Adobe, Photoshop

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QUESTION 71
Which is an advantage of using a vector drawing tool over a raster painting tool?
A. Vector shapes use layers.
B. Vector shapes use 16-bit/channel color rendering.
C. Vector shapes can have filters applied to them repeatedly.
D. Vector shapes can be repeatedly transformed without degrading their edges.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Which mask does a shape layer use by default?
A. vector
B. raster
C. clipping
D. transparency

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
You have created a path by using the Pen tool. You want to transform the path using Perspective. What should you do?
A. select the path using the Path Selection tool, then choose Edit > Transform Path > Perspective
B. select the path using the Direct Selection tool, then choose Edit > Transform Path > Perspective
C. select the path using the Path Selection tool, then choose Select > Transform Selection > Perspective
D. select the path using the Direct Selection tool, then choose Select > Transform Selection > Perspective

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
You have created a line of text. You want to reduce the amount of space between every character in the line. What should you do?
A. decrease the leading
B. decrease the baseline shift
C. choose a negative value for kerning
D. choose a negative value for tracking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
Click the Exhibit button.
Which adjustment has the greatest effect on lightening the shadows in an image with the Curves dialog box shown in the exhibit?

A. moving curve point 1 up
B. moving curve point 2 up
C. moving curve point 1 down
D. moving curve point 2 down

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before your last several edits. Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to make the gradient in the exhibit transition from black to white more quickly. What should you

do?

A. add an opacity stop between points 1 and 2
B. add an opacity stop between points 2 and 3
C. add a white color stop between points 1 and 2
D. add a white color stop between points 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
You are using a Brush tool. Which blending mode always results in a darker color?
A. Behind
B. Normal
C. Screen
D. Multiply

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
Your foreground swatch is red, your background swatch is orange.
Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values. Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image. What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which statement about creating custom brushes is true?
A. Feathering must be set to 0.
B. The pixels used to define a brush must be grayscale.
C. A brush can be created from any selection up to 2500×2500 pixels.
D. The selection you use to create the brush must contain a variety of color values.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
You are using the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image. Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A. Flow
B. Aligned
C. Impressionist
D. Protect Texture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to the PostScript printer. What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers’ vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer > Rasterize > All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. select Include Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You enable color management in your printer driver dialog box. You want to print an RGB image. Which color handling method should you choose in the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
You measure a laser printer’s resolution in _____ per inch and you measure an image’s resolution in _____ per inch.
A. dots; dots
B. dots; pixels
C. pixels; dots
D. pixels; pixels

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
What should you do to apply a keyword to a selected image being viewed in Adobe Bridge?
A. double-click the keyword in the Keywords panel
B. select the check box next to the keyword in the Keywords panel
C. drag the keyword from the Keywords panel to the image being viewed
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) the image and choose the keyword from the resulting menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
You have a folder of images. You want to rename each image with new text, a sequence number, and the current extension, and copy the renamed file to another folder. What should you do?
A. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
B. from Photoshop, choose File > Scripts > Image Processor
C. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Version Cue > Make Alternates
D. from Photoshop, choose File > Automate > Batch, then choose Rename from the Actions pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
You are using Adobe Bridge to view metadata. You want to limit the information in each category to the information you use. What should you do?
A. choose View > Compact Mode
B. from the Metadata panel, click the triangle to the left of the items you want to hide
C. from the Preferences dialog box, click on Metadata, then uncheck items you want to hide
D. from the Metadata panel, select the items you want to view, then choose Window > Workspace > Save Workspace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
You assign a color to an action while creating the action. When is this color used?
A. to fill a selection when the action is played
B. when a Function key has been assigned to the Action
C. when actions are displayed in Button mode in the Actions palette
D. to highlight the Action name when Playback Options are set to Step by Step

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
You play a default action located in the Actions palette. How do you undo the entire action?
A. choose Edit > Undo
B. choose Clear All Actions from the Action palette menu
C. drag the action to the Trash Can at the bottom of the Action palette
D. select a snapshot in the History palette showing the image before the Action was played

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
What happens when you choose the command File > Automate > Fit Image?
A. it resamples an image to within specified dimensions
B. it resamples an image to match another open document
C. it resizes an image to within specified dimensions without resampling
D. it resizes an image to match another open document without resampling

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
You have created an action to open Camera Raw images. You access the action by using the Batch command. In the Source area, you have selected Suppress File Open Options Dialogs. What does this setting do?
A. opens all images in the same color space
B. ignores color profile warnings when opening the files
C. prevents the automatic creation of the first snapshot
D. prevents the Camera Raw dialog box from opening for each image

