tow movie clips can exists at the same depth and have the same parent provided they have unique instance names
D. Movie clip that is at a depth of 4 will appear to be in front (or on top of) a moview clip that has a depth of 7

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
What video format is NOT supported?
A. .MOV
B. .MPEG
C. .DivX
D. .AVI

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct?(Choose two.)
A. The Hit State of a Button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
B. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main Timeline
C. Graphic symbol instances may be directly controlled using ActionScript
D. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the Main Timeline or parent MovieClip Symbol instance
E. If a fill Color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that graphic symbol are changed

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 52
A Button instance is named circle_btn. ActionScript is placed on the main Timeline so that when the button is clicked a movie clip instance named rec_mc’s width is changed to 100. What is the code to perform this action?
A. circle_btn.onRelease=function() { this.width=100;}
B. circle_btn.onRelease=function() { rec_mc.width=100;}
C. circle_btn.onRelease { rec_mc._width=100;}
D. circle_btn.onRelease=function { rec_mc.width=100;}

Correct Answer: QUESTION 53
Which methods returns an unused depth value within a MovieClip Object?
A. getNewDepth
B. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the main Timeline or parent MovieClip symbol instance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What native object allows two separate flash movies to communicate with each other?
A. LocalObject
B. SharedConnection
C. LocalConnection

D. SharedObject Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
What methods are used to pass variables out of flash to a server side solution? (Choose three.)
A. LoadVars
B. GotoAndStop
C. #include
D. getURL
E. LoadMovie

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 56
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Graphic symbol instances my be directly controlled using ActionScript
B. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main timeline
C. The Hit state of a button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
D. If a fill color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that Graphic symbol are changed
E. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the main Timeline or parent MovieClip symbol instance.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 57
What is the advantage of the progressive video download?
A. Delivery of media is more secure than streaming video, because media does not get saved to the client’s cache when streamed
B. The frame rate of the video file can be different from the frame rate of the SWF file
C. To play the progressively downloaded video, the entire movie must be downloaded before the video will start to play
D. It uses less of the client’s memory and disk space than the streaming video download

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
What class is used to access the video of a web-cam?
A. InputOutput Class
B. Camera Class
C. Display Class
D. Video Class
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Where must ActionScript classes be loaded?
A. External Files
B. Top Layer of timeline
C. Components
D. Frame 1 of_root
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
What publish setting causes the bandwidth profiler to be inaccurate?
A. Generate Size Report
B. Flash with SCROM Tracking
C. Export Device Sounds
D. GIF
E. Protect From Import
F. Compress Movie

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 61
What class has an addListener() method?
A. Array
B. MovieClip
C. Button
D. Mouse

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What method of the TextField.StyleSheet class is used to add a new style to a style sheet object?
A. setStyle();
B. addStyleSheet();
C. addStyle();
D. setNewCSS();

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
What is the most highly processor intensive animation technique?
A. Onion Skinning
B. Alpha effects
C. Motion tween
D. Brightness Effects

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
When importing a FreeHand or illustrator file that contains a gradient fill with more than eight colors, what is used to simulate the appearance of a gradient fill?
A. Clipping Path
B. Gradient Path
C. Target Path
D. Radial Path

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
What built in class is used to add items to the custom menu that appears when the user “right-clicks” (PC) or “Control-Clicks” (MAC) on a Flash Movie?
A. Capabilities Class
B. Accessibility Class
C. Object Class
D. ContextMenu Class

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
What defines a class named “car” that receives additional methods and properties from a superclass named “vehical”?
A. class Car inherits Vehicle{}
B. class Car extends Vehicle{}
C. class Car uses Vehicle{}
D. class Car derives Vehicle{}

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
What should be kept to a minimum in any flash file in order to enhance playback
optimization? (Choose two.)
A. Alpha Transparency
B. Gradients
C. Graphic symbols
D. Layers
E. Device Fonts

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 68
How are specific frames designated as printable from the macromedia flash player?
A. set Page Setup in the Macromedia Flash Program
B. Set Formats in the Publish settings
C. Assign each frame the label “#P”
D. Place an onPrint action on each frame
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
What is needed when using static text to have font outlines embed in the SWF file?
A. Select New Font in the Library Panel Menu
B. Select the alias Button in the properties Panel
C. Nothing, font outlines are embedded by default
D. Select the Character button in the properties panel and specify which characters to embed
E. Select use device fonts in the properties panel
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
What method creates a MovieClip symbol with an instance name of “MyMovie” ?
A. myMovie.duplicateMovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
B. myMovie=new MovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
C. myMovie.createEmptyMovieClip(“my_mc”,1);
D. this.attachMovie (“myMovie”,”my_mc”,1);
Correct Answer: D

