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QUESTION 36
Which keyboard shortcut allows you to view the entire edited sequence in the Timeline?(Select the best answer.)
A. Command-Z
B. Control-Z
C. Option-Z
D. Shift-Z

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
Your sequence contains a video gap of 00:00:12;11 that you need to fill with B-Roll footage. Which method completes the edit without overwriting existing video clips?(Select all that apply.)

A. In the Viewer, set an In point on the B-Roll clip at 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s last frame and set an Out point. Perform an Overwrite edit.
B. In the Viewer, set the duration of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s last frame and set an Out point. Perform an Overwrite edit.
C. In the Viewer, set the duration of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s first frame. Perform an Overwrite edit.
D. In the Viewer, set the In point of the B-Roll clip to 00:00:12;11. Position the Timeline playhead to the gap’s first frame. Perform an Overwrite edit.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 38
Where in the file system does Final Cut Pro save custom window layouts?(Select the best answer.)
A. Macintosh HD > Library > Application Support > Apple > Final Cut Pro Data
B. Macintosh HD > Library > Application Support > Window Layouts
C. Macintosh HD > Users > [user name] > Library > Preferences > Final Cut Pro User Data > Window Layouts
D. Macintosh HD > Users > [user name] > Library > Application Support > Window Layouts

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Click the image to add the Shot/Take field contents to the Name of the clip.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 40
What is the correct keyboard/mouse order that lets you create a copy of a clip in the Timeline?(Select the best answer.)
A. Command-Click-Drag
B. Click-Drag-Command
C. Option-Click-Drag
D. Click-Drag-Option

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What is the default for levels of undo?(Select the best answer.)
A. 10
B. 24
C. 32
D. 99

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Click the item that limits the setup options by frames per second.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 43
Which overlay indicates the maximum luma values for a clip are between 90-100 percent?(Select the best answer.)

A. C Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
Which display option(s) would be needed to manipulate a clip’s position in the Canvas?(Select all that apply.)
A. Image
B. Image + Wireframe
C. Wireframe

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 45
You want to edit an imported narration clip at the playhead without erasing or moving the existing audio clips shown in the image. Click the destination patch panel control that will let you do this.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 46
Click the pop-up menu to sync the Viewer and Timeline playheads for real-time multiclip editing.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 47
In the Timeline shown above, you press the M key once. What type of marker is created?(Select the best answer.)

A. Clip
B. Sequence
C. Chapter
D. Compression

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Click the clip whose playback speed has been adjusted.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 49
Click the icon that allows you to save a transition as a favorite via dragging.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 50
Which QuickTime movie file type copies all media files required to play the movie into one media file? (Select the best answer.)
A. Alias
B. Duplicate
C. Reference
D. Self-Contained

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which menu allows you to open and close projects?(Select the best answer.)
A. File
B. Edit
C. Tools
D. Window

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which modifier key allows you to drag a clip from V1 to V2 without moving the clip left or right?(Select the best answer.)
A. Control
B. Option
C. Command
D. Shift
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
This clip resides in a conformed sequence. Which parameters have been adjusted on this clip?(Select all that apply.)

A. Scale
B. Rotation
C. Center
D. Anchor Point
E. Crop

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 54
Click the button that will hide the A3 track in the current Audio Mixer view.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55
Click the Solo control for track A1.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 56
Click the Generator pop-up menu.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Which tool is being used in the edit shown above?(Select the best answer.)

A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which action allows you to feather an Edge Wipe applied to a Timeline edit point?(Select all that apply.)
A. Double-click the Edge Wipe in the Effects tab.
B. Double-click the Edge Wipe in the Timeline.
C. Choose Edge Wipe from the Effects menu.
D. Control-click the Edge Wipe in the Timeline and choose Open ‘Edge Wipe’.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 59
Which button performs an Insert edit?(Select the best answer.)

A. A

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which tool will let you perform the edit shown above with a single mouse drag?(Select the best answer.)

A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which modifier key lets you modify the arrangement of multiclip angles in the Viewer?(Select the best answer.)
A. Control
B. Option
C. Command
D. Shift

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which icon represents a freeze frame?(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 63
Which image represents the above sequence after clicking with the razor blade?(Select the best answer.)

A. A Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Click the location that allows you to trim the outgoing clip with the Selection Tool.(Select the best answer.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
What does the visual indicator (overlay) along the right side of the Canvas represent?(Select the best answer.)

A. The first frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
B. The last frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
C. The end of a sequence.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 35
You want to assign several network users to a group and give them Apple Remote Desktop access authorization to observe and control computers, but not to generate reports. What name should you assign to this group in Workgroup Manager in order to automatically give its members this level of ARD access privileges?
A. ard_admin
B. ard_control
C. ard_manage
D. ard_interact

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
You are configuring accounts in Workgroup Manager. For which type of account can you set a custom login shell?
A. User account
B. Group account
C. Computer account
D. Computer List account

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
You want to use Apple Remote Desktop to manage a group of networked computers. Instead of configuring local user accounts on each machine, you want to use accounts stored on a directory server to specify ARD access privileges. Which of these is a key that you can add to the MCXSettings attribute in a Computers List record to accomplish this goal?
A. ard_list
B. ard_view
C. ard_control
D. ard_interact

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Review the chart above showing the managed Dock preference identifying the Dock’s position on screen for a user, computer list, and workgroup, then answer the question below.

Where will the Dock be displayed when a user logs in on a managed computer, as a member of this managed workgroup?
A. at the bottom of the screen
B. at the right side of the screen
C. at the left side of the screen

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
How can you designate an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Open the Apple Task Server application, click Start Service, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
B. Open Remote Desktop, run the Task Server utility from the Task Server menu, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
C. Open Remote Desktop, select Use Task Server in the Remote Desktop pane of System Preferences, and select “Allow remote connections to this server.”
D. Open Remote Desktop, then select “Use Task Server on this computer” and “Allow remote connections to this server” in the Task Server pane of Remote Desktop preferences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40
You want to prevent a list of user names from being displayed in the login window. Using the
managed Login Window preferences in Workgroup Manager, how can you require that people type a user name and password to log in?
A. Select the “Secure Login” option.
B. Deselect the “Show all users” option.
C. Select the “Kerberos authentication” option.
D. Select the “Name and password text fields” option.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which option can you set in Workgroup Manager for an SMB share point?
A. Mount path
B. Network mounting
C. Access Control Lists
D. Default file permissions

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
The managed Dock Display preference for Mary’s user account is set to Never. This means that no managed Dock Display preference
A. will apply at Mary’s next login
B. will ever apply when Mary logs in
C. that depends upon precedence will apply when Mary logs in
D. that is managed at the user account level will apply at Mary’s next login

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which of these is a feature of an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Reviewing reports about a client.
B. Scanning the local network for ARD computers.
C. Scheduling tasks for clients that are currently offline.
D. Turning on powered-down clients using the Lights Out Management protocol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
You would like to give instructors the ability to perform the Apple Remote Desktop functions of locking and unlocking the screens on computers in a classroom, but you do not want to have the instructors learn to use the Remote Desktop utility. Which of these steps could help you accomplish this goal?
A. Distribute an ARD installation package that includes the tasks and is configured with “sudo” as the default user.
B. Create a Computer List in Remote Desktop and provide an Automator application that contains an ARD workflow to perform the tasks.
C. Use Workgroup Manager to manage the preferences of Remote Desktop for the instructor’s user account, so that only Lock and Unlock are available.
D. Use the Create Admin Installer function in Remote Desktop to create a package that installs on the instructor’s computer a simplified version of Remote Desktop that only performs the Lock and Unlock functions.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
You are configuring security policies in Mac OS X Server for your Windows user accounts. What password type must you set in Workgroup Manager for these accounts?
A. SASL
B. Crypt
C. clear text
D. Open Directory
E. Active Directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
In Workgroup Manager, views in the Views pane of managed Finder preferences are organized under what three headings?
A. Disk View, File View, Folder View
B. User View, Group View, Computer View
C. Finder View, Window View, Network View
D. Desktop View, Default View, Computer View

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
For which account type(s) can you manage the Login Window behavior and message using Workgroup Manager?
A. for user accounts only
B. for group accounts only
C. for computer list accounts only
D. for user and group accounts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which statement describes a difference between parental controls and preference manifests?
A. Preference manifests can be applied by any user, but parental controls can be assigned only by an administrative user.
B. Preference manifests can be applied to any file on the computer, but parental controls cannot be assigned to all applications.
C. Preference manifests can be applied to any managed account, but parental controls are assigned only to local accounts.
D. Preference manifests can be applied to any group1 but parental controls can be assigned only to the user’s group and the “Everyone” group on your server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
You want a further measure of control over when user management settings apply. Which setting is available only from the Details pane of Preferences in Workgroup Manager?
A. Once
B. Often
C. Always
D. Never

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
In Workgroup Manager, which pane of the Login preferences has settings that can be managed for users, groups, and computer lists?
A. Scripts
B. Options
C. Login Items
D. Login Window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
You want to manage users’ access to the Restart and Shut Down commands in the Apple menu. Which preferences pane in Workgroup Manager lets you control this feature?
A. Dock
B. Login
C. Finder
D. Media Access
E. System Preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
You have automated the creation of an “Assignments” folder in each of your students home folders. Before you can manage your students’ Docks so they include this Assignments folder, you must _________
A. use hdiutil to bless the folders
B. enable synchronization for ~/Assignments
C. create an “Assignments” folder in your own home folder
D. configure the Mobility preference to Always apply for each of the students

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
What statement is true of the Default network view?
A. The Default network view allows administrators to add FTP servers to users’ /Network.
B. The Default network view is seen by all computers that are not bound to a directory server.
C. If you install Mac OS X in the directory where the Default network view resides, client computers can NetBoot from E
D. You can use the Default network view to assign managed preferences to computers on your network that have no managed preferences, such as guest computers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
In Workgroup Manager, which managed preference pane includes a setting that allows UNIX tools to run?
A. Login
B. Mobility
C. Applications
D. System Preferences

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Exhibit:

What is the module shown in the exhibit?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Wrist strap and cord
D. Static-shielding bags
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 79
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode?
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 82
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disk to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) fails to start up completely due to a video issue. Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power MacG5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
A Macintosh can startup from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of Mac OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM
B. Try to startup from a bootable CD or DVD
C. Reinitialize the hard disk rein stall the Mac OS
D. Replace the internet hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You are replacing the logical board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). Which of the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Torque screwdriver
B. Nylon probe tool
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
A customer reports that her PowerBook G4 (DVI) shuts down intermittently – sometime immediately after startup. Which of the following is the FIRST step you should take to correct the issue?
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Rest the PMU.
C. Disconnect all external peripherals.
D. Check battery connection to the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBook and iBook?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his iBook G4 using a dialup modem connection. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the iBook’s modem port.
B. The customer’s iBook is not configured with a modem.
C. The iBook is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
You are attempting to share between your iBook (Early 2004) and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend still cannot access files on your iBook. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The file on your iBook must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your iBook and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the iBook and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary screen of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? (Select three)
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave, oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 96
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? (Select two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with.
A. tow wires (one pair) present.
B. four wires (two pairs) present.
C. six wires (three pairs) present.
D. all eight wires (four pairs) present.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly install AirPort Extreme Card?
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 99
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires ________.
A. two or more AirPort clients
B. two ore more AirPort Base Stations
C. version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software
D. an AirPort Base Station and AirPort client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSLor Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 45
What does recalibrating a Lithium Ion battery inside a PowerBook or iBook actually do?
A. Reconditions the battery to overcome the memory effect.
B. Keeps the onscreen battery time and percent display accurate.
C. Extends the number of full discharge cycles available in the battery.
D. Readjusts the Energy Saver preferences to correspond to the battery’s performance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
How often should you calibrate a PowerBook G4’s Lithium Ion battery?
A. Never
B. Just once when you first use the PowerBook
C. Whenever the PowerBook is forced into sleep mode
D. When you first use the PowerBook and then every couple of months thereafter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his iBook G4 (Late 2004). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s manual
D. Service manual

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s iBook G4.
Which one of the following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?

A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Which section of the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5 GHz) Service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a DC-In board?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Where is the BEST place to look for information regarding special take-apart tools for an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service News
C. User’s manual
D. Service manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?
A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Identify the correct procedure to reset the Power Manager on a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5GHz).
A. Press the PMU Reset button on the main logic board.
B. Shut the computer down and press the reset button for 10 to 15 seconds.
C. Shut the computer down and press Shift-Control-Option-Power on the keyboard.
D. Remove the AC power adapter and battery, and let the computer sit for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook’s security features have been activated.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which THREE of the following symptoms would be best resolved by performing a PMU reset as a first step?
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Fans run too loudly after startup
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 56
What is the function of the PMU in an Apple portable computer?
A. The PMU controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The PMU controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The PMU manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The PMU manages all communication with attached peripherals.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 57
An iBook G4 is running from the AC adapter, and has a battery installed which is charging. Which TWO of the following indicate that the battery is fully charged?
A. The iBook backlight will return to full intensity.
B. All lights on the battery will illuminate when the button on the battery is pressed.
C. The sleep light will blink three times, indicating that the iBook is no longer charging.
D. The lighted ring on the power adapter connector will change from amber to green.
E. The sleep light will solidly illuminate, indicating that the iBook can be powered on or awakened from sleep.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 58
Which THREE of the following actions can put a PowerBook to sleep?
A. Close the PowerBook lid.
B. Press Command-Option-S.
C. Select Sleep from the Apple menu.
D. Select Sleep from the Location Manager.
E. Select Sleep in the Energy Saver pane of System Preferences.
F. Press the Power button and select Sleep from the dialog box.