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Which statement about the Filter Gallery is true?
A. Filter effects can be temporarily hidden in the list of applied filters.
B. Filters that are hidden are still applied when click OK to apply filters.
C. All filters listed under the Filter menu are available in the Filter Gallery.
D. You get the same effect regardless of the order the filters appear in the list of applied filters.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
Which filter allows you to apply different sharpening settings to shadows, highlights, and midtones?
A. Sharpen
B. Sharpen More
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Smart Sharpen

Correct Answer: D

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ACE Illustrator, Adobe

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QUESTION 48
You are preparing an Illustrator file for color separation. Which color mode should your document be using?
A. RGB color
B. LAB color
C. HSB color
D. CMYK color

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
To which image can you apply a spot color?
A. an embedded color GIF image
B. an embedded color TIFF image
C. an embedded grayscale GIF image
D. an embedded grayscale TIFF image

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which category of print options enables you to create color separations?
A. Setup
B. Output
C. Advanced
D. Color Management

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You create a new Transparency Flattener Preset. Where do you select that preset so that it is used when you print your document?
A. Transparency palette
B. Flattener Preview palette
C. General Settings in the Print dialog box
D. Advanced Settings in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You are converting several vector objects to raster. Which should you select in the Rasterize dialog box so that you can control the resolution globally?
A. Screen (72 ppi)
B. High (300 ppi)
C. Anti-aliasing: None
D. Use Document Raster Effects Resolution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which Web graphic format is resolution-independent?
A. PNG
B. SVG
C. JPEG
D. WBMB
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which format supports transparency on small devices, such as mobile phones?
A. SVG 1.1
B. SVG Tiny 1.1
C. SVG Basic 1.1
D. SVG Tiny 1.1 Plus
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
You are creating a graphic that will be used on the Web. You want to ensure maximum compatibility with the largest number of users, the smallest possible file size, and the highest fidelity to the original graphic. The graphic uses few colors. Which file format should you use?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
You want to make your image interactive when it is viewed in a Web browser. You want to add a JavaScript that will be triggered when the user moves the mouse into a certain area of the image. Which should you choose from the SVG Interactivity palette?
A. onmouseup
B. onmouseout
C. onmouseover
D. onmousedown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
You are creating artwork for animation and will export the artwork as a SWF file. Which type of object should you use to greatly reduce the output size of the SWF file?
A. Mesh
B. Patterns
C. Symbols

D. Gradients Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
You are configuring your Color Settings. You want to utilize color management but want CMYK values to be preserved when opening untagged documents. You also want to use an RGB working color space that is well suited for documents that will be converted to CMYK.
Which default setting should you choose?
A. Monitor Color
B. North America Prepress 2
C. Emulate Adobe Illustrator 6.0
D. North America General Purpose 2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which field in the Color Settings dialog box allows you to choose profiles that will act as the source profiles for newly created documents, which use an associated color model?
A. Settings
B. Advanced Mode
C. Working Spaces
D. Color Management Policies

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
When making default color management decisions, to what does a color management policy compare profiles?
A. the RGB working space
B. the CMYK working space
C. the current working space
D. the rendering intent that is currently selected
E. the color management engine that is currently selected
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which is part of a color managed workflow in Adobe Illustrator?
A. color profiles
B. color swatches
C. symbol libraries
D. graphic style libraries
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Click the Exhibit button. You are browsing files by using Adobe Bridge. What does the icon at the bottom right of the image thumbnail signify?

A. The file is a template.
B. The file is currently open.
C. The file contains alternate versions.
D. The file is an Adobe Stock Photo comp.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You do NOT want Adobe Bridge to show document creation dates in the Metadata pane. What should you do?
A. in Adobe Bridge, be sure that View>Sort>Date Created is NOT checked
B. in the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, select the Date Created line and press the delete key
C. use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, deselect Date Created
D. delete the date and time in the Date Created data field, use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, select Hide Empty Fields

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
You want to have Adobe Bridge act as a floating palette to easily drag assets into your Illustrator document. Which mode should you toggle?
A. Compact mode
B. Thumbnail mode
C. Details View mode
D. Ultra-compact mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
What does Adobe Bridge allow you to do?
A. browse files of all Adobe file formats
B. convert from one Adobe file format to another
C. edit metadata of any file format, Adobe or other
D. convert non-Adobe files to the most closely related Adobe file format
Correct Answer: A

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ACE Illustrator, Adobe

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QUESTION 53
Which is part of a color managed workflow in Adobe Illustrator?
A. color profiles
B. color swatches
C. symbol libraries
D. graphic style libraries

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
You have been using paragraph styles in your text. You click in a paragraph and notice that there’s a plus
sign next to the style name in the Paragraph Styles palette.
What does the plus sign indicate?