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Adobe 9A0-310 Cert, 50% OFF Adobe 9A0-310 PDF Dumps With The Knowledge And Skills

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QUESTION 68
Which development task would most likely be part of building loosely coupled MXML components?
A. invoking the dispatchEvent() method
B. assigning a reference to the owner property
C. extending the flash.events.Dispatcher class
D. implementing the IFlexDisplayObject interface

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which statement best describes the Model-View-Controller design pattern?
A. It does NOT promote code reuse
B. Alternative user interfaces are difficult to add
C. It combines the code responding to user input with the code rendering the interface
D. It promotes maintainability by providing separation of concerns within code

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which statement about the dispatchEvent() method is true?
A. It automatically dispatches an event object.
B. It can only be used with the Application class.
C. It can be used for both custom and other events.
D. It returns the type property value of the event object.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
A Flex application contains a custom event object eventObj: var eventObj:Event = new Event(myCustomEvent); Which line of code correctly triggers this event?
A. eventObj.dispatch();
B. dispatchEvent(eventObj);
C. eventObj.dispatchEvent();
D. dispatchEvent(eventObj);

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Click the Exhibit button.
Which ActionScript class definition represents the UML class diagram?
A. class Employee { private var empName:String; public function CalcSalary():int { … }
B. class Employee {
public var empName:String;
private function CalcSalary():int {

}

C. class Employee { private var empName:String; protected function CalcSalary():int { … }
D. class Employee { public var empName:String; protected function CalcSalary():int { … }

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Which attribute prevents a class method from being visible within a sub-class?
A. public
B. internal
C. private
D. protected

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
On which object or component can the addEventListener() method can be used?
A. Only on custom components.
B. Any object that displays in the Flash player.
C. Only on an event object if the bubbles property is set to true.
D. Only if the custom component has been created in ActionScript

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Which software design pattern reduces method call volume by encapsulating multiple data attributes in a single object?
A. Factory
B. Singleton
C. Assembler
D. Transfer Object
E. Data Access Object

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Given two loosely-coupled MXML components, C1 and C2, which code fragment best illustrates how C2 would be notified that data in C1 has changed?
A. parentDocument.info = info
B. parentDocument.C2.onC1Change(info)
C. dispatchEvent(new InfoChangedEvent(info))
D. DataService.getInstance().storeInfo(info)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which design pattern is followed by an ActionScript class that uses the [RemoteClass] metatag?
A. Singleton
B. Assembler
C. Data Access Object
D. Data Transfer Object

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Given the following code snippet:
Which value would be traced to the console?
A. FRED
B. Fred
C. Fred Friendly
D. An error or strict-mode warning would occur

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
Which is contained in a .jar file?
A. XML data files in an archived format
B. the Java Virtual Machine used in a J2EE server
C. a set of pre-compiled Java classes in an archived format
D. all configuration and application files in a J2EE web application in an archived format

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
Which MXML tag contains custom event declarations?
A. Style
B. Model
C. Script
D. Metadata

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the relationship between the two classes in the UML diagram?
A. Shape extends Circle
B. Circle extends Shape
C. Shape implements Circle
D. Circle implements Shape

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Which item controls how Flex Data Services works with a particular interface, like a CFC or Java object.?
A. proxy
B. channel
C. adapter
D. destination

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
Which RPC service has a load event that is dispatched once the service object is loaded?
A. WebService
B. HTTPService C. RemoteObject
D. ObjectAccess

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
You are making a RemoteObject call and sending parameters explicitly. Which syntax should you use?
A. sandwichRO.send()
B. sandwichRO.getSanList()
C. sandwichRO.getSanList.send()
D. sandwichRO(parameter1,parameter2)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
You have set up a call to a WebService defined by <mx:WebService id=sandwichWS …> that calls a remote method named getSanList(). You want to access the returned results. Which syntax should you use?
A. sandwichWS.lastResult
B. sandwichWS.event.result
C. sandwichWS.getSanList.result
D. sandwichWS.getSanList.lastResult

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 86
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QUESTION 21
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.
QUESTION 23
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP

D. ISL
E. 802.3u Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.
QUESTION 24
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005 Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed. VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 25
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question is to check the spanning tree election problem.
1.
First, select the root bridge, which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the smallest will be selected. Bridge-id= bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that SwitchB is the root bridge.