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 59
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.67 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook fails to start up completely due to a video issue.
Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive from the PowerBook and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook and Power Mac G5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
What is the first step to take if you have an iBook G4 that constantly ejects any CD / DVD that is inserted?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the optical drive.
C. Replace the optical drive cable.
D. Disconnect all peripheral devices, especially the mouse.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
You are replacing the logic board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5 GHz). Which of the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Torque screwdriver
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBooks and iBooks?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Try to start up from a bootable CD or DVD.
C. Reinitialize the hard disk and reinstall the Mac OS.
D. Replace the internal hard drive with a known-good hard drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You can start up a Macintosh from either Software Restore or Software Install discs.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
A customer brings her iBook G4 (Late 2004) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known-good disc to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
What is the purpose of Sudden Motion Sensor technology used in the newer PowerBook G4 models?
A. It physically locks the PowerBook down while it is activated.
B. It helps prevent hard drive failures if the computer is dropped.
C. It helps conserve energy by sensing when the hard disk spins up too often.
D. It Changes all Mac OS X location settings based upon your current GPS location.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
A customer’s iBook G4 (Late 2004) will not charge when the AC adapter is plugged in.
You test the iBook with a known good battery and known good A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. DC board
B. Logic board
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Exhibit:

What is the module shown in the exhibit?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Wrist strap and cord
D. Static-shielding bags
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which TWO of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the Titanium PowerBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. PCMCIA slot
C. Built-in modem
D. FireWire 800 port
E. Built-in Bluetooth
F. Built-in wireless networking
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 79
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook G4 (14-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW800)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the correct procedure for starting up a PowerBook in Target Disk Mode?
A. Press the D key during startup.
B. Press the T key during startup.
C. Press the Control and D keys during startup.
D. Press the Control and T keys during startup.
E. Press the Command and D keys during startup.
F. Press the Command and T keys during startup.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which THREE of the following features are available in the Aluminum PowerBook G4 models but not in the iBook G4 models?
A. USB ports
B. Audio input
C. PCMCIA slot
D. Built-in modem
E. Built-in Ethernet
F. FireWire 800 port

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 82
Which of the following iBook or PowerBook models requires the use of the 65 watt AC power adapter?
A. iBook (14-inch)
B. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
C. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
D. PowerBook G4 (1 GHz/867 MHz)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
What function does Target Disk Mode perform?
A. It enables direct connectivity with a remote Macintosh over the Internet.
B. It converts a PC-formatted hard disk for use when connected to a Macintosh.
C. It allows access to a Macintosh’s internal hard disk from the Finder of a connected Macintosh via FireWire.
D. It allows two external FireWire hard disk to be connected and transfer data directly between them without need of a computer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
A customer needs to transfer data from her PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) for use on her Power Mac G5, but the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) fails to start up completely due to a video issue. Which of the following would most easily accomplish the data transfer?
A. Remove the hard drive the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and install it into the Power Mac G5.
B. The PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) will need to be repaired before any data can be recovered from it.
C. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Mac OS X Safe Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power Mac G5 with an Ethernet cable.
D. Boot the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) into Target Disk Mode and connect the PowerBook G4 (17-inch 1.5 GHz) and Power MacG5 with a FireWire cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
A Macintosh can startup from Mac OS X, but not from Mac OS 9. If you select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk preference pane of Mac OS X, a flashing question mark appears on the screen when you restart the computer. What is one possible cause of this condition?
A. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS Plus (extended) format instead of HFS format.
B. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, and option to install the Mac OS 9 drivers was not selected.
C. The disk was reformatted using Disk Utility for Mac OS X, using the HFS format instead of HFS Plus (extended) format.
D. This Macintosh does not support booting into Mac OS 9.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
An iBook (G4) displays a flashing question mark at startup. Which step does Apple recommend you take FIRST?
A. Reset Parameter RAM
B. Try to startup from a bootable CD or DVD
C. Reinitialize the hard disk rein stall the Mac OS
D. Replace the internet hard drive with a known-good hard drive.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You are replacing the logical board in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). Which of
the following special tools is recommended during disassembly?
A. Torque screwdriver
B. Nylon probe tool
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test an iBook (G4)?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
A customer reports that her PowerBook G4 (DVI) shuts down intermittently – sometime immediately after startup. Which of the following is the FIRST step you should take to correct the issue?
A. Reset PRAM.
B. Rest the PMU.
C. Disconnect all external peripherals.
D. Check battery connection to the logic board

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You are troubleshooting an PowerBook G4 system that has Mac OS X. The icon of a connected external FireWire drive is not appearing on the Finder Desktop. Which of the following would be MOST useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Network Utility
C. Process Viewer
D. System Profiler
E. Apple Hardware Test

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which of the following diagnostic utilities can be used by all customers to verify functionality of their own PowerBook and iBook?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Apple Display Utility
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his iBook G4 using a dialup modem connection. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the iBook’s modem port.
B. The customer’s iBook is not configured with a modem.
C. The iBook is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
You are attempting to share between your iBook (Early 2004) and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend still cannot access files on your iBook. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The file on your iBook must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your iBook and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the iBook and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary screen of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? (Select three)
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave, oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 96
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? (Select two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 97
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with.
A. tow wires (one pair) present.
B. four wires (two pairs) present.
C. six wires (three pairs) present.
D. all eight wires (four pairs) present.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly install AirPort Extreme Card?
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 99
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires ________.
A. two or more AirPort clients
B. two ore more AirPort Base Stations
C. version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software
D. an AirPort Base Station and AirPort client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSLor Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Exhibit

What is the module shown in this picture?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
A customer brings her iBook (32 VRAM) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known- – good CD to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet after connecting his new PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1GHz) to his cable modem via Ethernet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the computer’s Ethernet port.
B. The computer is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
C. A faulty cable was used to connect the computer and the cable modem.
D. The cable modem’s Ethernet port is not computer with the computer ‘s Ethernet port.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which THREE of the following iBook or PowerBook can accept a 144-pin DDR266PC2100 SDRAM SO-DIMM?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook (Early 2003)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
E. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
F. PowerBook G4 (12-inch DVI)
Correct Answer: BDF

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QUESTION 45
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. in-band
D. out-of-band
E. edge
F. central

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when HSRP is not supported by the design
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
F. when the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode? (Choose two.)

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
E. Traffic switched between VLANs is subject to state tracking and other firewall configurable options.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)
A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
E. Bridge mode passive
F. Combo Bridge router mode

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
A. ISL
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type.
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated.
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE wireless standard will allow backward compatibility with 802.11b.
What would your reply be?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.1g
E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11g standard operates in the same unlicensed portion of the 2.4-GHz spectrum as 802.11b. Both the IEEE 802.11g and 802.11a standards provide a 54-Mbps data rate. IEEE 802.11g provides the benefit of backward compatibility with IEEE 802.11b equipment, preserving users investment in their existing WLAN infrastructure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-10
QUESTION 61
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of wireless IP phones that can register with an Access point is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
E. 33
F. 35
G. 40
H. 57

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum data rate of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 2.4 Mbps data
B. 54 Mbps data
C. 1.44 Mbps data
D. 11 Mbps data
E. 2.4 Mbps data

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The 802.11b Standard Long established, the 802.11b standard is used today by the majority of installed
wireless LANs.
General Features:

Has a maximum transmission rate per channel of 11Mbps (actual throughput is about 6 to 7Mbps).
Operates in the 2.4GHz radio band.
Supports three channels at distances up to 350 feet.

QUESTION 63
With regard to wireless enterprise networks, which of the following is true?
A. Routing protocols is the most important consideration
B. Power of the transmitter is the most important consideration
C. RF interference is the most important consideration
D. STP domains is the most important consideration
E. Geological environment is the most important consideration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
It is very important, since the performance of the network depends of it.
You can use RF design to minimize the RF radiation in coverage areas or directions not required. For
example, if WLAN coverage is required only in the buildings, then you can minimize the amount of RF
coverage outside the building through access-point placement and direction antennas.
The performance of the WLAN and its equipment depends upon its RF environment.

Reference: Arch student guide p.10-23.

QUESTION 64
Your Certkiller.com trainee Sandra is curios about Cisco wireless LAN.
What should you tell Sandra? (Select two.)
A. Only IP can be transmitted over a wireless LAN
B. All stations in a wireless cell share the bandwidth
C. Wireless LANs use CSMA/CD access method
D. Only one station can send at one time
E. Wireless LANs use a token sharing access method.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A WLAN consists of an access point communicating over radio frequency to wireless clietnts. The data rate, power level, and antenna choice affect the size of the coverage area of a single wireless cell, which in turn affects how many access points are required in a specific implementation. This topic describes the wireless communication architecture. Only one station in a wireless cell, including the access point, can send data at any one time (D). The bandwidth is shared among all stations (B). If a station wishes to send, it listens and waits for an available slot. WLANs use carrier sense multiple access collision avoidance (CSMA/CA).
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-6.
QUESTION 65
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an IEEE 802.11b wireless environment. What is the maximum recommended number of calls using G.711 per access point?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The maximum recommended number of phones per access point is seven. This limitation is due to the number of packets that can be forwarded per second over an 802.11 link and minimizing transmission delays, rather than a bandwidth limitation of the link.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.10-35
QUESTION 66
What can be done to ensure connections to workstations that are placed on the edge of a wireless access point’s coverage area?
A. Lower data rates
B. Increase data rates
C. Group access point frequency channels together for increased range
D. Enable multicasting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Data rates affect cell size. Lower data rates (such as 1 Mbps) can extend farther from the access point than can higher data rates (such as 11 Mbps). Therefore, the data rate (and power level) affects cell coverage and consequently the number of access points required.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-21
QUESTION 67
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the frequency of 802.11b is.
What will your reply be?
A. 5 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 1.4 GHz
D. 11 MHz

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Both 802.11b and 802.11g use frequency 2.4GHz. 802.11b is rated at 11Mbps while 802.11g is rated at 54 Mpbs. 802.11g is backwards capable with 802.11b.
Incorrect:
A. 5 GHz – 802.11A
QUESTION 68
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

What is the Certkiller VPN topology as shown in the illustration?
A. Full-mesh VPN
B. Hub-and-spoke VPN
C. Hierarchical VPN
D. Token Ring
E. Private WAN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which of the following types of VNP technology is needed when multicast, broadcast and non-IP packets needs to be tunneled?
A. IPSec
B. GRE
C. Triple-DES
D. IKE
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In site-to-site VPNs, the principal tunneling is generic routing encapsulation (GRE). If only IP-unicast packets are being tunneled, simple encapsulation provided by IPSec is suffiecient. GRE is used when multicast, broadcast, and no-IP packets need to be tunneld.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-7
QUESTION 70
Which of the following will cause Egress Blocking?
A. Packet flooding.
B. Re-transmission of packets blocking all traffic.
C. Large data packets blocking voice packets.
D. Large voice packets blocking data packets.
E. Excessive data fragmentation.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
Certkiller Ltd. is a medium-sized company with 12 stationary offices and one head office, where every office is several hundred miles away from the next. You are the network administrator and the CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a VNP. Considering the scenario, what type of VNP would you design?
A. Enterprise remote access VPN
B. Wireless VPN
C. Remote access VPN
D. Site to site VPN
E. Wide area wireless VNP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Since the company is not big the solution may be cost effective. The offices are very far so the internet connection may be used. The best solution here would be site-to-site VPN. Site-to-Site VPNs are an alternative WAN infrastructure used to connect branch offices, home offices, or business partners sites to all or portions of an enterprise’s network. VPNs do not inherently change private WAN requirements, such as support for multiple protocols, high reliablility, and extensive scalability, but instead meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility. Site-to-site VPNs utilize the most pervasive transport technologies available today, such as the public Internet or service provider IP networks, by employing tunneling and encryption for data privacy and QoS for transport reliability.
QUESTION 72
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. You have designed a high availability network based on a redundant network topology. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the advantages of this design are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. It reduces the cost of the network.
B. It can guarantee Quality of Service.
C. Redundant topologies are easier to configure.
D. It allows the secondary path to automatically take over for the primary path.
E. It reduces the impact of individual network device failure.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Loss of IP connectivity can be caused by local-link failure, full-loss connectivity by the service provider, or device failure. For a typical remote site, an alternate path (dedicated or dial-on-demand) to the head-end site can protect against local-link failure or loss of service provider connectivity. Protection against a local-device failure at a remote site I is not usually provided unless the importance of connectivity for the remote site warrants the cost. For a typical head-end site, you can achieve redundancy by implementing multiple provider connections and by deploying multiple head-end routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-34
QUESTION 73
You work as a network administrator at the small real estate company Certkiller.com located in Toronto area. Certkiller.com has two locations 100 miles apart. Each site has 10 computers attached to a LAN with high speed Internet access. There is a need to securely transmit large amounts of customer data from one office location to the other.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual remote access VPN
B. Leased point-to-point connections
C. ISDN dial-up access
D. Site-to-site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which IP NAT implementation allows IPSec peers to establish a connection through a NAT device?
A. PAT
B. PAT-T
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IPSec ESP NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
NAT Traversal (NAT-T) lets IPSec peers establish a connection through a NAT device.
It does this by encapsulating IPSec traffic in UDP datagrams, using port 4500, thereby providing NAT
devices with port information. NAT-T autodetects any NAT devices, and only encapsulates IPSec traffic
when necessary.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-64