A. Additional text exists but is not visible.
B. The text has been converted to outline.
C. A character style has been applied to the text.
D. The text formatting does not match the paragraph style definition.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.
In the Control palette shown in the exhibit, what is the function of the highlighted icon?
Exhibit:
A. groups objects
B. shows center point
C. aligns objects vertically
D. isolates selected group

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shape mode in the Pathfinder palette was applied to all the objects in Exhibit A to create the image
in Exhibit B?
Exhibit:
A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You have made a text selection. Where can you access the strikethrough text attribute?
A. Type menu
B. Character palette
C. OpenType palette
D. Character palette menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
You want to assign an identical set of stroke, fill, and effects attributes to objects as you create them. Which method should you choose?
A. Fill and Stroke
B. Filter > Stylize
C. Graphic Styles
D. Effects > Stylize

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You have imported text with substituted fonts, which are highlighted. Where do you find the option to turn off the highlighting?
A. File > Place
B. Window > Type > Glyphs
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
When exporting an Adobe Illustrator document, which two formats will export vector graphics data? (Choose two.)
A. TIFF
B. PNG
C. Flash
D. Targa
E. Enhanced Metafile
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 61
Which format supports transparency on small devices, such as mobile phones?
A. SVG 1.1
B. SVG Tiny 1.1
C. SVG Basic 1.1
D. SVG Tiny 1.1 Plus

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You create an object to use as an envelope for a text object. What should you do to the object to ensure that the object distorts the text object?
A. group the object to the text object
B. place the object at the top of the stacking order
C. place the object at the bottom of the stacking order
D. select Distort Appearance from the Envelope Options dialog box Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
You want to define a Pantone ink spot color and place it in the Swatches palette. Which action displays a list of ink brands in order to select Pantone swatches?
A. select Spot Colors from the Swatches palette menu
B. select Create New Swatch from the Color palette menu
C. select Swatch Options from the Swatches palette menu
D. select Open Swatch Library from the Swatches palette menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
When you export an Illustrator file as a PSD and you check the Maximum Editability option, objects will be preserved as vectors and not rasterized if they _____.
A. are grouped
B. are Live Paint groups
C. are compound shapes
D. do NOT have transparency applied

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
What happens when you click on blue underlined text in the Control palette?
A. All palettes show or hide.
B. You are taken to a Help file.
C. You are taken to a Web site.
D. A palette appears under the Control palette.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You are repositioning palettes on your screen. You grab a palette by its tab and drag it so your cursor touches the bottom of another palette on your screen. What happens to the palette you are dragging?
A. It replaces the existing palette.
B. It snaps back to its original position.
C. It becomes docked to the existing palette.
D. It becomes clustered with the existing palette.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
You do NOT want Adobe Bridge to show document creation dates in the Metadata pane. What should you do?
A. in Adobe Bridge, be sure that View>Sort>Date Created is NOT checked
B. in the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, select the Date Created line and press the delete key
C. use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, deselect Date Created
D. delete the date and time in the Date Created data field, use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, selectHide Empty Fields
Correct Answer: C

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Adobe, Photoshop

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QUESTION 41
You have made a selection that you want to save as an alpha channel to be used in another image. What should you do?
A. with the selection active, choose Edit>Copy; open the other document and choose Edit>Paste
B. choose Select>Save Selection and select the other file as the destination image in the Document pull-down menu
C. choose File>Save and select As a Copy in the Save menu, and choose the other file as the destination image.
D. Press and hold the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows); click Save Selection as Channel on the Channel palette, and choose the other document as the destination image in the Document menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
An image will be printed using a screen frequency of 150 lpi. Which resolution should you use to produce a high-quality halfone image?
A. 75 ppi
B. 150 ppi
C. 300 ppi
D. 600 ppi

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
You want to scan line art in Bitmap mode and print the image. At which resolution should you scan the line art?
A. the value of the line screen
B. the resolution of the printer
C. the resolution of the scanner
D. two times the value of the line screen

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You create a complex selection that will use many times while working with a document. You choose Select>Save Select. The Selection is stored in the ______ palette.
A. Paths
B. Layers
C. Navigator
D. Channels
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which defect can occur when scanning a photo from a printed document?
A. dithering
B. color fringing
C. downsampling

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
You are correcting images that will be incorporated into a Web site. You primary audience will be viewing
the images on Windows-based computers. You want to simulate how the images will appear on the
majority of their monitors.
Which value should you enter for the Gamma setting in the Adobe Gamma dialog box?