2.
Select the root port on the non-root bridge, which can be completed through comparing root path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port.

3.
Next, select the Designated Port. First, compare the path cost, if the costs happen to be the same, then compare the BID, still the smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the exhibit above, we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is SwitchA’Fa0/1, because it has the smallest MAC address.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a trunk. The “switchport mode trunk” command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not be listed over that trunk interface.
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.
QUESTION 29
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network. To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50 seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure. RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. RSTP bridge port roles:
*
Root port ?A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost

*
Designated port ?A forwarding port for every LAN segment

*
Alternate port ?A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.

*
Backup port ?A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.

*
Disabled port ?Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port
QUESTION 30
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operates at Layer 2 Data Link layer -> .
QUESTION 31
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the interface if it is in its MAC address table. If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all interfaces except the one it was received on.
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not the root bridge ->
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> 0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC
address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1 Alternative port so it is
not the root bridge.

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A VLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. Security: VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate with them LAN Segmentation
VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2 broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN, switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.
QUESTION 34
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be no router hops involved.
QUESTION 35
Based on the network shown in the graphic Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.
QUESTION 37
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames. Correct Answer: BE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked and non-marked. Non- marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports. Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports.. Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:

SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself) with an initial value of 0. Now let’s have a look at the topology again

SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port -> Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

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QUESTION 86
You want to smooth out changes in speed across keyframes. To accomplish this, you should set _____ in the Keyframe Interpolation dialog box.
A. Spatial Interpolation to Linear
B. Temporal Interpolation to Linear
C. Spatial Interpolation to Auto Bezier
D. Temporal Interpolation to Auto Bezier

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
How do you undock a panel?
A. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) + drag the panel
B. Shift + click + drag the panel
C. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) +click + drag the panel
D. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) + Shift + drag the panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
You have created a workspace called My Workspace. After creating the workspace, you make alterations to its layout. You want to go back to your saved workspace. What should you do?
A. choose File > Revert
B. choose Edit > History > Undo
C. choose Window > Workspace > My Workspace
D. choose Window > Workspace > reset My Workspace

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You create a mask in the shape of an octagon (eight vertices) on a footage item. You want the mask shape to change during your animation to that of a five point star (10 vertices).
You set two Mask Shape keyframes and use the Smart Mask Interpolation palette to generate keyframes. What should you do next?
A. deselect Use Linear Vertex Paths
B. nothing, the shape will change automatically
C. select Add Mask Shape Vertices in the Smart Mask Interpolation palette
D. change the Quality setting in the Smart Mask Interpolation palette to 100%

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
When should you use the Pan-Behind tool?
A. when you want to have your mask stay still while your footage moves behind it
B. when you want to pan around on a 2-point camera as if it were a 1-point camera
C. when you want to adjust the anchor point of a layer without changing the position property values
D. when you want to move a layer that you CANNOT select in the Composition window because it is behind a locked layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which two statements about the OpenGL Preview are correct? (Choose two.)
A. OpenGL supports all blending modes.
B. OpenGL works with 8 bpc projects only.
C. OpenGL does NOT support tint, alpha levels and noise.
D. OpenGL provides fast screen previewing of a composition without degrading resolution.
E. When OpenGL hardware does NOT support a feature it will create a preview without that feature.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 92
Which Adobe Illustrator preference should you choose to allow for copying a path shape as a motion path or mask into After Effects?
A. Document Setup > Artboard
B. General > Object Selection by Path
C. Files and Clipboard > Copy as AICB
D. Type and Auto Tracing > Type Object Selection by Path Only

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
What is the purpose of enabling Adaptive Resolution?
A. to decrease the resolution of a composition to maintain playback speed
B. to enhance Preview performance when Fast Previews is set to Open GL – Always On
C. to enhance the quality of Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction at the cost of more processor overhead
D. to automatically adjust the composition’s current resolution when the Magnification Ratio is set to Fit

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
You want to drag and drop a folder of images from your desktop to After Effects. What should you do?
A. drag the folder from the desktop to the Project panel in After Effects
B. Shift-drag the folder from the desktop to the Project panel in After Effects
C. Alt-drag (Windows) or Option-drag (Mac OS) the folder from the desktop to the Project panel in After Effects
D. Control-drag (Windows) or Command-drag (Mac OS) the folder from the desktop to the Project panel in After Effects