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of choosing a site-to-site VPN instead of a private WAN? (Choose two)
A. Usually less expensive.
B. Guaranteed bandwidth.
C. Globally available.
D. Increased reliability.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Site-to-site VPNs are primarily deployed to connect office locations of an enterprise. They provide an alternative to the WAN infrastructure, while offering significant cost benefits. They enable new infrastructure applications such as extrantet, and extend and enhance network connectivity. Enterprise WAN requirements for traditional private WAN services, such as multiprotocol support, high -availability, scalability, and security, are also requirements for VPNs. VPNs can often meet these requirements more cost-effectively and with greater flexibility than private WAN services using leased lines or virtual circuit technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-27,9-28.
QUESTION 76
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications and that data flows within the required time frames?
A. Availability
B. Performance
C. Functionality
D. Manageability
E. Scalability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which of the following characteristics determines the choice of Layer 1 technology for WAN, remote, or Internet access at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose Two.)
A. Scalability.
B. Transportability
C. Loss
D. Layer 2 technology
E. Layer 1 media
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following application characteristics are significant and must be taken into account in the Enterprise Edge design process.
What would your reply be? (Choose three.)
A. Database magnitude
B. Delay sensitivity
C. Data content
D. Bandwidth usage
E. Loss tolerance
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
You are contracted as a network administrator for a small newly established company, Certkiller.com. The network consists of three buildings that 150 hundred feet apart that are connected via fast Ethernet single-mode fiber. 10Mbps hubs with 100Mbps Ethernet uplinks over multi-mode fibers to a switch in each building provide access to the network. Category 5 wiring connects over 200 users to the hubs.
The CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a new network that will take scalability, performance, manageability, security and availability into account, while still keeping costs low as the company is still relatively new.
What recommendation regarding wiring infrastructure would you include in your network design?
A. Install Category 5e copper to the desktop from the wiring closets.
B. Replace the copper wiring with fiber optic cables will save costs over a longer period.
C. Maintain the current wiring structure.
D. Install multi-mode fiber to the desktop from the wiring closets.
E. Replace the multi-mode fiber within the buildings with single-mode fiber.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following would you select to keep VLAN design complexity to a minimum? (Choose one option.)
A. Use campus wide VLANs.
B. Use building distribution level VLANs.
C. Use VLANs in the campus backbone.
D. Use per-switch VLANs at the access layer.
E. Use VLANs in the core.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Under which of the following circumstances would you consider using OSPF to be a viable choice for use as a routing protocol. (Choose four.)
A. Authentication is required.
B. NBMA connections exist.
C. The network is non-hierarchical.
D. Only internal routes should be considered.
E. Load balancing between multiple routes is required.
F. Fast convergence is necessary.
G. External routes are not an issue.

Correct Answer: ABEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
OSPF offers these features: 1) With OSPF, there is no limitation on the hop count. The intelligent use of VLSM is very useful in IP address allocation. 2) OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Updates are only sent when routing changes occur rather than periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth. 3) OSPF offers fast convergence because routing changes are propagated instantaneously and not periodically (a characteristic of distance vector routing protocols). 4) OSPF allows for effective load balancing 5) OSPF allows for routing authentication by using different methods of password authentication 6) OSPF allows for the transfer and tagging of external routes injected into an autonomous system. This keeps track of external routes injected by exterior protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-49
QUESTION 82
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the objectives mentioned below meet the requirements for the Server Farm module.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. Provide availability with overall network design.
B. Provide medium switch port density.
C. Provide remote dial-up access.
D. Provide up to 100 Gbps of outbound capacity.
E. Provide scalability with switches and server load balancing.
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 83
In which networks would it be the norm to use Static Routing? (Choose two.)
A. Dial-on-demand networks
B. Smaller expanding networks
C. Stub networks
D. Token ring networks.
E. Multi-homed networks
F. Not so stubby network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static routing is primarily use for:
1) Routing to and from stub networks. A stub network only carries traffic for local hosts, and typically has
only one entry/ exit point. Even if it has paths to more than one other network, it does not carry traffic for
other networks.
2) Smaller network that are noet expected to grow significantly.
3) Supporting special features such as dial-on-demand routing (DDR) and on-demand routing 4)
Specifying routes toward dialing peers in dial-in environments.

Reference: Arch student guide p.2-46.

QUESTION 84
When selecting a router for an Edge solution, which is the first step that you, the Certkiller technician, would use Cisco Product Advisor for?
A. To determine the environment in which the router will be used.
B. To select the number of WAN ports required.
C. To determine types of protocols to be supported.
D. To select the appropriate switches.
E. To select the number of LAN ports required.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which of the following are characteristic in defining a Campus Backbone submodule? (Choose Three.)
A. Partial mesh generally used to avoid redundant links.
B. Usually, no policy enforcement.
C. Provides high speed, low overhead of low latency switching.
D. Full mesh to allow redundancy.
E. Implements policy-based filtering.
F. Transports aggregate traffic from the other submodules and functional areas.
G. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 86
What are the design options that will allow network segmentation? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs
B. Token Ring
C. Ethernet Trunking
D. Separate, flat networks
E. Rapid Spanning Tree (RST)

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which of the following application characteristics are important to the Enterprise Edge design process? (Choose three.)
A. Data content
B. Bandwidth usage
C. Database size
D. Delay sensitivity
E. Loss tolerance

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 88
Which two routing protocols are more appropriate in an NBMA environment? (Choose two)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
D: Intitialy OSPF was designed for networks that consisted of point-to-point links, but later it was successfully adapted for operation in LAN and NBMA environments.
C: EIGRP is suitable for nonbroadcast multi-access (NBMA) environments where there are split horizon issues, such as with Frame Relay or ATM multipoint interfaces. Not B or A: Use of RIP and RIPv2 in NBMA networks is not appropriate because of large bandwidth requirements at the Network Management module of a campus network design
QUESTION 89
Cisco has various management tools aimed at various markets. Which of the following Cisco network management tools is targeted toward small to medium-size business?
A. Netsys
B. CiscoWorks Lite
C. CiscoWorks Standard
D. CiscoWorks Premium
E. CiscoWorks for Windows

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Certkiller has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network.
LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application.

What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Inventory Manager: Inventory Manager provides current inventory of all Cisco devices (routers, switches, firewalls) in the network, including support for Cisco CallManager, VPN concentrator, and WAN switches. Hardware and software summary information, includes detailed reports for groups of devices, memory, flash, software version, interface, and stack modules.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-19
QUESTION 92
According to good network design practices, what should be done to segment a physical network? (Choose three)
A. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of broadcast domains.
B. Use Layer 3 switching to reduce the scope of failure domains.
C. Use a Layer 2, switched domain to reduce the size of a collision domain.
D. Use Layer 2 switched domains to increase the size of a policy domain.
E. Use access control list to define policy domains.
F. Use access control lists to define failure domains.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which factors in a business environment will increase the need for remote access? (Choose Two.)
A. The ability to provide a more flexible work environment.
B. The need for authentication.
C. The rising costs of office space.
D. The need for a means of charging back leasing costs.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A. Having remote users will decrease the need for additional office space.
C. Allowing users to work from home provide a more flexible work environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B. The need for authentication would not suggest a need for remote access.
D. Irrelevant
QUESTION 94
What are the features that influence Redundancy requirements of a WAN from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose Two.)
A. Impact if the site is an aggregation point.
B. Impact of the site is non-existent or unavailable.
C. Routing and switching requirements
D. Critical importance of the site and the number of users.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The correct answers should be:
-criticality of the site – number of users According to Cisco.
Not A: The official Cisco course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2”
states on page 3-16 “Branch offices normally do not act as aggregation points. Redundancy depends on
the criticality of the site and the number of users”.

QUESTION 95
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which ATM service class will not allow delay or loss and is the most appropriate for traffic.
What would your reply be?
A. Real Time Variable Bit Rate (rt-VBR)
B. Constant Bit Rate (CBR)
C. Virtual Time Variable Bit Rate (vt-VBR)
D. Available Bit Rate (ABR)
E. Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)
F. Non-Real Time Bit Rate (nrt-VBR)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Constant bit rate (CBR): This traffic category has a bandwidth guarantee. Use it for traffic least tolerant of delay or loss.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-35.
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following application requirements would make DSL an inappropriate choice for a Layer 1 technology?
A. Low cost
B. High bandwidth
C. High link quality
D. Always on
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Enterprises are increasingly turning to DSL to expand the use of telecommuting, reduce costs, and provide Internet-based services. DSL offers always-on access, allowing users to work at remote offices as if they were on site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-66
QUESTION 97
When designing a network for an online bookstore, the availability of which two Enterprise Edge modules would be the most critical issue? (Select two)
A. WAN module
B. Internet Connectivity module
C. Remote Access and VNP module
D. E-commerce module

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
For book store the most critical are E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity module.
E-Commerce: Enables enterprises to deploy e-commerce applications and take advantage of the Internet.
All e-commerce transactions pass through a series of intelligent services to provide performance,
scalability, and availability within the overall e-commerce network design.

Internet connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services.
Internet users can access the information on publicly available servers. Additionally, this module accepts
Virtual Private Network (VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote
Access and VPN module.

Reference: Arch student guide p.3-5

QUESTION 98
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has an ATM network.
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which method is used to prevent large data volumes from delaying voice packets on the Certkiller network.
What will your reply be?
A. CCS
B. FRF.11
C. Increased MTU
D. Separate VCs for data and voice

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
All other answers are wrong. With separate Vc you could easily assign different QOS parameters
QUESTION 99
You are a network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has a regional office in London and branch offices in Newcastle, Oxford, and Liverpool. You need to provide redundancy from Oxford office to the office in London.
What two choices can you make? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Dual Wan links to the regional office
C. Dual Wan links to another branch office
D. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another office

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
If the branch office requires redundant links, the design will use either dual WAN links to two different regions or connect to another branch that connects to a regional site. The link between two branch offices is generally the minimum amount of bandwidth to support each branch. In that case, oversize the link between the branch and regional site to support a fraction of the bandwidth (usually half) of the other branch site. A third method is to implement a dial-on-demand circuit through either ISDN or the PSTN.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-22.
QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are no longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other. Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirement of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
QUESTION 101

A network administrator is designing the routing schema to be used for the WAN connections between the corporate headquarters and the branch offices. Each of the branch offices has its own network server providing most of the local services needed. The branch offices need only periodic connectivity to the corporate headquarters, so ISDN BRI in a DDR configuration was chosen for WAN connectivity.
Which two routing protocols are most appropriate for this network? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPD
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because both these routing protocol have a feature call snapshot routing.

The following routing protocols are supported for snapshot routing :

1 – RTMP.
2 – RTP.
3 – RIPv2.
4 – IGRP.
5 – Novel IPX – RIP and SAP

QUESTION 102
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Certkiller has been issued a portion of a Class C address from their ISP. There are 320 users that will need access to the Internet. The CEO now wants you to design a network that requires private internal addressing for the users within the company and also requires a website for external users.
Which types of Network Address Translation would you propose? (Choose two.)
A. Static
B. Overlapping
C. Persistent
D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Static NAT would be good for the Web server. Dynamic NAT should be used for the 320 users of the
company.
Static NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT
is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network.
Dynamic NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP
addresses.

QUESTION 103
Certkiller has obtained a block of public Internet addresses to provide addresses for their publicly accessed services. Part of the Certkiller.com corporate network is illustrated in the network topology exhibit.