A. 1.0
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
Which painting tool allows only hard-edged brushstrokes?
A. eraser
B. pencil
C. sharpen
D. pattern stamp

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
Which feature or command should you use to save a custom set of styles?
A. the Action palette
B. the Preset Manager
C. choose New Style from the Styles palette menu
D. choose New Style from the Layer Style dialog box.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
You have seamed an image into Adobe Photoshop. You have a profile for your scanner. Which command should you use to ensue that the image is properly color managed?
A. View>Proof Setup
B. View>Proof Colors
C. Image>Mode>Assign Profile
D. Image>Mode>Convert to Profile

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which painting tool builds up color if you hof the mouse button WITHOUT dragging?
A. pencil
B. airbrush
C. paintbrush
D. paint bucker

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
What is controlled by the Preset Manager?
A. tool preferences
B. application preferences
C. default palette locations
D. libraries of brushes, swatches, and styles

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
What is the purpose of the Adobe Gamma utility?
A. to set the midtones of an image
B. to change the color settings of you monitor
C. to calibrate and define the RGB space of your monitor
D. to calibrate and define the color space of your scanner

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
You want to use the Lighting Effects filter. The option is grayed out. What should you do?
A. make a selection
B. switch to RGM mode
C. deselect the selection
D. switch to CMYK mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
What can you display in the status bar?
A. filter
B. image mode
C. gamut warning
D. document profile

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 51
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C

Flydumps 3Com 3M0-331 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior lecturers and experts.The Microsoft-technet – Implementing 3Com 3M0-331 VCE and PDF give you the knowledge and the know how to affectively prepare for the Microsoft-technet that you will be tested on for 3Com 3M0-331 exam.

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Cert, Download 3Com 3M0-331 Exam Dumps For Sale

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QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F

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ACSA, Apple

Apple 9L0-623 Exams, Most Popular Apple 9L0-623 Answers Will Be More Popular

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QUESTION 20
As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has two Mac OS X Server v10.6 computers as Software Update servers. You want the Software Update service on one computer to retrieve available software updates from the other, instead of both computers downloading updates from Apple’s public Software Update servers.What should you do?
A. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.conf
B. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.plist
C. You should edit the file /usr/share/swupd/html/index.sucatalog
D. You should edit the file /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com .You are defining a workflow in Automator that will automate the creation of custom NetBoot service images. Which statement is true?
A. The workflow must use actions available in Automator’s System library.
B. Workflow creating NetInstall images can use The “Add User Account” action.
C. The results of one Automator action become the input to the next action in the workflow.
D. The workflow can branch based on the results of an action, causing just one of several defined actions to be performed next.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com. What can you perform with an Apple Remote Desktop task server?
A. You can check the client information.
B. You can check the local network for ARD client computers.
C. You can arrange tasks for offline client computers.
D. You can turn on powered-down client computers using the Lights Out Management protocol. Answer: C

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 23
There is one folder named ~/Library/Preferences/ByHost/ on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Please point out what information is stored in it.
A. The computer’s hardware settings
B. The user preferences that are tied to specific computers
C. The computer’s license information
D. The access control lists specifying the local files to which network users have Read/Write access

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Your organization has 100 Intel iMac computers. You are creating a NetInstall image on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. Which Automator action should you add if you want to specify that the finished image can be accessed only by a specific subset of your iMac computers?
A. Define Image Source
B. Filter Computer Models
C. Filter Clients by IP Address
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Filter Clients by MAC Address
F. Apply System Configuration Settings

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has a Mac OS X Server v5 computer. Which process should you use to implement software updates to client computers?
A. You should swupd_syncd
B. You should swsvrd_updated
C. You should useupdated
D. You should use httpd-1.3
QUESTION 26
Which statement best defines the term “bundle” as it applies to the Mac OS X v10.6 file system?
A. A folder that is invisible in the Finder
B. A folder of files that the Finder displays as a single file
C. A folder of files that have been gathered and organized for deployment
D. A hierarchical directory structure containing an executable code and related resources

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which command-line tool can display the ID of a specific installation package?
A. pkgs
B. pkgutil
C. swupdate
D. packagemaker

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
In Mac OS X v10.6, which tool do you use to restore a multicasted image to a target volume?
A. asr
B. hdiutil
C. diskutil
D. Disk Utility
E. System Image Utility

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Your organization has 100 Intel iMac computers. You are creating a NetInstall image on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. Which Automator action should you add if you want to specify that the finished image can be accessed only by a specific subset of your iMac computers?
A. Define Image Source
B. Filter Computer Models
C. Filter Clients by IP Address
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Filter Clients by MAC Address
F. Apply System Configuration Settings

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
You are adding a RAID system to your IT infrastructure. The new RAID system will consume electricity at a maximum rate of 600 watts and will be connected to a 120 volt outlet. How many amperes of electric current must be supplied in order to power this RAID system?
A. 1.8 amps
B. 5 amps
C. 8 amps
D. 10 amps
QUESTION 31
You have created the disk image shown in the screenshot below. Which command can you enter in Terminal to convert this disk image into four files that will appear as a single volume when they are downloaded and opened on a Mac OS X computer?