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which is the correct frame size of D1/DV NTSC?
A. Your footage has a 720 x 576 frame size and your desired result is a 4:3 frame aspect ratio.
B. Your footage has a 720 x 576 frame size, and your desired result is a 16:9 frame aspect ratio.
C. Your footage has a 720 x 486 or 720 x 480 frame size and your desired result is a 4:3 frame aspect ratio.
D. Your footage has a 720 x 486 or 720 x 480 frame size and your desired result is a 16:9 frame aspect ratio.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 76
You have a radio button selected and want to move it two inches to the left. Which measurement should you change?
A. the X: value
B. the Y: value
C. the Left: Margin
D. the Right: Margin

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
Which type of form design in Adobe Designer works in conjunction with Form Server, and allows the form to grow or shrink according to the amount of data merging into it?
A. Blank Form
B. Static Form
C. Dynamic Form
D. Interactive Form

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Which design element should you use to create dynamic forms if you want to change the layout of a form in response to the amount of data that must be merged when the form is rendered?
A. Subforms
B. Content Area
C. Master Pages
D. Script Objects
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which statement about digital signatures is true?
A. Digital signatures always display on a document page.
B. Digital signatures always display in the Signatures panel.
C. Digital signatures always display in the Comments panel.
D. Digital signatures always display on a document page and in the Signatures panel.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
You have a document that has more than one digital signature applied to it. Which statement is true?
A. All the signatures will display in the Signatures panel.
B. All the signatures will display on the document pages.
C. Acrobat will create multiple documents and display them in the Organizer.
D. Acrobat will create multiple documents and display them in the Attachments panel.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
What is a Preflight profile?
A. a group of rules that describes inspection criteria for aspects of a document
B. a setting that allows you to specify the media for each component of your print job
C. a setting that allows you to specify compression, resampling and color management in a PDF document
D. a file that includes such data as media and ink requirements, production quantities, customer information, and product descriptions

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
You create a Postscript file that will be converted into a PDF document. You choose to embed the fonts into the Postscript stream. Which statement about the fonts embedded into the PDF document is true?
A. They are always embedded because they are embedded in Postscript.
B. They are only embedded if the fonts are TrueType or Postscript Type 1.
C. They are NEVER embedded because they CANNOT be embedded in Postscript and PDF.
D. They are only embedded if you select Embed All Fonts in the Adobe PDF setting’s Fonts tab.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
You have a PDF document that has fonts embedded. You want to make minor text edits. However, the fonts in the document are not installed on your system. Which action can you perform?
A. insert text
B. delete text
C. replace text
D. change text color

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
You have a PDF document that has been revised and saved to a different name and location. You need to ensure that the fonts have not changed since the revisions were made. Which option in the Compare Documents dialog box should you select in order to compare font information?
A. Side by side report
B. Textual Differences
C. Consolidated report
D. Page by page visual differences

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Which setting in the PDF Optimizer allows you to set the balance between file size and image quality of a PDF document?
A. Flatten transparency
B. Convert smooth lines to curves
C. Detect and merge image fragments
D. Optimize compression of page regions based on color content

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 86
Which tool can be used to add alternate text to an image?
A. Article tool
B. Text Field tool
C. TouchUp Text tool
D. TouchUp Reading Order tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
You have performed an accessibility check on your document. Which statement about error correction is true?
A. Errors must be corrected manually.
B. Errors are corrected automatically through the TouchUp tools.
C. Errors are corrected automatically through the Full Check feature.
D. Errors are corrected automatically by creating a corrected copy of the PDF document.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
Which should you choose to add color bars and bleed marks to a PDF document?
A. Tools > Print Production > Preflight
B. Tools > Measuring > Perimeter Tool
C. Tools > Drawing Markups > Line Tool
D. Tools > Print Production > Add Printer Marks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You are creating a PDF document from a scanner and you have checked the option to Recognize Text using OCR. Your document contains color pages with large type. What is the advantage of scanning at 200 dpi instead of 600 dpi?
A. sharper text
B. sharper images
C. faster processing
D. reduced possibility of generating suspect words Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 96
Which design element should you use to create dynamic forms if you want to change the layout of a form in response to the amount of data that must be merged when the form is rendered?
A. Subforms
B. Content Area
C. Master Pages
D. Script Objects

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
You have a Digital ID. You want others to be able to authenticate that you are the author of a document and want to prevent unauthorized users from modifying the document.
Which should you choose?
A. Advanced > Accessibility
B. Advanced > Security Settings
C. Document > Security > Secure PDF Delivery
D. Document > Digital Signatures > Sign this Document