Which one of the following statements is the best design for the Internet connectivity solution?
A. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, static routing should be used on the Internet routers, with static routes on each Internet router pointing to the networks hosted by the ISP connected to the router.
B. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made to ISP A, and floating static routes should be installed to direct traffic to ISP B.
C. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made both ISP A and ISP B.
D. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, the Internet routers should be configured to run HSRP.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Certkiller.com, an insurance company, has a single link to the Internet through a local ISP. The ISP provides web hosting for Certkiller.com. E-mail is the main application for 175 users at Certkiller.com’s single office. The remaining 750 employees at Certkiller.com are involved in the manufacturing process and do not have network access. Fifteen host devices, available in kiosks to all employees, are used for internal human resource applications.
You are now required to recommend a suitable routing mechanism for the Certkiller.com enterprise edge.
A. RIP V2
B. BGP
C. Default route
D. IBGP
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
When Implementing a single-homed system, the routing decision is to use default routes pointing to the network that connects the site to the ISP. The default route is then advertised throughout the corporate site, so that any packets with an unknown destination are forwarded to the ISP.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-57.
QUESTION 105
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity.
What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89
QUESTION 106
In an Internet e-commerce, browser-based application, which method can have the greatest impact on optimizing WAN bandwidth usage?
A. Multiplexing
B. Compression
C. Content networking
D. Secure sockets layer (SSL)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Content networking with its WCCP mechanism provides cashing of web pages and pictures which user already loaded so if he want to load the webpage again it loads from the local cash, not from the Internet.
This optimizes WAN bandwidth usage.
QUESTION 107
The SAFE medium network design suggest which of the following modules?
A. Campus infrastructure and Internet connectivity.
B. Campus infrastructure, Internet connectivity, and network management.
C. Corporate Internet, campus, and WAN.
D. Frame/ATM and ISP edge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.6-82
QUESTION 108
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. Host security
B. Perimeter security
C. Security monitoring
D. Policy management

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Intrusion protection: To ensure that a network remains secure, it is important to regularly test and monitor the state of security preparation. Network vulnerability scanners can proactively identify areas of weakness, and intrusion detection systems can monitor and respond to security events as the occur. Using security monitoring solutions, organizations can obtain unprecedented visibility into both the network data stream and the security posture of the network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-22
QUESTION 109
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode.
B. IPSec in transport mode.
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode.
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Reference: Arch student guide p.9-40, 9-41.
QUESTION 110
Which of the following IOS queuing features are recommended at present to use as queuing method when sending voice traffic?
A. WFQ
B. IO RTP Priority
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. Codec
F. LLQ
G. ARQ
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
In choosing from among the many available prioritization sc hemes, the major factors to consider include the type of traffic involved and the type of media on the WAN. For multiservice traffic over an IP WAN, Cisco recommends low-latency queuing (LLQ) for low-speed links. LLQ allows up to 64 traffic classes with the ability to specify, for example, strict priority queuing behavior for voice and interactive video. A minimum bandwidth for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) data and market data feeds, and weighted fair queuing for other traffic types.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-77.

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QUESTION 66
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What are three possible router states of HSRP routers on a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. established
C. active
D. idle
E. backup
F. init

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
D. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
About how long does it take for the port to change from blocking to forwarding when spanning-tree PortFast is enabled?
A. immediately
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands would both produce the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. show standby
B. show standby group 10
C. show glbp 10
D. show glbp disabled
E. show glbp active
F. show glbp standby

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which two statements are true concerning an Ethernet MAC address that maps to a Layer 3 multicast address? (Choose two.)
A. The first 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
B. The last 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
C. When assigning a Layer 3 multicast address, an Ethernet Layer 2 address is automatically generated from the hardcoded MAC address.
D. The multicast address copies the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 23 bits of the Ethernet multicast MAC address.
E. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the last 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.
F. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the first 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
What does the following command accomplish? Switch(config-mst)#instance 10 vlan 11-12
A. enables a PVST+ instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
B. enables vlan 11 and vlan 12 to be part of the MST region 10
C. maps vlan 11 and vlan 12 to the MST instance of 10
D. creates an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
E. creates a Common Spanning Tree (CST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
F. starts two instances of MST, one instance for vlan 11 and another instance for vlan 12

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
LAB
Refer to question 13.

Router name and IP address may be different.
e
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT1. What will be the result?

e A. The command will be rejected by the switch.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will no longer be bundled.
C. Dynamic Trunking Protocol will be turned off on interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will only allow traffic from the native VLAN.
E. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will continue to pass traffic for VLANs 88,100,360.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1. Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Observe the above diagram. Spanning tree is enabled on all devices. Currently either Switch B or C can serve as the root should Switch A fail. A client recently connected Device D, a PC running switching application software, to Switch C port P3/3. The administrator would like to configure Root Guard to ensure that Device D does not assume the role of root. All other parameters must stay the same. On which interface(s) must Root Guard be enabled?

A. P1/2
B. P2/2
C. P3/3
D. P1/1 and P1/2
E. P1/2 and P2/2
F. P1/2, P2/2 and P3/3

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial output, which statement is true?

A. The console port will require authentication through TACACS+.
B. The console port will not require any authentication.
C. Users logging in through the network ports will have authentication verified through TACACS+.
D. PPP authentication will be authenticated through the TACACS+ server first.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true if the spanning tree enhancement Root Guard is enabled?
A. If BPDUs are not received on a nondesignated port, the port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocked state.
B. If BPDUs are received on a PortFast enabled port, the port is disabled.
C. If superior BPDUs are received on a designated port, the interface is placed into the root-inconsistent blocked state.
D. If inferior BPDUs are received on a root port, all blocked ports become alternate paths to the root bridge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interfaces of Switch1 and Switch2 have been properly configured to support trunking. On the basis of the VTP configuration commands that have been issued on Switch1, which command set is required to properly configure VTP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1
B. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2 (config)# vtp password switch1
C. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch2
D. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which three conditions need to be present for UplinkFast to trigger a fast reconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. The switch must have at least one unblocked port.
B. The switch must have UplinkFast enabled.
C. The switch must be configured for one VLAN.
D. The switch must have at least one blocked port.
E. The failure must be on the root port.
F. The switch must be enabled on a VLAN with switch priority configured.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration provided, how will the user be authenticated?

A. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the local database policy.
B. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the CON list.
C. The CON list will be used only if the default local authentication failed.
D. No authentication will be required for the console port.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
What are three functional areas of the Enterprise Composite Network Model? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Service Provider Edge
D. Building Access
E. Server Farm
F. Campus Backbone
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the line protocol down on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1?

A. Switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must use ISL encapsulation for these configurations to work.
B. The interfaces on switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must be in access mode for these configurations to work.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2 are in different native VLANs.
D. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface Port-channel1 on switch CAT1 are in different native VLANs.
E. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1.
F. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. All switches must be part of a common MST region. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The configuration must be implemented on the MST root switch only.
B. The configuration is optional on the MST root switch.
C. The configuration is mandatory on all MST switches in the MST region.
D. The configuration is optional on all MST switches in the MST region.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A. It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
B. It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C. Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
D. When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch
B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is true?

A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
A new workstation has consistently been unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server when the workstation boots. Older workstations function normally, and the new workstation obtains an address when manually forced to renew its address. What should be configured on the switch to allow the workstation to obtain an IP address at boot?
A. UplinkFast on the switch port connected to the server
B. BackboneFast on the switch port connected to the server
C. PortFast on the switch port connected to the workstation
D. trunking on the switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
In a static VLAN environment, how does a host join a VLAN?
A. It must be assigned to a VLAN dynamically by the VLAN Server.
B. It automatically assumes the VLAN of the port.
C. It will be assigned to a VLAN based on the username.
D. It will automatically be assigned a VLAN based on its MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A brand new stand alone Catalyst 3550 switch is being installed. Multiple VLANs will be configured on the switch. What needs to be configured before adding any VLAN to the VLAN database if VTP is in server mode?
A. VTP pruning
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP version number
D. ISL or IEEE 802.1Q trunking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60
What would happen to a frame if a VLAN port configured as a trunk on the Catalyst switch CK1 were to receive an untagged frame?
A. The frame will cause an error message to be sent.
B. The frame will be dropped.
C. The frame will be processed as a native VLAN frame.
D. The frame will be tagged, and then processed as a native VLAN frame.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On an IEEE 802.1Q trunk port, all transmitted and received frames are tagged except for those on the
VLAN configured as the native VLAN for the port. Frames on the native VLAN are always transmitted
untagged and are normally received untagged. The default native VLAN is VLAN 1.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/optical/ps2006/
products_module_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a

QUESTION 61
Switch CK1 has a trunk link configured with IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation. What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on this trunk port?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 802.1q tag is 4 bytes; hence the resulting ethernet frame can be as large as 1522 bytes (1518 for the
maximum Ethernet frame size plus the 4 byte 802.1Q tag). The minimum size of the Ethernet frame with
802.1q tagging is 68 bytes.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 89/ CK3 90/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094665.shtml

QUESTION 62
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over a trunk link. At the receive end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Assuming you have an IOS based switch; which command would you execute if you
wanted to specify IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation on a trunked port?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot1q
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation isl
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ethernet Trunk Encapsulation Types:

1.
switchport trunk encapsulation isl – Specifies ISL encapsulation on the trunk link.

2.
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q – Specifies 802.1Q encapsulation on the trunk link.

3.
switchport trunk encapsulation negotiate – Specifies that the interface negotiate with the neighboring interface to become an ISL (preferred) or 802.1Q trunk, depending on the configuration and capabilities of the neighboring interface. The trunking mode, the trunk encapsulation type, and the hardware capabilities of the two connected interfaces determine whether a link becomes an ISL or 802.1Q trunk. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps700/ products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007 f
QUESTION 64
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:
Which statements are true regarding the configuration of the above pair of switches? (Select two)
A. The trunk is currently using the ISL trunking protocol.
B. The trunk is currently using the 802.1q trunking protocol.
C. By default, all VLANs will be transmitted across this trunk.
D. By default, Switch CK1 and Switch CK2 ‘s Fast Ethernet 0/1 port will not generate DTP messages.
E. By default, the trunk can only support one VLAN, and only that single VLAN is transmitted across the trunk.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The second line in each configuration (#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q) proves that B is correct, as
dot1q is Cisco IOS for 802.1q trunking.

A trunk allows inter-VLAN traffic to flow between directly connected switches. By default, a trunk port is a
member of all VLANs, so traffic for any and all VLANs can travel across this trunk. That includes broadcast
traffic! Reference:
http://www.mcmcse.com/cisco/guides/trunking_and_trunking_protocols.shtml

QUESTION 65
Switches Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are connected as shown in the diagram below:
Use the following output taken from each port Certkiller 1: show config: interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode dynamic auto no ip address show interface gig0/1 switchport: Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic auto Operational Mode: down Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Certkiller 2: show interface gig0/1 switchport: Name: Gi0/1 Switchport Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic auto Operational Mode: down Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) In accordance with the above exhibit: what’s preventing the two switches from trunking on the link between them?
A. There is no IP address denied.
B. no shutdown needs to be entered on the interfaces.
C. Both sides are in auto negotiation mode.
D. ISL should be used instead of 802.1q.
E. Access mode VLAN must be different from native mode VLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the switchport mode command, you can set the trunking mode to any of the following:

1.
trunk-This setting places the port in permanent trunking mode. The corresponding

switch port at the other end of the trunk should be similarly configured because negotiation is not allowed. You should also manually configure the encapsulation mode.

2.
dynamic desirable (the default)-The port actively attempts to convert the link into
trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode,
trunking is successfully negotiated.
3.
dynamic auto-The port converts the link into trunking mode. If the far-end
switch port is configured to trunk or dynamic desirable, trunking is negotiated.
Because of the passive negotiation behavior, the link never becomes a trunk if both ends of the link are left
to the dynamic auto default.

QUESTION 66
You have just configured an ISL trunk line over Ethernet media between two Cisco Switches, each switch having identical modules, software revisions, and VLAN configurations. Which of the following variables are NOT necessary for the ISL trunk to operate properly? (Select all that apply)
A. Identical trunk negotiation parameters at each end of the link
B. Identical duplex at each end of the link
C. Identical speed at each end of the link
D. Identical native VLAN parameters at each end of the link

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In order for a trunk connection to function properly, it is not necessary for the trunking negotiation parameters to be identical. For example, one end could be configured as “on” and the other could be configured for “auto-negotiate” and the trunk would be operational. Similarly, it is not necessary for the native VLAN parameters to be the same at each end. Incorrect Answers: B, C: One of the requirements for trunking to work is to have both sides of the trunk agree on the speed and duplex settings. Both sides must be configured with identical speed and duplex settings.
QUESTION 67
An ISL trunk connects switches CK1 and CK2 . What is the numerical range of user-configurable ISL VLANs on these switches?
A. 1-1001
B. 0-4095
C. there is no range
D. 0 – 1000
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The valid range of user-configurable ISL VLANs is 1-1001. The valid range of VLANs specified in the IEEE 802.1Q standard is 0-4095. In a network environment with non-Cisco devices connected to Cisco switches through 802.1Q trunks, you must map 802.1Q VLAN numbers greater than 1000 to ISL VLAN numbers. 802.1Q VLANs in the range 1-1000 are automatically mapped to the corresponding ISL VLAN. 802.1Q VLAN numbers greater than 1000 must be mapped to an ISL VLAN in order to be recognized and forwarded by Cisco switches.
QUESTION 68
An ISL trunk connects switches CK1 and CK2 . What is true about the Inter-Switch Link (ISL) protocol? (Select two)
A. ISL can be used between Cisco and non-Cisco switch devices.
B. ISL calculates a new CRC field on top of the existing CRC field.
C. ISL adds 4 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.
D. ISL adds 30 bytes of protocol-specific information to the original Ethernet frame.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: A second frame check sequence (FCS) field lies at the end of the frame.
D: ISL is an external tagging process: new 26-byte ISL header is added to the original Ethernet frame. A second 4-byte frame check sequence (FCS) field is added at the end of the frame so 30 bytes of total overhead is added. Incorrect Answers:
A: Cisco’s propriety version of frame tagging is ISL. ISL can only be used between Cisco routers.
C: 30 bytes are added to the Ethernet frame, not 4 bytes. 4 bytes are added using 802.1Q encapsulation.
QUESTION 69
Which of the commands below enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet when applied to the Certkiller switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ISL is made up of three major components: a header, the original Ethernet frame, and a frame check sequence (FCS) at the end. With ISL, an Ethernet frame is encapsulated with a header that transports VLAN IDs between switches and routers. The 26-byte header containing a 10-bit VLAN ID is added to each frame. In addition, a 4-byte tail is added to the frame to perform a cyclic redundancy check (CRC). This CRC is in addition to any frame checking that the Ethernet frame performs. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 99
QUESTION 70
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 802.1q tag is 4 bytes; hence the resulting ethernet frame can be as large as 1522 bytes. The minimum

size of the Ethernet frame with 802.1q tagging is 68 bytes. ISL frames are the standard MTU used in Ethernet frames, which is 1518 bytes. If one end of the trunk is configured for ISL frames of up to 1518 bytes will be expected on it, while the other end will be sending frames up to 1522 bytes in length. On the ISL configured end, these incoming frames will be considered as giants. This is just one of the reasons why ISL and 802.1Q are incompatible. Incorrect Answers:
A: Not every Cisco switch model supports ISL.
C: In ISL, it is not necessary for the native VLANs to match.
D: Although it is true that each end of a trunk should be configured using the same encapsulation types, it is possible for a switch to have an ISL trunk configured on one port and an 802.1Q trunk on another port.
QUESTION 71
Two Certkiller switches are connected via a trunk using VTP. Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Select two)
A. STP root status
B. VTP mode
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is to maintain VLAN configuration consistency across the
entire network. VTP is a messaging protocol that uses Layer 2 trunk frames to manage the addition,
deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis from a centralized switch that is in the VTP
server mode. VTP is responsible for synchronizing VLAN information within a VTP domain. This reduces
the need to configure the same VLAN information on each switch.
Using VTP, each Catalyst Family Switch advertises the following on its trunk ports:

1.
Management domain

2.
Configuration revision number

3.
Known VLANs and their specific parameters
QUESTION 72
You need to investigate a VTP problem between two Certkiller switches. The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Select two)
A. A root VTP server
B. A trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. VLAN 1
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Switch tow types of links are available, access and trunk. The interface is in access mode can carry the information of only one VLAN and trunk can carry the information of more than one VLAN. VTP carry the information of more than one vlan so Switch port should be in trunk mode. VLAN1 is the default VLAN on Cisco Switch, by default all interface belongs to VLAN 1.
QUESTION 73
CK1 and CK2 are switches that communicate via VTP. What is the default VTP advertisement intervals in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 30 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 10 seconds
E. 5 seconds
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Periodic ( default is 5 minutes) VTP advertisements are sent out each trunk port with the multicast
destination MAC address 01-00-0C-CC-CC-CC. VTP advertisements contain the following configuration
information:

1.
VLAN IDs (ISL and 802.1Q)

2.
Emulated LAN names (ATM LANE)

3.
802.10 SAID values (FDDI)

4.
VTP domain name

5.
VTP configuration revision number

6.
VLAN configuration, including the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for each VLAN

7.
Frame format
QUESTION 74
On the network shown below, VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch Certkiller 1 and port 2 on Switch Certkiller 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch Certkiller 1.
Where will the broadcast propagate?
A. Switches Certkiller 1, Certkiller 2 , and Certkiller 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch Certkiller 4 will forward it out port 2.
B. Only Switch Certkiller 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
C. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
D. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch Certkiller 4 will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default behavior of a switch is to propagate broadcast and unknown packets across the network. This
behavior results in a large amount of unnecessary traffic crossing the network.

VTP pruning increases bandwidth efficiency by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth
by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network
devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server enables pruning for the entire management domain. VTP pruning
takes effect several seconds after it is enabled. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 or 2 through 1001 are
pruning eligible, depending upon the platform.
VTP pruning does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning ineligible. VLAN 1 is always pruning
ineligible and VLAN 1 cannot be removed from a trunk. However, the “VLAN 1 disable on trunk” feature
available on Catalyst 4000, 5000, and 6000 family switches enables the pruning of user traffic, but not
protocol traffic such as CDP and VTP, for VLAN 1 from a trunk. Use the vtp pruning command to make

VLANs pruning eligible on a Cisco IOS-based switch. Switch(vlan)#vtp pruning Once pruning is enabled, use the switchport trunk pruning command to make a specific VLAN pruning ineligible. Switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/3 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk pruning vlan remove vlan 5
QUESTION 75
You want to configure switch CK1 to propagate VLAN information across the Certkiller network using VTP. What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP mode
B. VTP password
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP pruning
E. VTP domain name
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the switch being installed is the first switch in the network, the management domain will need to be created. However, if the network has other switches running VTP, then the new switch will join an existing management domain. Verify the name of the management domain. If the management domain has been secured, verify and configure the password for the domain. To create a management domain or to add a switch to a management domain, use the vtp domain command in the global configuration mode or VLAN configuration mode. Switch(config)#vtp domain name Switch(vlan)#vtp domain
QUESTION 76
The Certkiller switches have all been upgraded to use VTP version 2. What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 that are not available in VTP Version 1? (Select two)
A. VTP version 2 supports Token Ring VLANs
B. VTP version 2 allows VLAN consistency checks
C. VTP version 2 allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree
D. VTP version 2 reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. VTP version 2 saves VLAN configuration memory

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Understanding VTP Version 2 If you use VTP in your network, you must decide whether to use VTP version1 or version2. Note: If you are using VTP in a Token Ring environment, you must use version2. VTP version 2 supports the following features not supported in version1: Token Ring support-VTP version2 supports Token Ring LAN switching and VLANs (Token Ring Bridge Relay Function [TrBRF] and Token Ring Concentrator Relay Function [TrCRF]). Unrecognized Type-Length-Value (TLV) Support-A VTP server or client propagates configuration changes to its other trunks, even for TLVs it is not able to parse. The unrecognized TLV is saved in NVRAM. Version-Dependent Transparent Mode-In VTP version1, a VTP transparent network device inspects VTP messages for the domain name and version, and forwards a message only if the version and domain name match. Because only one domain is supported in the supervisor engine software, VTP version 2 forwards VTP messages in transparent mode without checking the version. Consistency Checks-In VTP version 2, VLAN consistency checks (such as VLAN names and values) are performed only when you enter new information through the CLI or SNMP. Consistency checks are not performed when new information is obtained from a VTP message, or when information is read from NVRAM. If the digest on a received VTP message is correct, its information is accepted without consistency checks. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2ZY/configuration/guide/ vtp.html#wp1020
QUESTION 77
The Certkiller network administrator needs to enable VTP pruning within the Certkiller network. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
B. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
C. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
D. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The default behavior of a switch is to propagate broadcast and unknown packets across the network. This behavior results in a large amount of unnecessary traffic crossing the network. VTP pruning increases bandwidth efficiency by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled. Enabling VTP pruning on a VTP server enables pruning for the entire management domain. VTP pruning takes effect several seconds after it is enabled. By default, VLANs 2 through 1000 or 2 through 1001 are pruning eligible, depending upon the platform. VTP pruning does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning ineligible. VLAN 1 is always pruning ineligible and VLAN 1 cannot be removed from a trunk. However, the “VLAN 1 disable on trunk” feature available on Catalyst 4000, 5000, and 6000 family switches enables the pruning of user traffic, but not protocol traffic such as CDP and VTP, for VLAN 1 from a trunk. Use the vtp pruning command to make VLANs pruning eligible on a Cisco IOS-based switch. Switch(vlan)#vtp pruning Once pruning is enabled, use the switchport trunk pruning command to make a specific VLAN pruning ineligible. Switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/3 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk pruning vlan remove vlan 5
QUESTION 78
VTP is configured on switch CK1 . Which of the following features were added in VTP version 2 that were not previously supported in VTP version 1? (Select two)
A. Supports Token Ring VLANs.
B. Allows VLAN consistency checks.
C. Saves VLAN configuration memory.
D. Reduces the amount of configuration necessary.
E. Allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP Version 2 includes the following improvements: Token Ring VLAN support, TLV support, transparent
mode, and Consistency checks.

Incorrect
Answers:
C, D: These were not improvements added to VTP Version 2.

E: STP detects and prevents loops by logically disabling the redundant path ports so there are no active redundant links.
QUESTION 79
The Certkiller switches are configured to use VTP. What’s true about the VLAN trunking protocol (VTP)? (Select two)
A. VTP messages will not be forwarded over nontrunk links.
B. VTP domain names need to be identical. However, case doesn’t matter.
C. A VTP enabled device which receives multiple advertisements will ignore advertisements with higher configuration revision numbers.
D. A device in “transparent” VTP v.1 mode will not forward VTP messages.
E. VTP pruning allows switches to prune VLANs that do not have any active ports associated with them.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP messages are only transmitted across trunk links.
If the receiving switch is in transparent mode, the configuration is not changed. Switches in transparent
mode do not participate in VTP. If you make VTP or VLAN configuration changes on a switch in
transparent mode, the changes are not propagated to the other switches in the network.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: The VTP domain name is case sensitive and it must be identical with the domain name configured on the VTP server.
C: This is incorrect because if a VTP client receives an advertisement with a higher revision number, it won’t ignore it. In fact, the advertisement with a higher revision level takes precedence when the switch is configured in client mode.
E: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. It does not prune the individual VLANs.
QUESTION 80
Switch CK1 and CK2 both belong to the Certkiller VTP domain. What’s true about the switch operation in VTP domains? (Select all that apply)
A. A switch can only reside in one management domain
B. A switch is listening to VTP advertisements from their own domain only
C. A switch is listening to VTP advertisements from multi domains
D. A switch can reside in one or more domains
E. VTP is no longer supported on Catalyst switches

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VTP domain is made up of one or more interconnected devices that share the same VTP domain name.
A switch can be configured to be in only one VTP domain, and each VLAN has a name that is unique

within a management domain.
Typically, you use a VTP domain to ease administrative control of your network or to account for physical
boundaries within your network. However, you can set up as many or as few VTP domains as are
appropriate for your administrative needs. Consider that VTP is transmitted on all trunk connections,
including ISL, IEEE 802.1Q, 802.10, and LANE.
Switches can only belong to one management domain with common VLAN requirements, and they only
care about the neighbors in their own domains.
Reference: CCNP Switching Exam Certification Guide: David Hucaby & Tim Boyles, Cisco Press 2001,
ISBN 1-58720 000-7 page 114

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QUESTION 16
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. one update package
B. two update package
C. three update package
D. four update package
E. five update package
F. six update package
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIP 2 Packet Format:
The RIP 2 specification (described in RFC 1723) allows more information to be included in RIP packets
and provides a simple authentication mechanism that is not supported by RIP. Figure 47-2 shows the IP
RIP 2
packet format.
The following descriptions summarize the IP RIP 2 packet format fields illustrated in Figure 47-2:
1.
Command-Indicates whether the packet is a request or a response. The request asks that a router send all or a part of its routing table. The response can be an unsolicited regular routing update or a reply to a request. Responses contain routing table entries. Multiple RIP packets are used to convey information from large routing tables.

2.
Version-Specifies the RIP version used. In a RIP packet implementing any of the RIP 2 fields or using authentication, this value is set to 2.

3.
Unused-Has a value set to zero.

4.
Address-family identifier (AFI)-Specifies the address family used. RIPv2’s AFI field functions identically to RFC 1058 RIP’s AFI field, with one exception: If the AFI for the first entry in the message is 0xFFFF, the remainder of the entry contains authentication information. Currently, the only authentication type is simple password.

5.
Route tag-Provides a method for distinguishing between internal routes (learned by RIP) and external routes (learned from other protocols).

6.
IP address-Specifies the IP address for the entry.

7.
Subnet mask-Contains the subnet mask for the entry. If this field is zero, no subnet mask has been specified for the entry.

8.
Next hop-Indicates the IP address of the next hop to which packets for the entry should be forwarded.

9.
Metric-Indicates how many internetwork hops (routers) have been traversed in the trip to the destination. This value is between 1 and 15 for a valid route, or 16 for an unreachable route. NoteUp to 25 occurrences of the AFI, Address, and Metric fields are permitted in a single IP RIP packet. That is, up to 25 routing table entries can be listed in a single RIP packet. If the AFI specifies an authenticated message, only 24 routing table entries can be specified. Given that individual table entries aren’t fragmented into multiple packets, RIP does not need a mechanism to resequence datagrams bearing routing table updates from neighboring routers. Since a single update packet can contain at most 25 route entries, 4 packets will be needed to advertise 77 routes.
QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single interface is used to route between subnets or networks, this is know as a router-on-a-stick.
To assign multiple IP addresses to the same interface, secondary addresses or subinterfaces are used.
The Advantage is that it is useful when there are limited Ethernet interfaces on the router.
The Disadvantages to this design are:
subnets. resources that will be consumed on the router can become an issue.