A. hdiutil convert -o data_part -count 4data_files.dmg Sample Test Mac OS X Deployment 10.6 Exam
B. diskutil convert -o data_part -count 4 data_files.dmg
C. hdiutil segment -o data_part -segmentCount 4data_files.dmg
D. diskutil segment -o data_part -segmentCount 4data_files.dmg

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
In Mac OS X, what extension follows DVD and CD master disk image names?
A. .dmg
B. .dvd
C. .cdr
D. .dcm
E. .img

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Apple 9L0-620 PDF Download, Sale Latest Release Apple 9L0-620 Actual Test Online Store

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QUESTION 50
Which is a valid storage location for the file named “openldap-withstatic.plist”?
A. /etc/openldap/templ/
B. /var/db/dslocal/Default/mappings/
C. /Library/Preferences/DirectoryService/
D. /Library/Application Support/Directory Access/LDAPv3/Templates/

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
Please point out which process on an Open Directory replica receives notification of changes to an Open Directory master?
A. repld
B. slapd
C. slurpd
D. slapcatd

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
Please point out which data is replicated from an Open Directory master to an Open Directory replica?
A. System keychain
B. Kerberos public keys
C. BSD directory domain
D. LDAP directory domain

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
By setting the authentication search policy in Directory Utility, you set the order in which different directory domains are searched for account records
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
By setting the authentication search policy in Directory Utility, you set authentication policies for user accounts, such as password length
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
By setting the authentication search policy in Directory Utility, you set the password hashes that are allowed for login window authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
By setting the authentication search policy in Directory Utility, you set the order in which user certificates are searched for public key authentication methods
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
You want to promote a standalone Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to an Open Directory master. If the server has the DNS name “mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company”, How to perform the promotion?
A. You should use the command slapconfig -promote mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company
B. You should use the command ldapconfig -a mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company -u diradmin -p password
C. You should use the command ldapconfig -createldapmaster dc=mainserver,dc=Real-Exams.net,dc=com MAINSERVER.Real-Exams.net Company
D. You should use the command slapconfig -createldapmasterandadmin diradmin ‘Directory Admin’ 1000 dc=mainserver,dc=Real-Exams.net,dc=com MAINSERVER.Real-Exams.net Company

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
When should you use dseditgroup rather than dscl?
A. When you need to edit the Directory ACLs for your groups.
B. When you need to edit both the local and network directory domains.
C. When you need a GUID to be created automatically for new group records.
D. When you need to edit groups that reside in an Active Directory directory domain.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What information you can find in a TGT from a KDC?
A. The public key for the KDC
B. The user account password
C. The service key for all kerberized services
D. The date and time that the TGT was issued

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Please point out what is a Kerberos user principal?
A. Kerberos user principal is an entry in the local Keychain database that contains the private keys for a particular Kerberos user
B. Kerberos user principal is an entry in the LDAP database that contains the identification information for a particular Kerberos user
C. Kerberos user principal is an entry in the KDC database that contains the authentication information for a particular Kerberos user
D. Kerberos user principal is an entry in the local Directory Services database that contains the identification information for a particular Kerberos user