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
Which statement about digital sigatures is true?
A. Digital signatures always display on a document page.
B. Digital signatures always display in the Signatures panel.
C. Digital signatures always display in the Comments panel.
D. Digital signatures always display on a document page and in the Signatures panel.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
You have a document that has more than one digital signature applied to it. Which statement is true?
A. All the signatures will display in the Signatures panel.
B. All the signatures will display on the document pages.
C. Acrobat will create multiple documents and display them in the Organizer.
D. Acrobat will create multiple documents and display them in the Attachments panel.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
What is a Preflight profile?
A. a group of rules that describes inspection criteria for aspects of a document
B. a setting that allows you to specify the media for each component of your print job
C. a setting that allows you to specify compression, resampling and color management in a PDF document
D. a file that includes such data as media and ink requirements, production quantities, customer information, and product descriptions

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
You create a PostScript file that will be converted into a PDF document.
You choose to embed the fonts into the PostScript stream. Which statement about the fonts embedded into the PDF document is true?
A. They are always embedded because they are embedded in PostScript.
B. They are only embedded if the fonts are TrueType or PostScript Type 1.
C. They are NEVER embedded because they CANNOT be embedded in PostScript and PDF.
D. They are only embedded if you select Embed All Fonts in the Adobe PDF setting’s Fonts tab.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 102
You have a PDF document that has fonts embedded. You want to make minor text edits. However, the fonts in the document are not installed on your system. Which action can you perform?
A. insert text
B. delete text
C. replace text
D. change text color

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
You have a PDF document that has been revised and saved to a different name and location. You need to ensure that the fonts have not changed since the revisions were made.
Which option in the Compare Documents dialog box should you select in order to compare font information?
A. Side by side report
B. Textual Differences
C. Consolidated report
D. Page by page visual differences

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
Which setting in the PDF Optimizer allows you to set the balance between file size and image quality of a PDF document?
A. Flatten transparency
B. Convert smooth lines to curves
C. Detect and merge image fragments
D. Optimize compression of page regions based on color content

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 105
You want to add a page number to the footer on all but the first page of your PDF document. The first page is an odd numbered page. Which option in the Page Options section of the Add Headers & Footers dialog box should you choose?
A. Odd Pages Only
B. Even Pages Only
C. Apply to All Pages
D. Apply to Page Range

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
Which tool can be used to add alternate text to an image?
A. Article tool
B. Text Field tool
C. TouchUp Text tool
D. TouchUp Reading Order tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You have performed an accessibility check on your document. Which statement about error correction is true?
A. Errors must be corrected manually.
B. Errors are corrected automatically through the TouchUp tools.
C. Errors are corrected automatically through the Full Check feature.
D. Errors are corrected automatically by creating a corrected copy of the PDF document.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Which should you choose to add color bars and bleed marks to a PDF document?
A. Tools > Print Production > Preflight
B. Tools > Measuring > Perimeter Tool
C. Tools > Drawing Markups > Line Tool
D. Tools > Print Production > Add Printer Marks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
You are creating a PDF document from a scanner and you have checked the option to Recognize Text using OCR. Your document contains color pages with large type. What is the advantage of scanning at 200 dpi instead of 600 dpi?
A. sharper text
B. sharper images
C. faster processing
D. reduced possibility of generating suspect words

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
After choosing File > Create PDF > From Multiple Files, you select multiple files for consolidation into a single PDF document. In which order will the selected files, displayed in the Files to Combine field of the dialog, be consolidated?
A. alphabetical order
B. the order displayed in the list
C. the sort order specified in the Organizer window
D. the sort order specified in the Convert to PDF dialog box Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. Users will print the PDF document on laser and ink jet printers. You want to maintain print quality while minimizing the file size. From Word, you choose Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings.
Which option should you choose from the Conversion Settings pull-down menu in the PDFMaker Settings panel?
A. Standard
B. High Quality
C. Press Quality
D. Smallest File Size

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
You are going to create a PDF document from a Web page. You want to capture the Web page, but not the background image. You open the HTML Conversion Settings dialog box. What should you do next?
A. deselect Convert Images
B. select Disable Media Capture
C. set the Background Color to White
D. deselect Page Tiled Image Backgrounds

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
You are customizing the settings in the Acrobat PDFMaker dialog box.
Which setting applies to all converted files using Acrobat PDFMaker regardless of the application?