QUESTION 18
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three)
A. Supports variable-length subnet mask by default.
B. Does not support variable-length subnet mask by default.
C. Supports discontiguous networks by default.
D. Multicast updates to 224.0.0.9.
E. Broadcast updates.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Features of RIP v2 To help today’s IP internetworks minimize broadcast traffic, use variable length subnetting to conserve IP addresses, and secure their routing environment from misconfigured or malicious routers, several key features were added to RIP v2. Multicasted RIP Announcements Rather than broadcasting RIP announcements, RIP v2 supports sending RIP announcements to the IP multicast address of 224.0.0.9. Non-RIP nodes are not disturbed by RIP router announcement traffic. Subnet Masks RIP v2 announcements send the subnet mask (also known as a network mask) along with the network ID. RIP v2 can be used in subnetted, supernetted, and variable-length subnet mask environments. Subnets of a network ID do not have to be contiguous (they can be disjointed subnets).
QUESTION 19
The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used by the grand majority of distance vector routing protocols in DUAL (diffusing update algorithm). Which of the following routing protocols is it?
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DUAL is used by EIGRP. The Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) is the algorithm used to obtain loop-freedom at every instant throughout a route computation. This allows all routers involved in a topology change to synchronize at the same time. Routers that are not affected by topology changes are not involved in the recomputation. The DUAL finite state machine embodies the decision process for all route computations. It tracks all routes advertised by all neighbors. The distance information, known as a metric, is used by DUAL to select efficient loop free paths. DUAL selects routes to be inserted into a routing table based on feasible successors. A successor is a neighboring router used for packet forwarding that has a least cost path to a destination that is guaranteed not to be part of a routing loop. When there are no feasible successors but there are neighbors advertising the destination, a recomputation must occur.
QUESTION 20
The Certkiller EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command “variance 3” was added to the EIGRP configuration of Certkiller 5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from Certkiller 5 to network X?
A. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1
B. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1.
C. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller A and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 1.
D. Certkiller 5- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1, Certkiller 5- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 1, and Certkiller 5- Certkiller 4-Certkiller 1.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition to that, IGRP and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance command to instruct the router to include routes with a metric less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination, where n is the number specified by the variance command. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128, with the default being 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the “eigrp stub” configuration command?
A. To increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range.
B. To reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes in the EIGRP stub router.
C. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router.
D. To reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Complex, redundant EIGRP networks can cause scalability problems. The best solution to this is to provide a means within the context of the EIGRP protocol itself to control traffic flows and limit query depth. TheEIGRP Stub Router functionality in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(7)T can achieve this solution. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
QUESTION 22
The Certkiller OSPF network is displayed below: Refer to the exhibit. All routers have converged and neighbor relationships have been established. Which state is Certkiller 4 in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR for that segment. The same process is repeated for the BDR. In case of a tie, the router with the highest RID will win. The default for the interface OSPF priority is one. Based on the output above, the dead timer shows that the neighbor relationships have already been established, so the state will be Full for all neighbors, and since the OSPF priorities are all set to 1, the router with the highest router ID will be the DR.
QUESTION 23
The Certkiller backbone OSPF network is shown below:

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Certkiller 1 RID is 1.1.1.1.
B. The Certkiller 1 RID is 10.1.1.1.
C. The Certkiller 1 RID is 192.168.1.1.
D. The Certkiller 2 RID is 10.1.1.2.
E. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.1.2.
F. The Certkiller 2 RID is 192.168.2.1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Remember that the RID is the highest IP address on the box or the loopback interface, calculated at boot time or whenever the OSPF process is restarted. Although the other interfaces on routers Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are higher, the loopback interface is always used as the router ID. If more than one loopback interface is configured, the loopback interface with the highest IP address is chosen as the Router ID.
QUESTION 24

Which type of Link State Announcement will Certkiller E use to announce changes in network 22 to Area 1?
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 4 LSA
E. Type 5 LSA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The external link LSA is originated by AS boundary routers and is flooded throughout the AS. Each external advertisement describes a router to a destination in another autonomous system. Default routes for the AS can also be described by AS external advertisements. This is identified as a Type 5 LSA.
QUESTION 25
What is the OSPF cost for the 100 Mbps Ethernet media type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
E. 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, OSPF uses the formula of 100,000,000 (100M) divided by bandwidth, or 100,000,000/BW. For
a
100M fast Ethernet connection, the formula is 100M/100M = 1.

QUESTION 26
As a Certkiller .com network technician you are required to drag the appropriate IS-IS routing item to its correct definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Given the NSAP 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A NET is a NSAP where the last byte is always zero. On a router running IS-IS, a NET can be 8 to 20 B in length. The last byte is always the n-selector and must be zero. The n-selector indicates which transport entity the packet is sent to. An n-selector of zero indicates no transport entity, and means that the packet is for the routing software of the system. The six bytes directly preceding the n-selector are the system ID. The system ID length is a fixed size and cannot be changed. The system ID must be unique throughout each area (Level 1) and throughout the backbone (Level 2). All bytes preceding the system ID are the area ID. The area ID field is the portion of the NSAP preceding the system ID. The following example shows a router with area ID 47.0004.004d.0001 and system ID 0001.0c11.1110: 47.0004.004d.0001.0001.0c11.1110.00 In our example, the six bytes preceding the N selector is 0001.0c00.1211 which is the system ID. The portion preceding this, 39.0100.0102, is the area ID.
QUESTION 28
Which two commands can be used to verify that RIPv2 authentication is working properly to ensure that RIP neighbors form adjacencies properly? (Choose two.)
A. show interface
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. debug ip rip
E. debug ip rip authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Verifying Plain Text Authentication RIP version 2 routers can use either plain text or MD5 authentication. By configuring the routers using RIPv2 authentication, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from thedebugip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3
02:11:39.207: RIP: received packet with text authentication 234 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: received v2 update from 141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 02:11:39.211: RIP: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:25, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C
80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 Using plain text authentication improves the network design by preventing the addition of routing updates originated by routers not meant to take part in the local routing exchange process. However, this type of authentication is not secure. The password (234 in this example) is exchanged in plain text. It can be captured easily and thus exploited. As mentioned before, MD5 authentication must be preferred over plain text authentication when security is an issue. Verifying MD5 Authentication By configuring the RA and RB routers as shown above, all routing update exchanges will be authenticated before being accepted. This can be verified by observing the output obtained from the debug ip rip and show ip route commands. RB#debug ip rip RIP protocol debugging is on *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received packet with MD5 authentication *Mar 3 20:48:37.046: RIP: received v2 update from
141.108.0.10 on Serial0 *Mar 3 20:48:37.050: 70.0.0.0/8 via 0.0.0.0 in 1 hops RB#show ip route R 70.0.0.0/8 [120/1] via 141.108.0.10, 00:00:03, Serial0 80.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 80.80.80.0 is directly connected, Loopback0 141.108.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 141.108.0.8 is directly connected, Serial0 MD5 authentication uses the one-way, MD5 hash algorithm, acknowledged to be a strong hashing algorithm. In this mode of authentication, the routing update does not carry the password for the purpose of authentication. Rather, a 128-bit message, generated by running the MD5 algorithm on the password, and the message are sent along for authentication. Thus, it is recommended to use MD5 authentication over plain text authentication since it is more secure. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f1c.shtml#veri
QUESTION 29

1.
all routers are using BGP

2.
synchronization is OFF in AS 647000
A. Router CK6
B. Routers CK2 and CK6
C. Routers CK2 , CK4 , and CK6
D. Routers CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , and CK6
F. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6
G. It will not be propagated to any other router

Correct Answer: FEACDGB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The AS PATH is a well known mandatory attribute. Mandatory means that it is required by all routers.
These
attributes are required and are therefore recognized by all BGP implementations.

QUESTION 32
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:

7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if bestpath is already selected.

9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath. Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.

10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).

11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 33
The Certkiller WAN is displayed below:

You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibits carefully.
BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and one of the default attributes have
been changed except the MED attribute on Certkiller 5.
Which path is preferred by Certkiller 2 to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24?

A. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it is the shortest path.
B. Certkiller 2- Certkiller 1 because it has a higher metric.
C. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower administrative distance.
D. Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4- Certkiller 5 because it has a lower metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In BGP, the lowest MED metric is preferred over a higher metric. By default, the value of the metric is 0, so
for AS 200, the path via Certkiller 5 will have a metric of 0, and the path via Certkiller 1 will have a metric of
150, so the path from Certkiller 5 will be preferred.

QUESTION 34
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The WEIGHT attribute is a Cisco proprietary feature used to measure a route’s preference. The WEIGHT inbound route maps. Use the WEIGHT attribute to influence routes from multiple service providers to a central location. Like LOCAL_PREF, assigning a higher weight to a route makes that route more preferred. The WEIGHT attribute also has the highest precedence of any BGP attribute. Reference: CCIE Practical Studies: Configuring Route-Maps and Policy-based Routing, Karl Solie, Cisco Press.

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QUESTION 40
Your OSPF router has one serial interface, and one Ethernet LAN interface. The subinterface is configured in the following manner: interface serial 0.122 point-to-point ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay interface-dlci 122 Your want to allow hosts on your LAN to send and receive data, but you don’t want routing traffic to go through that interface. Which of the following commands should you use to complete your configuration?
A. interface serial 0.122 point-to-point passive-interface ethernet 0
B. interface ethernet 0 ip address 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.0 passive-interface
C. router ospf 172 area 1 nssa network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
D. router ospf 172 passive-interface ethernet 0 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network
192.168.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We use the passive-interface command to configure the ethernet interface to be passive. The passive-
interface router configuration command is used to disable sending routing updates on an interface.
Incorrect Answers:

A: We are not configuring the serial interface. Furthermore, the passive-interface command is a router configuration command, not an interface configuration command.
B: We cannot use the passive-interface command like this.
C: We should configure the Ethernet interface as passive, not the area as a not-so-stubby area (NSSA).
QUESTION 41
You have a named Router CertK running EIGRP that has already been configured with the following: Router CertK (config)#access-list 30 deny any Router CertK (config)#access-list 40 permit ip any Router CertK (config)#router eigrp 1 To complete your configuration you want to configure the serial 0/0 interface to prevent routing updates from going out that interface while still allowing the formation and upkeep of neighbor adjacencies on that interface. Drag the correct command phrase from the bottom and place it in

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
We use distribute list 30, which stops IP traffic, on outward traffic on the serial 0/0 interface.
RouterTK continues receiving routing updates from its neighbor, but the distribute-list prevents routes from
being advertised out of serial 0. Furthermore, neighbor adjacencies are allowed to be formed between
RouterTK and its neighbor on serial 0/0.
Incorrect Answers:
passive interface serial 0/0:

On EIGRP, passive interface causes the router to stop sending and receiving hello packets. This will
prevent the interface from maintaining neighbor adjacencies.
distribute-list 40 out serial 0/0:
We must stop outgoing traffic, not allow it.
distribute-list 30 in serial 0-0:
We must stop outgoing traffic, not incoming traffic.
Reference: How Does the Passive Interface Feature Work in EIGRP?
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/16.html

QUESTION 42
he Certkiller network is displayed below:
You need to configure a static route so that users on the corporate network can reach the 172.27.6.0/24
LAN. Based on the diagram above, which of the following is the correct way to do this?

A. Certkiller 1(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.2
B. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.0.0 172.17.8.2
C. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.2
D. Certkiller 1(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.0.0 172.17.8.1
E. Certkiller 2(config)#ip route 172.27.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.17.8.1

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only choice E provides the correct network subnet mask and next hop IP address.
IP route prefix mask {address|Interface} [distance] [tag tag] [permanent]
Prefix 172.27.6.0 mask 255.255.255.0 address 172.17.8.2
Address – The IP address of the next hop router that can be used to reach that network.
Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 464

QUESTION 43
The Certkiller network consists of a main office and a single remote office. You need to configure the
remote office in using the following guidelines:
The main office must learn all of its routes from the regional office.
The regional office must not learn routes from the main office.
The most scalable solution should be used.
Which of the following answer choices best describe what should be done to satisfy these
requirements?

A. Configure static routes pointing to the network behind the central office router
B. Configure a default route pointing to the networks behind the central office router
C. Make the interface that is connected to the central office a passive interface to block incoming updates
D. Enable route update filtering on the interface that is connected to the central office to block incoming updates
E. None of the above will work

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only viable solution here is to enable the main office to dynamically learn about all of the regional
office routes, while still not receiving any routes is by enabling incoming route filters.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: Configuring static routes or default routes on the regional office will not enable the main office to
learn about any of the regional office routes.