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
You configure one Mac OS X v10.5 client computer to search both an Open Directory server and an Active Directory server for user authentication information. How does Mac OS X on the client computer perform the search?
A. Mac OS X only searches the Open Directory server. If the user is not found there, the user is not authenticated.
B. Mac OS X searches the Open Directory server first. If the user is not found there, Mac OS X searches the Active Directory server.
C. Mac OS X searches the directory that is listed first in the search path. If the user is not found there, the user is not authenticated.
D. Mac OS X searches the directory that is listed first in the search path. If the user is not found there, Mac OS X searches the next directory in the search path.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
You want to use a third-party LDAP server to support your Mac OS X v10.5 client computers, but the LDAP server needs additional data in order to do so. What are THREE ways to provide the missing data?
A. You should enter the missing data on the client computers as a schema addition in /etc/openldap.
B. You should enter the missing data on the client computers as static attribute values using the LDAP plug-in.
C. You should enter the missing data on the LDAP server in value fields of unused attributes that have compatible value types.
D. You should modify the directory schema on the third-party LDAP server, and enter the missing data in the new attributes in the schema.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 63
You use Directory Utility to bind a Mac OS X v10.5 client computer to an Active Directory server. What role does the client’s computer ID, “Mac1”, play in the binding process?
A. The client computer edits the AllowedClients attribute to include the value “Mac1”.
B. The client computer creates a computer record named “Mac1” in the Active Directory service.
C. The client computer uses the value of the KerberosPrincipal property inside a computer record called “Mac1” for SMB authentication.
D. The client computer checks the attributes of the AllowedClients record to verify that “Mac1” is allowed to bind to the Active Directory domain.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You have configured a Mac OS X v10.5 computer for trusted binding to an Open Directory master. Which step takes place as part of the trusted binding process?
A. A computer record for the client is created on the Open Directory master.
B. User principals are downloaded from the Open Directory master to the client for the local KDC.
C. The search path order is downloaded from the Open Directory master to the client, and configured on the client.
D. SSL certificates are downloaded from the Open Directory master to the client to establish an encrypted connection.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which of the following statement exactly describe the architecture of an Open Directory replica system in Mac OS X Server v10.5?
A. An Open Directory master can have 64 replicas. Replicas cannot replicate other replicas.
B. An Open Directory master can have 1024 replicas. Replicas cannot replicate other replicas.
C. An Open Directory master can have 32 replicas, and each replica can have another 32 replicas.
D. An Open Directory master can have 64 replicas, and each replica can have another 64 replicas.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
You use the Server Admin to configure a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer located at server.Real-Exams.net Company to provide directory information via LDAP. What is the default search base?
A. ou=server,o=Real-Exams.net,o=com
B. ou=server,ou=Real-Exams.net,ou=com
C. dc=server,dc=Real-Exams.net,dc=com
D. ou=server,dc=Real-Exams.net,dc=com

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
A network user account named “Mike” is stored on an LDAP server. On a Mac OS X client computer whose computer name is “Mac1”, a user enters valid authentication information for the network account, but the login fails. From another Mac OS X client computer, “Mac2”, logging in with the same authentication information succeeds. What might be causing the problem on Mac1?
A. lookupd has quit on Mac1.
B. Mac1 does not have the LDAP schema extensions installed.
C. The user account’s password hash is not supported on Mac1.
D. Another account named “Mike” with a different password is stored in the local directory domain of Mac1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
How to view cached Kerberos service tickets?
A. You should use the command-line tool kinit
B. You should use the command-line tool klist
C. You should use the command-line tool ktutil
D. You should use the command-line tool kadmin

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
How to create a new user in the /BSD/local directory domain on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. You should use the tool dscl
B. You should use the tool vipw
C. You should use the tool dsaddusr
D. You should use the tool Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You set up an Open Directory master and a replica, and verified that both are available on the network. How do you configure a Mac OS X v10.5 client computer to bind to the current Open Directory master, and to look for the replica if the master becomes unavailable?
A. You should configure the Open Directory master to specify the replica address using managed client settings. Then bind the client to the Open Directory master with Directory Utility.
B. You should bind the client to the Open Directory master. The binding process will provide the client with the address of the replica that the client will use if it cannot contact the master.
C. You should configure the Open Directory master to specify the replica address using managed client settings. Allow the master and replica to sync at least once, and then bind the client to the Open Directory replica.
D. You should bind the client to the Open Directory replica. The binding process will provide the client with the address of the master, and the client will automatically look for the master before looking for the replica.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
What is the main difference between ldapmodify and slapadd?
A. slapadd can import LDIF files, but ldapmodify cannot.
B. ldapmodify can import LDIF files, but slapadd cannot.
C. slapadd can safely add records while the slapd daemon is running, but ldapmodify cannot.
D. ldapmodify can safely add records while the slapd daemon is running, but slapadd cannot.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
You are configuring your Mac OS X v10.5 client computers to access a third-party directory. You want to provide the client computers with mount records, without modifying the schema on the third-party directory. What should you do?
A. You should use Directory Utility to map VFSType to apple-user-homeurl on each client computer.
B. You should use the Active Directory schema rather than the RFC 2307 schema on the LDAP directory.
C. You should use Workgroup Manager to connect directly to the LDAP directory and create mount records.
D. You should supplement the third-party directory with a directory on Mac OS X Server to host the mount records.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
Windows PDC allows Windows computers to use a network user account for logins.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Windows PDC provides Windows user account information to Open Directory replicas.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Windows PDC provides managed client settings to Macintosh clients bound to an Active Directory server.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
Windows PDC provides authentication for a Mac OS X Server computer bound to an Active Directory server.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 77
You create an LDAP configuration in Directory Access that maps the local UniqueID attribute to #3600. What will happen after that?
A. All user accounts provided by that LDAP configuration will have a UniqueID of 3600.
B. The directory server will only find and return user accounts that contain a UniqueID that ends in 3600.
C. The UniqueID and GeneratedUID values for user accounts provided by that LDAP configuration on that computer will be synchronized hourly.
D. Each new user account created on that computer is assigned a UniqueID value, starting at 3600, and incrementing the UniqueID value by 1 for each subsequent new account.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 78
You want to add a third-party FTP server to the Kerberos realm hosted on your Open Directory master. Which TWO steps are required to accomplish your goal?
A. You should add a user principal to the keytab file on the FTP server.
B. You should add a service principal to the keytab file on the FTP server.
C. You should edit the user principals on the Open Directory master to support FTP.
D. You should add a service principal for the FTP service to the KDC on the Open Directory master.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 79
Please describe Kerberos keytab file contains secret keys for________.
A. user principal
B. KDC principal
C. client principal
D. service principal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
You can use slapconfig to promote a Mac OS X Server computer to an Open Directory master
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
You can use slapconfig to edit the LDAP schema on a Mac OS X Server computer
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
You can use slapconfig to bind a Mac OS X computer to an Active Directory server
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
You can use slapconfig to configure LDAP record mapping on a Mac OS X computer
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
How should you configure a Mac OS X v10.5 client computer to require packet signing when it accesses an Active Directory server?
A. You should select “Digitally sign all packets” in Directory Utility.
B. You should enter the command dsconfigad -packetsign require in Terminal.
C. You should enable “Require Active Directory packet signing” in the Kerberos preferences.
D. You should enter the command dscl localhost -create /Config/ADPacketSign require in Terminal.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Based on the above pictures. How should you do to prevent the user Doug Doe from editing user information of members of the students group?
A. You should use Directory Access Controls (DACs) to limit Doug Doe’s read and write access to records in the directory.
B. You should use Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) to block Doug Doe’s access to Open Directory administration on the server.
C. You should use File system Access Control Lists (ACLs) to limit Doug Doe’s read and write access to configuration files on the server.
D. You should use Service Access Control Lists (SACLs) to prevent Doug Doe’s connection to Open Directory administration services on the server.