A. Add Links to Adobe PDF
B. Add Bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C. Convert Document Information
D. Attach Source File to Adobe PDF

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114
You have created an Adobe Acrobat document. Due to the settings of your font vendor, some of your fonts have NOT been embedded. You give the PDF document to two co-workers who do NOT have the original font installed on their computers. What happens when they print your document?
A. The document will NOT print due to a PostScript error.
B. A Multiple Master typeface will be temporarily substituted.
C. The original font will print as a low resolution bitmapped font.
D. They will be asked to choose a font to be substituted during printing. Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 96
You want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters by using Filter Gallery. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying the gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
Which filter command should you use to remove JPEG artifacts from an image?
A. Blur > Smart Blur
B. Noise > Add Noise
C. Blur > Surface Blur
D. Noise > Reduce Noise

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
You take a picture with a digital camera using a long exposure time. You did NOT use a tripod. Which Smart Sharpen filter setting should you choose to help eliminate blurriness in the image?
A. Remove Lens Blur
B. Remove Radial Blur
C. Remove Motion Blur
D. Remove Gaussian Blur

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
You save a selection by chooseing Select > Save Selection. How is the selection saved?
A. as a style
B. as a layer
C. as a channel
D. as a layer mask

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100
You are using the Rectangular Marquee tool to alter an existing selection.
You hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key before dragging the tool. What happens to the selected area?
A. The selected area inverses.
B. The selected area gets bigger.
C. The selected area gets smaller.
D. The selected area is completely deselected.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
How do you add to a selection using the Channels palette?
A. paint with white in a spot channel
B. paint with black in a spot channel
C. paint with white in an alpha channel
D. paint with black in an alpha channel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
Click the Exhibit button.
You are modifying a selection using Quick Mask.
Which color should you paint with to finish isolating the eagle from the background?
A. red
B. black
C. white
D. 50% gray

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 103
You are using a selection tool. Which option smooths the jagged edges of a selection by softening the color transition between edge pixels and background pixels without losing any detail?
A. Feather
B. Anti-alias
C. Tolerance
D. Fuzziness

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
You want to store a selection in a separate file. What should you do?
A. use the Move tool to drag the selection into a new document
B. save the selection and choose Split Channels from the Channels palette menu
C. choose Select > Save Selection and choose New from the Channel Destination pop-up menu
D. choose Select > Save Selection and choose New from the Document Destination pop-up menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection. What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
What is the result of painting with a gray color in Quick Mask mode?
A. The selected area increases when you leave Quick Mask mode.
B. The selected area decreases when you leave Quick Mask mode.
C. The selected area is unchanged when you leave Quick Mask mode.
D. The selected area includes semi-transparent areas when you leave Quick Mask mode.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
You are creating a layer style that includes a Bevel and Emboss. Which allows you to sculpt the ridges, valleys, and bumps that are shaded in the embossing process?
A. spread
B. contour
C. shading
D. blend mode

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
You have created a raster layer mask that is currently hiding too much of a layer. You want to reveal more of the layer. What should you do?
A. select the mask and paint with white
B. select the mask and paint with black
C. create a path around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask
D. create a path with Intersect Shape Areas selected around the area you need to reveal, then create a

vector mask Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about an image that uses the layers shown in the exhibit?
A. The ocean layer clips the text layer.
B. The duck layer clips the ocean layer only.
C. The duck layer clips the ocean layer and the text layer.
D. The ocean layer clips the duck layer and the sand layer.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
You have several layers that you want to group and transform without loss or degradation to their data. What should you do?
A. select the layers then choose Layer > Group Layers
B. select the layers then choose Edit > Free Transform
C. select the layers then choose Layer > Vector Mask > Reveal All
D. select the layers then choose Layer > Smart Objects > Group into New Smart Object

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
After making a feathered selection, you choose Layer > New > Layer via Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The edges of the new layer fade to white from the center outward.
B. The edges of the new layer fade to black from the center outward.
C. The edges of the new layer fade in opacity from the center outward.
D. The edges of the new layer cut from opaque to transparent at the midpoint of the applied feather.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 112
Which layer parameter can be saved when creating a Layer Comp?
A. layer styles
B. layer opacity
C. layer stacking order
D. layer blending mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
You have created a shape layer. You want to use a filter on the shape. What must you do?
A. delete the layer mask
B. delete the vector mask
C. rasterize the fill content
D. rasterize the shape layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 114
Click the Exhibit button.
How should you simultaneously rotate the layers indicated in the exhibit without changing the stacking order in the Layers palette?