C: A passive interface would prevent all route updates to the main office. Passive interfaces do not filter incoming routing updates, so the regional office could still learn routes from the main office. Note: Configuring the main office using a passive interface would satisfy the conditions here, but this Qasks us how to configure the regional office, not the main office.
QUESTION 44
You wish to permit all BGP prefixes between /10 and /18 for the 207.0.0.0 network. How should a BGP prefix list be configured to do this?
A. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/8 ge 10 le 18
B. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/8 ge 18 le 10
C. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/24 ge 10 le 18
D. ip prefix-list 207.0.0.0/24 ge 18 le 10
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With prefix lists, the “ge” means “greater than or equal to” while the le means “less than or equal to.” Here, we want to specify all prefixes greater than or equal to 10 and less than or equal to 18 as specified in choice
A. In addition, we must specify an 8 bit network mask, not a 24 bit network mask.
QUESTION 45
Routers CK1 and CK2 are configured for BGP as shown below: RTR CK1 router bgp 200 neighbor
183.215.22.1 remote-as 200 neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1 RTR CK2 router bgp 200 neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200 These two routers currently have an active BGP peering session between them and they are able to pass routes to each other. Based on these configuration files, which of the following are true? (Select three)
A. RTR CK1 and RTR CK2 are running IBGP inside AS 200
B. The IP address of RTR CK1 ‘s Loopback 1 interface is 147.229.1.1.
C. The IP address of RTR CK1 ‘s Loopback 1 interface is 183.215.22.1.
D. RTR CK1 and RTR CK2 are running EBGP between the autonomous systems.
E. RTR CK1 has forced BGP to use the loopback IP address as the source in the TCP neighbor connection.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: The two statements that define a remote AS (autonomous) use the same AS number. Both routers must belong to the same AS and there IBGP is used.
B: The IP address of the CK1 loopback address is 147.229.1.1 as specified in the neighbor statement of the CK2 router: neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200
E: The “neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1” command issued at CK1 makes CK1 use this loopback for the BGP connection to CK2 . See Note 2 below. Note 1: Syntax of neighbor command: Router(config-router)#neighbor {ip-address | peer-group-name} remote-as as-number This command specifies a BGP neighbor. Note 2: For iBGP, you might want to allow your BGP connections to stay up regardless of which interface is used to reach a neighbor. To enable this configuration, you first configure a loopback interface and assign it an IP address (neighbor 183.215.22.1 update-source loopback 1). Next, configure the BGP update source to be the loopback interface (we have to assume this step – it is not indicated by the exhibit). Finally, configure your neighbor to use the address on the loopback interface (neighbor 147.229.1.1 remote-as 200). Incorrect Answers:
C: 183.215.22.1 is the IP address of CK2 , not CK1 .
D: There is only one AS and the routers belong to that AS. Within an AS IBGP is used, not EBGP.
QUESTION 46
The Certkiller BGP router is configured as shown below: router bgp 64000 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 64000 neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 64550 network 200.52.1.192 mask 255.255.255.224 no synchronization aggregate-address 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 The BGP peers 172.16.1.1 and 10.1.1.2 in the above configuration are active, as well as the interface with IP address 200.52.1.192. Based on this information, which statement below is true about your configuration?
A. Router CertK has an IBGP connection with neighbor 10.1.1.2.
B. Router CertK has an EBGP connection with the neighbor 172.16.1.1.
C. Router CertK advertises only a route 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 in BGP.
D. Router CertK advertises only a route 200.52.1.192 255.255.255.224 in BGP.
E. Router CertK advertises both the routes to 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0 and 200.52.1.192
255.255.255.224 in BGP.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The aggregate route, 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0, and the more specific route, 200.52.1.192
255.255.255.224, will both be advertised. To only advertise the aggregate route the summaryonly option of
the aggregate-address command must be used.
Note: The aggregate-address command is used to create an aggregate, or summary, entry in the BGP
table.
Incorrect Answers:

A: The neighbor 10.1.1.2 belongs to another autonomous system and is a EBGP neighbor, not an IBGP
neighbor.

B: Router A and neighbor 172.16.1.1 belong to the same autonomous system and is an IBGP neighbor,
not an EBGP neighbor.

C: The summary-only option of the aggregate-address command is used to only advertise the summary
and not the specific routes.

D:
The aggregate route, 200.52.1.0 255.255.255.0, will be advertised as well.
Q304 The Certkiller network consists of two separate autonomous systems as shown below:
You need to configure Router CK2 as a BGP route reflector and Router CK1 as the client. Assuming that
Router CK3 isn’t running BGP, which two of the commands below would you enter on CK2 to satisfy your
goals? (Select two)
A.
neighbor 165.50.12.1 remote-as 65100
B.
neighbor 165.50.12.2 remote-as 64000
C.
neighbor 165.50.12.1 route-reflector-client
D.
neighbor 165.50.12.2 route reflector-client
Answer: B, D
Explanation:

B: Router CK2 (config-router)# neighbor 165.50.12.2 remote-as 64000 We configure router CK1
(165.50.12.2) as a neighbor in AS 64000.
D: Router CK2 (config-router)# neighbor 165.50.12.2 route-reflector-client Configures the router CK2 as a BGP route reflector and configures the specified neighbor CK1 (165.50.12.2) as its client. Incorrect Answers:
A: We must specify router CK1 as neighbor, not CK2 itself (165.50.12.1). Furthermore, we should use the local AS (64000), not the remote AS 65100.
C: We must specify router CK1 as route reflector client, not CK2 itself (165.50.12.1).
QUESTION 47
The Certkiller network consists of a series of routers that are all configured for IBGP. Which one of the following IBGP characteristics is true?
A. The IBGP routers must always be fully meshed.
B. The IBGP routers can be in a different AS.
C. The IBGP routers must be directly connected.
D. The IBGP routers do not need to be directly connected.
E. None of the above are true.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IBGP routers do not have to be directly connected. The remote IBGP peers need only be reachable via a TCP connection. For example, if the network is also running an interior routing protocol such as EIGRP or OSPF, the remote IBGP router could be many hops away, as long as it is reachable via the IGP that is being used. Incorrect Answers:
A: Using route reflectors or confederations a full mesh topology is not necessary.
B: The IBGP routers must be placed in the same AS. Peers that are in different autonomous systems are using EBGP, not IBGP.
C: The IBGP routers do not have to be directly connected.
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements regarding BGP peer groups are true? (Select two)
A. Peer members inherit all options of the peer group.
B. Peer groups can be used to simplify BGP configurations.
C. Peer groups are optional non-transitive attributes for BGP.
D. A peer group allows options that affect outbound updates to be overridden.
E. A common name should be used on all routers because this information is passed between neighbors.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A BGP peer group is a group of BGP neighbors with the same update policies.

A: By default members of the peer group inherit all of the configuration options of the peer group. Note: Members can also be configured to override these options
B: Peer groups are normally used to simplify router configurations when many neighbors have the same policy.
Note: BGP neighbors who share the same outbound policies can be grouped together in what is called a BGP peer group. Instead of configuring each neighbor with the same policy individually, Peer group allows to group the policies which can be applied to individual peer thus making efficient update calculation along with simplified configuration.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The only Optional non-transitive attribute in BGP is MED.
D: Does not apply.
E: Using a common router name provides no BGP benefits at all.
Reference: BGP Peer Groups, http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/459/29.html

QUESTION 49
A BGP router is configured as shown below: interface ethernet 0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.0.0 ! int serial 0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 ! router bgp 65001 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65002 Based on the above configuration, which of the following BGP statements would inject the 10.10.0.0/16 prefix into the BGP routing table?
A. network 10.0.0.0
B. network 10.10.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
C. network 10.10.10.1 mask 255.255.255.255
D. network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
E. network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The /16 mask is equal to 255.255.0.0, so answer choice B matches the address and the mask. To specify the route as classless, the mask keyword should be included or the network will be summarized at the network boundary.
QUESTION 50
Why would a systems administrator enter in the network command when configuring BGP?
A. Local routes matching the network command are filtered from the BGP routing table.
B. Local routes matching the network command can be installed into the BGP routing table.
C. Routes matching the network command will be filtered from BGP routing updates.
D. External routes matching the network command will be installed into the BGP routing table.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the network router configuration command to permit BGP to advertise a network if it is
present in the IP routing table.
Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 342

QUESTION 51
The Certkiller network is depicted in the following diagram: Which of the following command sets would you use if you want Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 to exchange BGP routing information? (Select two)

A. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 200 Certkiller 2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100
B. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#exit Certkiller 1(config)#interface S0
Certkiller 1(config-if)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 200
C. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 200
D. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 2(config-router)exit Certkiller 2(config)#interface S0
Certkiller 2(config-if)#neighbor remote-as 100
E. Certkiller 1(config)#router bgp 100 Certkiller 1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 Certkiller 1(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 100
F. Certkiller 2(config)#router bgp 200 Certkiller 2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 Certkiller 2(config-router)#network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Choices A and C give the correct syntax for configuring EBGP peering sessions.
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: The BGP peering configurations are placed under the BGP routing process, not in
interface configuration mode.
E, F: The network 10.0.0.0 command is not required here, since this is an EBGP peering session using the
directly connected interface. Since each neighbor shares the 10.0.0.0 network they each already know
how to reach this network.

QUESTION 52
Router TK-1 is configured for BGP routing as shown below: router bgp 65300 network 27.0.0.0 neighbor
192.23.1.1 remote-as 65300 From the perspective of router TK-1, what kind of router is the router with IP address 192.23.1.1?
A. A peer router running IBGP
B. A peer router running EBGP
C. A community member running IBGP
D. A peer group member running IBGP E. A peer group member running EBGP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Both the local and remote router is configured with the same autonomous system number so they are peer
routers running IBGP.

QUESTION 53
When you’re configuring BGP on a Cisco router, what is true of the command “network”?
A. Local routes matching the network command are filtered from the BGP routing table.
B. Local routes matching the network command can be installed into the BGP routing table.
C. Sending and receiving BGP updates is controlled by using a number of different filtering methods.
D. The route to a neighbor autonomous system must have the correct MED applied to be installed into BGP routing table.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The network command allows BGP to advertise an IGP route if it is already in the IP table. A matching route must exist in the routing table before the network is announced. The network command is used to permit BGP to advertise a network if it is present in the IP routing table.
QUESTION 54
Router CK1 needs to be configured to advertise a specific network. Which of the following commands would you use if you wanted to advertise the subnet 154.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 to the EBGP neighbors on your subnet?
A. Router (config-router)#network 154.2.1.0
B. Router (config-router)#network 164.2.1.0
C. Router (config-router)#network-advertise 154.2.1.0
D. Router (config-router)#network 154.2.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The network command is used to specify the networks to be advertised by the Border Gateway Protocol
(BGP) and multiprotocol BGP routing processes.
Syntax: network network-number [mask network-mask] [route-map map-name]
Mask and route-map are optional. If the mask keyword is configured, then an exact match must exist in the
routing table.
Incorrect Answers:

A: If we do not specify the subnet mask then additional networks are allowed to be advertised. The classful subnet mask of 154.2.1.0 is 255.255.0.0 – a Class B network.
B: This is using the incorrect IP address, as well as a missing subnet mask.
C: The network-advertise is an invalid command.
QUESTION 55
You are the administrator of a company with BGP connections to multiple ISP’s. How could you configure BGP to make it favor one particular ISP for outbound traffic?
A. Configure weight
B. Enable route reflector
C. Create a distribute list
D. Enable the Longer Autonomous System path option.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the router learns about more than one route to the same destination, the route with the highest weight will be preferred. Weight is a Cisco BGP parameter that is local to the router. When terminating multiple ISP connections into the same router, weight can be used to affect which path is chosen for outbound traffic. Incorrect Answers:
B: A route reflector cannot be used to influence outbound traffic. A route reflector modifies the BGP split horizon rule by allowing the router configured as the route reflector to propagate routes learned by IBGP to other IBGP peers. This saves on the number of BGP TCP sessions that must be maintained, and also reduces the BGP routing traffic.
C: Distribute lists restrict the routing information that the router learns or advertises. By itself a distribute list cannot make routes from one ISP be preferred to routers from another ISP.
D: This choice describes ASD path pre-pending, which would be used to influence the path that incoming traffic takes, not outgoing.
QUESTION 56
What are two solutions to overcome the full mesh requirement with iBGP? (Choose two)
A. BGP groups
B. BGP local preference
C. Route reflector
D. Confederation
E. Aggregate-address

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In general, all IBGP peers must be configured to be fully meshed. If they are not, then all of the IBGP routers will not have the updated information from the external BGP routers. There are two ways to overcome the scalability issues of a full IBGP mesh: route reflectors and confederations. With route reflectors, internal BGP routers peer only with the route reflector. With confederations, the AS is broken up into smaller, more manageable sub autonomous systems.
QUESTION 57
An ISP is running a large IBPG network with 25 routers. The full mesh topology that is currently in place is inefficiently using up bandwidth from all of the BGP traffic. What can the administrator configure to reduce the number of BGP neighbor relationships within the AS?
A. Route reflectors
B. Route maps
C. Route redistribution
D. Peer groups
E. Aggregate addresses
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In general, all IBGP peers must be configured to be fully meshed. If they are not, then all of the IBGP routers will not have the updated information from the external BGP routers. There are two ways to overcome the scalability issues of a full IBGP mesh: route reflectors and confederations. With route reflectors, internal BGP routers peer only with the route reflector, and then the route reflectors connect with each other. This can considerably reduce the number of IBGP sessions. Another solution to the scalability problem of IBGP is the use of confederations. With confederations, the AS is broken up into smaller, more manageable sub autonomous systems.
QUESTION 58
Arrange the BGP attributes on the left in order or priority.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
How the Best Path Algorithm Works:
BGP assigns the first valid path as the current best path. It then compares the best path with the next path
in list, until it reaches the end of the list of valid paths. The following is a list of rules used to determine the
best path.

1.
Prefer the path with the highest WEIGHT. Note: WEIGHT is a Cisco-specific parameter, local to the router on which it’s configured.

2.
Prefer the path with the highest LOCAL_PREF. Note the following:

Path without LOCAL_PREF is considered as having the value set with the bgp default local-preference command, or 100 by default.

3.
Prefer the path that was locally originated via a network or aggregate BGP subcommand, or through redistribution from an IGP. Local paths sourced by network or redistribute commands are preferred over local aggregates sourced by the aggregate-address command.

4.
Prefer the path with the shortest AS_PATH. Note the following:

The AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE and AS_CONFED_SET are not included in the AS_PATH length.