Correct Answer: A

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ACSA, Apple

Apple 9L0-616 Answers, Up To Date Apple 9L0-616 Real Exam With The Knowledge And Skills

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QUESTION 41
You are tuning an Xsan volume constructed from Xserve RAID LUNs.

Xserve RAIDs have an optimal transfer size of 1 MB (1048576 bytes). Given a block allocation size of 16
KB (16384 bytes), what is the optimum stripe breadth for the volume’s storage pools?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 64 blocks
B. 65 blocks
C. 168 blocks
D. 256 blocks

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Xsan volume names can only include ________.
A. low-ASCII characters
B. uppercase letters and numbers
C. lowercase letters and numbers
D. letters, numbers, and underscores

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
You need to verify that an Xsan volume is running. Which process should you look for?
A. fsm
B. slapd
C. slurpd
D. lookupd
E. servermgrd

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which THREE are valid Fibre Channel network topologies?
A. Star
B. Parallel
C. Token Ring
D. Point-to-Point
E. Arbitrated Loop
F. Switched Fabric
G. Unswitched Fabric
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 45
In a RAID 5 array, what happens to the data on a hard disk drive that fails?
A. The data is reconstructed from parity data stored on a dedicated drive.
B. The data is reconstructed from data stored on the metadata controller.
C. The data remains in the array on a mirror drive that replaces the failed drive.
D. The data is reconstructed from parity data striped across the other drives in the array.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
The image above shows a portion of a pane in Xsan Admin. What happens if you click on the circled button?

A. A new LUN is created.
B. A new volume is created.
C. A new RAID array is created.
D. A new storage pool is created.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
A host bus adapter (HBA) is ________.
A. a copper cable that connects Fibre Channel nodes
B. a fiber-optic cable that connects Fibre Channel nodes
C. a command sent by the metadata controller to halt bus access by clients
D. an interface card that allows a computer to connect to a Fibre Channel network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
What tool should you use to view the World Wide Port Nodes (WWPNs) for an Apple Fibre Channel PCI card and an Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card?
A. cvadmin
B. Xsan Admin
C. RAID Admin
D. Fibre Channel Utility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
You have created an Xsan volume with two storage pools, each composed of two LUNs. Where is the Xsan volume’s metadata and journaling information stored?
A. on the first LUN in each storage pool
B. on the second LUN in each storage pool
C. on the local drive of the metadata controller
D. on the first storage pool you added to the volume
E. on the second storage pool you added to the volume

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
If you create multiple storage pools in a volume but do not use affinities, you should ensure that all the storage pools ________.
A. have different RAID levels
B. contain metadata and journaling data
C. provide the same data transfer rate to the user
D. appear as separate folders on the Xsan volume
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
In an Xsan implementation, what TWO types of devices are connected to a Fibre Channel switch?
A. ISLs
B. SFPs
C. LUNs
D. targets
E. initiators