A. select one layer; Shift+click the other layers; apply the rotation
B. select one layer; Shift+click the other layers; choose Layer>Group Layers; apply the rotation
C. select one layer; then Ctrl+click (Windows) or Command+click (Mac OS) the other layers; apply the
rotation
D. select one layer; Ctrl+click (Windows) or Command+click (Mac OS) the other layers; choose Layer>Group Layers; apply the rotation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
When should you rasterize a type layer?
A. to use Liquify
B. to apply a layer style
C. to use Free Transform
D. to use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
What is the purpose of the Proof Setup command?
A. to correctly display an image that uses non-square pixels
B. to tag an image with a profile that describes its color space
C. to preview how the image will print to the current printer and paper size
D. to preview on screen how a file will display or print on different output devices

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 117
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
You are converting a document from one large gamut profile to another.
You are most concerned about preserving the colors and maximizing the tonal range within the destination gamut. Which rendering intent should you use?
A. Saturation
B. Perceptual
C. Relative Colorimetric
D. Absolute Colorimetric

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
Which statement about a printer ICC profile is true?
A. A printer ICC profile is valid for any paper or ink used by that printer.
B. A printer ICC profile is valid for only the paper and inks used to produce the profile.
C. A printer ICC profile is valid for any inks used by that printer if the paper is the same as that used to produce the profile.
D. A printer ICC profile is valid for any paper used by that printer if the inks are the same as those used to produce the profile.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
You have set RGB Color Management Policies in the Color Settings dialog box to Off. What happens if a newly opened document’s embedded color profile matches the current working space?
A. The profile is discarded.
B. The profile is preserved.
C. The profile is converted to the Working CMYK profile.
D. The profile is converted to the Adobe RGB working space.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Which is an advantage of saving a workspace in Adobe Photoshop?
A. Mouse buttons can be custom programmed and saved.
B. Different palette layouts can be saved for different tasks.
C. Color management policies can be saved for different tasks.
D. The size of the text in the menus can be customized and saved.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 122
You share your workstation with other Photoshop users. Which command should you choose to preserve your preferred palette configuration?
A. View > New View
B. Edit > Preset Manager
C. Window > Workspace > Save Workspace
D. Window > Workspace > Reset Palette Locations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 123
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to highlight frequently-used menu items by assigning a color to them. What should you do?
A. click and drag a swatch from the Swatches palette onto the menu item
B. choose Edit > Preferences > Guides, Grids and Slices, then select a color for Guides
C. choose Edit > Menus, select the menu item from the list, then select a color from the Color column
D. choose Edit > Preset Manager, choose Menus from the pop-up list, select the menu item, then choose a color from the Palette menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
You have created several custom contours for Drop Shadow effects. You want to save the custom contours as a set while maintaining the default contours. What should you do?
A. from the Styles palette menu, choose Save Styles
B. from the Layer palette menu, choose New Layer Group
C. in the Preset Manager dialog box, select the contours and click on Save Set
D. while editing contours in the Layer Style dialog box, choose Save Contours from the fly-out menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video

Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 642-165 Practice Exam, Most Accurate Cisco 642-165 Free Dowload With High Quality

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QUESTION 1
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium with high availability only
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two tasks must an administrator perform on Cisco Desktop Administrator to support presence integration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a contact list to a CSQ.
B. Assign a contact list to a workflow group.
C. Assign an SME to a contact list.
D. Assign a contact list to a skill.
E. Assign an SME to a CSQ.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 6
Agent Email is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium and Standard
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
If you have not configured the database subsystem, what is the status of the database subsystem on the Control Center page of AppAdmin?
A. partial service
B. out of service
C. shutdown
D. not configured

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
With which product is Cisco Unified CCX integrated in order to allow an agent to chat with an SME using CAD?
A. Cisco Unified Presence
B. IP Phone Messenger
C. Webex Connect
D. Microsoft Office Communicator

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 7.0 deployment requires support for 20 concurrently logged-in agents. The agents are split across two remote sites, and the high-availability Cisco Unified CCX Engine, Database, VoIP Monitoring, and Recording server processes run at a central data center. The agents will be using CAD with Cisco Unified IP Phone 7960G and end- point monitoring. Very little recording and silent monitoring will be performed, and no historical reporting will be done during call center open hours.
What is the minimum number of Cisco Unified Contact Center Express hardware servers required for this Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment?
A. 1 server
B. 2 servers
C. 3 servers
D. 4 servers
E. 5 servers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. trace configuration
C. system parameters
D. Control Center