5.
Prefer the path with the lowest origin type: IGP is lower than EGP, and EGP is lower than INCOMPLETE.

6.
Prefer the path with the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED). Note the following:
This comparison is only done if the first (neighboring) AS is the same in the two paths; any confederation sub-ASs are ignored. In other words, MEDs are compared only if the first AS in the AS_SEQUENCE is the same for multiple paths. Any preceding AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE is ignored. If bgp always-compare-med is enabled, MEDs are compared for all paths. This option needs to be enabled over the entire AS, otherwise routing loops can occur.
If bgp bestpath med-confed is enabled, MEDs are compared for all paths that consist only of AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE (paths originated within the local confederation).
Paths received from a neighbor with a MED of 4,294,967,295 will have the MED changed to 4,294,967,294 before insertion into the BGP table.
Paths received with no MED are assigned a MED of 0, unless bgp bestpath missing-as-worst is enabled, in which case they are assigned a MED of 4,294,967,294.
The bgp deterministic med command can also influence this step as demonstrated in the How BGP Routers Use the Multi-Exit Discriminator for Best Path Selection.
7.
Prefer external (eBGP) over internal (iBGP) paths. If bestpath is selected, go to Step 9 (multipath).

Note: Paths containing AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE and AS_CONFED_SET are local to the confederation,
and therefore treated as internal paths. There is no distinction between
Confederation External and Confederation Internal.
8.
Prefer the path with the lowest IGP metric to the BGP next hop. Continue, even if
bestpath is already selected.
9.
Check if multiple paths need to be installed in the routing table for BGP Multipath.
Continue, if bestpath is not selected yet.
10.
When both paths are external, prefer the path that was received first (the oldest one). This step
minimizes route-flap, since a newer path will not displace an older one, even if it
would be the preferred route based on the next decision criteria (Steps 11, 12, and 13).
Skip this step if any of the following is true:

o The bgp best path compare-routerid command is enabled.
Note: This command was introduced in Cisco IOS(r) Software Releases 12.0.11S, 12.0.11SC,
12.0.11S3, 12.1.3, 12.1.3AA, 12.1.3.T, and 12.1.3.E.

o The router ID is the same for multiple paths, since the routes were received from the same router.

o There is no current best path. An example of losing the current best path occurs when the neighbor offering the path goes down.
11.
Prefer the route coming from the BGP router with the lowest router ID. The router ID is the highest IP address on the router, with preference given to loopback addresses. It can also be set manually using the bgp router-id command. Note: If a path contains route-reflector (RR) attributes, the originator ID is substituted for the router ID in the path selection process.

12.
If the originator or router ID is the same for multiple paths, prefer the path with the minimum cluster list length. This will only be present in BGP route-reflector environments. It allows clients to peer with RRs or clients in other clusters. In this scenario, the client must be aware of the RR-specific BGP attribute.

13.
Prefer the path coming from the lowest neighbor address. This is the IP address used in the BGP neighbor configuration, and corresponds to the remote peer used in the TCP connection with the local router.
QUESTION 59
The Certkiller BGP routing table consists of the following network routes:

What is the correct command to summarize these prefixes into a single summary prefix of 192.168.12.0/22 while also allowing for the advertisement of the more specific prefixes?
A. network 192.168.12.0 mask 255.255.252.0
B. network 192.168.12.0 mask 0.0.3.255
C. network 192.168.12.0
D. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0
E. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
F. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 as-set

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To summarize BGP prefixes into one aggregated route, use the “aggregate-address” command.
When used alone, this will advertise the aggregate route, along with the individual specific
routing entries. To advertise only the aggregated route, use the “summary-only” keyword, as specified in
choice E.

QUESTION 60
The Certkiller BGP network is displayed below: Certkiller 3 is the hub router and Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. Each router is in a separate AS. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from Certkiller 1?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 1.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 2.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on Certkiller 3.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The following example illustrates the issue:
BGP Next Hop (NBMA)
If the common media as you see in the shaded area above is a frame relay or any NBMA cloud then the exact behavior will occur as if we were connected via Ethernet. RTC will advertise 180.20.0.0 to RTA with a next hop of 170.10.20.3. The problem is that RTA does not have a direct PVC to RTD, and cannot reach the next hop. In this case routing will fail. In order to remedy this situation a command called next-hop-self is created. The next-hop-self Command Because of certain situations with the next hop as we saw in the previous example, a command called next-hop-self is created. The syntax is: neighbor {ip-address|peer-group-name} next-hop-self The next-hop-self command allows us to force BGP to use a specified IP address as the next hop rather than letting the protocol choose the next hop. In the previous example, the following configuration solves our problem: RTC# router bgp 300 neighbor 170.10.20.1 remote-as 100 neighbor 170.10.20.1 next-hop-self RTC advertises 180.20.0.0 with a next hop = 170.10.20.2 Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/459/bgp-toc.html#bgpnexthop
QUESTION 61
Exhibit Based on the show ip bgp summary output in the exhibit, which two statements are true? Select two?

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting is attempting to establish a BGP peering to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish BGP peering with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AFCEBD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
we want to hide some of your internal IP subnets from outside networks. By what means can you conceal the details of your IP addressing scheme to the outside world?
A. Subnetting
B. Supernetting
C. Challenge Handshake Protocol
D. Usernames and passwords

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In large internetworks, hundreds or even thousands of networks can exist. In these environments, it is often not desirable for routers to maintain all these routes in their routing table. Route summarization (also called route aggregation or supernetting) can reduce the number of routes that a router must maintain because is it a method of representing a series of network numbers in a single summary address. By advertising only one large supernet to the outise world, the details of your IP network scheme can remain hidden.
QUESTION 63
The Certkiller network will be using a new ISP for their Internet connection. The new Internet provider will be allocating a new registered class C IP address subnet to use. In order to not have to change out the entire internal IP addressing scheme on your network, you plan to use NAT to translate all of the internal IP address to the new IP addresses that are being assigned to Certkiller . You have been assigned the task of making changes so that the following requirements are met: Maintain the current IP addressing scheme Configure Certkiller ‘s router for network address translation (NAT) so all the internal computers use the same external IP address Configure a static translation so Certkiller employees can access their email from the internet. Privileged mode password: Certkiller The IP Addresses are shown below: Name: Certkiller NAT SO 192.168.15.1/24 E0 10.100.5.1/24 E-mail Server’s External Address 192.168.15.5/24 E-mail Server’s Internal Address 10.100.5.5/24 To configure the router click on a host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Certkiller NAT(config-if)#exit Certkiller NAT(config)#exit Certkiller NAT#copy run start Q322

You have been assigned the task of configuring the routers to meet the following requirements:
In the unlikely event that a link goes down, you have to ensure a backup link exists
The proper metrics must be distributed through the IGRP portion of the network Based on this information,
which of the following should you do? (Select two)

A. Apply the distance command to Main
B. Apply the distance command to CK2
C. Apply the distribute-list command to Main
D. Apply the distribute-list command to CK2
Answer: B, C Explanation:
B: Most routing protocols, including IGRP and RIP, use the distance command to modify the administrative distance. We need to change the metric of the RIP routes learned by CK2 .
C: To control the advertising and processing of routes in routing updates the distribute-list
command is used.
Incorrect Answers:

A: We change the administrative distance of RIP routes on CK2 .

D: We should apply the distribute-list command to Main, not to CK2 .

QUESTION 64
Network topology exhibit

Certkiller .com is changing ISPs. As a result, they will need to install an Email server and utilize network address translation (NAT) for the internal network. Certkiller .com does not want to change the IP Addresses on all of the internal routers and servers. The new ISP, Foo Services, will allocate a registered class C address for Certkiller to use. The internal IP Address scheme will remain the same. Configure the router to provide NAT so that all internal Certkiller PCs will use the single external IP Address assigned to the router interface. Configure a static translation so that Certkiller .com’s Email server will be accessible from the Internet. Name: Certkiller NAT S0: 192.168.17.1/24 E0: 10.0.216.1/24 Secret Password: Certkiller
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
192.168.212.5/24 Web Server’s Internal Address 10.0.243.5/24
QUESTION 65
One of the virtues of a Link-State routing protocol is its hierarchical design. What advantages does this equate to in network design? (Select two)
A. It allows link-state protocols to support VLSM.
B. It allows them to support address summarization.
C. It reduces the need to flood LSAs to all devices in the internetwork.
D. Routers are no longer required to keep track of the topology of the entire autonomous system.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Hierarchical design can limit the requirement to notify all devices. The use of areas restricts the flooding to the logical boundary of the area rather than to all devices in the OSPF domain. Another advantage of hierarchical network design is that the entire network is divided into multiple smaller sections, so that much of the routing information is kept within a small area. In a non-hierarchical network, each router is required to maintain routing information for all other routers within the entire network. Incorrect Answers:
A: Although link state protocols do indeed support VLSM, it is not due to a hierarchical network design. For example, RIP version 2 supports VLSM, but it is not hierarchical.
B: Although address summarization can indeed be configured on routers configured in a hierarchical design, it is an independent function and is not related to the fact that a tiered network design is being used.
QUESTION 66
In regards to the three layered hierarchical network design, which of the following are responsibilities of the distribution layer? (Choose 2)
A. Reliable transport structure
B. Route redistribution
C. Optimized transport structure
D. Address aggregation
E. Unauthorized entry access control lists

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The distribution layer is responsible for what enters and exits a network, including the
consolidation of traffic from multiple subnets into a core connection. Route redistribution and address
aggregation happen at this layer.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: This is a function of the core layer.

E. This is a function of the access layer.
QUESTION 67
Which of the following are advantages of implementing a hierarchical IP addressing scheme when designing a large network? (Select two)
A. Smaller routing tables
B. Efficient address allocation
C. Translation of private addresses
D. Support for link-state routing protocols

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Hierarchical IP addressing uses the addresses more conservatively, by planning for the correct use of subnet masks and route summarization. A hierarchical network design facilitates the use of IP routing summarization, which will reduce the size of the routing tables.
QUESTION 68
The Certkiller frame relay network is shown in the diagram below: Based on the information given in this diagram, which of the following are true??

A. The network is using a two-layer full-mesh hierarchical design.
B. The network is using a two-layer hub-and-spoke hierarchical design.
C. To improve scalability, route summarization at Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 , and CK6 should be performed.
D. Routers A and B are the distribution layer routers.
E. Routers CK1 , CK2 , CK3 , CK4 , CK5 and CK6 are the access layer routers.
F. To improve security, packet filtering that uses ACLs at Routers A and B must be implemented.

Correct Answer: CEADB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The network shown here is using a 3 level tiered approach: Core, Distribution, and Access.
B: Three layers are used, not two.
D: Routers A and B are the Core routers here.
E: These routers make up the Distribution layer.
QUESTION 69
You are trying to determine the best routing protocol to use for the large Certkiller network. Which routing protocols should you avoid when deploying a large network? (Select two)
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v.2
E. RIP v.1

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Both RIP version 1 and version 2 should only be used in relatively small networks. A large network would be congested by RIP broadcasts. These frequent broadcasts contain the entire routing table, and could saturate links.
QUESTION 70
What are some of the features that are important for designing large, scalable networks? (Select three)
A. A tiered network design model.
B. Sufficient memory on the router.
C. Multiple EIGRP autonomous systems.
D. Good address space allocation scheme.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: A tiered network design model such as Core, Distribution, and Access is also needed for
large networks.

B: Sufficient capacity of the routers, in particular the memory, is required for large networks.

D: Good allocation of address space is required- Each region should have a unique address
space so route summarization is possible.
Incorrect Answers:

C: Configuring multiple EIGRP autonomous systems can add extra overhead and it provides no
additional benefits.

QUESTION 71
Two of the following routing protocols require a tiered, hierarchical topology. Which ones are they? (Select two)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v2

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IS-IS and OSPF both require a hierarchical topology. The use of multiple areas and a core
backbone area means that they are hierarchical by nature.

QUESTION 72
What has become the leading Interior Routing Protocol (IGP) in use by Internet service providers?
A. IS-IS
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIPv2
E. BGP4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In recent years, the IS-IS routing protocol has become increasingly popular, with widespread use among Service Providers. It is a link state protocol, which enables very fast convergence with large scalability. It is also a very flexible protocol and has been extended to incorporate leading edge features such as MPLS Traffic Engineering. It is also chosen because it is an IETF standard based protocol, rather than a proprietary protocol such as IGRP or EIGRP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ CK3 65/ CK3 81/technologies_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sht ml
QUESTION 73
Two of the following routing protocols support load balancing over unequal cost links.Which ones are they? (Select two)
A. IGRP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. RIP v2
E. RIP v1

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IGRP and EIGRP support unequal cost path load balancing, which is known as variance. OSPF,
RIP v1 and RIP v2 do not support this.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/19.html

QUESTION 74
You are required to choose a routing protocol that supports variable length subnet masks (VLSM) for your network. Which of the following would meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v1

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IS-IS, EIGRP, OSPF, RIP V2 and static routes all support VLSM.
Incorrect Answers:

B: IGRP is the predecessor to EIGRP and does not support VLSM.
E: RIP version 1 is a distance vector routing protocol that does not support VLSM.
QUESTION 75
Cisco routers automatically perform route summarization for various protocols. Which three of the following routing protocols are they? (Select three)
A. IS-IS
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIP v.1

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sending route summaries – Routing information advertised out an interface is automatically summarized at

major (classful) network address boundaries by RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP. Specifically, this autonomous summarization occurs for those routes whose classful network address differs from the major network address of the interface to which the advertisement is being sent. Reference: Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Cisco Press) page 79

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