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
The aggregate bandwidth of a Fibre Channel fabric ________.
A. is 2 Gb/s (half duplex)
B. increases as nodes are added
C. decreases as nodes are added
D. cannot exceed 3200 MB/s (half duplex)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You have created an Xsan volume with multiple storage pools, but no affinities. When you save a file to the Xsan volume, what governs the file’s physical storage destination?
A. the volume’s stripe breadth
B. the volume’s allocation strategy
C. the volume’s block allocation size
D. the storage pools’ configured access control lists

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
You want to host three SAN volumes on an Xsan controller. What is the minimum amount of RAM that Apple recommends you install in the controller?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.
A. 512 megabytes
B. 1.5 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 3 gigabytes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which THREE of these are valid directory domains for Xsan deployments in an environment that includes Windows computers running StorNext, and Mac OS X computers running Xsan?
A. NetInfo
B. etc/hosts
C. Active Directory
D. Network Information Service (NIS)
E. Open Directory configured as a replica
F. Windows NT primary domain controller (PDC)
G. Open Directory configured as a primary domain controller (PDC)
Correct Answer: CFG QUESTION 56
Xsan volume names can be no longer than ________ characters.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 70
D. 256

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
The image above shows a portion of an Xsan Admin pane. What is DELPHI, and what is its status?

A. DELPHI is a LUN in the Xsan volume, CAPRICA. DELPHI is running.
B. DELPHI is a LUN in the Xsan volume, CAPRICA. DELPHI is not running.
C. DELPHI is an Xsan volume in the SAN, CAPRICA. DELPHI is not running.
D. DELPHI is an Xsan storage pool in the Xsan volume, CAPRICA. DELPHI is running.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
In Fibre Channel terminology, the physical media that connect ports together in a SAN are called ________.
A. links
B. nodes
C. fibres
D. channels

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which file contains the IP addresses of all metadata controllers?
A. fsmlist
B. fsname
C. fsmservers
D. fsnameservers

Correct Answer: D

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-211 Cert, Sale Latest 3Com 3M0-211 Certification Exams With New Discount

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QUESTION 41
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
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A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 42
Which three are Smart IP Switch 40×0 family features? (Choose three)
A. Switch can function as a DHCP or BootP server
B. Supports both manual and automatic IP configuration
C. Uses SNMP trap to verify the availability of IP address pool.
D. Can select a random IP address from default assress range
E. Can receive an IP address from either a DHCP or BootP server
F. Network manager must release any automatically assigned address before the switch can be manually configured

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 43
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR)
E. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which two are valid XRN Fabric configurations? (Choose two)
A. Switch 4050 and Switch 4070
B. Switch 4060 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4950
C. Switch 4007 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4400
D. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
E. Switch 4050 and Switch 4060,Swicth 4070 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 45
Which two 3Com switch families can currently be used to create an XRN Distributed Fabric (DF)? (Choose two)
A. 3Com Swicth 40×0 family
B. 3Com Swicth 4005 family
C. 3Com Swicth 4007 family
D. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4400 family
E. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4900 family

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 46
Which two components are required to create a geographically distributed XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches)?(Choose two)
A. 4-port GBIC module
B. 3Com Network Supervisor
C. XRN Fabric Interconnect Modules
D. High-Bandwidth Interconnect Cable
E. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V4.X

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 47
What is minimum requirement to support the Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is support by every switch
B. At least two switches must be stacked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
What is the procedure for upgrading a SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 SE to the enhanced switch feature set?
A. Enter the software upgrade code obtained from 3Com and reboot the switch
B. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to TFTP server on the same subnet as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch, reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
C. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to a TFTP server on the same network as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch reboot the switch when the Power LED stops Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing flashing
D. Purchase and obtain activation key for the Switch 4400 Enhanced Software Upgrade from 3Com using Command Line Interface (CLI) entry “system license add” enter activation key confirm.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Which three Physical Layer components should you check when either the Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 is having a connection problem? (Choose three)
A. Link LEDs
B. Switch ARP tables
C. Switch VLAN assignments
D. MAC address for the link
E. RX error statistics for link
F. Link Speed, duplex mode and flow control

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 50
Which three may be the cause of a Switch 7700 Network Layer 3 problem? (Choose three)
A. The switch trunk ports are not properly configured
B. The RIP versions are not the same between switches
C. The switches is not sending and receiving rout ipdates
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the switch
E. The MAC address table “aging parameter” is set too high
F. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is not properly configured on the switch

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 51
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700?
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(Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 54
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link

Correct Answer: BCDF

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