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer
B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer
C. the personal line of the agent to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:
250 configured agents 150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls 20 agents able to answer emails
How many premium seats should be purchased?
A. 150 seats
B. 180 seats
C. 200 seats
D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Work Flow Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which criterion can be used to control supervisor workflows?
A. length of time an agent is in the NotReady state
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, which feature is disabled on the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. recording
B. monitoring
C. embedded browser
D. call-control buttons

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Where are Cisco Unified CCX users managed and their data stored when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Service Queue
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which three fields are used in defining a CSQ in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Name
B. WrapUp Time
C. Service Level
D. Overflow CSQ
E. Automatic Work
F. CCX Application
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 20
Which type of information is available from the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Control Center?
A. database replication status
B. system parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express platform set supports the use of an embedded Internet browser within the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. Premium only
B. Enhanced and Premium only
C. Standard, Enhanced, and Premium
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express does not support an embedded Internet browser

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D. two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)
A. Delete a resource group.
B. Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E. Create a resource.
F. Delete a skill.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 25
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)
A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field.

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Cisco 640-916 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-916 Dump Test Online Store

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QUESTION 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F QUESTION 6

Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre
Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?
A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 56
You want to save custom color setting in the Settings menu of the Color Setting dialog box.
Where should you save the color setting file?
A. the Color folder
B. the Required folder
C. the Setting folder
D. the Preferences folder

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
How do you apply a pattern a selection?
A. choose the pattern from the Color picker
B. choose the pattern from the Style palette
C. choose the pattern fro the Switches palette
D. choose Edit>Fill: select Pattern from the Use pull-down menu

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
How should you adjust the kerning between two characters?
A. highlight the characters and press the Right arrow key
B. click between the character and press the Right arrow key
C. highlight the characters and use the kerning control in the option bar
D. click between the character and use the kerning control in the Character palette

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
You select Color Management Off in the Settings pull-down menu of the Color Setting dialog box. What happens when you drag and drop a selection between images?
A. Color data is converted to the current working space.
B. Color data is aged with a profile to match the current working space.
C. The numeric values of the colors take precedence over the appearance.
D. Color appearance takes precedence over the numeric values of the colors.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
What should you use to make a pattern?
A. an elliptical selection
B. a rectangular selection
C. an object created with the pen tool
D. an object created with the custom shape tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Exhibit: Which statement could be made about the image represented by the histogram?

A. The image is low-key.
B. The image is high-key.
C. The image is average-key
D. The image has insufficient detail.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which does the Allow Non-linear History option in History palette allow you to do?
A. clear states
B. rearrange states
C. undo the deletion of states
D. make changes to a selected state WITHOUT deleting the state that come later

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
You want to create a gradient that includes transparent areas. What should you do?
A. reduce the value for Smoothness
B. select Noise from the Gradient Type pull-down menu
C. click on a Color Stop in the Gradient Editor dialog box, and reduce the value for Opacity.
D. Click on an Opacity Stop in the Gradient Editor dialog box, and reduce the value for Opacity.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
What is the purpose of model control within an action?
A. It stops an action.
B. It accelerates the playback of an action.
C. It allows playback of the action by clicking on a button.
D. It pauses an action so that a user can specify values in a dialog box.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
You apply the Cloning Stamp to an image 27 times. You want to restore a option of the image the its original state by using the history brush too. What should you do?
A. Click on the name of the first snapshot and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
B. Click to set the source of the name of the first snapshot and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
C. Click on the name of the first history state called Clone Stamp in the History palette and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
D. Click to set the source of the first history state called Clone Stamp in the History palette and paint over the area with the history brush tool.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
Which adjustment allows you to use a gamma value to set midtones?
A. Levels
B. Curves
C. Color Balance
D. Hue/Saturation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
To add a set of actions to an existing Actions palette chose _____ from the Actions palette menu.
A. New Action
B. Load Actions
C. Clear Actions
D. Reset Actions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
How do you turn off Thumbnails in the Layers palette?
A. select Layer Properties from the Layers palette menu.
B. choose Edit>Preferences>General, and deselect Thumbnails
C. click the Show/hide button next to each layer in the Layer palette
D. select Palette Options from the Layers Palette menu, and choose None for Thumbnail Size

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
What is an advantage of making a Curves adjustment by using an adjustment layer?
A. It will permanently alter pixels in the image.
B. The resolution of the layer can be adjusted.
C. The file size of the image will remain unchanged.
D. The changes will reside only in the adjustment layer.

Correct Answer: D

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